N120 Ch 22 EAQ

For which patient condition would the nurse withhold the prescribed timolol maleate, two drops to each eye every 12 hours, and contact the prescriber? A) Asthma B) Urinary retention C) Cluster headaches D) Chronic constipation

A) Asthma Rationale: Timolol is a beta-blocker contraindicated in patients with asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) as it can cause bronchoconstriction. It does not worsen urinary retention, headaches, or constipation.

Which intervention would the nurse implement when providing care for a patient who lost an eye after an industrial accident yesterday? A) Speak louder when talking to the patient. B) Avoid making eye contact during a conversation. C) Introduce the patient to other visually impaired persons. D) Assist the patient with the same grieving process associated with other losses.

D) Assist the patient with the same grieving process associated with other losses. Rationale: Losing an eye can be emotionally devastating. The nurse should offer support similar to other significant losses. Avoiding eye contact or speaking louder is unnecessary, and introducing visually impaired individuals may not be appropriate at this stage.

When providing preprocedure teachings for a patient with high degrees of myopia, what is the correct order for the nurse to explain the steps that the health care provider will perform in a laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis (LASIK) procedure? A flap is created in the cornea using a laser or surgical blade. The flap is folded back on the middle section, or stroma, of the cornea. Pulses from a computer-controlled laser vaporize a part of the stroma. The flap is repositioned carefully. The flap adheres on its own without sutures in a few minutes.

1 → 2 → 3 → 4 → 5 Rationale: LASIK reshapes the cornea by creating a flap, exposing the stroma, using a laser to reshape the cornea, and repositioning the flap, which heals without sutures.

Which statement by a patient with primary open-angle glaucoma indicates understanding of the disease? A) "I can stop taking my eye drops when my vision improves." B) "I will need to take eye drops for the rest of my life." C) "Surgery will cure my glaucoma completely." D) "My vision will return to normal with treatment."

B) "I will need to take eye drops for the rest of my life." Rationale: Glaucoma requires lifelong treatment to prevent further optic nerve damage. Vision loss from glaucoma is irreversible, and surgery may help manage the disease but does not cure it.

Upon request of an ophthalmic checkup, which location would the nurse place the patient when performing a visual acuity assessment using the Snellen chart? A) 6 feet away B) 20 feet away C) 24 feet away D) 30 feet away

B) 20 feet away Rationale: The distance to be maintained between the patient and the Snellen chart is 20 feet (6 meters). This chart is used to check visual acuity. Any distance closer or further will not provide an accurate assessment.

When obtaining a health history from a patient reporting decreased visual acuity, which relevant sexuality question would the nurse ask? A) "Do you use birth control pills?" B) "How many children do you have?" C) "Do you have regular periods?" D) "Do you and your partner use condoms during intercourse?"

A) "Do you use birth control pills?" Rationale: Birth control pills can cause blurred vision, double vision, or floaters. The number of children, menstrual cycle, and condom use are not relevant to vision health.

The patient with a detached retina states, "Before you patched my eye, I saw a lot of spots." Which rationale would the nurse use to explain the "spots"? A) Contamination of the eye's aqueous humor created the spots. B) The spots are blood cells released into the eye by the detached retina. C) Pieces of the retina are floating within the eye and creating the objects you see. D) Spasms of the retinal blood vessels traumatized by the detached retina caused the spots.

B) The spots are blood cells released into the eye by the detached retina. Rationale: A detached retina can cause floaters, which are blood cells released into the vitreous humor. Retinal fragments and blood vessel spasms are not the primary cause.

For which clinical manifestation would the nurse monitor the patient after a fluorescein angiography? A) Redness of the eyes B) Yellowish discoloration of the urine C) Yellowish discoloration of the skin D) Nausea and vomiting after the procedure E) Red-colored urine indicative of the presence of blood

B) Yellowish discoloration of the urine, C) Yellowish discoloration of the skin, D) Nausea and vomiting after the procedure Rationale: After fluorescein angiography, the patient may experience yellowish discoloration of the urine and skin due to the dye, as well as transient nausea or vomiting. Red urine and redness of the eyes are not expected effects.

When determining whether a patient has ocular problems, which question would the nurse ask during the patient's assessment? A) "Does your eye problem hamper your daily activities?" B) "How much do you appreciate the fact that you can see?" C) "Do you wear contact lenses? How do you care for them?" D) "How do your eye problems make you feel about yourself?" E) "Have you participated in any activity that may be harmful to your eyes?"

A) "Does your eye problem hamper your daily activities?", C) "Do you wear contact lenses? How do you care for them?", E) "Have you participated in any activity that may be harmful to your eyes?" Rationale: Assessing how vision problems affect daily activities, contact lens hygiene, and possible eye injuries helps determine ocular health. Emotional and appreciation-based questions are not the primary focus of an eye health assessment.

A nurse is teaching a patient with newly diagnosed retinitis pigmentosa. Which statement by the patient demonstrates understanding of the disease? A) "I need to take high doses of vitamin A to slow the progression." B) "This condition will improve if I wear corrective lenses." C) "This condition is temporary and will resolve in a few months." D) "I will experience sudden complete vision loss."

A) "I need to take high doses of vitamin A to slow the progression." Rationale: High doses of vitamin A may help slow the progression of retinitis pigmentosa, a genetic disorder causing gradual peripheral vision loss. It is not corrected with glasses, is not temporary, and does not cause sudden blindness.

Which finding related to primary open-angle glaucoma would the nurse expect to find when reviewing a patient's history and physical examination report? A) Absence of pain or pressure B) Eye pain accompanied with nausea and vomiting C) Blurred vision in the morning D) Seeing colored halos around lights

A) Absence of pain or pressure Rationale: Open-angle glaucoma develops gradually and painlessly, leading to unnoticed vision loss. Acute angle-closure glaucoma causes severe pain, nausea, blurred vision, and halos.

Which risk factor is associated with the development of cataracts? A) Advanced age B) History of diabetes mellitus C) Exposure to ultraviolet (UV) light D) Eating a diet high in lutein E) History of chronic open-angle glaucoma F) History of prolonged therapy with systemic corticosteroids

A) Advanced age, B) History of diabetes mellitus, C) Exposure to ultraviolet (UV) light, F) History of prolonged therapy with systemic corticosteroids Rationale: Aging, diabetes, UV exposure, and prolonged corticosteroid use increase the risk of cataracts. Lutein-rich diets help slow macular degeneration, and open-angle glaucoma does not directly increase cataract risk.

Which factor is associated with an increased risk of retinal detachment? A) Age B) Obesity C) Smoking D) Hypertension

A) Age Rationale: Retinal detachment occurs due to the separation of the sensory retina and the underlying pigment epithelium, with fluid accumulating between the two layers. Age is a major risk factor, while obesity, smoking, and hypertension are not direct causes.

When a patient describes central vision loss, for which test would the nurse provide instructions so macular function changes may be identified? A) Amsler grid test B) B-scan ultrasonography C) Fluorescein angiography D) Tonometry

A) Amsler grid test Rationale: The Amsler grid test is used to monitor macular degeneration, which is associated with central vision loss. B-scan ultrasonography diagnoses intraocular pathologies, fluorescein angiography evaluates retinal blood flow, and tonometry measures intraocular pressure.

Which clinical manifestation would the nurse document and report when suspecting a patient of having age-related macular degeneration (AMD)? A) Blurred, darkened vision B) Itching, burning, and redness C) Sudden, excruciating pain in the eye D) Decreased vision and abnormal color perception

A) Blurred, darkened vision Rationale: AMD primarily affects central vision, causing blurriness and darkened areas. Itching/burning occurs with conjunctivitis, pain is linked to acute angle-closure glaucoma, and color perception changes are more characteristic of cataracts.

Which nonsurgical management will the nurse anticipate for a patient with cataracts? A) Change in glasses prescription B) Administration of topical antibiotics C) Implement the use of contact lenses D) Application of an eye patch on the affected eye

A) Change in glasses prescription Rationale: Nonsurgical management of cataracts includes adjusting the glasses prescription to optimize vision. Antibiotics, contact lenses, and eye patches are not appropriate for managing cataracts.

Which component of a visual health history includes assessment of a patient's concern about the effect of vision loss on reading? A) Cognitive-perceptual problem B) Coping-stress tolerance component C) Self-perception-self-concept response D) Health perception-health management component

A) Cognitive-perceptual problem Rationale: Difficulty reading due to vision loss is a cognitive-perceptual issue. Coping-stress tolerance relates to emotional adjustment, self-perception focuses on self-image, and health perception assesses general awareness of visual health.

For the patient who wears contact lenses, which intervention would the nurse teach the patient when diagnosed with bacterial conjunctivitis? A) Discard all opened or used contact lenses and lens care products. B) Put all used cosmetics in a plastic bag for 1 week to kill any bacteria before reusing. C) Disinfect contact lenses by soaking in a cleaning solution for 48 hours. D) Disinfect all lens care products with prescribed antibiotic drops for 1 week post-infection.

A) Discard all opened or used contact lenses and lens care products. Rationale: Patients with bacterial conjunctivitis should discard all used contact lenses and lens care products to prevent reinfection. Simply disinfecting them is insufficient.

When assessing a patient for esotropia, which finding is clinically significant? A) Eye deviating in B) Eye deviating up C) Eye deviating out D) Eye deviating down

A) Eye deviating in Rationale: Strabismus is a condition in which the eyes cannot consistently focus on the same object. Esotropia is when one eye deviates inward, while hypertropia, exotropia, and hypotropia describe upward, outward, and downward deviations, respectively.

While performing a medication reconciliation with a newly admitted patient's home medications, the nurse notes the patient is taking pilocarpine eye drops. Which desired effect would the nurse associate with this medication? A) Facilitates aqueous humor outflow B) Reverses damage to the optic nerve C) Improves the patient's vision in dim light D) Lessens the amount of pupillary dilation E) Decreases the amount of fluid within the eye

A) Facilitates aqueous humor outflow, D) Lessens the amount of pupillary dilation Rationale: Pilocarpine is a cholinergic agent used to treat glaucoma by improving aqueous humor drainage and constricting the pupil. It does not reverse optic nerve damage or enhance night vision.

Which patient behavior suggests a potential visual impairment? A) Holding reading material at arm's length B) Rubbing eyes occasionally when tired C) Wearing sunglasses outdoors D) Blinking frequently while using a computer

A) Holding reading material at arm's length Rationale: Holding reading material at a distance suggests presbyopia or hyperopia. Rubbing eyes, wearing sunglasses, and blinking frequently are common behaviors and do not necessarily indicate a visual impairment.

The nurse is reviewing a patient's ophthalmic assessment and notes that the patient has nystagmus. Which finding is consistent with this condition? A) Involuntary, rapid eye movements B) Increased intraocular pressure C) Clouding of the lens D) Difficulty distinguishing colors

A) Involuntary, rapid eye movements Rationale: Nystagmus is characterized by involuntary, rapid eye movements. Increased intraocular pressure occurs in glaucoma, lens clouding is a sign of cataracts, and color vision issues are linked to retinal disorders.

When assessing for the presence of allergic conjunctivitis, about which clinical manifestation would the nurse ask the patient? A) Itching B) Photophobia C) Protruding eyeball D) Purulent discharge

A) Itching Rationale: Itching is the primary symptom of allergic conjunctivitis. Photophobia is associated with epidemic keratoconjunctivitis, exophthalmos is caused by hyperthyroidism, and purulent discharge occurs in bacterial conjunctivitis.

Which gerontologic finding related to assessment of the visual system would the nurse anticipate when planning care for an older adult patient? A) Loss of hair pigment B) Darkened iris pigment C) Increased tear secretion D) Increased rigidity of the lens E) Atrophy of the corneal nerves F) Increased orbital fat and muscle tone

A) Loss of hair pigment, D) Increased rigidity of the lens, E) Atrophy of the corneal nerves Rationale: Older adults commonly experience graying of eyebrows/lashes, increased lens rigidity (presbyopia), and corneal nerve atrophy. The iris pigment typically lightens, tear secretion decreases, and orbital fat/muscle tone decrease, not increase.

Which intervention would the nurse perform when administering acetazolamide to a patient with chronic glaucoma? A) Monitor the patient's electrolyte levels. B) Ask if the patient is allergic to sulfa drugs. C) Avoid use if the patient has a history of asthma. D) Caution the patient about decreased visual acuity. E) Avoid use if the patient is on high-dose aspirin therapy.

A) Monitor the patient's electrolyte levels, B) Ask if the patient is allergic to sulfa drugs, E) Avoid use if the patient is on high-dose aspirin therapy. Rationale: Acetazolamide is a diuretic that decreases aqueous humor production but can alter electrolytes and should not be given to sulfa-allergic patients or those on high-dose aspirin. Asthma is not a contraindication.

Which condition is caused by a refractive error within the eye? A) Myopia B) Cataract C) Glaucoma D) Conjunctivitis

A) Myopia Rationale: Myopia (nearsightedness) is a refractive error where close objects appear clear, but distant objects appear blurred. Cataracts, glaucoma, and conjunctivitis are visual impairments or infections, not refractive errors.

Which action would the nurse implement immediately when visiting a patient who is 2 days post-cataract surgery and reporting intense eye pain? A) Notify the surgeon. B) Administer eyedrops. C) Administer analgesics. D) Apply a cold compress.

A) Notify the surgeon. Rationale: Intense pain after cataract surgery may indicate complications like hemorrhage, infection, or increased intraocular pressure and requires immediate medical evaluation. Eye drops and analgesics do not treat these conditions.

When documenting a patient's health assessment, the nurse utilized the abbreviation PERRLA. Which finding did the nurse document? A) Pupils are round. B) The retina responds to light bilaterally. C) Lacrimal apparatus is functioning in both eyes. D) Intraocular pressure is even and within normal parameters. E) Pupils constrict when the patient focuses on a nearer object.

A) Pupils are round, E) Pupils constrict when the patient focuses on a nearer object Rationale: PERRLA stands for Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light, and Accommodation. It does not assess lacrimal function, intraocular pressure, or retina response.

A patient with advanced diabetic retinopathy asks about the purpose of laser photocoagulation. How should the nurse respond? A) "It will cure the damage to your retina and restore vision." B) "It is used to destroy abnormal blood vessels to prevent further vision loss." C) "It will reduce the pressure inside your eye to treat glaucoma." D) "It removes the cloudy areas in your lens that are affecting vision."

B) "It is used to destroy abnormal blood vessels to prevent further vision loss." Rationale: Laser photocoagulation seals leaking blood vessels in diabetic retinopathy to prevent further damage. It does not cure the disease or restore lost vision.

Which explanation would the nurse provide when a patient with a sudden decrease in vision receives a diagnosis of papilledema and asks what papilledema is? A) "Papilledema is caused by irritants and microorganisms." B) "Sustained, severe high blood pressure can cause swelling of the optic disc and nerve, resulting in papilledema." C) "This condition is caused by the development of abnormal blood vessels in or near the macula inside your eye." D) "Papilledema is fluid accumulation between two layers within the retina."

B) "Sustained, severe high blood pressure can cause swelling of the optic disc and nerve, resulting in papilledema." Rationale: Papilledema is optic nerve swelling due to increased intracranial pressure, often from hypertension. It is not caused by infections, retinal fluid accumulation, or macular degeneration.

Which statement would the nurse include when teaching a patient the pathophysiology of their open-angle glaucoma? A) "The retinal nerve is damaged by an abnormal increase in the production of aqueous humor." B) "There is decreased draining of aqueous humor in the eye, causing pressure damage to the optic nerve." C) "The lens enlarges with normal aging, pushing the iris forward, which then covers the outflow channels of the eye." D) "There is a decreased flow of aqueous humor into the anterior chamber caused by the lens of the eye blocking the pupillary opening."

B) "There is decreased draining of aqueous humor in the eye, causing pressure damage to the optic nerve." Rationale: In primary open-angle glaucoma, the outflow of aqueous humor is decreased in the trabecular meshwork, leading to increased intraocular pressure (IOP) and optic nerve damage.

Which response would the nurse use when a patient diagnosed with astigmatism asks the impact of this problem on vision health? A) "Astigmatism is a clouding of the lens causing glare problems." B) "This problem distorts your vision because the cornea is uneven." C) "Astigmatism limits visual acuity because of damage to the optic nerve." D) "The excess fluid accumulation within your eye causes elevated eye pressures."

B) "This problem distorts your vision because the cornea is uneven." Rationale: Astigmatism is caused by an irregular corneal shape that distorts vision. It is not related to lens clouding (cataracts), optic nerve damage (glaucoma), or excess fluid accumulation (glaucoma).

A patient with primary open-angle glaucoma asks how they will know if their treatment is effective. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? A) "You will notice your vision improving over time." B) "Your intraocular pressure should decrease with treatment." C) "You will no longer need to use your prescription eye drops." D) "Your night vision will improve significantly with treatment."

B) "Your intraocular pressure should decrease with treatment." Rationale: The goal of glaucoma treatment is to lower intraocular pressure to prevent further optic nerve damage. Vision loss from glaucoma is irreversible, and treatment must be continued indefinitely.

When reviewing refractive errors of the eye, which statement would the nurse identify as correct? A) Presbyopia occurs when the eyeball elongates. B) Astigmatism is caused by an irregular corneal curvature. C) Myopia is an inability to accommodate for near objects. D) Hyperopia is an inability to accommodate for objects at a distance.

B) Astigmatism is caused by an irregular corneal curvature Rationale: Astigmatism results from an uneven or irregular curvature of the cornea. Presbyopia is the loss of accommodation due to aging. Myopia (nearsightedness) affects distance vision, while hyperopia (farsightedness) affects near vision.

For which contributing factor would the nurse closely monitor in the patient experiencing retinal hemorrhages, anoxic cotton-wool spots, and macular swelling in the eye? A) Glucose level B) Blood pressure (BP) C) Intraocular pressure (IOP) D) Thyroid hormone levels

B) Blood pressure (BP) Rationale: Hypertensive retinopathy results from high blood pressure, causing retinal hemorrhages, anoxic cotton-wool spots, and macular swelling. High glucose levels affect diabetic retinopathy, IOP relates to glaucoma, and thyroid hormone affects eye protrusion (exophthalmos).

Which additional clinical manifestation would the nurse associate with the patient whose anterior cornea is cone-shaped? A) Pain B) Blurred vision C) Corneal inflammation D) Abnormal color perception

B) Blurred vision Rationale: Keratoconus causes corneal thinning and forward bulging into a cone shape, leading to blurred vision. Pain is associated with corneal ulcers, inflammation occurs in keratitis, and abnormal color perception is a symptom of cataracts.

The nurse teaches that which part of the eye becomes inflamed for the patient who develops keratitis? A) Sclera B) Cornea C) Conjunctiva D) Eyelid margins

B) Cornea Rationale: Keratitis is an infection or inflammation of the cornea. The sclera, conjunctiva, and eyelid margins are not affected in keratitis.

Which eye disorder would the nurse associate with the patient scheduled for a penetrating keratoplasty procedure? A) Retinal tears B) Corneal scars C) Chronic open-angle glaucoma D) Age-related macular degeneration

B) Corneal scars Rationale: A penetrating keratoplasty (corneal transplant) is performed to treat corneal scars caused by infection, trauma, or disease. Retinal tears, glaucoma, and macular degeneration require different treatments.

Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to identify in a patient who has ptosis secondary to myasthenia gravis? A) Redness and swelling of the conjunctiva B) Drooping of the upper lid margin in one or both eyes C) Redness, swelling, and crusting along the lid margin D) Small, superficial white nodules along the lid margin

B) Drooping of the upper lid margin in one or both eyes Rationale: Ptosis is the drooping of the upper lid margin and can be unilateral or bilateral. It can be caused by mechanical issues (eyelid tumor, excess skin) or myogenic causes like myasthenia gravis. It is not associated with redness, swelling, or nodules.

Which topic of information will the nurse include when providing teaching to a parent of a child with strabismus? A) Pain B) Focus C) Infection D) Loss of vision

B) Focus Rationale: Strabismus is a condition where a patient cannot consistently focus both eyes on the same object. It is not painful, infectious, or associated with permanent vision loss.

Which instruction would the nurse provide the patient scheduled for an Amsler grid test? A) A test card will be located 10 feet away. B) Hold the test card at a comfortable reading distance. C) Focus on the dot located in the center of the card you are holding. D) Report any abnormality, such as wavy-appearing lines. E) Change your focus to each of the four corners of the card, moving in a clockwise pattern.

B) Hold the test card at a comfortable reading distance, C) Focus on the dot located in the center of the card you are holding, D) Report any abnormality, such as wavy-appearing lines. Rationale: The Amsler grid test is self-administered to monitor macular function changes. Patients hold it at a reading distance, focus on the center dot, and report any distorted lines. The test is not performed at a distance, and patients do not shift focus around the card.

A patient is scheduled for a trabeculectomy to treat glaucoma. What is the goal of this procedure? A) Remove the damaged optic nerve. B) Improve the outflow of aqueous humor. C) Replace the lens with an artificial implant. D) Seal abnormal retinal blood vessels.

B) Improve the outflow of aqueous humor. Rationale: Trabeculectomy creates a drainage pathway to reduce intraocular pressure by improving aqueous humor outflow. The optic nerve cannot be replaced, lens implants are used in cataract surgery, and sealing abnormal blood vessels is done in laser photocoagulation for diabetic retinopathy.

When assessing four assigned patients with different refractive errors, which patient would the nurse suspect as having hyperopia? A) Inability to accommodate for objects at a distance B) Inability to accommodate for near objects C) Loss of accommodation which is associated with age D) Irregular corneal curvature

B) Inability to accommodate for near objects Rationale: Hyperopia (farsightedness) means the patient struggles with near vision but sees distant objects clearly. Myopia affects distance vision, presbyopia is age-related loss of accommodation, and astigmatism is caused by an irregular cornea.

Which visual change would the nurse expect in a patient with untreated cataracts? A) A curtain-like shadow over the visual field B) Increased sensitivity to light and glare C) Sudden loss of peripheral vision D) Colored halos around lights

B) Increased sensitivity to light and glare Rationale: Cataracts cause lens clouding, leading to glare sensitivity and blurry vision. A curtain-like shadow suggests retinal detachment, peripheral vision loss is associated with glaucoma, and colored halos are seen in acute angle-closure glaucoma.

When planning the discharge of a patient after eye surgery, which activity would the nurse instruct the patient to avoid? A) Eating B) Lifting C) Coughing D) Bending over E) Breathing deeply

B) Lifting, C) Coughing, D) Bending over Rationale: After eye surgery, activities that increase intraocular pressure, like lifting, bending, and coughing, should be avoided. Eating and breathing deeply do not impact intraocular pressure.

With which age group would the nurse associate the development of presbyopia because the eye loses flexibility and is unable to accommodate close vision? A) Adolescents and young adults B) Men and women older than 40 C) Men between the ages of 30 and 50 D) Women between the ages of 20 and 40

B) Men and women older than 40 Rationale: Presbyopia is an age-related change that generally occurs in men and women older than 40. Adolescents and young adults are not affected, and it does not exclusively impact one gender.

The nurse darkens the room, shines a penlight on the cornea, and asks the patient to follow finger movement 10 inches from the patient's nose. For which cranial nerve would the nurse evaluate weakness or paralysis? A) Facial nerve B) Oculomotor nerve C) Trochlear nerve D) Trigeminal nerve E) Abducens nerve

B) Oculomotor nerve, C) Trochlear nerve, E) Abducens nerve Rationale: Extraocular movement is assessed to evaluate cranial nerves III (oculomotor), IV (trochlear), and VI (abducens). The facial and trigeminal nerves are not involved in this test.

Which assessment would the nurse perform when completing a focused visual examination? A) Keratometry B) Peripheral vision C) Extraocular movement (EOM) D) Color vision and night vision E) Distance and near visual acuity F) PERRLA (pupils equal, round, reactive to light, and accommodation)

B) Peripheral vision, C) Extraocular movement (EOM), E) Distance and near visual acuity, F) PERRLA Rationale: A focused visual exam includes assessments of peripheral vision, extraocular movements, visual acuity, and pupil function (PERRLA). Keratometry measures corneal curvature, and color/night vision tests are performed based on specific complaints.

For the patient with severe myopia, which type of correction is scheduled when the patient states, "I can't wait to see after they implant contact lenses over my existing ones"? A) Photorefractive keratectomy (PRK) B) Phakic intraocular lenses (phakic IOLs) C) Refractive intraocular lenses (refractive IOLs) D) Laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis (LASIK)

B) Phakic intraocular lenses (phakic IOLs) Rationale: Phakic IOLs are implanted contact lenses placed in front of the natural lens for severe myopia. PRK and LASIK reshape the cornea, and refractive IOLs replace the natural lens.

Which action would the nurse take when a patient reports sudden vision loss in one eye? A) Encourage the patient to rest and reassess vision later. B) Refer the patient for an urgent ophthalmology evaluation. C) Ask the patient if they have been experiencing eye fatigue. D) Suggest the patient schedule an eye exam within the next week.

B) Refer the patient for an urgent ophthalmology evaluation. Rationale: Sudden vision loss is a medical emergency and may indicate retinal detachment, vascular occlusion, or stroke. Delaying evaluation could result in permanent vision loss.

Which condition would the nurse associate with a patient's complaint of seeing floaters and flashes of light? A) Cataracts B) Retinal detachment C) Open-angle glaucoma D) Age-related macular degeneration

B) Retinal detachment Rationale: Retinal detachment commonly causes floaters and flashes of light. Cataracts cause blurred vision, glaucoma leads to gradual vision loss, and macular degeneration affects central vision.

Which condition would the nurse document when a child has an asymmetric eye position during the visual health assessment? A) Blepharitis B) Strabismus C) Hordeolum D) Conjunctivitis

B) Strabismus Rationale: Strabismus is an eye misalignment condition where one eye deviates inward, outward, up, or down. Blepharitis is inflammation of the eyelid margin, a hordeolum is a sty, and conjunctivitis is an eye infection causing redness.

For the patient who precipitated a car accident, which visual abnormality would the nurse associate with the statement, "I hit the vehicle moving in front of me, but I thought it was far away and misjudged the distance"? A) Hyperopia affected the patient's vision. B) The patient has impaired stereopsis. C) Presbyopia may have occurred while driving. D) An abnormal response to light occurred while driving.

B) The patient has impaired stereopsis. Rationale: Stereopsis (depth perception) allows three-dimensional vision. Impaired stereopsis leads to misjudging distances, causing accidents. Hyperopia and presbyopia affect near vision, while light response issues do not impact depth perception.

Which intervention would the nurse implement to provide relief of the patient's discomfort when presenting to the clinic with a red, swollen, circumscribed, acutely tender area near the eye and in the lid margin? A) Administration of artificial tears B) Insertion of Intacs on the cornea C) Application of a warm, moist compress four times a day D) Administration of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory eye drops

C) Application of a warm, moist compress four times a day Rationale: A hordeolum (sty) is best treated with warm compresses to reduce swelling and promote drainage. Artificial tears are used for dry eyes, Intacs are for keratoconus, and NSAID drops treat inflammation but not styes.

Which causative agent is responsible for an external hordeolum on a patient's right eye? A) Virus B) Fungus C) Bacteria D) Helminth

C) Bacteria Rationale: An external hordeolum (sty) is an infection of the meibomian glands in the lid margin. The most common bacterial infective agent is Staphylococcus aureus. A sty is not caused by a virus, fungus, or helminth.

Which type of inflammation would the nurse associate with the patient's clinical manifestations of ocular pain, photophobia, decreased visual acuity, headaches, corneal edema, and reddened, swollen conjunctiva? A) Scotoma B) Blepharitis C) Endophthalmitis D) Cytomegalovirus retinitis

C) Endophthalmitis Rationale: Endophthalmitis is a severe, intraocular inflammation often caused by infection. Blepharitis affects the eyelid margins, scotomas are blind spots, and cytomegalovirus retinitis affects immunocompromised patients.

Which condition would the nurse associate with an infection of a sebaceous gland when the patient presents with a small, white, superficial nodule on the margin of the eyelid? A) Blepharitis B) Strabismus C) Hordeolum D) Conjunctivitis

C) Hordeolum Rationale: A hordeolum (sty) is an infection of the sebaceous glands in the eyelid. Blepharitis is inflammation of the eyelid margins, strabismus affects eye alignment, and conjunctivitis is an infection of the conjunctiva.

Which condition would the nurse correlate with a patient's clinical manifestations of exophthalmos and ability to view the patient's sclera above the iris when eyes are opened? A) Blepharitis B) Hordeolum C) Hyperthyroidism D) Macular disease

C) Hyperthyroidism Rationale: Exophthalmos (protruding eyeball) is commonly associated with hyperthyroidism, specifically Graves' disease. Blepharitis is eyelid inflammation, a hordeolum is a sty, and macular disease affects central vision, not eye protrusion.

Which condition will the nurse anticipate preparing a patient who presents with exophthalmos to be tested for? A) Diabetes B) Hypertension C) Hyperthyroidism D) Myasthenia gravis

C) Hyperthyroidism Rationale: Exophthalmos (protruding eyeball) is most commonly associated with hyperthyroidism. It is not directly linked to diabetes, hypertension, or myasthenia gravis.

Which explanation would the nurse use when a patient asks, "How does glaucoma damage my eyesight?" A) Glaucoma leads to detachment of the retina. B) Chronic eye inflammation and damage caused the glaucoma. C) Increased intraocular pressure (IOP) from the glaucoma causes the damage. D) Decreased blood flow to the retina occurs because of the glaucoma.

C) Increased intraocular pressure (IOP) from the glaucoma causes the damage. Rationale: Glaucoma damages eyesight by increasing intraocular pressure, which harms the optic nerve over time. It is not caused by retinal detachment, chronic inflammation, or decreased blood flow.

A patient is diagnosed with presbyopia. Which statement best describes this condition? A) It is caused by an irregular corneal shape. B) It results from increased intraocular pressure. C) It is the loss of the eye's ability to focus on near objects due to aging. D) It occurs when the retina detaches from the underlying tissue.

C) It is the loss of the eye's ability to focus on near objects due to aging. Rationale: Presbyopia is an age-related loss of near vision due to decreased lens elasticity. Astigmatism (irregular corneal shape), glaucoma (increased intraocular pressure), and retinal detachment do not cause presbyopia.

When assessing a patient's dilator muscle atrophy of the eye, which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to identify? A) Formation of cataracts B) Excessive dryness of the eyes C) Slow recovery of pupil size after light stimuli D) Changes in perception of colors, especially blue and violet

C) Slow recovery of pupil size after light stimuli Rationale: Atrophy of the dilator muscle causes slow pupil recovery after light exposure. Cataracts are caused by lens clouding, dryness results from tear dysfunction, and color perception is affected by retinal changes.

Which symptom would the nurse expect a patient with acute angle-closure glaucoma to report? A) A gradual loss of peripheral vision B) Painless clouding of vision C) Sudden eye pain and halos around lights D) Floating dark spots in the visual field

C) Sudden eye pain and halos around lights Rationale: Acute angle-closure glaucoma causes sudden, severe eye pain and halos due to increased intraocular pressure. Gradual peripheral vision loss occurs in open-angle glaucoma, painless clouding is a cataract symptom, and floating spots are seen in retinal detachment.

Which nursing intervention is a priority for a patient who just had a corneal transplant? A) Encourage frequent eye rubbing to reduce irritation. B) Position the patient flat to prevent swelling. C) Teach the patient to avoid heavy lifting and straining. D) Instruct the patient to use steroid eye drops only if pain occurs.

C) Teach the patient to avoid heavy lifting and straining. Rationale: Increased intraocular pressure can damage the transplanted cornea. Patients should avoid heavy lifting, straining, and bending over. Eye rubbing should be avoided, positioning does not have strict restrictions, and steroid eye drops must be used consistently as prescribed.

The nurse is assessing a patient with suspected optic neuritis. Which symptom is most commonly associated with this condition? A) Sudden, severe eye pain B) Progressive loss of central vision C) Temporary vision loss and eye pain D) Floating dark spots in the visual field

C) Temporary vision loss and eye pain Rationale: Optic neuritis is inflammation of the optic nerve, commonly causing temporary vision loss and eye pain. Sudden, severe pain is more typical of acute glaucoma, progressive central vision loss is seen in macular degeneration, and floaters are seen in retinal detachment.

Which interpretation would the nurse associate with the 40-year-old patient stating, "I've noticed over the last 3 months that close objects are really blurred," and the ophthalmic consultation report indicating increased rigidity of the patient's lens? A) Astigmatism has developed. B) Progression of hyperopia is occurring. C) The patient has developed presbyopia. D) Myopia is in the early stage of development.

C) The patient has developed presbyopia. Rationale: Presbyopia is the age-related loss of near vision due to increased lens rigidity, typically starting around age 40. Hyperopia affects near vision but is not age-related, astigmatism causes distortion, and myopia affects distance vision.

Which response would the nurse use when asked why the lights were dimmed prior to instillation of the patient's pupil-dilating eyedrops? A) To decrease pain B) To prevent anxiety C) To minimize photophobia D) To minimize intraocular pressure

C) To minimize photophobia Rationale: Pupil-dilating drops can cause photophobia (light sensitivity), so dimming lights before administration helps reduce discomfort. They do not impact intraocular pressure, anxiety, or pain.

Which prescription would the nurse question prior to administering to a patient with keratitis caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV)? A) Oral acyclovir B) Oral valacyclovir C) Topical corticosteroids D) Trifluridine drops

C) Topical corticosteroids Rationale: Corticosteroids are contraindicated in HSV keratitis as they can worsen corneal ulceration. Antivirals like acyclovir, valacyclovir, and trifluridine are appropriate treatments.

Which diagnostic study is used to assess the size and structure of the eye? A) Refractometry B) Amsler grid test C) Ultrasonography D) Fluorescein angiography

C) Ultrasonography Rationale: Ultrasonography assesses the size and structure of the eye. Refractometry measures refractive error. The Amsler grid test monitors macular problems, and fluorescein angiography provides information on blood flow through retinal vessels.

For the patient recently blinded from a motor vehicle accident, which patient goal has the highest priority? A) Use suitable coping strategies to reduce stress. B) Identify the patient's strengths and support system. C) Verbalize feelings related to visual impairment. D) Transition successfully to the sudden vision loss.

C) Verbalize feelings related to visual impairment. Rationale: Helping the patient express emotions about vision loss is essential for coping and adjustment. Strength identification, coping strategies, and transitioning to blindness follow later in rehabilitation.

When interviewing a patient experiencing visual impairment, which elimination question would the nurse ask to determine intraocular pressure changes? A) "What are the characteristics of your stools?" B) "Do you defecate on a regular basis?" C) "How many stools do you have in a day?" D) "Do you have to strain when having a bowel movement?"

D) "Do you have to strain when having a bowel movement?" Rationale: Straining to have a bowel movement can increase intraocular pressure and should be avoided in patients with glaucoma or recent eye surgery. Other questions do not relate to visual impairment.

For glaucoma discharge instructions, which patient statement indicates understanding of the nurse's teachings? A) "I'll limit my fluid intake each day." B) "I'll change positions very slowly." C) "I'll use my eyedrops until my vision clears." D) "I'll check the labels on my nonprescription drugs."

D) "I'll check the labels on my nonprescription drugs." Rationale: Certain over-the-counter medications, including some decongestants, can increase intraocular pressure and should be avoided in glaucoma patients. Limiting fluids, slow position changes, and stopping eyedrops when vision clears are incorrect responses.

Which information would the nurse provide to the patient who needs a corneal transplant but refuses the procedure because of the vision difficulties lasting up to 12 months after transplant? A) "If the transplant is performed soon after donor death, recovering vision is not as difficult." B) "The astigmatism that the patient experiences may be corrected with glasses or rigid contact lenses." C) "Increasing the amount of light and using a magnifier to read will be helpful if a transplant is not wanted." D) "Newer procedures limit the transplanted tissue to the damaged areas of the cornea only and have a faster recovery."

D) "Newer procedures limit the transplanted tissue to the damaged areas of the cornea only and have a faster recovery." Rationale: Advanced corneal transplant procedures such as Descemet's stripping endothelial keratoplasty (DSEK) and Descemet's membrane endothelial keratoplasty (DMEK) improve recovery times. Astigmatism correction and increased lighting help vision but do not address the underlying issue.

Which refractive error would the nurse associate with a patient's uneven cornea and reports of visual distortion? A) Myopia B) Hyperopia C) Presbyopia D) Astigmatism

D) Astigmatism Rationale: Astigmatism results from an uneven cornea, leading to visual distortion. Myopia affects distance vision, hyperopia affects near vision, and presbyopia is age-related loss of accommodation.

Which topic of information will the nurse include when providing patient teaching about the causes of corneal ulceration? A) Smoking B) Alcohol use C) Excess skin D) Contact lens care

D) Contact lens care Rationale: Corneal ulcers are often caused by infections due to improper contact lens hygiene. Smoking and alcohol use contribute to cataract development, and excess skin is associated with ptosis, not corneal ulcers.

Which ocular condition requires aggressive treatment to prevent the loss of vision? A) Cataracts B) Strabismus C) Keratoconus D) Corneal ulcer

D) Corneal ulcer Rationale: Corneal ulcers can lead to scarring and permanent vision loss if not treated promptly. Cataracts cause gradual vision impairment, strabismus affects eye alignment, and keratoconus leads to corneal thinning but progresses slowly.

For the patient diagnosed with bacterial conjunctivitis, which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect the patient to exhibit? A) Itching, burning, irritation, and photophobia B) Tearing, redness, photophobia, and foreign body sensation C) Red, swollen, circumscribed, and acutely tender area in the lid margin D) Discomfort, pruritus, redness, and a mucopurulent drainage in the eye

D) Discomfort, pruritus, redness, and a mucopurulent drainage in the eye Rationale: Bacterial conjunctivitis (pink eye) presents with redness, irritation, and mucopurulent discharge. Other choices describe allergic conjunctivitis, keratitis, or hordeolum.

Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to identify in the patient diagnosed with strabismus? A) Inability of the eye to accommodate for near objects B) Discomfort, pruritus, redness, and mucopurulent eye drainage C) Red, swollen, and acutely tender superficial area in the lid margin D) Inability to focus both eyes on the same object simultaneously

D) Inability to focus both eyes on the same object simultaneously Rationale: Strabismus is the inability to align both eyes on the same object at the same time. It is different from myopia (near vision issues), conjunctivitis (eye redness and drainage), and hordeolum (painful eyelid swelling).

When admitted with pneumonia and a history of bilateral cataracts, which intervention would the nurse implement to facilitate an elderly patient's ability to see? A) Administer prescribed analgesics. B) Patch the eye that has less visual acuity. C) Obtain dark glasses for the patient to wear. D) Increase the amount of light for near vision. E) Obtain teaching materials with enlarged print.

D) Increase the amount of light for near vision, E) Obtain teaching materials with enlarged print. Rationale: Cataracts reduce visual clarity, and bright lighting and large print improve readability. Patching the eye and dark glasses do not help, and analgesics do not affect vision.

For the patient recovering from an eye surgery, which rationale would the nurse provide the patient when teaching not to strain when defecating? A) Straining places you at risk for developing anisocoria. B) You develop a risk of photophobia headaches if you strain. C) When you strain, an increased rigidity of the lens develops. D) Increased intraocular pressure occurs when straining to defecate.

D) Increased intraocular pressure occurs when straining to defecate. Rationale: Straining during bowel movements can increase intraocular pressure, which may lead to complications after eye surgery. Anisocoria, photophobia, and lens rigidity are unrelated to straining.

For treatment of wet age-related macular degeneration, which intervention would the nurse implement for the patient who had photodynamic therapy (PDT) with use of IV verteporfin and a cold laser? A) Suggest that the patient consider using supplements of vitamins and minerals. B) Advise the patient to eat lots of dark green, leafy vegetables containing lutein. C) Instruct the patient to quit smoking during the immediate postsurgical period. D) Instruct the patient to avoid direct exposure to sunlight for 5 days after treatment.

D) Instruct the patient to avoid direct exposure to sunlight for 5 days after treatment. Rationale: Verteporfin used in PDT becomes activated by light exposure, potentially causing severe skin burns. Patients must avoid direct sunlight for 5 days. While lutein intake and smoking cessation are important, they do not address the immediate post-treatment risks.

Which condition would the nurse suspect in the older adult patient who states, "I feel like there is sand in my eyes"? A) Cataract B) Strabismus C) Keratoconus D) Keratoconjunctivitis sicca

D) Keratoconjunctivitis sicca Rationale: Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eye syndrome) is common in older adults and causes irritation and a gritty sensation in the eyes. Cataracts affect vision clarity, strabismus affects eye alignment, and keratoconus affects corneal shape.

Which medication would the nurse anticipate providing when the patient complains of eye irritation and soreness after using a homemade saline solution to store contacts? A) Tropicamide B) Besifloxacin C) Acetazolamide D) Ketoconazole

D) Ketoconazole Rationale: Acanthamoeba keratitis is a serious infection linked to homemade saline solutions. Antifungals like ketoconazole are used for treatment. Besifloxacin treats bacterial conjunctivitis, tropicamide dilates pupils, and acetazolamide is for glaucoma.

Which tool would an individual utilize in the physical assessment of the retina and optic nerve? A) Penlight B) Refractometry C) Ultrasonography D) Ophthalmoscope

D) Ophthalmoscope Rationale: An ophthalmoscope is used to examine the retina and optic nerve. A penlight assesses pupillary reflexes, refractometry measures refractive error, and ultrasonography assesses eye structure and size.

When performing a visual examination, which assessment finding would the nurse document when a small blood spot is observed on the sclera of the patient's right eye? A) Anisocoria B) Conjunctivitis C) Allergic reaction D) Subconjunctival hemorrhage

D) Subconjunctival hemorrhage Rationale: A subconjunctival hemorrhage presents as a small blood spot on the sclera due to broken blood vessels. It is harmless and resolves on its own. Anisocoria refers to unequal pupil size, conjunctivitis involves redness/swelling, and allergic reactions cause excessive tearing and itching.

During a patient's assessment of pupillary function, which step would the nurse perform when assessing accommodation? A) Request that the patient focus on the nurse's identified finger. B) Identify one finger and locate it 3 inches from the patient's nose. C) Place an index finger at a distance of 20 feet from the patient's nose. D) Ask the patient to focus on any distant object within the examination room. E) Identify a personal finger and locate it at a distance of 6 meters from the patient's nose.

A) Request that the patient focus on the nurse's identified finger, B) Identify one finger and locate it 3 inches from the patient's nose, D) Ask the patient to focus on any distant object within the examination room. Rationale: Accommodation is assessed by having the patient focus on a distant object, then a near one (about 3 inches away), to observe pupil constriction. Pupil function is not assessed at 20 feet or 6 meters.

Which action would the nurse implement when assessing a patient for corneal light reflex? A) Shine a penlight directly on the cornea of each eye. B) Ask the patient to focus on the examination room ceiling. C) Turn on the lights in the room after a 5-minute period of darkness. D) Ask the patient to follow finger movements without moving their head.

A) Shine a penlight directly on the cornea of each eye. Rationale: The corneal light reflex is assessed to determine extraocular muscle function. The penlight is shined at the cornea while the patient looks straight ahead.

The adult child of a patient with macular degeneration asks how to avoid developing this condition. Which intervention would the nurse include when teaching? A) Stop smoking or do not start. B) Avoid eye exposure to ultraviolet (UV) light. C) Wash hands before touching face or eyes. D) Wear eye protection while doing yard work. E) Eat green leafy vegetables (spinach or kale) regularly.

A) Stop smoking or do not start, B) Avoid eye exposure to ultraviolet (UV) light, E) Eat green leafy vegetables (spinach or kale) regularly. Rationale: Smoking, UV exposure, and poor nutrition contribute to macular degeneration. Hand hygiene prevents infections, and eye protection is essential for injury prevention but does not impact macular degeneration.

For the patient diagnosed with epidemic keratoconjunctivitis (EKC), which intervention would the nurse suggest to help alleviate the patient's symptoms? A) Suggest the use of ice packs and dark glasses. B) Discourage the use of mild topical corticosteroids. C) Advise the patient to avoid the use of topical antibiotic ointments. D) Advise the patient to avoid implementing any treatment because the condition is self-limiting.

A) Suggest the use of ice packs and dark glasses. Rationale: EKC treatment is mostly supportive, including ice packs, artificial tears, and dark glasses. Severe cases may require corticosteroids. The infection is highly contagious, so treatment should not be avoided.

Which action would the nurse implement when a patient presents with a sty on their left eye? A) Teach the patient to perform lid scrubs daily. B) Prepare the patient for surgical removal of the sty. C) Administer appropriate antibiotic ointments or drops as prescribed. D) Teach the patient to gently cleanse the lid margins with baby shampoo. E) Instruct the patient to apply warm, moist compresses at least four times a day.

A) Teach the patient to perform lid scrubs daily, C) Administer appropriate antibiotic ointments or drops as prescribed, E) Instruct the patient to apply warm, moist compresses at least four times a day. Rationale: Styes (hordeolum) are treated with warm compresses, antibiotic ointments if necessary, and lid scrubs for prevention. Surgery is rarely needed, and baby shampoo is used for blepharitis, not styes.

Which condition would the nurse associate with a patient's report of seeing "spider web-like" formations in the visual field over the last few days? A) Tears in the retina B) Hemorrhage in the vitreous humor C) Shortening of the ciliary muscles D) Vitreous liquefaction E) Overaction of the extraocular muscle

A) Tears in the retina, B) Hemorrhage in the vitreous humor, D) Vitreous liquefaction Rationale: "Spider web-like" floaters can be caused by vitreous liquefaction, retinal tears, or hemorrhage in the vitreous humor. Shortening of the ciliary muscles affects near vision, and extraocular muscle dysfunction results in strabismus.

The sclera of an older African American adult patient's eyes has a slightly yellowish cast with small blood vessels visible along the edges of the conjunctiva. Which conclusion would the nurse document from the assessment findings? A) The assessment findings are within the normal range. B) The patient should have serum coagulation tests done. C) A history of uncontrolled hypertension is evident. D) A serum liver function test is needed to determine hepatic function.

A) The assessment findings are within the normal range Rationale: A slight yellowish cast of the sclera can be normal in dark-skinned individuals, such as African Americans and Native Americans, due to lipid deposition. This is not indicative of liver dysfunction, hypertension, or coagulation issues.

A patient reports difficulty seeing objects in low light and frequently stumbles over things at night. Which vitamin deficiency would the nurse suspect? A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B12 C) Vitamin C D) Vitamin D

A) Vitamin A Rationale: Vitamin A deficiency can lead to night blindness due to its role in retinal function. Vitamin B12 affects nerve function, vitamin C is important for collagen production, and vitamin D supports bone health.

When interviewing a patient with a new diagnosis of glaucoma, which question is most relevant to the patient's condition? A) "Have you ever had surgery?" B) "When was the last test for visual acuity performed?" C) "Do you have a history of cardiac or pulmonary disease?" D) "Have there been any recent changes in your eyeglasses or contact lenses?"

C) "Do you have a history of cardiac or pulmonary disease?" Rationale: Many glaucoma medications (especially beta-blockers) can impact heart rate, blood pressure, and lung function, making it important to assess for cardiac or pulmonary conditions.

Which clinical manifestation would the patient report when experiencing an ophthalmic condition resulting in a decrease in tear production? A) "I see a double of every object." B) "I cannot see clearly in dim light or at night." C) "I have a sandy, gritty, and irritating sensation in my eyes." D) "I cannot read books, newspapers, or anything close to me."

C) "I have a sandy, gritty, and irritating sensation in my eyes." Rationale: A decrease in tear production, as seen in dry eye syndrome, leads to discomfort, irritation, and a gritty sensation. Double vision suggests strabismus, night vision issues result from retinal dysfunction, and reading difficulties indicate presbyopia.

Which clinical manifestation would the patient report when experiencing an ophthalmic condition resulting in a decrease in tear production? A) "I see a double of every object." B) "I cannot see clearly in dim light or at night." C) "I have a sandy, gritty, and irritating sensation in my eyes." D) "I cannot read books, newspapers, or anything close to me."

C) "I have a sandy, gritty, and irritating sensation in my eyes." Rationale: A decrease in tear production, such as in dry eye syndrome, causes discomfort, irritation, and a gritty sensation. Double vision suggests strabismus, night vision issues are related to retinal dysfunction, and difficulty reading is linked to presbyopia.

The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a patient following cataract surgery. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? A) "I will avoid bending over for the next few days." B) "I should call my doctor if I have severe pain or vision loss." C) "I will sleep on the side of my surgery to protect my eye." D) "I should wear my protective eye shield while sleeping."

C) "I will sleep on the side of my surgery to protect my eye." Rationale: Patients should avoid sleeping on the surgical side to prevent pressure on the operated eye. Avoiding bending over, recognizing signs of complications, and wearing an eye shield are correct post-op instructions.

Which patient statement indicates a need for further teaching about age-related macular degeneration (AMD)? A) "I should eat dark green leafy vegetables to support my eye health." B) "I will wear sunglasses to protect my eyes from UV exposure." C) "I will use eye drops to help reverse macular degeneration." D) "I will monitor my vision using an Amsler grid at home."

C) "I will use eye drops to help reverse macular degeneration." Rationale: No eye drops can reverse AMD. Management includes dietary changes, UV protection, Amsler grid monitoring, and in some cases, injections or laser therapy for wet AMD.

A patient with chronic dry eyes is prescribed cyclosporine ophthalmic emulsion (Restasis). Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the medication? A) "I will use these drops once a week to reduce inflammation." B) "I should use artificial tears immediately after these drops." C) "This medication will help increase tear production over time." D) "This medication works immediately to relieve my dry eyes."

C) "This medication will help increase tear production over time." Rationale: Cyclosporine ophthalmic emulsion increases tear production in patients with chronic dry eyes but takes weeks to show full effects. It should be used twice daily, and artificial tears should be spaced 15 minutes apart from Restasis.

Which intervention would the nurse implement to provide relief of the patient's discomfort when presenting to the clinic with a red, swollen, circumscribed, acutely tender area near the eye and in the lid margin? A) Administration of artificial tears B) Insertion of Intacs on the cornea C) Application of a warm, moist compress four times a day D) Administration of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory eye drops

C) Application of a warm, moist compress four times a day Rationale: A hordeolum (sty) is best treated with warm compresses to reduce inflammation and promote drainage. Artificial tears are used for dry eyes, Intacs are for keratoconus, and NSAID eye drops treat inflammation but not styes.