N127 - Managing Health for Adult I-II

Which organism would the nurse teach immigrants is the cause of smallpox? a. Variola virus b. Yersinia pestis c. Bacillus anthracis d. Clostridium botulinum

a. Variola virus Rationale: Smallpox is an infectious disease caused by the Variola virus. Yersinia pestis causes plague. Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax. Clostridium botulinum causes botulism.

Spouse of a client with pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) received a tuberculin skin test. The nurse examined the skin test and identified an area of induration greater that 10 mm. Which response to this finding would the nurse implement? a. No further action is required at this time. b. Additional tests are necessary to determine infection status. c. Immediately repeat the skin test for confirmation. d. Results are positive, indicating an active infection.

b. Additional tests are necessary to determine infection status. Rationale:

Which condition is characterized by infection of a client's bone or bone marrow? a. Osteomalacia b. Osteomyelitis c. Herniated disc d. Spinal stenosis

b. Osteomyelitis Rationale: Osteomyelitis is infection of bone or bone marrow. Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by softening of bones due to calcium or vitamin D deficiency. Herniated disc is caused by structural damage of the intervertebral discs in which the nucleus pulposus seeps through a torn or stretched annulus. Spinal stenosis is narrowing of the spinal canal.

Which sexually transmitted infection received antiviral medications as the treatment of choice? a. Syphilis b. Gonorrhea c. Genital herpes d. Chlamydial infection

c. Genital herpes Rationale:

Which manifestation indicates tertiary syphilis? a. Chancre b. Alopecia c. Gummas d. Condylomata lata

c. Gummas Rationale: ** Tertiary (late)** Gummatous disease is a rare manifestation of tertiary syphilis in the post-penicillin era. It can be misdiagnosed as cancer, as the lesions are often characterized by their local destructiveness, masslike effects, or both

Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) is most commonly reported? a. Syphilis b. Chlamydia c. Gonorrhea d. Human immunodeficiency virus

b. Chlamydia Rationale: Chlamydia is the most commonly reported STD, with over 1.8 MILLION CASES reported in 2019. Young women (ages 15-24) account for 43% of reported cases and face the most severe consequences of an undiagnosed infection.

Which causative organism colonization signifies purulent exudates of greenish-blue pus with a fruity odor? a. Proteus b. Bacteroides c. Pseudomonas d. Staphylococcus

c. Pseudomonas Rationale: The purulent exudates of greenish-blue pus with a fruity odor signifies the colonization of Pseudomonas. Proteus colonization causes pus with a fishy odor. The colonization of Bacteroides causes brownish pus with a fecal odor. Staphylococcus colonization results in purulent exudate of creamy yellow pus.

Which is the causative organism for syphilis? a. Treponema pallidum b. Campylobacter jejuni c. Trichomonas vaginalis d. Chlamydia trachomatis

a. Treponema pallidum Rationale: Syphilis is an infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. Most new cases of syphilis are sexually acquired.

Which prescribed medication will the nurse administer to the client with pertussis? a. antibiotics b. Antihistamines c. Corticosteroids d. Bronchodilators

a. antibiotics Rationale:

Which is the most common cause of ophthalmia neonatorum in infants born to adolescent mothers? a. Chlamydia b. Gonorrhea c. Human papilloma virus d. Herpes simplex virus

a. chlamydia Rationale: Chlamydia is the most frequent identifiable infectious cause of ophthalmia neonatorum.

Which statements regarding acne are correct? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1. Acne is a hormonal disease 2. Acne may be caused by stress 3. Family history could be a reason for acne 4. Propionibacterium acnes causes acne 5. Acne is commonly found on the face, chest, upper back, and neck.

2. Acne may be caused by stress 3. Family history could be a reason for acne 4. Propionibacterium acnes causes acne Rationale:

Which sexually transmitted infection causes condylomata auminate? a. Chlamydia b. Gonorrhea c. Herpes simplex d. Human papillomavirus (HPV)

d. Human papillomavirus (HPV) Rationale: Condylomata acuminate are genital warts which are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV). Genital warts are not caused by chlamydia, gonorrhea, or herpes simplex.

Which finding in a urinalysis indicates a urinary tract infection? a. Crystals b. Bilirubin c. Ketones d. Leukoesterase

d. Leukoesterase Rationale:

The school nurse presented a program for teachers about infection-control and handwashing techniques. Which evaluation method is the most effective way for the nurse to evaluate the teacher's knowledge of hand-washing techniques? a. Observe the teachers lecture the children about the hygiene. b. Administer an objectively written final examination to the teachers. c. Have the teachers share their knowledge of hand washing d. Watch the teachers demonstrate infection-control techniques.

d. Watch the teachers demonstrate infection-control techniques. Rationale:

Which product would the nurse instruct intravenous drug users (IDUs) to use from cleaning of needles and syringes between uses? a. Bleach b. Hot water c. Ammonia d. Rubbing alcohol

a. Bleach Rationale: IDUs should be instructed to fill syringes with household bleach and shake the syringe for 30 to 60 seconds. Hot water, ammonia, or rubbing alcohol is not used to disinfect used syringes.

Which sexually transmitted infection is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis? a. Cervicitis b. Gonorrhea c. Genital warts d. Genital herpes

a. Cervicitis Rationale: Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted disease (STD) caused by infection with Chlamydia trachomatis. It can cause cervicitis in women and urethritis and proctitis in both men and women.

Which skin infection is caused by bacteria? a. Folliculitis b. Candidiasis c. Herpes zoster d. Dermatophytosis

a. Folliculitis Rationale: Cellulitis, impetigo, and folliculitis are the most common bacterial skin infections seen by the family physician.J

Which type of hepatitis virus spreads through contaminated food and water? a. Hepatitis A virus b. Hepatitis B virus c. Hepatitis C virus d. Hepatitis D virus

a. Hepatitis A virus Rationale: Hepatitis A is an inflammation of the liver that can cause mild to severe illness. The hepatitis A virus (HAV) is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated food and water or through direct contact with an infectious person.

Which condition is an example of a bacterial infection? a. Impetigo b. Candidiasis c. Plantar warts d. Verruca vugaris

a. Impetigo Rationale:

Which organism is a common opportunistic infection in a client infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? a. Oropharyngeal candidiasis b. Cryptosporidiosis c. Toxoplasmosis encephalitis d. Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia

a. Oropharyngeal candidiasis Rationale: Oropharyngeal candidiasis is the most common infection associated with HIV because the immune system can no longer control Candida fungal growth. Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP) is the more common in a client infected with AIDs. It causes tachypnea and persistent dry cough. Cryptosporidiosis, an intestinal infection caused by Cryptosporidium organisms, presents in clients with AIDS as does toxoplasmosis encephalitis, which is caused by Toxoplasma gondii and is acquired through contact with contaminated cat feces or by ingesting infected undercooked meat. Test-Taking Tip: You have at least a 25% chance of selecting the correct response in multiple-choice items. If you are uncertain about a question, eliminate the choices that you believe are wrong and then call on your knowledge, skills, and abilities to choose from the remaining responses.

According to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), which stage of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) disease is present in the client with a laboratory report revealing a CD4+ T-cell count of 520 cells/mm3? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4

a. Stage 1 Rationale: Normal: 500-1,200 cells per cubic millimeter Abnormal: 250-500 cells per cubic millimeter. It means you have a weakened immune system and may be infected with HIV. Abnormal: 200 or fewer cells per cubic millimeter. It indicates "AIDS" and a high risk of "life-threatening opportunistic infections."

Of which types of cells would DiGeorge syndrome create a deficiency? a. T cells b. B cells c. Monocytes d. Polymorphonuclear cells

a. T cells Rationale: DiGeorge Syndrome (DGS) is a primary immunodeficiency, often but not always, characterized by cellular (T-cell) deficiency, characteristic facies, congenital heart disease and hypocalcemia. DGS is caused by abnormal formation of certain tissues during fetal development.

The clinic nurse is planning care for a client with chlamydia. Which treatment would the nurse anticipate implementing? a. Administration of 250 mg of acyclovir orally in a single dose b. Administration of 1 g of azithromycin orally in a single dose c. Administration of 250 mg of ceftriaxone intramuscularly in a single dose. d. Administration of 2.4 million units of benzathine penicillin G intramuscularly in a single dose.

b. Administration of 1 g of azithromycin orally in a single dose Rationale: The treatment of choice for chlamydial infection is azithromycin (Zithromax) 1 g orally in a single dose. The one-dose course is preferred because of its ease of completion. Acyclovir (Zovirax) may be prescribed in a 7-day course for a genital herpes outbreak. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 250 mg intramuscularly in a single dose is the drug therapy recommended for gonorrhea. Benzathine penicillin G given intramuscularly as a single 2.4 million unit dose is the treatment for primary, secondary, and early latent syphilis.

For which client illness would airborne precautions be implemented? a. Influenza b. Chickenpox c. Pneumonia d. Respiratory syncytial virus

b. Chickenpox Rationale: Diseases requiring airborne precautions include, but are not limited to: Measles, Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS), Varicella (chickenpox), and Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Airborne precautions apply to patients known or suspected to be infected with microorganisms transmitted by airborne droplet nuclei. Droplet Precautions— used for diseases or germs that are spread in tiny droplets caused by coughing and sneezing (examples: pneumonia, influenza, whooping cough, ..

When providing care for a client with quadriplegia, which nursing intervention assists in decreasing the potential occurrence of pressure ulcers? a. Avoid massaging the client's legs. b. Frequently reponsition the client on a scheduled basis c. Increase the fiber content in the client's food d. Encourage the client to participate in weight-bearing exercises.

b. Frequently reponsition the client on a scheduled basis Rationale:

Which stage of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) would a client with a CD4+ T cell count of 325 cells/mm3 be classified? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4

b. Stage 2 Rationale: Describes a client with a CD4+ T-cell count between 200 and 499 cells/mm3. Stage 1 describes a client with a CD4+ T-cell count of greater than 500 cells/mm3. Stage 3 describes a client with a CD4+ T-cell count of less than 200 cells/mm3. Stage 4 describes a client with a confirmed HIV infection but no information regarding CD4+ T-cell counts is available.

Which fungal infection does the client refer to as jock itch? a. Tinea Pedis b. Tinea cruris c. Tinea corporis d. Tinea unguium

b. Tinea cruris Rationale: Tinea cruris is a fungal infection commonly referred to as jock itch. It clinically manifests with well-defined scaly plaque in the groin area. Tinea pedis is a fungal infection commonly referred to as athlete's foot. It is clinically manifested as interdigital scaling and maceration, scaly plantar surfaces, erythema, and blistering. Tinea corporis is a fungal infection commonly referred to as ringworm. It is clinically manifested as an erythematous annular, ringlike, scaly lesion with well-defined margins. Tinea unguium or onychomycosis is manifested with scaliness under the distal nail plate.

How would the nurse describe the exudate characteristic of a serosanguineous wound? a. Greenish-blue pus b. Creamy yellow exudate c. Blood-tinged amber fluid d. Beige pus with a fishy odor

c. Blood-tinged amber fluid Rationale: Blood-tinged amber fluid is characteristic of serosanguineous wound exudate. Greenish-blue pus, creamy yellow pus, and beige pus with a fishy odor are characteristics of purulent wound exudate.

Which vaccine is used to prevent human papillomavirus infection? a. Varivax b. RotaTeq c. Gardasil d. Hepatitis A vaccine

c. Gardasil Rationale: Gardasil is a quadrivalent used to prevent genital cancer and warts caused by HPV

Which sexually transmitted infection is caused by a virus? a. Syphilis b. Gonorrhea c. Genital warts d. Chlamydial infection

c. Genital warts Rationale: Bacterial infections usually can be treated by antibiotics. Cause: 1. gonorrhea 2. chlamydia 3. syphilis 4. vaginitis

Which criteria would the nurse consider when determining if an infection is a health care-associated infection? a. originated primarily from a exogenous source b. Is associated with a medication-resistant microorganism c. Occurred in conjunction with treatment for an illness d. Still has the infection despite completing the prescribed therapy

c. Occurred in conjunction with treatment for an illness Rationale: Health care-associated infections are classified as those that are contracted within a health care environment (e.g., hospital, long-term care facility) or result from a treatment (e.g., surgery, medications). Originating primarily from an exogenous source is not a criterion for identifying a health care-associated infection. The source of health care-associated infections may be endogenous (originate from within the client) or exogenous (originate from the health care environment or service personnel providing care); most health care-associated infections stem from endogenous sources and are caused by Escherichia coli and Staphylococcus aureus. Association with a medication-resistant microorganism is not a criterion for identifying a health care-associated infection. A health care-associated infection may or may not be caused by a medication-resistant microorganism. Still having the infection despite completing the prescribed therapy is not a criterion for identifying a health care-associated infection.

Which sexually transmitted infection is caused by human papillomavirus? a. Gonorrhea b. Genital herpes c. Chlamydia infection d. Condylomata acuminata

d. Condylomata acuminata Rationale: Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a common cause of cutaneous and mucosal infection. Condylomata acuminata (CA; singular: condyloma acuminatum), also known as anogenital warts, are manifestations of HPV infection that occur in a subset of individuals with anogenital HPV infection.