NASM-CPT Quiz Questions

During a training program, muscular endurance and stabilization adaptations are best developed with which of the following rest intervals? Select one: a. 0-180 seconds b. 1-2 minutes c. 3-5 minutes d. 0-90 seconds

0-90 seconds

What is the focus in stage II of cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. Increasing capacity needed for Power-Level exercise b. Reducing the speed, incline, or level c. Increasing capacity needed for Strength-Level exercise d. Reducing heart rate through interval training

Increasing capacity needed for Strength-Level exercise

What is the focus of Stabilization Endurance training in the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model? Select one: a. Decreasing the frequency of motor unit recruitment b. Increasing the load-bearing capacity of muscles c. Decreasing the rate of force production d. Increasing neuromuscular efficiency of the core musculature

Increasing neuromuscular efficiency of the core musculature

When training in Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance, what is the main method of progression? Select one: a. Increasing proprioception b. Increasing speed of movement c. Increasing load d. Increasing volume

Increasing proprioception

Which of the following have a linear relationship during dynamic exercise? Select one: a. Blood pressure and carbon dioxide release b. Heart rate and carbon dioxide uptake c. Blood pressure and oxygen release d. Heart rate and oxygen uptake

Heart rate and oxygen uptake

Which method, also known as the Karvonen method, is used for establishing training intensity based on the difference between a client's predicted maximal heart rate and his or her resting heart rate? Select one: a. Peak maximal heart rate (MHR) method b. Ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) method c. Heart rate reserve (HRR) method d. Peak metabolic equivalent (MET) method

Heart rate reserve (HRR) method

Which of the following is a formula that determines a client's target heart rate during exercise? Select one: a. Peak Maximal Heart Rate Method b. Heart rate reserve (HRR) method c. Peak Metabolic Equivalent Method d. VO2 Reserve Method

Heart rate reserve (HRR) method

For hypertensive clients taking medications that will influence heart rate, which of the following methods to establish training heart rate is the most appropriate? Select one: a. Age predicted maximum heart rate b. Karvonen formula c. Heart rate response d. Heart rate reserve

Heart rate response

What is one component of triple extension of the back leg while sprinting? Select one: a. Hip extension b. Ankle dorsiflexion c. Knee flexion d. Hip flexion

Hip extension

If a client demonstrates an excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be stretched during the client's warm-up? Select one: a. Anterior tibialis b. Posterior tibialis c. Hamstring complex d. Hip flexor complex

Hip flexor complex

Daniel is foam-rolling the piriformis after a workout. Which of the following steps should he take when he encounters a tender spot? Select one: a. Hold the spot for 30 seconds. b. Oscillate on the tender spot. c. Perform a large rolling motion across the spot. d. Roll away from the tender spot.

Hold the spot for 30 seconds.

What term refers to the movement of the arm or thigh in the transverse plane from a lateral position to an anterior position when the joint is in an anteriorly flexed position? Select one: a. Eversion b. Horizontal abduction c. Circumduction d. Horizontal adduction

Horizontal adduction

Performing all sets of an exercise before moving onto the next exercise is known as which of the following? Select one: a. Split-routine b. Single-set c. Horizontal loading d. Vertical loading

Horizontal loading

Which of the following refers to a resistance training workout that involves performing all sets of an exercise or body part before moving on to the next exercise or body part? Select one: a. Circuit training b. Split-routine c. Horizontal loading d. Supersets

Horizontal loading

When performed at an appropriate tempo, which of the following exercises would offer the best improvement of the power of a client's pectoralis major? Select one: a. Ball dumbbell chest press b. Floor push-ups c. Single-leg throw and catch d. Medicine ball rotation chest pass

Medicine ball rotation chest pass

What can be thrown, caught, and used to provide resistance for a variety of movements, in a variety of planes of motion, and at a variety of velocities? Select one: a. Medicine balls b. Stability balls c. Kettlebells d. Water balls

Medicine balls

When training a client with arthritis who has never worked out before, it may be necessary to start out with how many minutes of exercise? Select one: a. 20 b. 10 c. 5 d. 15

5

Which of the following focuses on increasing muscle size? Select one: a. Interval training b. Flexibility training c. Circuit training d. Hypertrophy training

Hypertrophy training

What is the recommended daily intake for carbohydrates? Select one: a. 6-10 g/kg body weight b. 1-3 g/kg body weight c. 3-5 g/kg body weight d. 11-13 g/kg body weight

6-10 g/kg body weight

Which of the following is an appropriate intensity when training a client who is obese? Select one: a. 20 to 30% of their maximum heart rate b. 40 to 50% of their maximum heart rate c. 60 to 70% of their maximum heart rate d. 85 to 95% of their maximum heart rate

60 to 70% of their maximum heart rate

Within what range is the typical resting heart rate of a human being? Select one: a. 10 and 40 bpm b. 50 and 70 bpm c. 90 and 100 bpm d. 70 and 80 bpm

70 and 80 bpm

What percent of predicted heart rate maximum is used in zone two of cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. 56% to 65% b. 66% to 75% c. 76% to 85% d. 86% to 95%

76% to 85%

After completing the Three-Minute Step Test, a 20-year-old male scored in zone 2. What is the correct heart rate range for when he does cardio training? Select one: a. 86% to 95% of HR max b. 76% to 85% of HR max c. 65% to 75% of HR max d. 55% to 60% of HR max

76% to 85% of HR max

A client has been training three times per week in the Hypertrophy Phase of the OPT model for the last two weeks. He has worked with a repetition range of 8 to 12 repetitions, at an intensity of 80% to 85%, and rested for 20 to 30 seconds in between each exercise. He is no longer improving his strength and has expressed feeling fatigued. Which of the following modifications should be made to minimize the effects of overtraining? Select one: a. 5 repetitions, 90% intensity, and rest for 20 seconds in between each exercise b. 15 repetitions, 100% intensity, and rest for 3 minutes in between each exercise c. 3 repetitions, 95% intensity, and rest for 30 seconds in between each exercise d. 8 repetitions, 75% intensity, and rest for 60 seconds in between each exercise

8 repetitions, 75% intensity, and rest for 60 seconds in between each exercise

At what angle should the knees be when performing a ball crunch exercise? Select one: a. 120-degree b. 90-degree c. 45-degree d. 60-degree

90-degree

Which of the following best describes a function of lipids in the body? Select one: a. A precursor to hormone production b. A source of nitrogen for building nonessential amino acids c. A catalyst for high-intensity, short-duration exercise d. A source of bulk to the diet to aid digestion

A precursor to hormone production

Which of the following are the most fundamental components of designing a training program, determining the amount of stress placed on the body as well as which adaptations the body will incur? Select one: a. Formed elements b. Power adaptations c. Acute variables d. Motor units

Acute variables

Which of the following is the process of communication that shows appreciation for clients and their strengths? Select one: a. Summarizing b. Reflecting c. Active listening d. Affirmations

Affirmations

Which of the following best defines muscle imbalance? Select one: a. Synergists taking over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover. b. Alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint. c. The body seeking the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns. d. Exertion of more force by a muscle than what is being placed on it.

Alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint.

What is the next immediate progression for the ball two-arm dumbbell chest press? Select one: a. Single-leg ball dumbbell chest press b. Alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press c. Two-arm dumbbell chest press on a bench d. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press

Alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press

Which is a component of effective goal setting? Select one: a. Have goals that are hard to achieve. b. They should be what the trainers sees as important regardless of what the client feels. c. Always have a specific date of completion. d. A goal that does not have a measurable outcome.

Always have a specific date of completion.

What links together to form protein? Select one: a. Fatty acids b. Nucleotides c. Glycerols d. Amino acids

Amino acids

What is a side effect of caffeine use? Select one: a. A decrease in calcium excretion b. A decrease in systolic blood pressure c. An increase in HDL cholesterol d. An increase in urine production

An increase in urine production

What is a side effect of caffeine use? Select one: a. A decrease in systolic blood pressure b. A decrease in calcium excretion c. An increase in urine production d. An increase in HDL cholesterol

An increase in urine production

What refers to a position on the same side of the body? Select one: a. Anterior b. Ipsilateral c. Medial d. Proximal

Ipsilateral

Which of the following is an example that exhibits the conditions for being classified as obese? Select one: a. An individual with a body mass index equal to or less than 20 b. An individual who is 10 pounds over the ideal weight for his or her height c. An individual with a body mass index equal to or higher than 30 d. An individual who is 20 pounds over the ideal weight for his or her height

An individual with a body mass index equal to or higher than 30

During sprinting, backside mechanics includes which of the following motions? Select one: a. Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension b. Ankle inversion, knee abduction, and hip external rotation c. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion d. Ankle eversion, knee adduction, and hip internal rotation

Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension

What should be the primary focus when developing SAQ drills for weight loss? Select one: a. Providing variety in the selection of SAQ drills b. Maximizing sports performance training c. Keeping the heart rate appropriately elevated d. Focusing on the development of maximal speed

Keeping the heart rate appropriately elevated

Which of the following differs from a barbell or a medicine ball in that the center of mass is away from the handle? Select one: a. Kettlebell b. Pull-up bar c. Dumbbell d. Wall bar

Kettlebell

Which of the following is a flat-bottomed cast iron ball with a handle? Select one: a. Barbell b. Dumbbell c. Sandbell d. Kettlebell

Kettlebell

What is a unit of expression of energy equal to 1,000 calories? Select one: a. Microcalorie b. Decacalorie c. Kilocalorie d. Megacalorie

Kilocalorie

A woman is training to improve her running capabilities for an upcoming marathon. She is progressively increasing the distance and time of her runs. Which principle best explains physiological adaptions occuring to the woman's aerobic energy system? Select one: a. Mechanical specificity b. Autogenic inhibition c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Metabolic specificity

Metabolic specificity

Which of the following is a training plan that involves a week long exercise program based upon the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model? Select one: a. Mesocycle b. Macrocycle c. Metacycle d. Microcycle

Microcycle

Which is an example of an eccentric motion? Select one: a. Pressing dumbbells overhead b. Landing from a jump c. Holding a plank position d. Jumping upward

Landing from a jump

Which exercise should be avoided if a client exhibits arms falling forward? Select one: a. Floor prone cobra b. Reverse flys c. Lat pull-downs d. Light chest press

Lat pull-downs

Which of the following is considered a subjective assessment? Select one: a. Lifestyle and medical history questionnaire b. Blood pressure test c. Heart rate test d. Static posture assessment

Lifestyle and medical history questionnaire

Which term refers to fibrous connective tissues that connect bone to bone and provide static and dynamic stability as well as input to the nervous system? Select one: a. Tendons b. Dendrites c. Effectors d. Ligaments

Ligaments

Which of the following is a correct training strategy for a client with osteoarthritis? Select one: a. Perform self-myofascial release to reduce muscular tension during arthritic flare-ups. b. Avoid cycling between 60% to 80% of maximal heart rate because it most likely will increase joint pain and stiffness of the lower extremities. c. Avoid balance training because a client who has osteoarthritis has a higher risk of falling. d. Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model.

Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model.

What are responsible for sensing distortion in body tissues and are located in muscles, tendons, ligaments, and joint capsules? Select one: a. Chemoreceptors b. Osmoreceptors c. Mechanoreceptors d. Photoreceptors

Mechanoreceptors

Where is the sternum in relation to the shoulder? Select one: a. Lateral b. Contralateral c. Superior d. Medial

Medial

During the overhead squat assessment, the feet turn out, which of the following muscles are underactive? Select one: a. Lateral gastrocnemius b. Soleus c. Medial gastrocnemius d. Vastus lateralis

Medial gastrocnemius

After leaving the left ventricle, blood enters which structure? Select one: a. Pulmonary artery b. Superior vena cava c. Aorta d. Inferior vena cava

Aorta

Large doses of beta-carotene intake can cause an increased risk for which of the following? Select one: a. Hip fractures in older women b. Birth defects if taken early in pregnancy c. Lung cancer in smokers d. Alzheimer's disease in the elderly

Lung cancer in smokers

A personal trainer provides his client with step-by-step instructions on how to perform a ball squat to shoulder press. Which type of support is this an example of? Select one: a. Emotional b. Informational c. Instrumental d. Companionship

Informational

What is the purpose of asking an open-ended question during a client's initial session? Select one: a. Build a collaborative relationship with a client. b. Identify a client's resting heart rate and VO2 max. c. Get a clear "yes" or "no" answer. d. Get an idea of a client's muscular imbalances.

Build a collaborative relationship with a client.

As the velocity of a muscular contraction increases, the ability to produce force decreases for which part of the muscle action spectrum? Select one: a. Arthrokinetic b. Eccentric c. Concentric d. Isometric

Concentric

What kind of muscle action is raising a dumbbell up against the direction of resistance? Select one: a. Concentric action b. Auxotonic action c. Isometric action d. Eccentric action

Concentric action

What may be the best measure of cardiorespiratory fitness? Select one: a. End-diastolic volume b. Maximal lung capacity c. Maximal oxygen consumption d. Stroke volume

Maximal oxygen consumption

Which movements is the gluteus maximus responsible for? Select one: a. Concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation b. Concentrically accelerating hip supination and lateral rotation c. Concentrically accelerating hip flexion and internal rotation d. Concentrically accelerating hip adduction and medial rotation

Concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation

A client tells the personal trainer she does not exercise, but she is thinking about becoming more active in the next 6 months. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is this client? Select one: a. Preparation b. Action c. Contemplation d. Precontemplation

Contemplation

An individual is training at the gym on his own. He asks a fellow gym member to spot him during the bench press exercise. Of which type of support is this an example? Select one: a. Companionship b. Emotional c. Informational d. Instrumental

Instrumental

What type of support is tangible and practial to help a person adhere to exercise or achieve their goals? Select one: a. Instrumental support b. Companionship support c. Emotional support d. Informational support

Instrumental support

The main goal of balance training is to continually increase a client's awareness of his or her limit of stability awareness by creating which of the following? Select one: a. Controlled instability b. Functional flexibility c. Autogenic inhibition d. Synergistic dominance

Controlled instability

Which level of core training exercise prepares an individual to dynamically stabilize and generate force at more functionally applicable speeds? Select one: a. Core-power b. Core-reactive c. Core-stabilization d. Core-strength

Core-power

Which of the following training types involves little motion through the spine and pelvis? Select one: a. Core-reactive b. Core-stabilization c. Core-power d. Core-strength

Core-stabilization

Which of the following is designed to increase joint range of motion (ROM), improve muscle imbalances, and correct altered joint motion? Select one: a. Functional flexibility b. Active flexibility c. Corrective flexibility d. Passive flexibility

Corrective flexibility

What refers to a position away from the center of the body or the point of reference? Select one: a. Contralateral b. Inferior c. Ipsilateral d. Distal

Distal

Which of the following ratings of perceived exertion on the Borg Scale would be implemented in a cardio training program for clients wanting to improve their aerobic base? Select one: a. 9 to 11 b. 12 to 13 c. 14 to 16 d. 17 to 19

12 to 13

According to the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines, what is the minimum amount of time per week an individual should engage in physical activity if performed at a moderate-intensity level? Select one: a. 100 min b. 250 min c. 150 min d. 200 min

150 min

How many ounces of water should a client consume immediately after exercise for every pound lost? Select one: a. 6 to 12 ounces b. 16 to 24 ounces c. 24 to 32 ounces d. 32 to 48 ounces

16 to 24 ounces

To maintain certification with NASM, the Certified Personal Trainer must earn: Select one: a. 1 CEU within 2 years. b. 2 CEUs within 2 years. c. 3 CEUs within 3 years. d. 3 CEUs within 4 years.

2 CEUs within 2 years.

Which of the following is an appropriate number of exercises per body part per session for a client who has the goal of muscular hypertrophy? Select one: a. 1 to 2 b. 2 to 4 c. 4 to 6 d. 6 to 10

2 to 4

As the velocity of a muscular contraction increases, the ability to produce force increases for which part of the muscle action spectrum? Select one: a. Eccentric b. Isokinetic c. Concentric d. Isometric

Eccentric

Which of the following is a goal of the Stabilization Level of the OPT model? Select one: a. Increase maximal muscle strength b. Enhance joint stability c. Increase anaerobic power d. Enhance rate of force production

Enhance joint stability

What is produced primarily in the ovaries in the female and in small amounts in the adrenal glands in males? Select one: a. Epinephrine b. Cortisol c. Estrogen d. Testosterone

Estrogen

Once a personal trainer has identified their income goal and what they need to make each week, what is the next immediate step? Select one: a. Figuring out how many potential clients they need b. Figuring out the closing percentage c. Figuring out how many sessions need to be performed each week d. Figuring out how many potential clients need to be contacted each day

Figuring out how many sessions need to be performed each week

Which of the following energy pathways is used for activities lasting between 30 and 50 seconds? Select one: a. ATP-CP b. Glycolysis c. Oxidative d. Krebs cycle

Glycolysis

What is the focus of the Power Phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model? Select one: a. Reduce the recruitment of more motor units b. Achieve maximal muscle growth c. Increase the rate of force production d. Decrease metabolic demand

Increase the rate of force production

Which of the following is an effect of dehydration? Select one: a. Increased heart rate b. Decreased use of muscle glycogen c. Decreased core temperature d. Increased sodium excretion

Increased heart rate

A client finishes four weeks of a Phase 4 OPT program. Which of the following adaptations is most likely to occur? Select one: a. Increased maximal strength b. Increased aerobic capacity c. Increased muscular endurance d. Increased V02 max

Increased maximal strength

When training for speed, agility, and quickness, the foot and ankle complex should be in which of the following positions when it hits the ground? Select one: a. Externally rotated and dorsiflexed b. Pointing straight ahead and plantar flexed c. Internally rotated and plantar flexed d. Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed

Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed

When training a youth client, which of the following factors will determine when you can progress to the next phase of training? Select one: a. Muscle hypertrophy b. Agility and quickness c. Postural control d. Amount of weight that can be used

Postural control

Which of the following factors is used to determine progression when working with a youth client? Select one: a. Muscle hypertrophy b. Strength c. Postural control d. Speed

Postural control

Maintenance of which of the following is an integrated process requiring optimal muscular balance, joint dynamics, and neuromuscular efficiency using visual, vestibular, and proprioceptive inputs? Select one: a. Mechanical equilibrium b. Postural equilibrium c. Static equilibrium d. Dynamic equilibrium

Postural equilibrium

Maintenance of which of the following is an integrated process requiring optimal muscular balance, joint dynamics, and neuromuscular efficiency using visual, vestibular, and proprioceptive inputs? Select one: a. Postural equilibrium b. Dynamic equilibrium c. Mechanical equilibrium d. Static equilibrium

Postural equilibrium

What exercise requires that the knees always stay in line with the toes during the takeoff and landing components? Select one: a. Power step-up b. Single-leg step-up c. Overhead soccer throw d. Squatting

Power step-up

Which of the following is outside of the personal trainer's scope of practice, according the Code of Professional Conduct? Select one: a. Inquire about current and past medications the client has been administered by a healthcare professional. b. Provide nutritional counseling for a client who exhibits signs of an eating disorder. c. Provide flexibility training techniques to assist clients who display limited joint range of motion. d. Independently design training programs to correct muscle imbalances.

Provide nutritional counseling for a client who exhibits signs of an eating disorder.

Which of the following is muscle that acts as the initial and main source of motive power? Select one: a. Prime mover b. Fixator c. Neutralizer d. Antagonist

Prime mover

The first exercise during Strength Endurance training involves a traditional strength exercise, such as a bench press, that is performed in a stable environment in order to elicit which of the following? Select one: a. Prime mover strength b. Antagonist muscle strength c. Fixator strength d. Neutralizer strength

Prime mover strength

Which assessment tests for speed, explosion, body control, and agility? Select one: a. 40-yard dash b. Gait assessment c. L.E.F.T. test d. Pro shuttle test

Pro shuttle test

Which of the following terms means creating a purposeful system or plan to achieve a specific goal? Select one: a. Quantitative analysis b. Qualitative analysis c. Hypothesis d. Program design

Program design

Louis drives interest in his club through social media channels. Which of the following four Ps of the marketing mix is Louis using? Select one: a. Planning b. Place c. Promotion d. Planning

Promotion

Which of the four P's of the marketing mix involves communication strategies such as advertising, sales, and social media? Select one: a. Placement b. Promotion c. Price d. Planning

Promotion

Which of the following is characterized by flat feet and adducted and internally rotated knees? Select one: a. Upper crossed syndrome b. Pronation distortion syndrome c. Lower crossed syndrome d. Lower extremity movement syndrome

Pronation distortion syndrome

Which of the following core-training exercises is best for a new client? Select one: a. Ball Crunch b. Front Medicine Ball Oblique Throw c. Reverse Crunch d. Prone Iso-ab

Prone Iso-ab

Which of the following exercises is most appropriate for the goal of improving neuromuscular efficiency and intervertebral stability? Select one: a. Overhead medicine ball throws b. Back extension c. Incline reverse crunch d. Prone iso-abs

Prone iso-abs

Which term refers to the cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from all mechanoreceptors that sense position and limb movements? Select one: a. Periodization b. Amortization c. Homeostasis d. Proprioception

Proprioception

Low-volume training with high intensity increases which of the following? Select one: a. Rate of force production b. Blood lipid serum profile c. Muscle cross-sectional area d. Metabolic rate

Rate of force production

Which term refers to the ability of muscles to exert maximal power in a minimal amount of time? Select one: a. Sensorimotor control b. Maximal tetanic tension c. Rate of force production d. Perturbation

Rate of force production

In core-power training (Phase 5), what are exercises designed to improve? Select one: a. Rate of force production of the core musculature b. Joint stability of the sacroiliac joint c. Proprioceptive capabilities of the lumbo-peliv hip complex d. Muscular endurance of the spinal erectors

Rate of force production of the core musculature

Which of the following is a technique used to express or validate how a client feels when he or she is working during exercise? Select one: a. Peak metabolic equivalent (MET) method b. Ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) method c. Heart rate reserve (HRR) method d. Peak maximal heart rate (MHR) method

Ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) method

Which of the following professions requires a supervised practice program? Select one: a. Gym manager b. Personal trainer c. Group exercise instructor d. Registered dietician

Registered dietician

According to the stages of change model, what do trainers need to help clients overcome? Select one: a. Relapse b. Progression c. Injuries d. Eating disorders

Relapse

How does metabolism behave during EPOC? Select one: a. Increases b. Fluctuates c. Remains elevated d. Remains unaffected

Remains elevated

Which of the following defines the speed at which each muscle action is performed? Select one: a. Training duration b. Rest period c. Repetition tempo d. Training frequency

Repetition tempo

A client who has an increased functional capacity to adapt to a stressor is in which of the following stages of the general adaptation syndrome? Select one: a. Resistance development b. Alarm reaction c. Exhaustion d. Periodization

Resistance development

Which of the following is a system of organs that collects oxygen from the external environment and transports it to the bloodstream? Select one: a. Immune system b. Integumentary system c. Endocrine system d. Respiratory system

Respiratory system

Decreased levels of thyroid hormones tend to cause a decrease in which of the following? Select one: a. Systolic blood pressure b. Resting metabolic rate c. Diastolic blood pressure d. Resting heart rate

Resting metabolic rate

Acute variables determine which of the following? Select one: a. What type of workout is being done b. The amount of stress placed on the body c. Progression of the exercise d. Proper kinetic chain alignment

The amount of stress placed on the body

Which of the following muscles is probably underactive when the arms fall forward during an overhead squat? Select one: a. Levator scapulae b. Rhomboids c. Sternocleidomastoid d. Upper trapezius

Rhomboids

Front lunges and biceps curls occur in which plane of motion? Select one: a. Transverse b. Frontal c. Sagittal d. Scapular

Sagittal

In which plane of motion does a hammer curl occur? Select one: a. Frontal b. Anterior-posterior c. Transverse d. Sagittal

Sagittal

Which plane bisects the body into right and left sides? Select one: a. Transverse plane b. Axial plane c. Sagittal plane d. Frontal plane

Sagittal plane

What usually happens after 90 minutes of exercise? Select one: a. The amount of available fuel for exercise from fats is exhausted. b. The majority of muscle glycogen stores are depleted. c. The oxidation of proteins predominates as the primary energy source. d. The amount of stored adenosine triphosphate (ATP) in the body increases

The majority of muscle glycogen stores are depleted.

What assessment should be avoided or modified if a client's knees are falling in during a single-leg squat assessment? Select one: a. 40-yard dash b. Overhead squat assessment c. Lower extremity strength assessment d. Shark skill test

Shark skill test

Which of the following assessments is designed to assess lower-extremity agility and neuromuscular control? Select one: a. Single-leg squat b. Shark skill test c. Davies test d. Single-leg star test

Shark skill test

In the context of selecting an appropriate speed of movement during training, from which of the following is muscular endurance and stabilization best developed? Select one: a. Explosive repetition tempo b. Slow repetition tempo c. Moderate repetition tempo d. Fast, yet controlled, repetition tempo

Slow repetition tempo

Davis's law states which of the following? Select one: a. A chronically shortened muscle will demonstrate poor neuromuscular efficiency. b. Soft tissue models along the lines of stress. c. A tight agonist muscle will decrease neural drive to its functional antagonist. d. The body will seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns.

Soft tissue models along the lines of stress.

What is involved in the preparatory step for a multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise? Select one: a. Stand on a box with feet shoulder-width apart and pointed straight ahead. b. Stand in front of a box with feet shoulder-width apart. c. Stand on a box with feet in a staggered stance and pointed sideways. d. Standing in front of a box with feet in a staggered stance, pointed straight ahead.

Stand in front of a box with feet shoulder-width apart.

A personal trainer is working with a 65-year-old client who is sedentary. Which of the following SAQ drills would be appropriate for this client? Select one: a. Follow the snake b. Red light, green light c. Modified box drill d. Stand-up to figure 8

Stand-up to figure 8

Which of the following is a characteristic of muscle spindles? Select one: a. They transmit nerve impulses from one neuron to another. b. They are sensitive to change in length of muscle and the rate of that change. c. They provide the ability to sense the relative position of adjacent parts of the body. d. They are slow twitch, "red" muscle fibers with a high degree of mitochondria.

They are sensitive to change in length of muscle and the rate of that change.

What is the effect of beta-blockers on the heart? Select one: a. They have no effect on the heartbeat. b. They stop the heartbeat. c. They decrease the heart rate. d. They increase the heart rate.

They decrease the heart rate.

Resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction during which of the following exercises? Select one: a. Standing triceps extension b. Standing cable row c. Standing cable crunch d. Standing cable chest press

Standing cable chest press

A client is taking prescription beta blockers for hypertension. Which of the following exercises is safe for him to perform? Select one: a. Reverse crunch b. Standing cobra c. Floor bridge d. Knee-up

Standing cobra

When working with a client with hypertension, which of the following is the most appropriate exercise? Select one: a. Floor bridge b. Standing cobra c. Bench press d. Isometric squat

Standing cobra

Polysaccharides are often called complex carbohydrates and they primarily include which of the following? Select one: a. Cane sugar and milk sugar b. Brown sugar and fruit sugar c. Kestose and trehalose d. Starch and fiber

Starch and fiber

What is used to increase the extensibility of soft tissues through both autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition? Select one: a. Static stretching b. Active stretching c. Elastic stretching d. Ballistic stretching

Static stretching

A client's head protrudes during a pulling assessment. Which of the following muscles should be stretched? Select one: a. Sternocleidomastoid b. Longus capitis c. Supraspinatus d. Longus coli

Sternocleidomastoid

What types of SAQ drills are most appropriate for Phase 1 training? Select one: a. Those with limited horizontal inertia b. Those allowing maximal horizontal inertia c. Those allowing unpredictability d. Those allowing grater horizontal inertia

Those with limited horizontal inertia

During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has protracted shoulders and a forward head. Which of the following muscles is most likely to be shortened? Select one: a. Serratus anterior and infraspinatus b. Teres minor and posterior deltoid c. Sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major d. Lower trapezius and rhomboids

Sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major

A seated cable row is an example of an exercise from which level in the OPT model? Select one: a. Corrective b. Strength c. Power d. Stabilization

Strength

Which of the following involves performing exercises in a superset sequence? Select one: a. Aerobic Endurance Training b. Strength Endurance Training c. Speed Endurance Training d. Anaerobic Endurance Training

Strength Endurance Training

Which of the following clients would use active-isolated stretching during a warm-up? Select one: a. Strength Level client b. Stabilization Level client c. Corrective Exercise Level client d. Power Level client

Strength Level client

Which of the following is a measuring site of the Durnin-Womersley formula? Select one: a. Calf b. Mid-axillary line c. Subscapular d. Thigh

Subscapular

What term describes the act of synergists taking over function for a weak or inhibited prime mover? Select one: a. Altered reciprocal inhibition b. Synergistic dominance c. Arthrokinetic dysfunction d. Autogenic inhibition

Synergistic dominance

What is the functional unit of the nervous system? Select one: a. Tendon b. Neuron c. Cartilage d. Vein

Neuron

Which of the following statements is correct regarding proper spotting technique for a client using a machine? Select one: a. Spot at the client's elbows. b. Spot at the client's hands. c. Never spot underneath the weight stack. d. Spot at the client's axilla.

Never spot underneath the weight stack.

Which of the following classifies a product as a supplement? Select one: a. Regulated by the FDA b. Includes drugs and biologics c. Non-drug substance in a pill or powder form d. Represented as a conventional food

Non-drug substance in a pill or powder form

Metabolic syndrome is a cluster of symptoms characterized by what conditions? Select one: a. Hyperthyroidism, sarcoidosis, sarcopenia, hypotension b. Obesity, insulin resistance, hypertension, dyslipidemia c. Osteoporosis, osteopenia, osteoarthritis, osteomyelitis d. Plantar fasciitis, Achilles tendonitis, sciatica, biceps tendinopathy

Obesity, insulin resistance, hypertension, dyslipidemia

A client runs a mile in 6 min and 30 seconds. Which of the following energy systems is the client primarily using to produce energy? Select one: a. ATP-PC b. Oxidative c. Phosphagen d. Anaerobic glycolysis

Oxidative

What type of support is given when someone supports their child in starting an exercise program? Select one: a. Family b. Child c. Parental d. Acquintance

Parental

Which of the following requires a client to perform cardiorespiratory exericse at maximal effort while monitoring ventilation response? Select one: a. Karvonen method b. Peak VO2 method c. Straight percentage method d. VO2rest method

Peak VO2 method

Which of the following glands releases growth hormone during childhood up until puberty? Select one: a. Adrenal gland b. Thyroid gland c. Holocrine gland d. Pituitary gland

Pituitary gland

Which of the following is the most appropriate spotting technique for a dumbbell chest press? Select one: a. Place the hands just under the client's elbows. b. Place the hands close to the client's wrists. c. Place hands just under the client's triceps. d. Place the hands just under the client's dumbbells.

Place the hands close to the client's wrists.

Ice skaters are an example of which type of exercise? Select one: a. Plyometric-power b. Balance-strength c. Balance-power d. Reactive-strength

Plyometric-power

During which of the following are optimal landing mechanics first established? Select one: a. Balance-stabilization training b. Reactive-strength training c. Plyometric-stabilization training d. Balance-strength training

Plyometric-stabilization training

Which classificaion of exercises involve more dynamic eccentric and concentric movement through a full range of motion? Select one: a. Balance-stablization b. Plyometric-strength c. Core-stabilization d. Corrective-flexibility

Plyometric-strength

Which of the following is an example of a sagittal plane movement? Select one: a. Horizontal adduction of limbs b. Internal rotation of limbs c. Side lunges d. Triceps pushdown

Triceps pushdown

When performing the single-leg dumbbell scaption, what is the immediate regression? Select one: a. Alternating arm b. Two legs c. Seated d. Single-leg, single-arm

Two legs

During functional movement patterns, a client demonstrates excessive spinal motion. Which of the following core exercises should the trainer recognize as being most appropriate for this individual? Select one: a. Ball medicine pullover throw b. Reverse crunch c. Two-leg floor bridge d. Back extension

Two-leg floor bridge

A client has mastered the single-leg squat on the floor. Which of the following is a proprioceptive and challenging progression? Select one: a. Single-leg squat on an Airex pad b. Two-leg squat on floor c. Two-leg squat on Dyna disc d. Single-leg squat on a Dyna disc

Two-leg squat on Dyna disc

What is the proper balance progression to increase a client's proprioception? Select one: a. Single-leg unstable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, one-leg unstable b. Two-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg stable, single-leg unstable c. Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable d. Single-leg stable, two-leg stable, one-leg unstable, two-leg unstable

Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable

Which of the following refers to a program design approach that changes acute variables to achieve different goals on a daily or weekly basis? Select one: a. Tabulation b. Undulated periodization c. Linear summation d. Linear periodization

Undulated periodization

Which of the following is an advantage of working at a commercial fitness facility for a fitness professional who is looking to be financially successful? Select one: a. Schedule flexibility b. Provided uniforms c. Robust group fitness schedules d. Updated equipment is provided

Updated equipment is provided

Which of the following assessments can also be used to determine training intensities of the bench press? Select one: a. Overhead squat assessment b. Lower extremity strength assessment c. Upper extremity strength assessment d. Single-leg squat assessment

Upper extremity strength assessment

Which of the following is the appropriate protocol with a client who has coronary heart disease, is obese, and is beginning an exercise program after receiving clearance from her physician? Select one: a. Employ plyometric-stabilization training b. Use prediction formulas to estimate the client's max heart rate c. Use the talk test to measure an exercise's intensity d. Implement a 4-2-1 repetition tempo

Use the talk test to measure an exercise's intensity

Which of the following refers to vessels that transport blood from the capillaries toward the heart? Select one: a. Arterioles b. Arteries c. Veins d. Carotids

Veins

To which of the following do the local core stabilizers attach? Select one: a. Femur b. Vertebrae c. Clavicle d. Humerus

Vertebrae

Which of the following consists of a series of irregularly shaped bones divided into five different categories depending on where they are located in the backbone? Select one: a. Articular cartilage b. Vertebral column c. Epiphyseal plate d. Medullar cavity

Vertebral column

A client performs a ball squat, curl to overhead press followed by a push-up, a standing cable row, a single-leg scaption, and a single-leg squat in a circuit fashion. This is an example of which of the following resistance training systems? Select one: a. Split-routine b. Vertical loading c. Peripheral heart action d. Pyramid

Vertical loading

A personal trainer has his client perform the following exercises in order: ball squat, curl to overhead press, ball dumbbell chest press, standing cable row, seated stability ball military press, step-up to balance, and then repeat the sequence. Which of the following resistance training systems does this exercise routine represent? Select one: a. Pyramid b. Vertical loading c. Peripheral heart action d. Drop-set

Vertical loading

Which of the following was developed by a Russian scientist in the training of cosmonauts to decrease the loss of muscle and bone mass while in space? Select one: a. Elastic resistance training b. Kettlebell training c. Suspension body-weight training d. Vibration training

Vibration training

The ability to react and change body position, with maximum rate of force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions during functional activities is: Select one: a. power. b. speed. c. quickness. d. agility.

quickness

When talking to a client, conversational techniques that express the purported meaning of what was just heard are referred to as: Select one: a. reflections. b. affirmations. c. compliments. d. judgments.

reflections.

According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, a Certified Personal Trainer shall maintain accurate financial, contract appointments, and tax records including original receipts for a minimum of: Select one: a. six months. b. twelve months. c. two years. d. four years.

four years.

What is neuromuscular efficiency? Select one: a. A muscle's ability to contract for an extended period of time b. Ability of neuromuscular system to enable all muscles to efficiently work together in all planes of motion c. Ability of the body's stabilizing muscles to provide force for movement d. The cumulative input to the peripheral nervous system from internal organs

Ability of neuromuscular system to enable all muscles to efficiently work together in all planes of motion

During glycolysis, in the presence of oxygen, pyruvic acid is converted into which important molecule in metabolism? Select one: a. Propionyl coenzyme A b. Acetyl coenzyme A c. Glucose-6-phosphate d. Adenosine diphosphate

Acetyl coenzyme A

According to sliding filament theory, when does muscular contracting occur? Select one: a. Myofibrils are lengthened. b. The distance from Z line to Z line is increased. c. Actin and myosin filaments slide away from each other, lengthening the sarcomere. d. Actin and myosin filiments slide past each other, shortening the entire sarcomere.

Actin and myosin filiments slide past each other, shortening the entire sarcomere.

An individual exercises regularly, but has not yet maintained the behavior for 6 months. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is this individual? Select one: a. Contemplation b. Preparation c. Action d. Maintenance

Action

What is the fourth step in the stages of change model? Select one: a. Preparation b. Precontemplation c. Action d. Contemplation

Action

What should senior SAQ training focus on? Select one: a. Activities the individual will need for daily life b. Weight loss c. Maximal unpredictability d. Keeping the heart rate elevated

Activities the individual will need for daily life

Which method of cardio should be avoided for a client who demonstrates low-back arching as a movement compensation? Select one: a. Group exercise classes b. Bicycles c. Elliptical trainers d. Treadmills

Bicycles

What is a life-sustaining fluid that supplies the body's organs and cells with oxygen and nutrients and helps regulate body temperature, fight infections, and remove waste products? Select one: a. Blood b. Rheum c. Bile d. Exudate

Blood

For which of the following populations would hypertrophy training be most beneficial? Select one: a. Marathon runners b. Swimmers c. Gymnasts d. Body builders

Body builders

Which of the following is considered objective information gathered during a fitness evaluation? Select one: a. Body composition testing results b. If they wear shoes with elevated heels c. PAR-Q results d. A client's current injuries

Body composition testing results

What technique uses a co-contraction of global muscles to enhance global trunk stability? Select one: a. Horizontal adduction b. Flexion c. Extension d. Bracing

Bracing

Which of the following refers to a straightening movement in which the relative angle between two adjacent segments increases? Select one: a. Extension b. Inversion c. Flexion d. Adduction

Extension

Which of the following is a core-stabilization exercise? Select one: a. Cable rotation b. Floor prone cobra c. Rotation chest pass d. Ball crunch

Floor prone cobra

If a diabetic client has peripheral neuropathy, which of the following exercises should be avoided? Select one: a. Machine chest press b. Incline prone iso-abs c. Seated ball adductor stretch d. Foam roll calves

Foam roll calves

What is the term referring to the synergistic action of muscle groups to produce movement around a joint? Select one: a. Force-couple relationship b. Length-tension relationship c. Moment of force d. Stretch-shortening cycle

Force-couple relationship

As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases. This is an example of which of the following? Select one: a. Relative flexibility b. Rotary motion c. Length-tension relationships d. Force-velocity curve

Force-velocity curve

Adduction is a movement back toward the midline of the body in which of the following planes? Select one: a. Sagittal plane b. Median plane c. Frontal plane d. Transverse plane

Frontal plane

Which of the following governs how the body responds and adjusts to stress? Select one: a. Homeostasis b. Autogenic inhibition c. General adaptation syndrome d. Synergistic response

General adaptation syndrome

Which term refers to the assistance of amino acids in energy production during periods of starvation? Select one: a. Glycogenesis b. The Kreb's cycle c. The Cori cycle d. Gluconeogenesis

Gluconeogenesis

During a single-leg squat assessment, the client's standing leg caves inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive? Select one: a. Tensor fascia latae b. Adductor complex c. Vastus lateralis d. Gluteus medius

Gluteus medius

How many calories are in one gram of protein? Select one: a. 9 b. 7 c. 4 d. 2

4

How many calories does one gram of carbohydrate yield? Select one: a. 2 b. 4 c. 3 d. 6

4

How many weeks should a client spend during the Stabilization Phase of core training? Select one: a. 8 b. 9 c. 10 d. 4

4

Which of the following is recommended for a client taking beta-blockers for hypertension? Select one: a. Use Valsalva maneuvers b. Avoid prone positions c. Implement a drop-set loading system d. Modify training to include heavy workloads

Avoid prone positions

Excess intake of vitamin D can lead to which of the following? Select one: a. Calcification of arteries b. Bone and joint pain c. Loss of hair d. Osteopenia

Calcification of arteries

Which of the following micronutrients should be at low levels or absent in a multivitamin? Select one: a. Vitamin B12 b. Biotin c. Riboflavin d. Calcium

Calcium

Arterioles branch out into vessels know as what? Select one: a. Capillaries b. Blood vessels c. Venules d. Veins

Capillaries

In which of the following structures are water and chemicals exchanged between the blood and tissues? Select one: a. Capillaries b. Sinoatrial node c. Venules d. Atrioventricular node

Capillaries

Which of the following macronutrients has an acceptable macronutrient distribution range in the 45 - 65% total caloric intake? Select one: a. Fats b. Carbohydrates c. Protein d. Lipids

Carbohydrates

What term describes the number of heart beats per minute and the amount of blood pumped per beat? Select one: a. Cardiac output b. Blood pressure c. Heart rate d. Stroke volume

Cardiac output

Which of the following cues is appropriate to give a client who will be performing a floor bridge exercise? Select one: a. "Lay prone on the floor and retract your shoulder blades." b. "Squeeze your glutes." c. "Press your lower back onto the floor." d. "Raise hips up as high as possible to activate erector spinae."

"Squeeze your glutes."

Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question? Select one: a. "Are you ready to get started today?" b. "Does this exercise hurt?" c. "Why do you want to lose 20 pounds?" d. "Are you feeling okay?"

"Why do you want to lose 20 pounds?"

A personal trainer is working with a client who has hypertension. Which of the following statements from the client indicates a need for further teaching? Select one: a. "I should make sure my back is flat against the floor during a floor bridge." b. "I should perform my iso-ab exercise at an incline." c. "I should keep my back straight during the seated shoulder press." d. "I should stand and squeeze my shoulder blades together when performing the cobra exercise."

"I should make sure my back is flat against the floor during a floor bridge."

When performing a Phase 4 workout, how many repetitions per resistance training exercise should be performed? Select one: a. 4-8 b. 6-10 c. 1-5 d. 8-12

1-5

What is the BMI range with the lowest risk of disease? Select one: a. less than 18.5 b. more than 30 c. 22-24.9 d. 25-29.9

22-24.9

The adaptation of muscular hypertrophy is best achieved using which of the following repetition tempos? Select one: a. 4/2/1 b. 1/1/1 c. 2/0/2 d. X/X/X

2/0/2

Personal trainers have a maximum of how many seconds to make a good first impression? Select one: a. 10 seconds b. 15 seconds c. 20 seconds d. 30 seconds

20 seconds

At what BMI threshold does a person's chance for obesity-related health problems increase? Select one: a. 20 b. 18.5 c. 25 d. 22.5

25

Which of the following is the appropriate rest interval when training in the Maximal Strength Phase? Select one: a. 3 minutes b. 60 seconds c. 6 minutes d. 30 seconds

3 minutes

How many sets per exercise should be performed for resistance training in the Power Phase of training of the OPT model? Select one: a. 0-2 b. 2-4 c. 3-5 d. 1-3

3-5

What is the recommended rest period for power adaptations during a training period? Select one: a. 0-60 seconds b. 3-5 minutes c. 1-2 minutes d. 0-90 seconds

3-5 minutes

How long should a client hold the landing position in a squat jump with stabilization exercise? Select one: a. 6-7 seconds b. 1-2 seconds c. 8-10 seconds d. 3-5 seconds

3-5 seconds

Which of the following is the correct recommendation for caffeine intake for performance enhancement? Select one: a. 1-3 mg/lb b. 3-6 mg/lb c. 3-6 mg/kg d. 1-3 mg/kg

3-6 mg/kg

Resting oxygen consumption is approximately how many mL of oxygen per kilogram body weight per minute? Select one: a. 350 mL b. 35.0 mL c. 3.5 mL d. 0.35 mL

3.5 mL

A personal trainer is advising a client on caloric distribution. Which of the following falls within the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) for protein? Select one: a. 40% b. 60% c. 30% d. 50%

30%

What is a high-protein diet commonly associated with? Select one: a. A decreased risk of dehydration b. A decrease in urea production c. An increase in fiber intake d. A decrease in glycogen stores

A decrease in glycogen stores

Knee injuries involving ligaments lead to which of the following? Select one: a. Increased neural control to stabilizing muscles of the core of the knee b. Decreased neural control of the rotator cuff muscles c. An increase in the neural control to the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus muscles d. A decrease in the neural control to muscles that stabilize the patella

A decrease in the neural control to muscles that stabilize the patella

A personal trainer is working with a client who is having trouble performing a single-leg balance on a foam pad. Which of the following balance training modalities is appropriate for this client? Select one: a. BOSU ball b. A half foam roll c. Balance disk d. A wobble board

A half foam roll

When an exercise is high intensity and lasts about 10 seconds, which of the following energy pathways is predominantly in use? Select one: a. Oxidative b. Aerobic c. Glycolysis d. ATP-PC

ATP-PC

Which of the following energy systems is used most when running a 10-second sprint? Select one: a. Oxidative b. Krebs cycle c. ATP-PC d. Glycolysis

ATP-PC

Which of the following refers to a movement in the frontal plane away from the midline of the body? Select one: a. Abduction b. Dorsiflexion c. Opposition d. Rotation

Abduction

Horizontal abduction involves the movement of the arm or thigh in the transverse plane from which of the following positions to a lateral position? Select one: a. Anterior b. Inferior c. Ipsilateral d. Posterior

Anterior

Which of the following is a characteristic of lower crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Anterior tilt to the pelvis b. Hyperextension of the hips and knees c. Forward head and rounded shoulders d. Flat feet and knock knees

Anterior tilt to the pelvis

Which of the following is a small terminal branch of an artery, which ends in capillaries? Select one: a. Arteriole b. Venule c. Vein d. Atrium

Arteriole

Which term refers to the motion of a joint? Select one: a. Wave summations b. Force-velocity curves c. Arthrokinematics d. Excitation-contraction coupling

Arthrokinematics

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Davies test assessment? Select one: a. Assessing upper-extremity agility and stabilization b. Assessing dynamic flexibility and integrated total body strength c. Assessing lower-extremity agility and balance d. Estimating one-rep maximum and upper-extremity strength

Assessing upper-extremity agility and stabilization

What cognitive-behavior approach invovles throughts influencing behavior? Select one: a. Association and dissociation b. Extrinsic c. Intrinsic d. Social support

Association and dissociation

When should the three measurements for resting heart rate be taken for greatest accuracy? Select one: a. After working out b. Immediately before bed c. At the same time each day upon waking d. Five minutes apart

At the same time each day upon waking

A client who suffers from a chronic disease decides he no longer wants to participate in personal training sessions, based on the advice of his spouse. This is an example of which of the following? Select one: a. Behavioral reactants b. Action stage c. Remodeling d. Diffusion

Behavioral reactants

Which term refers to the body being in equilibrium and stationary? Select one: a. Functional efficiency b. Balance c. Neuromuscular efficiency d. Posture

Balance

Which term refers to the body being in equilibrium and stationary? Select one: a. Neuromuscular efficiency b. Functional efficiency c. Balance d. Posture

Balance

What is a multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization an example of? Select one: a. Balance-stabilization exercise b. Balance-modification exercise c. Balance-power exercise d. Balance-strength exercise

Balance-power exercise

What is a single-leg balance an example of? Select one: a. Balance-modification exercise b. Balance-power exercise c. Balance-strength exercise d. Balance-stabilization exercise

Balance-stabilization exercise

When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following? Select one: a. Balance-plyometric b. Balance-strength c. Balance-stabilization d. Balance-power

Balance-strength

Which of the following is an example of a core-power exercise? Select one: a. Marching b. Ball medicine ball pullover throw c. Reverse crunch d. Back extension

Ball medicine ball pullover throw

For a pregnant client in her third trimester, which of the following exercises is appropriate? Select one: a. Floor cobra b. Reverse hypers c. Floor bridge d. Ball squat

Ball squat

While performing a single-leg squat touchdown, which of the following ways can the proprioceptive challenge be increased? Select one: a. By keeping the foot pointed straight ahead. b. By keeping the back parallel to the shins. c. By holding the squat for 20 seconds. d. By standing on a foam pad.

By standing on a foam pad.

Which of the following actions falls outside a personal trainer's scope of practice? Select one: a. Counsel a client with anorexia about the health benefits of a well-balanced diet. b. Educate clients regarding nutrients contained in foods or supplements. c. Develop an exercise program for an obese client with hypertension and medical clearance for exercise. d. Perform various movement and postural assessments on a client to determine potential muscle imbalances.

Counsel a client with anorexia about the health benefits of a well-balanced diet.

What is the main purpose of creating and running a successful personal training business? Select one: a. Minimize overhead and fixed costs. b. Create and keep a loyal customer base. c. Gain notoriety in the community. d. Generate a minimum 30% return on investment.

Create and keep a loyal customer base.

Which of the following is a common supplement that the body also makes internally from the amino acids methionine, glycine, and arginine? Select one: a. Growth Hormone b. Vitamin D c. Glycogen d. Creatine

Creatine

A client exhibits knee instability while performing ball squats. Which of the following should a fitness professional suggest to the client to reduce the discomfort? Select one: a. Perform the exercise with legs elevated. b. Decrease the range of motion involved in the exercise. c. Elevate the shoulders up to the ears and push the body down. d. Perform the exercise without a bench.

Decrease the range of motion involved in the exercise.

Which of the following physiological characteristics should a personal trainer be aware of when working with a senior client? Select one: a. Decreased risk of arteriosclerosis b. Increased connective tissue elasticity c. Decreased blood pressure d. Decreased lean body mass

Decreased lean body mass

Which of the following can be caused by low-back injuries? Select one: a. Decreased hypertonicity of superficial hip flexor muscles b. Increased bone density of lumbar spine vertebrae c. Increased neural control of the rotator cuff muscles d. Decreased neural control to stabilizing muscles of the core

Decreased neural control to stabilizing muscles of the core

Which of the following characteristics distinguishes type II muscle fibers from type I muscle fibers? Select one: a. Decreased oxygen delivery b. More capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin c. Contractions of a longer duration d. Smaller in size

Decreased oxygen delivery

A client is performing a standing cable row with her shoulders elevated. What cue should be used to correct her form? Select one: a. Depress the shoulder blades to activate the scapular retractors. b. Internally rotate the humerus to activate the lower trapezius. c. Slightly arch the lower back to stabilize the trunk and rotator cuff. d. Perform scapular winging to increase activation of the rhomboids.

Depress the shoulder blades to activate the scapular retractors.

Which of the following is within the scope of practice of a personal trainer? Select one: a. Perform diagnostic testing for a slow metabolism. b. Massage a client's sore muscles. c. Design a cardiorespiratory program for a client. d. Design a nutrition plan for a client.

Design a cardiorespiratory program for a client.

Which of the following is appropriate when spotting during a bench press? Select one: a. Place hands at both ends of the barbell. b. Wait until the client progresses through the sticking point before providing assistance. c. Determine the amount of repetitions before performing the set. d. Spot at the elbows.

Determine the amount of repetitions before performing the set.

What is the gastrocnemius responsible for eccentrically decelerating? Select one: a. Hip extension b. Hip flexion c. Dorsiflexion d. Plantarflexion

Dorsiflexion

What is the best example of performing an exercise in a proprioceptively enriched environment? Select one: a. Leg press exercise b. Dumbbell chest press on stability ball c. Machine chest press d. Seated military press

Dumbbell chest press on stability ball

Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as which of the following? Select one: a. Dyspnea b. Pulmonary hyperplasia c. Hypoxia d. Pneumonia

Dyspnea

Which type of influence comes from supportive leadership? Select one: a. Exercise group b. Family c. Exercise leader d. Parental

Exercise leader

What should be included in a training template for client records? Select one: a. The client's BMI b. Exercise selection for the client c. The 1 repetition max of the client's bench press d. Weight of the client

Exercise selection for the client

A client has been training in Phase 2 for 4 months. She is now experienceing joint pain and emotional fatigue. What stage of the general adaptation syndrome is she most likely in? Select one: a. Exhaustion b. Alarm reaction c. Resistance development d. DOMS

Exhaustion

How can a personal trainer provide uncompromising customer service? Select one: a. Avoid opportunities to create moments that strengthen professional relationships. b. Give the impression that a question is inconvenient. c. Express ideas well through verbal communication. d. Take complaints and pass them onto the front desk.

Express ideas well through verbal communication.

In what position should the ankles, knees, and hips be during the takeoff position of the squat jump? Select one: a. Extension b. Flexion c. Adduction d. Abduction

Flexion

What term refers to a bending movement in which the relative angle between two adjacent segments decreases? Select one: a. Evulsion b. Eversion c. Flexion d. Abduction

Flexion

Which of the following scenarios best demonstrates a trainer's skills at encouraging a client to practice self-monitoring? Select one: a. Have a client keep an exercise log on a calendar to help build self-confidence. b. Train a client to notice negative thoughts and replace those thoughts with positive ones. c. Help a client come up with a list of songs that will help motivate him to exercise. d. Teach a client to imagine himself performing a barbell squat with greater confidence.

Have a client keep an exercise log on a calendar to help build self-confidence.

Which of the following is a cognitive strategy to help change a client's thoughts and attitudes toward exercise? Select one: a. Active listening b. Contemplation c. Imagery d. Goal setting

Imagery

A client has been performing cardiorespiratory exercise for four weeks. Which of the following physiologic adaptations should the personal trainer expect to observe in the client? Select one: a. Improved ability of muscles to use oxygen b. Increased resting heart rate c. Decreased stroke volume d. Decreased cardiac output

Improved ability of muscles to use oxygen

Which of the following is an important quality of a good night's sleep? Select one: a. Increased stress b. Improved mood c. Decreased immune function d. Limits effects of regular exercise

Improved mood

How should exercises be performed in order to develop higher levels of stability? Select one: a. In a controlled and unstable environment at slower speeds b. With heavier loads and in a stable environment c. With light weights and moderate repetitions d. As fast as can be controlled and with short rest periods

In a controlled and unstable environment at slower speeds

Which of the following is a benefit of integrated cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. It decreases high-density lipoproteins. b. It decreases oxidative capacity of muscle. c. It decreases glucose tolerance. d. It decreases resting heart rate.

It decreases resting heart rate.

Which of the following is a true statement about circuit training? Select one: a. It typically involves a high number of sets. b. It is ideal for achieving hypertrophy. c. It is usually done with a 3-minute rest period in between exercises. d. It involves a series of exercises that can be performed one after another.

It involves a series of exercises that can be performed one after another.

Which of the following is true of glycogen? Select one: a. It is used by the body during short-duration, low-intensity activities. b. It is a form of glucose stored predominantly in the epidermal cells. c. It is the chemical or substrate form in which most fat exist. d. It is a complex carbohydrate that can be rapidly broken down into glucose.

It is a complex carbohydrate that can be rapidly broken down into glucose.

Which of the following is true of skeletal muscle? Select one: a. It is composed of intercalated discs. b. It is a voluntary muscle. c. Skeletal muscle fibers are more tightly connected than cardiac muscle fibers. d. Skeletal muscle fibers are shorter than cardiac muscle fibers.

It is a voluntary muscle.

For which activity is the oxidative system primarily used? Select one: a. Performing a 1RM squat b. Jogging for 30 minutes c. Sprinting 40 yards d. Executing a 1RM clean and jerk

Jogging for 30 minutes

Which muscle do clients need proper extensibility of before performing the ball medicine ball (MB) pullover throw exercise, in order to decrease stress to the low back and shoulders? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus b. Longus colli c. Latissimus dorsi d. Quadratus lomborum

Latissimus dorsi

Which exercise should be avoided if a client exhibits anterior pelvic tilt? Select one: a. Chest press b. Seated calf raises c. Leg raises d. Calf raises

Leg raises

While observing a new client perform the pushing assessment, the personal trainer notices that his head protrudes forward. Which of the following groups of muscles are probably overactive? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Levator scapulae c. Rhomboids d. Middle trapezius

Levator scapulae

What is a primary cause of musculoskeletal degeneration in the adult population? Select one: a. Low-back pain b. High blood sugar level c. Spina bifida d. Vitamin K deficiency

Low-back pain

Bracing occurs when a person contracts the abdominal and buttock muscles at the same time as which of the following? Select one: a. Lower back b. Forearm c. Neck d. Left shoulder

Lower back

During a pulling assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client's shoulders elevate. Which of the following muscles is most likely underactive? Select one: a. Levator scapulae b. Scalenes c. Sternocleidomastoid d. Lower trapezius

Lower trapezius

A personal trainer can prevent hazards at the workplace by performing which of the following? Select one: a. Complete and save all records about a client in case a hazard occurs. b. Maintain fitness equipment on a regular basis. c. Maintain client liability insurance at all times. d. Complete an online CPR and first aid certification.

Maintain fitness equipment on a regular basis.

According to the stages of change model, which of the following corresponds to a stage where people have formed a change in their behavior for at least six months? Select one: a. Contemplation b. Preparation c. Action d. Maintenance

Maintenance

Which of the following is the last stage in the stages of change model? Select one: a. Precontemplation b. Preparation c. Action d. Maintenance

Maintenance

What is the body's motor response to internal and external environmental stimuli called? Select one: a. Motor behavior b. Homeostasis c. Force-couple d. Arthrokinematics

Motor behavior

A client practices repeated squat exercises in order to create permanent changes in her technique. What is she exhibiting? Select one: a. Motor learning b. Synergistic dominance c. Relative flexibility d. Autogenic inhibition

Motor learning

Which of the following is an example of a strength level resistance training exercise for legs? Select one: a. Multiplanar step-up to balance b. Single-leg squat c. Single-leg dead lift d. Multiplanar dumbbell step-up

Multiplanar dumbbell step-up

Which balance-power exercise involves lifting one leg directly beside balance leg, hopping off the box and landing on ground on one leg; keeping toes pointing straight ahead and knees directly over the toes, and holding this position for 3 to 5 seconds? Select one: a. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization b. Multiplanar lunge to balance c. Multiplanar step-up to balance d. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization

Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization

Which of the following exercises is the best example of a Stabilization Level exercise? Select one: a. Barbell squat b. Multiplanar step-up balance, curl, to overhead press c. Repeat squat jumps d. Lunge to two-arm press

Multiplanar step-up balance, curl, to overhead press

Which of the following exercises is the best example of a Stabilization Level exercise? Select one: a. Multiplanar step-up balance, curl, to overhead press b. Repeat squat jumps c. Barbell squat d. Lunge to two-arm press

Multiplanar step-up balance, curl, to overhead press

Which of the following is an example of a dietary supplement? Select one: a. Tobacco b. Kinesio tape c. Multivitamin d. Ice pack

Multivitamin

The force-velocity curve describes the relationship between which of the following? Select one: a. Torque production and inertia b. Mass and volume c. Work and energy production d. Muscle force and the velocity of contraction

Muscle force and the velocity of contraction

Which term best describes the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension? Select one: a. Muscular hypotrophy b. Muscular hypertrophy c. Muscular dystrophy d. Muscular atrophy

Muscular hypertrophy

When training a client for speed, agility, and quickness, which of the following exercises would be most appropriate? Select one: a. Butt kicks b. Box jump c. One-ins d. Tuck jump

One-ins

Which of the following is an appropriate speed, agility, and quickness drill? Select one: a. Ice skaters b. Tuck jump c. One-ins d. Power step-ups

One-ins

A client cannot perform a full prone iso-abs exercise, which of the following would be an appropriate regression? Select one: a. Perform prone iso-abs with knees on floor. b. Perform prone iso-abs with feet on stability ball. c. Perform a back extension. d. Perform a stability ball crunch.

Perform prone iso-abs with knees on floor.

What is a client's strongest source of self-confidence? Select one: a. Modeling b. Performance accomplishments c. Imagery d. Verbal persuasion

Performance accomplishments

Which of the following terms refers to the division of a training program into smaller, progressive stages? Select one: a. Mesocycle b. Annual plan c. Periodization d. Macrocycle

Periodization

A resistance training system that is a variation of circuit training and that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit is called? Select one: a. Multiple set b. Pyramid system c. Superset d. Peripheral heart action

Peripheral heart action

In which phase of the OPT model would ice skaters be an appropriate exercise? Select one: a. Phase 2: Strength Endurance b. Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance c. Phase 4: Maximal Strength d. Phase 5: Power

Phase 5: Power

Which of the following is part of the objective information collected in a fitness assessment? Select one: a. Lifestyle b. Food consumption habits c. Physiological measurements d. Occupation

Physiological measurements

A client exercises occasionally and plans to regularly participate in a structured exercise program next month. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is this client? Select one: a. Maintenance b. Action c. Preparation d. Contemplation

Preparation

An individual has a gym membership and visits sporadically, but not frequently enough to maintain a well-rounded exercise program. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is this client? Select one: a. Action b. Maintenance c. Contemplation d. Preparation

Preparation

In the stages of change model, which of the following corresponds to a stage where people do occasionally exercise but are planning to begin exercising regularly in the next month? Select one: a. Preparation b. Precontemplation c. Action d. Contemplation

Preparation

Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle to the lungs through which of the following vessels? Select one: a. Aortic valve b. Aortic arch c. Pulmonary arteries d. Pulmonary veins

Pulmonary arteries

James performs a multiplanar lunge to balance. After first stepping out into the lunge, which of the following should he perform as the next step in this exercise? Select one: a. Hold balance on the back leg b. Hold the lunge for 5 seconds c. Rotate 90 degrees d. Push off the front foot through the heel

Push off the front foot through the heel

Which of the following is an appropriate movement assessment for a senior client who is sedentary? Select one: a. Davies test b. Landing Error Scoring System (LESS) test c. Shark skill test d. Pushing test

Pushing test

During the butt kick exercise, a personal trainer notices a client arching his low back at the height of the jump. Which of the following muscle groups are most likely tight? Select one: a. Abdominals b. Quadriceps c. Hamstrings d. Gluteals

Quadriceps

A client experiences difficulty in performing the prone iso-abs exercise. Which of the following should be suggested as an regression? Select one: a. Cable rotation b. Cable chop c. Quadruped arm and opposite leg raise d. Rolling active resistance row

Quadruped arm and opposite leg raise

A client is able to successfully reach their shins when performing the single-leg squat touchdown. What is the next progression this client should work toward for this exercise? Select one: a. Perform the exercise with a stability ball. b. Reaching all the way to the foot. c. Stand on a balance pad. d. Perform the exercise on two legs with dumbbells.

Reaching all the way to the foot.

Which of the following is an alternative name for plyometric training? Select one: a. Functional training b. Reactive training c. Stabilization training d. Integrated training

Reactive training

Dynamic stretching improves soft tissue extensibility by using which of the following? Select one: a. Autogenic inhibition b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Wolff's law d. Davis's law

Reciprocal inhibition

Dynamic stretching uses which of the following concepts to improve soft tissue extensibility? Select one: a. Myotatic stretch-reflex b. Synergistic dominance c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Relative flexibility

Reciprocal inhibition

Contracting the glutes while performing a static standing TFL stretch will cause which of the following effects? Select one: a. Reciprocal inhibition of the TFL b. Synergistic dominance of the TFL c. Relative flexibility of the TFL d. Autogenic inhibition of the TFL

Reciprocal inhibition of the TFL

For which of the following careers is passing a licensure exam to practice required? Select one: a. Personal trainer b. Registered dietician c. Group exercise instructor d. Gym owner

Registered dietician

Dysfunctional breathing results in an increase in the activity level of which of the following secondary respiratory muscles? Select one: a. Rectus abdominis b. Diaphragm c. Scalenes d. Internal oblique

Scalenes

Which of the following describes the importance of active listening when engaging with a client? Select one: a. Providing the client with the right information. b. Requiring the client to pay attention. c. Convincing the client to do something. d. Seeking a client's perspective.

Seeking a client's perspective.

What are profit centers? Select one: a. Memberships b. High revenue clubs c. Areas that have a high demand for fitness services d. Services that add to the base revenue generator

Services that add to the base revenue generator

Which of the following is a Power Level balance exercise? Select one: a. Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization b. Single-leg throw and catch c. Single-leg internal and external rotation d. Single-leg squat touchdown

Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization

Which balance-stabilization exercise is when an individual lifts one leg while maintaining the optimal alignment including level hips and shoulders, and then lifts a medicine ball in a diagonal pattern until the medicine ball is overhead? Select one: a. Single-leg hip rotation b. Single-leg throw and catch c. Single-leg lunge reach d. Single-leg lift and chop

Single-leg lift and chop

When working with a pregnant client which of the following assessments is most appropriate? Select one: a. Single-leg squat b. Shark skill test c. Davies test d. Bench press

Single-leg squat

Which of the following balance exercises is appropriate for a client training in Phase 2 of the OPT™ model? Select one: a. Single-leg lift and chop b. Single-leg balance reach c. Single-leg squat touchdown d. Single-leg box hop-up

Single-leg squat touchdown

Which one of the following exercises is classified as a balance-strength exercise? Select one: a. Single-leg squat touchdown b. Single-leg lift and chop c. Single-leg balance and reach d. Single-leg hop with stabilization

Single-leg squat touchdown

Which of the following exercises is a bodyweight exercise? Select one: a. Biceps curls b. Lift and chop c. The barbell squat d. Sit-ups

Sit-ups

For the best results, how should calcium supplements be consumed? Select one: a. In the morning b. With your first meal c. Spaced throughout the day d. In the evening

Spaced throughout the day

On Monday, a client trains his chest, shoulders, and triceps. Thursday, he trains his back, biceps, and legs. This is an example of what type of resistance training system? Select one: a. Split-routine system b. Pyramid system c. Superset system d. Vertical loading system

Split-routine system

A client tells the personal trainer that she wants to increase lean body mass. Which of the following nutritional strategies should the trainer recommend? Select one: a. Spread protein intake throughout the day. b. Eat three meals a day. c. Drink 6 to 8 cups of water per day. d. Minimize carbohydrate intake.

Spread protein intake throughout the day.

Which of the following is a movement involved in the single-leg squat assessment? Select one: a. Slowly squat as if sitting in a chair, reaching hand opposite of balance leg toward foot. b. Push through both heels and stand upright, balancing on one leg. c. Bend from the waist and slowly reach hand down toward the toes of the balance leg. d. Squat as if sitting in a chair, flexing at hips, knees, and ankles and lower to first point of compensation

Squat as if sitting in a chair, flexing at hips, knees, and ankles and lower to first point of compensation

A ball squat, curl to press is an example of an exercise from which level in the OPT model? Select one: a. Stabilization b. Strength c. Corrective d. Power

Stabilization

According to the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, which of the following corresponds to the first phase of training? Select one: a. Hypertrophy training b. Maximal strength training c. Stabilization endurance training d. Power training

Stabilization endurance training

An advanced client who is interested in gaining high levels of muscle mass would benefit most from which of the following resistance-training systems? Select one: a. Superset system b. Single-set training c. Peripheral heart action d. Circuit training

Superset system

A client is looking for a simple way to make bodyweight exercises more proprioceptively challenging. Which of the following modalities would be most appropriate for this? Select one: a. Suspension trainer b. Resistance machine c. Barbells d. Smith machine

Suspension trainer

Jennifer is concerned about staying motivated in her fitness program. What will provide her emotional support to remain motivated? Select one: a. Providing her transportation to the fitness facility. b. Training with family, friends, and coworkers. c. Sympathizing with her having sore muscles after a workout. d. Educating her on the benefits of different exercises.

Sympathizing with her having sore muscles after a workout.

While performing a multiplanar lunge to balance exercise, a client exhibits excessive extension of the lumbar spine. Which of the following instructions can help this client? Select one: a. Tell the client to turn their front foot outward. b. Tell the client to support themself mainly with the toes of the front leg. c. Tell the client to have the majority of their body weight on their rear leg during the lunge. d. Tell the client to reduce their stride length.

Tell the client to reduce their stride length.

When performing the overhead squat assessment, your client's arms fall forward, which muscle would be considered most likely overactive? Select one: a. Supraspinatus b. Teres major c. Rhomboids d. Teres mino

Teres major

Which is the best approach for avoiding activation of the adductors during a floor bridge? Select one: a. The feet should be wider than hip-width apart and straight ahead b. The feet should be hip-width apart and straight ahead c. The feet should be hip-width apart and turned out d. The feet should be together and pointed straight ahead

The feet should be hip-width apart and straight ahead

Which of the following statements is correct about the position of the foot and ankle complex during speed, agility, and quickness exercises? Select one: a. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position when it hits the ground. b. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a plantarflexed position when it hits the ground. c. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a plantarflexed position in the air. d. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position in the air.

The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position when it hits the ground.

When performing self-myofascial release of the adductors, the focus should be on foam rolling what location on the body? Select one: a. The groin region inside the upper thigh b. The entire inner thigh region c. The quadriceps along the vastus medialis d. The short head of the biceps femoris

The groin region inside the upper thigh

Which of the following stages in the stages of change model involves individuals intending to take action in the next month? Select one: a. The preparation stage b. The maintenance stage c. The precontemplation stage d. The action stage

The preparation stage

David has a new client in her 2nd trimester of pregnancy. How should he modify the overhead squat assessment for her? Select one: a. The arms should be placed at the sides b. The range of motion should be decreased c. The heels should be elevated d. The range of motion should be increased

The range of motion should be decreased

Which of the following exercise techniques involves lying on one's back and raising the hips off a bench? Select one: a. The squat curl b. The floor cobra c. The inverted row d. The reverse crunch

The reverse crunch

For which of the following are Stage I cardiorespiratory training programs designed? Select one: a. For clients with low-to-moderate cardiorespiratory fitness levels who are ready to begin training at higher intensity levels b. To help improve cardiorespiratory fitness levels in apparently healthy sedentary clients c. For advanced clients who have a moderately high cardiorespiratory fitness level base d. To help clients improve anaerobic power and sprinting capabilities

To help improve cardiorespiratory fitness levels in apparently healthy sedentary clients

What is the purpose of stretch-shortening cycles? Select one: a. To check the client's core strength and balance stabilization capabilities b. To enhance excitability and decrease the rate of force production c. To decrease the reaction time of the muscle action spectrum d. To produce the necessary force to change the direction of an object's center of mass efficiently

To produce the necessary force to change the direction of an object's center of mass efficiently

What is the highest average daily nutrient intake level likely to pose no risk of adverse health affects to almost all individuals in a particular life stage and gender group? Select one: a. Tolerable Upper Intake Level b. Recommended Dietary Allowance c. Adequate Intake d. Estimated Average Requirement

Tolerable Upper Intake Level

Internal rotation refers to the rotation of a joint in which of the following directions? Select one: a. Toward the middle b. Toward the upper extremity c. Away from the right half d. Away from the middle

Toward the middle

Which of the following best describes the split-routine system used in resistance training? Select one: a. Performing a multiple number of sets for each exercise b. Increasing or decreasing weight with each set c. Performing two exercises in rapid succession with minimal rest d. Training different body parts on separate days

Training different body parts on separate days

Which of the following muscles is lengthened in Lower Crossed Syndrome? Select one: a. Psoas minor b. Rectus femoris c. Erector Spinae d. Transverse abdominis

Transverse abdominis

If a client exhibits arms falling forward during an overhead squat assessment, which activity should be avoided? Select one: a. Versa climber b. Rowing machine c. Elliptical trainer d. Treadmill

Treadmill

In which of the following cases should the two-arm push press be avoided? Select one: a. When a client is performing a power superset b. When clients want to develop total body power c. When a client has not developed proper stability d. When a client wants to train for a race

When a client has not developed proper stability

In which of the following cases should the two-arm push press be avoided? Select one: a. When clients want to develop total body power b. When a client has not developed proper stability c. When a client wants to train for a race d. When a client is performing a power superset

When a client has not developed proper stability

In which of the following scenarios would energy be mostly derived from anaerobic metabolism? Select one: a. When an athlete experiences temporary fatigue b. When an athlete is in a steady state or at rest c. When an athlete reduces the duration of an activity d. When an athlete begins an activity

When an athlete begins an activity

Which of the following is a sign that a client has completed an accurate one-rep maximum bench press estimation test? Select one: a. Your client fails after 8-12 repetitions. b. Your client fails after 1 repetition. c. Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions. d. Your client fails right before their arms straighten.

Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions.

To ensure proper front-side mechanics during sprinting, the ankle must be in a position of: Select one: a. plantarflexion. b. eversion. c. dorsiflexion. d. inversion.

dorsiflexion.

When performing a _____, the load must be placed in such a way to resist elbow extension. Select one: a. standing triceps extension b. biceps curl c. standing cable row d. dumbbell chest press

standing triceps extension

When performing a _____, the load should be positioned to resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction. Select one: a. standing triceps extension b. biceps curl c. standing cable row d. dumbbell chest press

standing cable row