N317 - Pharmacology Exam 2 Practice Questions
A 50-year-old woman who weighs 95 kg has a history of tobacco use, high blood pressure, high sodium intake, and sedentary lifestyle. Which is the most important risk factor for peripheral artery disease (PAD) to address in the nursing plan of care? a. Salt intake b. Tobacco use c. Excess weight d. Sedentary lifestyle
ANSWER: b
True or false: both first and second generation antihistamines have no life threatening side effects.
Answer: TRUE First generation antihistamines can produce drowsiness
A patient with infective endocarditis develops sudden left leg pain with pallor, paresthesia, and a loss of peripheral pulses. What should be the nurse's initial action? a. Notify the HCP of the change in perfusion. b. Start anticoagulant therapy with IV heparin. c. Elevate the leg to improve the venous return. d. Position the patient in reverse Trendelenburg
Answer: a
Which instruction is a key aspect of teaching for the patient on anticoagulant therapy? a. Monitor for and report any signs of bleeding. b. Do not take acetaminophen (Tylenol) for a headache. c. Decrease your dietary intake of foods containing vitamin K. d. Arrange to have blood drawn twice a week to check drug effects
Answer: a
Your patient has been prescribed niacin (Niaspan) to lower their lipid levels. Which of the following statements made by the patient would warrant further education from the nurse? a) "I can take over the counter Niacin supplements if I run out of my prescribed medication" b) "I can take 325 mg of aspirin 30 minutes before my Niacin" c) "I can eat applesauce to help reduce the red facial flushing effect of Niacin" d) "Taking Niacin may cause damage to my liver"
Answer: a OTC Niacin does not contain a sufficient dosage and thus does not have lipid-lowering effects
Which of the following are Long Acting Muscarinic Antagonists? (LAMAs) a) ipratropium b) budesonide c) fluticasone d) tiotropium
Answer: a & d; ipratropium and tiotropium These are an alternative form of bronchodilator for patients with pulmonary disease; a possible side effect is dry mouth so the patient should be instructed to swish with water.
With which of the following medications should the nurse be concerned about cell lysis, hypotension, and peripheral edema? a) 0.45% normal saline b) 3% normal saline c) 5% normal saline d) 0.9% normal saline
Answer: a) 0.45% normal saline This is a hypotonic crystalloid, meaning that fluid will be pulled into cells of the body that are dehydrated. Sodium levels should be monitored to make sure they are not too LOW. If given in excess, this medication may cause hypotension and peripheral edema.
The nurse is caring for a patient with chronic angina that is scheduled for 0900 isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil). Which of the following are common side effects of this medication? a) flushing and dizziness b) tremors and anxiety c) sleepiness and lethargy d) light-headedness and and headache e) pallor and diaphoresis
Answer: a, d, e
Monoclonal antibodies (omalizumab, Xolair) are given as a subcutaneous injection and are used as the last line of defense for asthma treatment due to: a) MI & venous thromboembolism b) nephrotoxicity & ototoxicity c) CVA & MI d) tachycardia & nervousness
Answer: a; MI & venous thromboembolism With this medication, there should be a respiratory, skin, and cardiac/perfusion assessment
Which of the following can be used to treat acute respiratory attacks (asthma attacks)? a) albuterol (Proair, Ventolin) b) salmeterol (Serevent Diskus) c) fluticasone (Flovent) d) beclomethasone (Qvar)
Answer: a; albuterol (Proair, Ventolin) The side effects of this medication include nervousness, palpitations, and Paradoxical Bronchospasm due to excitation of the SNS
Cardiac glycoside digoxin (Lanoxin) work by allowing for a slower, more forceful contraction of the heart. It is important to monitor the patient's pulse at which site for 1 minute? a) apical b) brachial c) radial d) temporal
Answer: a; apical The apical pulse must be greater than 60 bpm to administer; this medication may cause bradycardia, fatigue, and arrythmias.
Your patient has been taking an antipliemic medication to help lower their LDL and cholesterol levels. You notice that the patient has been voiding dark-colored urine. Before checking the MAR, you suspect that the patient has been prescribed: a) atorvastatin (Lipitor) b) cholestyramine (Questran) c) fenofibrate (Tricor) d) gemfibrozil (Lopid)
Answer: a; atorvastatin (Lipitor) All antipilemic medications ending in -statin may cause Rhabdomylosis; a breakdown of muscle tissue that may damage the kidneys and produce dark colored urine. These drugs may cause liver inflammation as well, the nurse should check LFTs (ALT/AST).
A patient has low levels of sodium and increased brain swelling. The PCP has ordered administration of a hypertonic crystalloid. Which of the following could be prescribed to the patient? a) dextrose 10 in water b) 0.9% sodium chloride c) lactated ringers d) dextrose 5 in water
Answer: a; dextrose 10 in water The other three options are examples of isotonic crystalloids
Your patient is suffering from mild to moderate hypertension. You know that this medication is used as the first line of defense and may potentially cause hypokalemia and dehydration: a) hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) b) atenolol (Tenorim) c) aliskiren (Tekturna) d) captopril (Capoten)
Answer: a; hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) This med is a diuretic, meaning it well also treat excess fluid retention/edema.
Both ACE Inhibitors (antihypertensive medications ending in -pril), and ARBs, (antihypertensive medications ending in -sartan) may cause: a) hyperkalemia b) hypokalemia c) hypernatremia d) hyponatremia
Answer: a; hyperkalemia Since these medications are potassium sparing, they may cause an excess of potassium; K+ levels should be monitored. These medications may both cause angioedema as well.
The patient has been prescribed oxymetazoline (Afrin) nasal spray for seasonal rhinitis. Which instruction will the nurse provide? a) Limit use of this spray to 5 days or less b) This drug may be sedating so be cautious with activities requiring alertness c) This drug should not be used in conjunction with antihistamines d) This is an over-the-counter drug and may be used as needed for congestion
Answer: a; limit use of this spray to 5 days or less This is to prevent rebound congestion/dependence
Which of the following hypertensive medications is safe to administer during pregnancy? a) methyldopa (Aldomet) b) lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril) c) enalapril (Vasotect)
Answer: a; methyldopa (Aldomet) Lisinopril and enalapril are both ACE Inhibitors and should NOT be administered during pregnancy. Clonidine and methyldopa may be used to treat ADHD but may cause withdrawl phenomenon (rebound hypertension).
Which of the following is NOT a common sign/symptom of hyperkalemia? a) nephrotoxicity/ototoxicity b) early muscle twitches/weakness c) diarrhea/nausea/vomiting d) rhythm changes/chest pain
Answer: a; nephrotoxicity/ototoxicity
Your patient is experiencing a myocardial infarction (heart attack). Which is the correct order of medications to be administered in this situation? a) oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin, morphine b) morphine, oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin c) oxygen, aspirin, nitroglycerin, morphine d) nitroglycerin, aspirin, morphine, oxygen
Answer: a; oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin, morphine
Which of the following should be taken into special consideration when administering potassium-sparing diuretic spironolactone (Aldactone)? a) pregnancy status b) respiratory status c) blood sugar d) calcium levels
Answer: a; pregnancy status Since Aldactone is an Aldosterone Receptor Antagonist, taking this medication during or too close to pregnancy could cause male genitalia malfunction in the developing fetus. This is considered a Class D medication.
Nervousness, palpitations, hyptertension, and cardiovascular collpase are all possible side effects of which two oral decongestants? a) pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) & phenylephrine (Sudafed PE) b) fluticasone (Flonase) & triamcinolone (Nasacort) c) cetirizine (Zyrtec) & fexofenadine (Allegra) d) dexrinethophan (Robitusson) & benzonatate (Tessalon)
Answer: a; pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) & phenylephrine (Sudafed PE) For these medications, you would want to monitor for nasal stuffiness/discharge as well as an increased BP and pulse
A nurse is administering hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide), a diuretic to lower a patient's blood pressure. Which is an important piece of patient education to provide before administering this medication? a) should be taken in the morning to prevent incontinence b) this medication will increase blood pressure c) this medication will cause urinary retention d) a common side effect of this medication is hyperkalemia
Answer: a; should be taken in the morning to prevent incontinence
A patient is considering anticoagulant options and says they sporadically enjoy eating large portions of kale and spinach salads. You suspect that the PCP would likely not recommend: a) warfarin (Coumadin) b) rivaroxaban (Xarelto) c) dabigatran (Pradaxa) d) apixaban (Eliquis)
Answer: a; warfarin (Coumadin) Since Vitamin K is the reversal agent for warfarin, consumption of Vitamin K must remain consistent. Kale and spinach are both food items with a high Vitamin K content. The other medications listed have no dietary restrictions.
A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which signs and symptoms would suggest that the aneurysm has ruptured? a. Rapid onset of shortness of breath and hemoptysis b. Sudden, severe low back pain and bruising along his flank c. Gradually increasing substernal chest pain and diaphoresis d. Sudden, patchy blue mottling on feet and toes and rest pain
Answer: b
When teaching a patient about rest pain with PAD, what should the nurse explain as the cause of the pain? a. Vasospasm of cutaneous arteries in the feet. b. Decrease in blood flow to the nerves of the feet. c. Increase in retrograde venous perfusion to the lower legs. d. Constriction in blood flow to leg muscles during exercise
Answer: b
Which patient is at highest risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE)? a. A 62-yr-old man with spider veins who is having arthroscopic knee surgery b. A 32-yr-old woman who smokes, takes oral contraceptives, and is planning a trip to Europe c. A 26-yr-old woman who is 3 days postpartum and received maintenance IV fluids for 12 hours during her labor d. An active 72-yr-old man at home recovering from transurethral resection of the prostate for benign prostatic hyperplasia
Answer: b
Which of the following statements by the nurse indicates further teaching is needed about antiangial medications? a) "One Nitrostat tablet should be dissolved under the tongue every five minutes, 3 times, for acute chest pain" b) "I will administer nitroglycerin, then oxygen, aspirin, and morphine for an acute coronary attack" c) "Imdur and Isordil are used to prevent chest pain only and cannot treat an acute attack" d) "Both long and rapid acting nitrates may cause headaches, hypotension, and tachycardia"
Answer: b The correct order for acute coronary syndrome treatment is: Oxygen, Nitroglycerin, Aspirin, Morphine
Which clinical manifestations can the nurse expect to see in both patients with Buerger's disease and patients with Raynaud's phenomenon? (select all that apply) a. Intermittent low-grade fevers b. Sensitivity to cold temperatures c. Gangrenous ulcers on fingertips d. Color changes of fingers and toes e. Episodes of superficial vein thrombosis
Answer: b, c, d
Which clinical findings should the nurse expect in a person with an acute lower extremity VTE? (select all that apply) a. Pallor and coolness of foot and calf b. Mild to moderate calf pain and tenderness c. Grossly decreased or absent pedal pulses d. Unilateral edema and induration of the thigh e. Palpable cord along a superficial varicose vein
Answer: b, d
A patient is admitted to your hospital with hypernatremia. You confirm the sodium lab results: 152 (normal 135-145). Which crystalloid solution do you anticipate the HCP to prescribe? a) 3% Normal Saline b) 0.9% Normal Saline c) 5% Normal Saline d) Dextrose 10 in water
Answer: b; 0.9% Normal Saline 0.9% NS is the only isotonic solution noted, the rest are hypertonic and would raise sodium levels
A patient is being discharged with nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for sublingual use. While planning patient education, what instruction will the nurse provide? a) "swallow three tablets immediately for chest pain and call 911" b) "put one tablet under your tongue every 5 min for three occurrences" c) "call your HCP when you have chest pain" d) "place three tablets under your tongue and drive to the ER"
Answer: b; 1 tablet under the tongue every 5 minutes for 3 occurrences
A patient has a prescription for fluticasone (Flonase) for allergic rhinitis. Place the following instructions in the proper order: 1 - Instill one spray directed high into the nasal cavity 2 - Clear the nose by blowing 3 - Prime the inhaler prior to first use 4- Spit out any excess liquid that drains into the mouth a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 3, 2, 1, 4 c) 4, 1, 2, 3 d) 2, 1, 3, 4
Answer: b; 3, 2, 1, 4
Which of the following is a cough suppressant recommended for patients with high blood pressure? a) Mucinex b) Coricidin c) Sudafed d) Afrin
Answer: b; Coricidin
Dilatiazem (Cardizem) and verapamil (Calan), are both NON-selective Calcium Channel Blockers and may cause ________ & ________ in addition to peripheral edema: a) hypotension & headache b) arrythmias & heart failure c) hypotension & hyperkalemia d) angioedema & bradycardia
Answer: b; arrythmias & heart failure SELECTIVE Calcium Channel Blockers end in -pine
Which of the following is important education for administration of anti-tubercular drugs? a) swish mouth with water after drug is administered b) do not take with alcohol c) take with a glass of water d) do not take with antibiotics or antivirals
Answer: b; do not take with alcohol Due to the potential of liver damage while taking anti-tubercular drugs, they should NOT be taken in conjunction with alcohol.
True or False: pulmonary fibrosis is a side effect associated with both fenofibrate (Tricor) and gemfiborzil (Lopid). a) true b) false
Answer: b; false Both fibric acid agents Tricor and Lopid may cause GI effects but ONLY fenofibrate (Tricor) may cause pulmonary embolism. A respiratory assessment should be performed with administration of this medication.
True or False: Adrenergic blockers Carvedilol (Coreg) and labetalol (Trandate) block Alpha 1 & Beta 1 receptors ONLY. a) true b) false
Answer: b; false These medications block Alpha 1, Beta 1, AND Beta 2 receptors. They should not be recommended for patients with asthma.
A patient calls the outpatient clinic where you are working as a new nurse. The patient states that they are experiencing sinus congestion and would like to know if they could take over-the-counter pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) to relieve the sinus pressure. You review the patient's PMH; which findings would alert the nurse that this would not be an appropriate medication for them to take? a) diabetes b) hypertension c) anxiety d) depression
Answer: b; hypertension Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) is contraindicated in patients with hypertension since it causes vasoconstriction
Salmeterol (Serevent Diskus) has a Black Box Warning because: a) it can prevent acute attacks b) it cannot prevent acute attacks c) it causes headaches d) it causes thrombotic events
Answer: b; it cannot prevent acute attacks Headaches are a potential side effect of this medication
What type of assessment should be done when administering fluticasone, budesonide, and beclomethasone? a) cardiac assessment b) oral cavity assessment c) GI assessment d) skin assessment
Answer: b; oral cavity assessment An oral cavity assessment should be performed when administering this medication to check for thrush; a respiratory assessment should be done as well
Which of the following is NOT an important consideration taken into account with the administration of anti-tubercular drugs? a) drug adherence is important; patients must remain on their medication for 6 to 12 months b) patients should be instructed to rinse and spit after taking these medications c) a common effect of these drugs is weight loss, so an adequate nutritional diet is important d) education on preventing the spread of tuberculosis
Answer: b; patients should be instructed to rinse and spit after taking these medications
The priority lab value to assess when administering heparin is _____ for subcutaneous injection (SubQ) and ______ for intravenous injection (IV). a) PT, platelets b) platelets, PTT c) platelets, Hgb d) Hgb, HCT
Answer: b; platelets, PTT
Due to the potential side effect of optic neuritis, what type of assessment should be performed with the administration of ethambutol (Myambutol)? a) respiratory assessment b) visual function assessment c) hearing assessment d) GI assessment
Answer: b; visual function assessment A respiratory assessment would be conducted as well but it does not address the potential for optic neuritis.
Your patient presents with red welts and swelling around the eyes after taking an intranasal decongestant. You know this condition, angioedema, to be a common side effect of: a) fluticasone (Flonase) b) cetrizine (Zyrtec) c) oxymetazoline (Afrin) d) triamcinolone (Nasacort)
Answer: both a & d are correct
What are the priority nursing interventions 8 hours after an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair? a. Assessing nutritional status and dietary preferences b. Initiating IV heparin and monitoring anticoagulation c. Administering IV fluids and watching kidney function d. Elevating the legs and applying compression stockings
Answer: c
What is the first priority of interprofessional care for a patient with a suspected acute aortic dissection? a. Reduce anxiety. b. Monitor chest pain. c. Control blood pressure. d. Increase myocardial contractility
Answer: c
Bile acid sequestrants cholestyramine (Questran) and colesevalam (Welchol), should be administered _________ other medications. a) 4 hours after b) 4 hours before / 2 hours after c) 2 hours before/ 4 hours after d) 2 hours before
Answer: c; 2 hours before or 4 hours after
In order to avoid dependence/rebound congestion, patients should not use oxymetazoline (Afrin) for more than: a) one day b) one week c) 3-5 days d) 10-12 days
Answer: c; 3-5 days
A patient with deep vein thrombosis is receiving an infusion of heparin and will be started on warfarin (Coumadin) soon. While the patient is receiving heparin IV, what laboratory tests will provide the nurse with information about its therapeutic effects? a) Prothrombin time (PT) b) International Normalized Ratio (INR) c) Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) d) Platelet count
Answer: c; Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT)
Which of the following is not a potential side effect of xanthine derivatives (theophyline & aminophyline)? a) tachycardia b) anxiety c) diarrhea d) arrhythmia
Answer: c; diarrhea Xanthine derivatives should be paired with a respiratory and cardiac assessment; BP and pulse should be checked
Which of the following is NOT a common sign/symptom of hypotension? a) lack of coordination b) diaphoresis (sweating) c) headache d) pallor (paleness)
Answer: c; headache Stumbling, Sweating, Stone-faced
Which of the following is a lab value that should be monitored with administration of all anti-tubercular drugs except streptomycin? a) kidney (Creatinine/BUN) b) platelets c) liver (ALT/AST) d) hemoglobin/hematocrit
Answer: c; liver labs (ALT/AST) Hepatotoxicity is a side effect common amongst rifampin and ethambutol.Isoniazide may cause drug-induced hepatitis.For this reason, the nurse should check the patient's LTFs (AST/ALT).
Which of the following hypertensive medications is used as a last resort in the ICU setting? a) hydralazine (Apresoline) b) digoxin (Lanoxin) c) milrinone (Primacor) d) doxazosin (Cardura)
Answer: c; milrinone (Primacor) Side effects of this medication include chest pain and ventricular arrythmias
Which class of antihypertensive drugs should be administered cautiously in patients with asthma? a) selective beta blockers b) specific beta blockers c) nonselective beta blockers d) nonspecific beta blockers
Answer: c; nonselective beta blockers Propanolol (Inderal) and timolol (Blocadien) bind to both Beta 1 and Beta 2 receptors and are more likely to cause bronchoconstriction. Instead, the nurse should recommend selective beta blockers such as atenolol, metroprolol, or esmolol.
Which nursing assessment should be performed after the first dose and with any dose increases of Adrenergic Blockers (doxazosin, prazosin, terazosin)? a) cardiac assessment b) get up and go test c) orthostatic vital signs d) respiratory assessment
Answer: c; orthostatic vital signs These medications may cause orthostatic hypotension; they also help to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia by decreasing outflow obstruction
Which is common among thiazide and loop diuretics? a) these are potassium sparing diuretics, hyperkalemia may occur b) these medications may cause increased blood pressure c) these are potassium excreting diuretics; hypokalemia may occur d) these medications cause ototoxicity
Answer: c; these are potassium excreting diuretics, hypokalemia may occur The nurse should monitor potassium (K+) level. Loop diuretics do cause ototoxicity, but this is not a concern with thiazide diuretics
The nurse is planning care and teaching for a patient with venous leg ulcers. What is the most important patient action in healing and control of this condition? a. Following activity guidelines. b. Using moist environment dressings. c. Taking horse chestnut seed extract daily. d. Applying graduated compression stockings
Answer: d
Which treatment should the nurse anticipate for an otherwise healthy person with an initial VTE? a. IV argatroban as an inpatient b. IV unfractionated heparin as an inpatient c. Subcutaneous unfractionated heparin as an outpatient d. Subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin as an outpatient
Answer: d
Which of the following statements about ezetimbe (Zetia) is incorrect? a) LFTs (AST/ALT) may be increased when taking this medication b) this medication is used to lower triglyceride levels and may cause pancreatitis, amylase and lipase levels should be monitored c) Rhabdomylosis may occur when taking a combo medication of ezetimbe + a -statin d) LFTs (AST/ALT) may be decreased when taking this medication
Answer: d All other statements about ezetimbe (Zetia) are correct
A patient is following up with their HCP for chronic asthma. They are currently taking fluticasone (Flovent) and albuterol (Proair, Ventolin). Based on the patient's assessment findings, the HCP decides to prescribe tiotropium (Spiriva) along with their current regimen. Which statement by the patient would warrant further education? a) "I will swish and spit water after using fluticasone (Flovent)" b) "I will suck on hard candy if I experience dry mouth with the LAMA" c) "I will use albuterol (Ventolin, Proair) for an acute asthma attack" d) "I will swallow the tiotropium (Spiriva) pill with a full glass of water"
Answer: d Tiotropium (Spiriva) pill should be placed in the handheld inhaler device and punctured with the sea foam green button, then inhaled and not swallowed
The following medications have no life threatening side effects except: a) dexiomethophan (Robitussion) b) benzonatate (Tessalon) c) diphenhydramine (Benadryl) d) pseudoephedrine (Sudafed)
Answer: d (Sudafed)
The nurse is teaching a patient about the use of dextromethorphan with guaifenesin (Robitussin-DM) syrup for a cough accompanied by thick mucus. Which instruction should be included in the patient's teaching? a) Lie supine for 30 minutes after taking the liquid b) Drink minimal fluids to avoid stimulating the cough reflux c) Take the drug with food for best results d) Avoid drinking fluids immediately after the syrup but increase overall fluid intake throughout the day
Answer: d; avoid fluid immediately after the syrup but increase overall fluid intake throughout the day Fluids immediately after will disrupt the soothing sensation of the syrup
Nitroprusside (Nitropress) is a direct vasodilator given intravenously only and is used to rapidly decrease blood pressure. It may cause: a) rebound hypertension b) hepatotoxicity c) nephrotoxicity d) cyanide toxicity
Answer: d; cyanide toxicity Cyanide toxicity prevents cells from using oxygen, resulting in their death.
Which of the following is NOT a common sign/symptom of hypokalemia? a) lethargy b) lethal cardiac arrythmias c) leg cramps d) loss of hearing
Answer: d; loss of hearing
Which of the following is not an important piece of education to give to patients taking rifampin (Rifadin)? a) this medication decreases the effectiveness of oral contraception; a second form of birth control is needed b) patients should avoid wearing contact lenses when taking this medication c) patients may want to avoid wearing white clothing while taking this medication d) patients should avoid wearing glasses while taking this medication
Answer: d; patients should avoid wearing glasses while taking this medication Due to the red discoloration of urine and sweat, patients should avoid wearing contact lenses and light colored clothing.
Which of the following anticoagulants is not matched to its correct reversal agent? a) warfarin (Coumadin) & Vitamin K b) dabigatran (Pradaxa) & Praxbind c) apixaban (Eliquis) & AndexXa d) rivaroxaban (Xarelto) & protamine sulfate
Answer: d; rivaroxaban & protamine sulfate Protamine sulfate is the reversal agent for heparin and enoxaparin; the correct reversal for rivaroxaban is AndexXa.
Which of the following assessments would be the priority with administration of aliskiren (Tekturna)? a) GI assessment b) respiratory assessment c) cardiac assessment d) skin assessment
Answer: d; skin assessment This medication is a direct renin inhibitor, used to treat hypertension, and may cause angioedema. You would also want to monitor the patient's kidney function and labs (Creatinine/BUN).
You are discussing the side effects of diuretics and wondering which are potassium sparing and potassium excreting. Which of the following diuretics does NOT cause hypokalemia? a) hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) b) furosemide (Lasix) c) bumetanide (Bumex) d) spironolactone (Aldactone)
Answer: d; spironolactone (Aldactone) Spironolactone is the only potassium sparing diuretic, thus causing hyperkalemia.
For which of the following anticoagulant medications would platelet levels NOT be your priority lab assessment? a) clopidogrel (Plavix) b) epifibatide (Integrilin) c) dabigatran (Pradaxa) d) heparin (SubQ)
Answer: dabigatran (Pradaxa) The priority lab assessment for dabigatran (Pradaxa) would be Hgb/HCT