Module 1 Quiz | ITE-249-02 Introduction to Information Security

18. Which of the following is not an issue with patching? a. Delays in patching OSs b. Patches address zero-day vulnerabilities c. Difficulty patching firmware d. Few patches exist for application software

b. Patches address zero-day vulnerabilities

19. Which of the following is not a recognized attack vector? a. Social media b. Supply chain c. On-prem d. Email

c. On-prem

7. Luna is reading a book about the history of cybercrime. She read that the very first cyberattacks that occurred were mainly for what purpose? a. Fame b. Fortune c. Personal security d. Financial gain

a. Fame

11. Which of the following groups have the lowest level of technical knowledge? a. Script kiddies b. State actors c. Insiders d. Hactivists

a. Script kiddies

1. After Bella earned her security certification, she was offered a promotion. As she reviewed the job responsibilities, she saw that in this position she will report to the CISO and will be a supervisor over a group of security technicians. Which of these generally recognized security positions has she been offered? a. Security technician b. Security manager c. Security officer d. Security administrator

b. Security manager

12. Which of the following groups use Advanced Persistent Threats? a. Brokers b. Criminal syndicates c. State actors d. Shadow IT

c. State actors

5. Which of the following is not used to describe those who attack computer systems? a. Hacker b. Attacker c. Threat actor d. Malicious agent

d. Malicious agent

4. Which of the following of the CIA Triad ensures that the information is correct, and no unauthorized person has altered it? a. Integrity b. Assurance c. Confidentiality d. Availability

a. Integrity

15. Which tool is most commonly associated with state actors? a. Closed-Source Resistant and Recurrent Malware (CSRRM) b. Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) c. Unlimited Harvest and Secure Attack (UHSA) d. Network Spider and Worm Threat (NSAWT)

b. Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)

20. What is the category of threat actors that sell their knowledge of vulnerabilities to other attackers or governments? a. Competitors b. Brokers c. Resource managers d. Cyberterrorists

b. Brokers

8. Which of the following ensures that only authorized parties can view protected information? a. Integrity b. Confidentiality c. Availability d. Authorization

b. Confidentiality

3. Which of the following is true regarding the relationship between security and convenience? a. Security and convenience are inversely proportional. b. Security is less importance than convenience. c. Security and convenience are equal in importance. d. Security and convenience have no relationship.

a. Security and convenience are inversely proportional.

16. What is the term used to describe the connectivity between an organization and a third party? a. System integration b. Resource migration c. Network layering d. Platform support

a. System integration

2. Which of the following is false about the CompTIA Security+ certification? a. Security+ is one of the most widely acclaimed security certifications. b. Security+ is internationally recognized as validating a foundation level of security skills and knowledge. c. Professionals who hold the Security+ certification earn about the same or slightly less than security professionals who have not achieved this certification. d. The Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential.

c. Professionals who hold the Security+ certification earn about the same or slightly less than security professionals who have not achieved this certification.

6. Which of the following is not true regarding security? a. Security is a goal. b. Security is a process. c. Security is a war that must be won at all costs. d. Security includes the necessary steps to protect from harm.

c. Security is a war that must be won at all costs.

13. Which of the following is not a reason why a legacy platform has not been updated? a. Limited hardware capacity b. An application only operates on a specific OS version c. Neglect d. No compelling reason for any updates

a. Limited hardware capacity

17. What is an objective of state-sponsored attackers? a. To amass fortune over of fame b. To sell vulnerabilities to the highest bidder c. To spy on citizens d. To right a perceived wrong

c. To spy on citizens

9. Which type of hacker will probe a system for weaknesses and then privately provide that information back to the organization? a. Black hat hackers b. Gray hat hackers c. White hat hackers d. Red hat hackers

c. White hat hackers

10. Complete this definition of information security: That which protects the integrity, confidentiality, and availability of information _____. a. through a long-term process that results in ultimate security b. through products, people, and procedures on the devices that store, manipulate, and transmit the information c. using both open-sourced as well as supplier-sourced hardware and software that interacts appropriately with limited resources d. on electronic digital devices and limited analog devices that can connect via the Internet or through a local area network

b. through products, people, and procedures on the devices that store, manipulate, and transmit the information

14. How do vendors decide which should be the default settings on a system? a. Those settings that provide the means by which the user can immediately begin to use the product. b. The default settings are always mandated by industry standards. c. There is no reason behind why specific default settings are chosen. d. Those that are the most secure are always the default settings.

d. Those that are the most secure are always the default settings.