Mother Baby Final chapters 1-4 questions

A 24-year-old client is brought to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and fatigue. On assessment, the nurse notes cool, clammy skin; confusion; and vital signs as the following: HR 130, RR 28, and BP 98/60 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse prioritize? A. Rule out shock B. Rule out pregnancy C. Attach external fetal monitoring D. Perform basic lab work

A

A nursing instructor explains to students that, regardless of their gestational age, all newborns experience the same pattern that includes which periods? Select all that apply. A. First period of reactivity B. Period of increased responsiveness C. Period of decreased responsiveness D. Second period of reactivity E. Third period of reactivity

A, C, D

A client appears to be resting comfortably 12 hours after giving birth to her first child. In contrast, she labored for more than 24 hours, the primary care provider had to use forceps to deliver the baby, and she had multiple vaginal examinations during labor. Based on this information what postpartum complication is the client at risk for developing? A. Hemorrhage B. Infection C. Depression D. Pulmonary emboli

B

A multigravida client is concerned that she may deliver early. When asking the nurse what is the earliest her baby can be delivered and survive, which time frame would the nurse point out? A. The end of the second trimester B. The end of the first trimester C. The end of the third trimester D. The end of the fourth trimester

A

A multigravida client is pregnant for the third time. Her previous two pregnancies ended in an abortion in the first and third month of pregnancy. How will the nurse classify her pregnancy history? A. G3P0A2T0 B. G2P0A2T0 C. G2P1A2T2 D. G3P0A2T1

A

A nurse is assessing a newborn five minutes after birth and notes: HR 110 bpm; a good, strong cry; well flexed extremities; grimacing when slapped on the sole of the foot; and normal pigment in most of the body, with blue hands and feet. What Apgar score will the nurse document for this infant? A. 8 B. 9 C. 7 D. 6

A

A nurse is conducting a class on gestational diabetes for a group of pregnant women who are at risk for the condition. The nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the class identifies which complication as affecting the neonate? A. Hyperglycemia B. Macrosomia C. Hypoglycemia D. Birth trauma

A

A nurse is describing the many changes a newborn will go through during his or her first couple of weeks after birth. The nurse explains how the functions of the placenta are taken over by which organ? A. Liver B. Intestine C. Cardiovascular system D. Kidneys

A

A nurse is explaining to a pregnant client about the changes occurring in the body in preparation for labor. Which hormone would the nurse include in the explanation as being responsible for causing the pelvic connective tissue to become more relaxed and elastic? A. Relaxin B. Progesterone C. Oxytocin D. Prolactin

A

A nurse working in the newborn nursery hears an innocent murmur on auscultation of a 24-hour-old infant's chest. The nurse recognizes this as most likely the result of which condition? A. Delayed fetal shunt closure B. Dysfunctional foramen ovale C. Congenital defect D. Attached umbilical cord stump

A

A pregnant client at 24 weeks' gestation arrives in the office and reports that her feet and legs swelling. During a client evaluation, the nurse notes that she can elicit a 4-mm skin depression that disappears in 10 to 15 seconds. The client is considered at risk for preeclampsia. What additional assessment would be beneficial for the nurse to complete? A. Weight gain B. Urine culture C. Complete blood count D. Fundal height

A

The nurse is assisting a primigravid on calculating the due date of her baby using Naegele's rule. The most important information provided by the mother is: A. the first day of the last menstrual period. B. the ovulation date between her periods. C. the date that intercourse occurred. D. the last day of her menstrual period.

A

A nurse is describing a neonate's immune system to a new mother who is breastfeeding her neonate. The nurse would include a discussion of which immunoglobulin as being most abundant? A. IgM B. IgG C. IgE D. IgA

B

A postpartum client is prescribed medication therapy as part of the treatment plan for postpartum hemorrhage. Which medication would the nurse expect to administer in this situation? A. Magnesium sulfate B. Methylergonovine C. Indomethacin D. Nifedipine

B

The nurse is caring for a nullipara client at 40 weeks' gestation. After assessing the client, the health care provider states that the fetus is at a -4 station. Which statement by the client requires clarification by the nurse? A. "The health care provider states my labor is imminent." B. "The health care provider will reassess me next week, if I make it." C. "I hope that the end of my pregnancy will be uneventful." D. "I will go home and pack my bag and await the labor process to begin."

A

To assess the frequency of a woman's labor contractions, the nurse would time: A. the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next. B. the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next. C. the interval between the acme of two consecutive contractions. D. how many contractions occur in 5 minutes.

A

While assessing a newborn, the nurse notes that half the body appears red while the other half appears pale. The nurse interprets this finding as: A. Harlequin sign B. Stork bites C. Mongolian spots D. Erythema toxicum

A

A woman in labor is to receive continuous internal electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse prepares the client for this monitoring based on the understanding that which criterion must be present? A. Intact membranes B. Cervical dilation of 2cm or more C. Floating presenting fetal part D. A neonatologist to insert the electrode

B

Cystic fibrosis is an example of which type of inheritance? a. Autosomal dominant b. Autosomal recessive c. X-linked recessive d. Multifactorial

B

During the fourth stage of labor, which mother typically experiences the strongest afterpains? A. The primigravid who delivers a 6 lb (2,688 g) newborn B. A multipara who is breast-feeding C. A primigravid whose breast milk has not come in D. A multigravid with twins who decided to formula feed

B

The heart rate of the newborn in the first few minutes after birth will be in which range? A. 120 - 130 B. 110 - 160 C. 180 - 220 D. 80 - 120

B

The nurse is caring for a client with an ectopic pregnancy. Which symptom is a sign that the tube has ruptured? A. Foul-smelling discharge B. Hypovolemic shock C. Pelvic pain D. Vaginal spotting

B

The nursing instructor is leading a discussion on the physical changes to a woman's body after the birth of the baby. The instructor determines the session is successful after the students correctly point out which process results in the return of nonpregnant size and function of the female organs? A. Evolution B. Involution C. Decrement D. Progression

B

The nursing student is preparing a pamphlet that will illustrate the various hormones involved with a pregnancy. Which hormone should the nurse indicate is responsible for the let-down of breast milk in this pamphlet? A. Progesterone B. Oxytocin C. Prolactin D. Estrogen

B

When planning care for a postpartum client, the nurse is aware that which site is the most common for postpartum infection? A. In the respiratory tract B. In the GU tract C. In the GI tract D. Within the blood stream

B

The nurse is teaching a group of parents about the similarities and differences between newborn skin and adult skin. Which statement by the group indicates that additional teaching is needed? A. "The newborn's skin and that of an adult are similar in thickness." B. "The newborn's sweat glands function fully, just like those of an adult." C. "Skin development in the newborn is not complete at birth." D. "The newborn has fewer fibrils connecting the dermis and epidermis."

B

The nurse places a warmed blanket on the scale when weighing a newborn to minimize heat loss via which mechanism? A. Evaporation B. Conduction C. Convection D. Radiation

B

A client in her 39th week of gestation arrives at the maternity clinic stating that earlier in her pregnancy, she experienced shortness of breath. However, for the past few days, she has been able to breathe easily, but she has also begun to experience increased urinary frequency. A nurse is assigned to perform the physical examination of the client. Which observation is most likely? A. Fundal height has dropped since the last recording. B. Fundal height is at its highest level at the xiphoid process. C. The fundus is at the level of the umbilicus and measures 20 cm. D. The lower uterine segment and cervix have softened.

A

A client asks about a child inheriting an autosomal recessive disorder. What must occur for an offspring to demonstrate signs and symptoms of the disorder with this type of inheritance? A Both parents must be carriers B. One parent must have the disease C. One parent, usually the mother, must be a carrier D. One parent, usually the father, must not be a carrier or have the disease

A

A nursing instructor is conducting a session exploring the signs and symptoms of eclampsia to a group of student nurses. The instructor determines the session is successful after the students correctly choose which signs indicating eclampsia? Select all that apply. A. Proteinuria B. Hyperglycemia C. Hyperreflexia D. Blurring of vision E. Auditory hallucinations

A, C, D

The nurse is preparing the plan of care for a woman hospitalized for hyperemesis gravidarum. Which interventions would the nurse most likely include? Select all that apply. A. Maintaining NPO status for the day or two. B. Preparing the women for insertion of a feeding tube. C. Administering antiemetic agents. D. Obtaining baseline blood electrolyte levels. E. Monitoring intake and output.

A, C, D, E

The nurse is teaching a pregnant woman with iron deficiency anemia about foods high in iron. Which foods if selected by the woman indicate a successful teaching program? Select all that apply. A. Raisins B. Potatoes C. Corn D. Broccoli E. Peanut butter F. Yogurt

A, D, E

A nurse is assessing a postpartum client who is at home. Which statement by the client would lead the nurse to suspect that the client may be developing postpartum depression? A. "I just feel so overwhelmed and tired." B. "I'm feeling so guilty and worthless lately." C. "It's strange, one minute I'm happy, the next I'm sad." D. "I keep hearing voices telling me to take my baby to the river."

B

A nurse is caring for a client on the second day postpartum. The client informs the nurse that she is voiding a large volume of urine frequently. Which factor should the nurse identify as a potential cause for urinary frequency? A. Urinary overflow B. Postpartum diuresis C. Urinary tract infection D. Trauma to pelvic muscles

B

A nurse suspects that a client may be developing disseminated intravascular coagulation. The woman has a history of placental abruption (abruptio placentae) during birth. Which finding would help to support the nurse's suspicion? A. Severe uterine pain B. Board-like abdomen C. Appearance of petechiae D. Inversion of the uterus

C

A pregnant mother may experience constipation and the increased pressure in the veins below the uterus can lead to development of what problem? A. Varicose veins B. Umbilical hernia C. Hemorrhoids D. GERD

C

A pregnant woman has a rubella titer drawn on her first prenatal visit. The nurse explains that this test measures: A. Platelet level B. Rh status C. Immunity to German measles D. Red blood cell count

C

A primigravida at her 12-week prenatal visit expresses concern that she hasn't felt her baby move yet. What is the best response from the nurse? A. "Fetal movements can be felt at 13 weeks." B. "You should start to feel fetal movements within the next few weeks." C. "You usually cannot feel them until approximately 16 to 20 weeks." D. "You won't be able to feel movements until you lie down and concentrate on them."

C

A woman gave birth yesterday to a child with a cleft palate. The newborn is in the special care nursery, and the mother has seen the newborn only at birth. Which intervention would be the priority? A. Encourage the mother to care for herself. B. Review the causes of a cleft palate with the mother. C. Provide time for the mother to grieve for the loss of the perfect baby. D. Have the mother wait for a day or two to visit the child in the nursery.

C

A woman with a history of crack cocaine use disorder is admitted to the labor and birth area. While caring for the client, the nurse notes a sudden onset of fetal bradycardia. Inspection of the abdomen reveals an irregular wall contour. The client also reports acute abdominal pain that is continuous. Which condition would the nurse suspect? A. Amniotic fluid embolism B. Shoulder dystocia C. Uterine rupture D. Umbilical cord prolapse

C

The nurse notes the fetal heart rate has slowed in a woman in labor at 8 cm dilation (dilatation). Assessment reveals a prolapsed umbilical cord. Which action should the nurse prioritize? A. Turn the client on her left side B. Place the client in knee chest position C. Use fingers to press upward on the presenting part D. Prep for immediate cesarean delivery

C

When describing the role of a doula to a group of pregnant women, the nurse would include which information? A. The doula is a professionally trained nurse hired to provide physical and emotional support. B. The doula can perform any necessary clinical procedures. C. The doula primarily focuses on providing continuous labor support. D. The doula is capable of handling high-risk births and emergencies.

C

While performing a physical assessment of a newborn boy, the nurse notes diffuse edema of the soft tissues of his scalp that crosses suture lines. The nurse documents this finding as: A. Molding B. Microcephaly C. Caput succedaneum D. Cephalohematoma

C

When discussing infection prevention with a group of prenatal women, which interventions should the nurse emphasize to prevent toxoplasmosis in this population? Select all that apply. A. Apply bug spray to exposed skin every time one goes outside. B. Use condoms regularly when having sex with different partners. C. Cook meat thoroughly before eating. D. Avoid crowds of young children at day care facilities. E. Have a significant other change the litter box throughout the pregnancy.

C, E

A client has had a cesarean birth. Which amount of blood loss would the nurse document as a postpartum hemorrhage in this client? A. 500ml B. 750ml C. 1000ml D. 1250ml

D

A nurse is caring for a client who has just received an episiotomy. The nurse observes that the laceration extends through the perineal area and continues through the anterior rectal wall. How does the nurse classify the laceration? A. First degree B. Second degree C. Third degree D. Fourth degree

D

A nursing instructor is conducting a class on the topic of circumcision. The instructor determines the class needs more education when they choose which factor as an advantage for having a circumcision? A. Decreases rate of urinary tract infection B. Decreases rates of penile cancer C. Will have lower rates of sexually transmitted infection D. Decreases risks of skin dehiscence, adhesions, and urethral fistulas

D

A woman asks the nurse at a genetic counseling class what test would be the least invasive for Down syndrome. Which information would the nurse most likely include? A. Amniocentesis testing is the least invasive. B. Maternal serum sampling is presently the best option. C. Chorionic villus sampling is the least invasive. D. Fetal nuchal translucency test is the best option.

D

The nurse is teaching a discharge session to a group of postpartum clients. When asked how long to expect the bleeding, which time frame should the nurse point out? A. For 6 weeks B. One and off for 2 - 3 weeks C. Stops in 1 - 2 weeks D. In approximately 10 days

D

The nurse observes the stool of a newborn who is being bottle-fed. The newborn is 2 days old. What would the nurse expect to find? A. Greenish black, tarry stool B. Yellowish-brown, seedy tool C. Yellow-gold, stringy stool D. Yellowish-green, pasty stool

D