ms prepu 48: Management of Patients with Kidney Disorders

The client with polycystic kidney disease asks the nurse, "Will my kidneys ever function normally again?" The best response by the nurse is:

"As the disease progresses, you will most likely require renal replacement therapy." Explanation: There is no cure for polycystic kidney disease. Medical management includes therapies to control blood pressure, urinary tract infections, and pain. Renal replacement therapy is indicated as the kidneys fail.

The nurse is caring for a client who underwent a kidney transplant. The client appears anxious and tearful and states, "My body is going to reject the new kidney; I know I'm going to die." What is the best response by the nurse?

"I understand your concerns, let's talk about them." Explanation: The nurse must address the client's concerns and encourage the client to express any concerns. The rejection of a transplanted kidney is of great concern to the client, the family, and the health care team for many months. An important nursing function is the assessment of the client's stress and coping. The nurse uses each visit with the client to determine if the client and family are coping effectively and if the client is adhering to the prescribed medication regimen. If indicated or requested, the nurse refers the client for counseling. The other responses are non-therapeutic.

An investment banker with chronic renal failure informs the nurse of the choice for continuous cyclic peritoneal dialysis. Which is the best response by the nurse?

"This type of dialysis will provide more independence." Explanation: Once a treatment choice has been selected by the client, the nurse should support the client in that decision. Continuous cyclic peritoneal dialysis will provide more independence for this client and supports the client's decision for treatment mode. The risk of peritonitis is greater, and symptoms should be discussed as part of the management of the disorder. Peritoneal dialysis is an effective method of dialysis for many clients.

The nurse is caring for a patient that has developed oliguria. Oliguria is defined as urine output less than ___________mL/kg/hr.

0.5 Explanation: Oliguria is defined as urine output less than 0.5 mL/kg/hr.

The nurse notes that a patient who is retaining fluid had a 1-kg weight gain. The nurse knows that this is equivalent to about how many mL?

1,000 mL Explanation: The most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain in an acutely ill patient is weight. An accurate daily weight must be obtained and recorded. A 1-kg weight gain is equal to 1,000 mL of retained fluid.

The nurse weighs a patient daily and measures urinary output every hour. The nurse notices a weight gain of 1.5 kg in a 74-kg patient over 48 hours. The nurse is aware that this weight gain is equivalent to the retention of:

1,500 mL of fluid Explanation: A 1-kg weight gain is equal to 1,000 mL of retained fluid.

At the end of five peritoneal exchanges, a patient's fluid loss was 500 mL. How much is this loss equal to?

1.0 lb Explanation: The most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain in an acutely ill patient is weight. An accurate daily weight must be obtained and recorded. A 1-kg (2-lb) weight loss is equal to 1,000 mL.

A client with chronic kidney disease weighs 209 lbs (95 kg) and is prescribed 1.2 grams of protein per kg per day. Which amount of protein will the client ingest per day?

114 Explanation: To calculate the amount of protein the client is to ingest per day, first determine the client's weight in kg by dividing the weight in lbs by 2.2 or 209/2.2 = 95 kg. Then multiply the client's weight in kg by 1.2 or 95 x 1.2 = 114 grams. The client is to ingest 114 grams of protein per day.

The nurse is able to identify which condition as uremia?

An excess of urea in the blood Explanation: Uremia is an excess of urea and other nitrogenous wastes in the blood. Azotemia is the concentration of nitrogenous wastes in the blood. Hematuria is blood in the urine. Proteinuria is protein in the urine. Hyperproteinemia is an excess of protein in the blood.

Which of the following is a term used to describe excessive nitrogenous waste in the blood, as seen in acute glomerulonephritis?

Azotemia Explanation: The primary presenting features of acute glomerulonephritis are hematuria, edema, azotemia (excessive nitrogenous wastes in the blood), and proteinuria (>3 to 5 g/day). Bacteremia is excessive bacteria in the blood.

The presence of prerenal azotemia is a probable indicator for hospitalization for CAP. Which of the following is an initial laboratory result that would alert a nurse to this condition?

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)-to-creatinine ratio (BUN:Cr) >20. Explanation: The normal BUN:Cr ratio is less than 15. Prerenal azotemia is caused by hypoperfusion of the kidneys due to a nonrenal cause. Over time, higher than normal blood levels of urea or other nitrogen-containing compounds will develop.

The client with chronic renal failure complains of intense itching. Which assessment finding would indicate the need for further nursing education?

Brief, hot daily showers Explanation: Hot water removes more oils from the skin and can increase dryness and itching. Tepid water temperature is preferred in the management of pruritus. The use of moisturizing lotions and creams that do not contain perfumes can be helpful. Avoid scratching and keeping nails trimmed short is indicated in the management of pruritus.

A patient admitted with electrolyte imbalance has carpopedal spasm, ECG changes, and a positive Chvostek sign. What deficit does the nurse suspect the patient has?

Calcium Explanation: Calcium deficit is associated with abdominal and muscle cramps, stridor, carpopedal spasm, hyperactive reflexes, tetany, positive Chvostek's or Trousseau's sign, tingling of fingers and around mouth, and ECG changes.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a medical history of untreated CKD that has progressed to ESKD. Which of the following serum values and associated signs and symptoms will the nurse expect the patient to exhibit? Select all that apply. Magnesium 1.5 mg/dL; mood changes and insomnia Calcium 7.5 mg/dL; hypotension and irritability Chloride 90 mEq/L; irritability and seizures Potassium 6.4 mEq/L; dysrhythmias and abdominal distention Phosphate 5.0 mg/dL; tachycardia and nausea and emesis

Calcium 7.5 mg/dL; hypotension and irritability Potassium 6.4 mEq/L; dysrhythmias and abdominal distention Phosphate 5.0 mg/dL; tachycardia and nausea and emesis Explanation: Decreased calcium, increased potassium, and increased phosphate levels are associated with ESKD, along with the signs and symptoms associated with these serum values. Decreased magnesium and chloride levels are not associated with ESKD.

When caring for the patient with acute glomerulonephritis, which of the following assessment findings should the nurse anticipate?

Cola-colored urine Explanation: Cola-colored urine is a typical symptom of glomerulonephritis. Flank pain on the affected side, not left upper quadrant pain, would be present. Pyuria is a symptom of pyelonephritis, not glomerulonephritis. Blood pressure typically elevates in glomerulonephritis.

The nurse expects which of the following assessment findings in the client in the diuretic phase of acute renal failure?

Dehydration Explanation: The diuretic phase of acute renal failure is characterized by increased urine output, hypotension, and dehydration.

The client with chronic kidney disease is exhibiting signs of anemia. Which is the best nursing rationale for this symptom?

Diminished erythropoietin production Explanation: Erythropoietin is a hormone produced in the kidneys, and this production is inadequate in chronic renal failure, which results in anemia. Azotemia, impaired immune response, and electrolyte imbalance are associated with chronic renal failure but not indicated with anemia.

A client is in end-stage chronic renal failure and is being added to the transplant list. The nurse explains to the client how donors are found for clients needing kidneys. Which statement is accurate?

Donors are selected from compatible living or deceased donors. Explanation: Donors are selected from compatible living donors. Donors do not have to be relatives as long as they are compatible. Potential donors with a history of hypertension, malignant disease, or diabetes are excluded from donation. Each local hospital does not have its own transplant list, instead the client will be placed on a national computerized transplant waiting list.

Which nursing assessment finding indicates that the client who has undergone renal transplant has not met expected outcomes?

Explanation: Fever is an indicator of infection or transplant rejection.

A patient undergoing a CT scan with contrast has a baseline creatinine level of 3 mg/dL, identifying this patient as at a high risk for developing kidney failure. What is the most effective intervention to reduce the risk of developing radiocontrast-induced nephropathy (CIN)?

Hydrating with saline intravenously before the test Explanation: Radiocontrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) is a major cause of hospital-acquired AKI. This is a potentially preventable condition. Baseline levels of creatinine greater than 2 mg/dL identify patients at high risk. Limiting the patient's exposure to contrast agents and nephrotoxic medications will reduce the risk of CIN (Murphy & Byrne, 2010; Rank, 2013). Administration of N-acetylcysteine and sodium bicarbonate before and during procedures reduces risk, but prehydration with saline is considered the most effective method to prevent CIN (Murphy & Byrne, 2010; Rank, 2013).

A client with chronic kidney disease reports generalized bone pain and tenderness. Which assessment finding would alert the nurse to an increased potential for the development of spontaneous bone fractures?

Hyperphosphatemia Explanation: Osteodystrophy is a condition in which the bone becomes demineralized due to hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia. In an effort to raise blood calcium levels, the parathyroid glands secrete more parathormone. Elevated creatinine, urea, nitrogen, and potassium levels are expected in chronic renal failure and do not contribute to bone fractures.

The nurse is caring for a patient after kidney surgery. What major danger should the nurse closely monitor for?

Hypovolemic shock caused by hemorrhage Explanation: If bleeding goes undetected or is not detected promptly, the patient may lose significant amounts of blood and may experience hypoxemia. In addition to hypovolemic shock due to hemorrhage, this type of blood loss may precipitate a myocardial infarction or transient ischemic attack.

What is a characteristic of the intrarenal category of acute kidney injury (AKI)?

Increased BUN Explanation: The intrarenal category of acute kidney injury (AKI) encompasses an increased BUN, increased creatinine, a low-normal specific gravity of urine, and increased urine sodium. Intrarenal AKI is the result of actual parenchymal damage to the glomeruli or kidney tubules. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN), AKI in which there is damage to the kidney tubules, is the most common type of intrinsic AKI. Characteristics of ATN are intratubular obstruction, tubular back leak (abnormal reabsorption of filtrate and decreased urine flow through the tubule), vasoconstriction, and changes in glomerular permeability. These processes result in a decrease of GFR, progressive azotemia, and fluid and electrolyte imbalances.

The nurse is caring for a patient in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI). What does the nurse know would be the daily urine output?

Less than 400 mL Explanation: The oliguria period is accompanied by an increase in the serum concentration of substances usually excreted by the kidneys (urea, creatinine, uric acid, organic acids, and the intracellular cations [potassium and magnesium]). The minimum amount of urine needed to rid the body of normal metabolic waste products is 400 mL. In this phase, uremic symptoms first appear and life-threatening conditions such as hyperkalemia develop.

For a client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), which nursing intervention is the most important?

Limiting fluid intake Explanation: During the oliguric phase of ARF, urine output decreases markedly, possibly leading to fluid overload. Limiting oral and IV fluid intake can prevent fluid overload and its complications, such as heart failure and pulmonary edema. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing is important for clients with various respiratory disorders. Promoting carbohydrate intake may be helpful in ARF but doesn't take precedence over fluid limitation. Controlling pain isn't important because ARF rarely causes pain.

A client with decreased urine output refractory to fluid challenges is evaluated for renal failure. Which condition may cause the intrinsic (intrarenal) form of acute renal failure?

Nephrotoxic injury secondary to use of contrast media Explanation: Intrinsic renal failure results from damage to the kidney, such as from nephrotoxic injury caused by contrast media, antibiotics, corticosteroids, or bacterial toxins. Poor perfusion to the kidneys may result in prerenal failure. Damage to the epithelial cells of the renal tubules results from nephrotoxic injury, not damage to the adrenal cortex. Obstruction of the urinary collecting system may cause postrenal failure.

A group of students are reviewing the phases of acute renal failure. The students demonstrate understanding of the material when they identify which of the following as occurring during the second phase?

Oliguria Explanation: During the second phase, the oliguric phase, oliguria occurs. Diuresis occurs during the third or diuretic phase. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) occurs during the first, or initiation, phase in which reduced blood flow to the nephrons leads to ATN. Restoration of glomerular function, if it occurs, occurs during the fourth, or recovery, phase.

Which of the following occurs late in chronic glomerulonephritis?

Peripheral neuropathy Explanation: Peripheral neuropathy with diminished deep tendon reflexes and neurosensory changes occur late in the disease. The patient becomes confused and demonstrates a limited attention span. An additional late finding includes evidence of pericarditis with or without a pericardial friction rub. The first indication of disease may be a sudden, severe nosebleed, a stroke, or a seizure.

What is a hallmark of the diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome?

Proteinuria Explanation: Proteinuria (predominantly albumin) exceeding 3.5 g per day is the hallmark of the diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome. Hypoalbuminemia, hypernatremia, and hyperkalemia may occur.

A nurse is reviewing the history of a client who is suspected of having glomerulonephritis. Which of the following would the nurse consider significant?

Recent history of streptococcal infection Explanation: Glomerulonephritis can occur as a result of infections from group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infections, bacterial endocarditis, or viral infections such as hepatitis B or C or human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). A history of hyperparathyroidism or osteoporosis would place the client at risk for developing renal calculi. A history of pyelonephritis would increase the client's risk for chronic pyelonephritis.

A client with renal failure is undergoing continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. Which nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for this client?

Risk for infection Explanation: The peritoneal dialysis catheter and regular exchanges of the dialysis bag provide a direct portal for bacteria to enter the body. If the client experiences repeated peritoneal infections, continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis may no longer be effective in clearing waste products. Impaired urinary elimination, Toileting self-care deficit, and Activity intolerance may be pertinent but are secondary to the risk of infection.

Which of the following would a nurse classify as a prerenal cause of acute renal failure?

Septic shock Explanation: Prerenal causes of acute renal failure include hypovolemic shock, cardiogenic shock secondary to congestive heart failure, septic shock, anaphylaxis, dehydration, renal artery thrombosis or stenosis, cardiac arrest, and lethal dysrhythmias. Ureteral stricture and prostatic hypertrophy would be classified as postrenal causes. Polycystic disease is classified as an intrarenal cause of acute renal failure.

What is used to decrease potassium level seen in acute renal failure?

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate Explanation: The elevated potassium levels may be reduced by administering cation-exchange resins (sodium polystyrene sulfonate [Kayexalate]) orally or by retention enema. Kayexalate works by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestinal tract.

The nurse is caring for a client who has undergone a nephrectomy. Which assessment finding is most important in determining nursing care for the client?

SpO2 at 90% with fine crackles in the lung bases Explanation: Altered Breathing Pattern and Ineffective Airway Clearance Risk are often challenges in caring for clients postnephrectomy due to location of incision. Nursing interventions should be directed to improve and maintain SpO2 levels at 90% or greater and keep lungs clear of adventitious sounds. Intake and output is monitored to maintain a urine output of greater than 30 mL/hour. Pain control is important and should allow for movement, deep breathing, and rest. Blood-tinged drainage from the JP tube is expected in the initial postoperative period.

A client is admitted with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. His blood pressure on admission is 74/30 mm Hg. The client is oliguric and his blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels are elevated. The physician will most likely write an order for which treatment?

Start IV fluids with a normal saline solution bolus followed by a maintenance dose. Explanation: The client is in prerenal failure caused by hypovolemia. I.V. fluids should be given with a bolus of normal saline solution followed by maintenance I.V. therapy. This treatment should rehydrate the client, causing his blood pressure to rise, his urine output to increase, and the BUN and creatinine levels to normalize. The client wouldn't be able to tolerate oral fluids because of the nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. The client isn't fluid-overloaded so his urine output won't increase with furosemide, which would actually worsen the client's condition

Hyperkalemia is a serious side effect of acute renal failure. Identify the electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing that is diagnostic for hyperkalemia.

Tall, peaked T waves Explanation: Characteristic ECG signs of hyperkalemia are tall, tented, or peaked T waves, absent P waves, and a widened QRS complex.

A nurse is caring for a client who's ordered continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which finding should lead the nurse to question the client's suitability for CAPD?

The client has a history of diverticulitis. Explanation: A history of diverticulitis contraindicates CAPD because CAPD has been associated with the rupture of diverticulum. A history of severe anemia while on hemodialysis or being on the transplant waiting list doesn't contraindicate CAPD. The client who's blind or partially blind can still learn to perform CAPD.

The nurse is providing supportive care to a client receiving hemodialysis in the management of acute kidney injury. Which statement from the nurse best reflects the ability of the kidneys to recover from acute kidney injury?

The kidneys can improve over a period of months. Explanation: The kidneys have a remarkable ability to recover from serious insult. Recovery may take 3 to 12 months. As long as recovery is continuing, there is no need to consider transplant or permanent hemodialysis. Acute kidney injury can progress to chronic renal failure.

The nurse is caring for a client with blood loss from esophageal varices. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is exhibiting signs of acute kidney injury (AKI) related to the loss of volume?

Urine output that has been <0.5 mL/kg/hr for several hours Explanation: Acute kidney injury (AKI), describes a range of acute-onset kidney disorders that can include mild impairment of kidney function progressing to acute kidney failure that requires renal replacement therapy. AKI is marked by an abrupt loss of kidney function (sudden increase of serum creatinine of 0.3 mg/dL within 48 hours or 1.5 times baseline serum creatinine over 1 week), decrease in glomerular filtration rate (GFR), and abrupt decline in urine output (<0.5 mL/kg/hr for 6 to 12 hours). Flank pain and pyuria are symptoms of pyelonephritis. Cloudy, foul-smelling urine is suggestive of a urinary tract infection.

A male client has doubts about performing peritoneal dialysis at home. He informs the nurse about his existing upper respiratory infection. Which of the following suggestions can the nurse offer to the client while performing an at-home peritoneal dialysis?

Wear a mask when performing exchanges. Explanation: The nurse should advise the client to wear a mask while performing exchanges. This prevents contamination of the dialysis catheter and tubing, and is usually advised to clients with upper respiratory infection. Auscultation of the lungs will not prevent contamination of the catheter or tubing. The client may also be advised to perform deep-breathing exercises to promote optimal lung expansion, but this will not prevent contamination. Clients with a fistula or graft in the arm should be advised against carrying heavy items.

A client with chronic renal failure (CRF) has developed faulty red blood cell (RBC) production. The nurse should monitor this client for:

fatigue and weakness. Explanation: RBCs carry oxygen throughout the body. Decreased RBC production diminishes cellular oxygen, leading to fatigue and weakness. Nausea and vomiting may occur in CRF but don't result from faulty RBC production. Dyspnea and cyanosis are associated with fluid excess, not CRF. Thrush, which signals fungal infection, and circumoral pallor, which reflects decreased oxygenation, aren't signs of CRF.

A client has been diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. This condition causes:

proteinuria. Explanation: The disruption of membrane permeability causes red blood cells (RBCs) and protein molecules to filter from the glomeruli into Bowman's capsule and eventually become lost in the urine. Pyuria is pus in the urine. Polyuria is an increased volume of urine voided.

One of the roles of the nurse in caring for clients with chronic kidney disease is to help them learn to minimize and manage potential complications. This would include:

restricting sources of potassium. Explanation: The nurse will teach the client to restrict sources of potassium, such as fresh fruits and vegetables, because hyperkalemia can cause life-threatening changes. The client will restrict sodium intake as ordered; doing so prevents fluid accumulation. Prescribed iron and folic acid supplements or Epogen should be taken; iron and folic acid supplements are needed for red blood cell (RBC) production, and Epogen stimulates the bone marrow to produce RBCs. The client will restrict protein intake to foods that are complete proteins within prescribed limits; complete proteins provide positive nitrogen balance for healing and growth.

A client diagnosed with acute kidney injury (AKI) has a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. The nurse anticipates administering:

sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) Explanation: The elevated potassium levels may be reduced by administering cation-exchange resins (sodium polystyrene sulfonate [Kayexalate]) orally or by retention enema. Kayexalate works by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestinal tract. Sorbitol may be administered in combination with Kayexalate to induce a diarrhea-type effect (it induces water loss in the GI tract). If the client is hemodynamically unstable (low blood pressure, changes in mental status, dysrhythmia), IV dextrose 50%, insulin, and calcium replacement may be administered to shift potassium back into the cells.