MS - Ch. 29: Complications from Heart Disease

Which is a cerebrovascular manifestation of heart failure?

Dizziness Cerebrovascular manifestations of heart failure include dizziness, lightheadedness, confusion, restlessness, and anxiety. Tachycardia is a cardiovascular manifestation. Ascites is a gastrointestinal manifestation. Nocturia is a renal manifestation.

Which diagnostic study is usually performed to confirm the diagnosis of heart failure?

Echocardiogram An echocardiogram is usually performed to confirm the diagnosis of heart failure. ECG, serum electrolytes, and a BUN are usually completed during the initial workup.

A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. The nurse knows that the client has left-sided heart failure when the client makes which statement?

"I sleep on three pillows each night." Orthopnea is a classic sign of left-sided heart failure. The client commonly sleeps on several pillows at night to help facilitate breathing. Swollen feet, ascites, and anorexia are signs of right-sided heart failure.

A client has been diagnosed with systolic heart failure. What percentage will the nurse expect the patient's ejection fraction to be?

30% The ejection fraction is normal in diastolic heart failure, but severely reduced in systolic heart failure. The normal EF is 55%-65%. An EF of 5% is not life sustaining and an EF of 30% is about half the normal percentage.

A client in the emergency room is in cardiac arrest and exhibiting pulseless electrical activity (PEA) on the cardiac monitor. What will be the nurse's next action?

Administer epinephrine. PEA can be caused by hypovolemia, hypoxia, hypothermia, hyperkalemia, massive pulmonary embolism, myocardial infarction, and medication overdose (beta blockers, calcium channel blockers). PEA is treated with epinephrine according to advanced life support protocol. Applying oxygen or analyzing an arterial blood gas will not change the client's heart rhythm. PEA is treated until there is no change in the client's rhythm after treatments.

The nurse understands that a client with which cardiac arrhythmia is most at risk for developing heart failure?

Atrial fibrillation Cardiac dysrhythmias such as atrial fibrillation may either cause or result from heart failure; in both instances, the altered electrical stimulation impairs myocardial contraction and decreases the overall efficiency of myocardial function.

A client with heart failure is having a decrease in cardiac output. What indication does the nurse have that this is occurring?

Blood pressure 80/46 mm Hg The body can compensate for changes in heart function that occur over time. When cardiac output falls, the body uses certain compensatory mechanisms designed to increase stroke volume and maintain blood pressure. These compensatory mechanisms can temporarily improve the client's cardiac output but ultimately fail when contractility is further compromised. A heart rate of 72 beats/minute is within normal range as well as the respiratory rate and oxygen saturation.

A patient in severe pulmonary edema is being intubated by the respiratory therapist. What priority action by the nurse will assist in the confirmation of tube placement in the proper position in the trachea?

Call for a chest x-ray. A chest x-ray is always obtained after ET tube placement to confirm that the tube is in the proper position within the trachea.

A client is exhibiting digitalis toxicity. Which of the following medications would the nurse expect to be ordered for this client?

Digoxin immune FAB Digibind binds with digoxin and makes it unavailable for use. The digibind dosage is based on the digoxin level and the patient's weight. Ibuprofen, warfarin, and amlodipine are not used to reverse the effects of digoxin.

A nurse finds a client with absent breathing and prepares to begin one-person cardiopulmonary resuscitation. What will the nurse do first?

Establish unresponsiveness. The correct sequence begins with establishing unresponsiveness. The nurse should then call for help, assess the client for breathing while opening the airway, deliver two breaths, and check for a carotid pulse.

Which New York Heart Association classification of heart failure has a poor prognosis and includes symptoms of cardiac insufficiency at rest?

IV Symptoms of cardiac insufficiency at rest are classified as IV, according to the New York Heart Association Classification of Heart Failure. In class I, ordinary activity does not cause undue fatigue, dyspnea, palpitations, or chest pain. In class II, ADLs are slightly limited. In class III, ADLs are markedly limited.

A client is admitted to the hospital with systolic left-sided heart failure. The nurse knows to look for which assessment finding for this client?

Pulmonary congestion When the left ventricle cannot effectively pump blood out of the ventricle into the aorta, the blood backs up into the pulmonary system and causes congestion, dyspnea, and shortness of breath. All the other choices are symptoms of right-sided heart failure. They are all symptoms of systolic failure.

While auscultating the heart sounds of a client with heart failure, the nurse hears an extra heart sound immediately after the second heart sound (S2). How should the nurse document this sound?

a third heart sound (S3). An S3 is heard following an S2, which commonly occurs in clients experiencing heart failure and results from increased filling pressures. An S1 is a normal heart sound made by the closing of the mitral and tricuspid valves. An S4 is heard before an S1 and is caused by resistance to ventricular filling. A murmur is heard when there is turbulent blood flow across the valves.

The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. What sign will lead the nurse to suspect right-sided heart failure?

ascites Right-sided heart failure is characterized by signs of circulatory congestion, such as leg edema, jugular vein distention, ascites, and hepatomegaly. Left-sided heart failure is characterized by circumoral cyanosis, crackles, and a productive cough. Mixed heart failures can have all symptoms of right and left plus cool extremities, resting tachycardia, and weight gain.

The nurse is admitting a client with heart failure. What client statement indicates that fluid overload was occurring at home?

"I'm having trouble going up the steps during the day." Difficulty with activities like climbing stairs is an indication of a lessened ability to exercise. Eating small meals and not using salt are usually indicated for clients with heart failure. The client's assertion about morning being the best time of day is a vague statement.

A nurse is caring for a client with left-sided heart failure. During the nurse's assessment, the client is wheezing, restless, tachycardic, and has severe apprehension. The clients reports that these symptoms came on suddenly. The nurse knows that these are symptoms of what condition?

Acute pulmonary edema Clients with acute pulmonary edema exhibit sudden dyspnea, wheezing, orthopnea, restlessness, cough (often productive of pink, frothy sputum), cyanosis, tachycardia, and severe apprehension. These symptoms do not indicate progressive heart failure, pulmonary hypertension, or cardiogenic shock.

A client arrives at the ED with an exacerbation of left-sided heart failure and reports shortness of breath. Which is the priority nursing action?

Assess oxygen saturation The nurse's priority action is to assess oxygen saturation to determine the severity of the exacerbation. It is important to assess the oxygen saturation in a client with heart failure because below-normal oxygen saturation can be life-threatening. Treatment options vary according to the severity of the client's condition and may include supplemental oxygen, oral and IV medications, major lifestyle changes, implantation of cardiac devices, and surgical approaches. The overall goal of treatment of heart failure is to relieve symptoms and reduce the workload on the heart by reducing afterload and preload.

A patient is seen in the emergency department (ED) with heart failure secondary to dilated cardiomyopathy. What key diagnostic test does the nurse assess to determine the severity of the patient's heart failure?

B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) The BNP level is a key diagnostic indicator of HF; high levels are a sign of high cardiac filling pressure and can aid in both the diagnosis and management of HF (Institute for Clinical Systems Improvement [ICSI], 2011).

A client has been prescribed furosemide 80 mg twice daily. The asymptomatic client begins to have rare premature ventricular contractions followed by runs of bigeminy with stable signs. What action will the nurse perform next?

Check the client's potassium level. The client is asymptomatic but has had a change in heart rhythm. More information is needed before calling the health care provider. Because the client is taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic, the next action would be to check the client's potassium level. The nurse would then call the health care provider with a more complete database. The health care provider will need to be notified after the nurse checks the latest potassium level. The intake and output will not change the heart rhythm. Administering potassium requires a health care provider's order.

A client with acute pericarditis is exhibiting distended jugular veins, tachycardia, tachypnea, and muffled heart sounds. The nurse recognizes these as symptoms of what occurrence?

Excess pericardial fluid compresses the heart and prevents adequate diastolic filling. The cardinal signs of cardiac tamponade are falling systolic blood pressure, narrowing pulse pressure, rising venous pressure (increased JVD), and distant (muffled) heart sounds. Increased pericardial pressure, reduced venous return to the heart, and decreased carbon dioxide result in cardiac tamponade (e.g., compression of the heart).

Which particular area(s) should be examined to assess peripheral edema?

Feet, ankles When right-sided heart failure occurs, blood accumulates in the vessels and backs up in peripheral veins, and the extra fluid enters the tissues. Particular areas for examination are the dependent parts of the body, such as the feet and ankles. Other prominent areas prone to edema are the fingers, hands, and over the sacrum. Cyanosis can be detected by noting color changes in the lips and earlobes.

A client who has developed congestive heart failure must learn to make dietary adaptations. The client should avoid:

canned peas. There is a wide variety of foods that the client can still eat; the key is to have low-salt content. Canned vegetables are usually very high in salt or sodium, unless they have labels such as low-salt or sodium free or salt free. It is important to read food labels and look for foods that contain less than 300 mg sodium/serving.

A nurse caring for a client recently admitted to the ICU observes the client coughing up large amounts of pink, frothy sputum. Lung auscultation reveals coarse crackles in the lower lobes bilaterally. Based on this assessment, the nurse recognizes this client is developing

decompensated heart failure with pulmonary edema. The production of large quantities of frothy sputum, which is sometimes pink or tan (blood tinged), indicates acute decompensated heart failure with pulmonary edema. These signs can be confused with those of pneumonia and tuberculosis. However, auscultation reveals coarse crackles, which indicate pulmonary edema. A patient with acute COPD would have diminished lung sounds bilaterally.

The nurse is providing care to a client with cardiogenic shock requiring a intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP). What is the therapeutic effect of the IABP therapy?

decreased left ventricular workload The signs and symptoms of cardiogenic shock reflect the circular nature of the pathophysiology of HF. The therapeutic effect is decreased left ventricular workload. The IABP does not change right ventricular workload. The IABP increases perfusion to the coronary and peripheral arteries. The renal perfusion is not affected by IABP.

The nurse is teaching a client about medications prescribed for severe volume overload from heart failure. What diuretic is the first-line treatment for clients diagnosed with heart failure?

furosemide Loop diuretics such as furosemide, bumetanide, and torsemide are the preferred first-line diuretics because of their efficacy in patients with and without renal impairment. Spironolactone is a potassium diuretic. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic not used for heart failure. Metolazone is a potassium diuretic not used for first treatment for heart failure. Diuretics should never be used alone to treat HF because they don't prevent further myocardial damage.

The nurse is assessing a client with crackling breath sounds or pulmonary congestion. What is the cause of the congestion?

inadequate cardiac output Pulmonary congestion occurs and tissue perfusion is compromised and diminished when the heart, primarily the left ventricle, cannot pump blood out of the ventricle effectively into the aorta and the systemic circulation. Ascites is fluid in the abdomen, not a cause of congestion. Hepatomegaly is an enlarged liver, which does not cause crackling breath sounds. Nocturia, or voiding at night, does not cause crackling breath sounds.

The nurse is assigned to care for a client with heart failure. What medication does the nurse anticipate administering that will improve client symptoms as well as increase survival?

lisinopril Several medications are routinely prescribed for heart failure (HF), including angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors such as lisinopril, beta-blockers, and diuretics such as bumetanide. Many of these medications, particularly ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers, improve symptoms and extend survival. Others, such as diuretics, improve symptoms but may not affect survival. Calcium channel blockers such as diltiazem are no longer recommended for patients with HF because they are associated with worsening failure. Cholestyramine is used to lower cholesterol.

A nurse reviews the client's medical record and reads in the progress notes that the client has decreased left ventricular function. What assessment will validate the diagnosis?

orthopnea Decreased left ventricular function would be characterized by orthopnea, dyspnea, anorexia, bibasilar rales not cleared with coughing, and resting tachycardia.

A client with a history of an anterior wall myocardial infarction is being transferred from the coronary care unit (CCU) to the cardiac step-down unit (CSU). While giving a report to the CSU nurse, the CCU nurse says, "His pulmonary artery wedge pressures have been in the high normal range." What additional assessment information would be important for the CSU nurse to obtain?

pulmonary crackles High pulmonary artery wedge pressures are diagnostic for left-sided heart failure. With left-sided heart failure, pulmonary edema can develop causing pulmonary crackles. In left-sided heart failure, hypotension may result and urine output will decline. Dry mucous membranes aren't directly associated with elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressures.

A client who was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of thrombophlebitis 1 day ago suddenly reports chest pain and shortness of breath and is visibly anxious. The nurse immediately assesses the client for other signs and symptoms of

pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a potentially life-threatening disorder typically caused by blood clots in the lungs. This disorder poses a particular threat to people with cardiovascular disease. Blood clots that form in the deep veins of the legs and embolize to the lungs can cause a pulmonary infarction, whereby emboli mechanically obstruct the pulmonary vessels, cutting off the blood supply to sections of the lung. Clinical indicators of pulmonary embolism can vary but typically include dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachypnea.

A client with chronic heart failure is receiving digoxin 0.25 mg by mouth daily and furosemide 20 mg by mouth twice daily. The nurse should assess the client for what sign of digoxin toxicity?

visual disturbances. Digoxin toxicity may cause visual disturbances (e.g., flickering flashes of light, colored or halo vision, photophobia, blurring, diplopia, and scotomata), central nervous system abnormalities (e.g., headache, fatigue, lethargy, depression, irritability and, if profound, seizures, delusions, hallucinations, and memory loss), and cardiovascular abnormalities (e.g., abnormal heart rate, arrhythmias). Digoxin toxicity doesn't cause taste and smell alterations. Dry mouth and urine retention typically occur with anticholinergic agents, not inotropic agents such as digoxin. Nocturia and sleep disturbances are adverse effects of furosemide — especially if the client takes the second daily dose in the evening, which may cause diuresis at night.