NASM PT4

What is the minimum weekly goal of energy expenditure from combined physical activity and exercise for obese clients? Select one: a. 1,200 kcal b. 5,000 kcal c. 500 kcal d. 12,000 kcal

1,200 kcal

Identify the correct number of continuing education units (CEUs) that an NASM Certified Personal Trainer needs to complete in a 2-year cycle to renew the certification. Select one: a. 1.5 b. 4.5 c. 2 d. 3

2

Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed? Select one: a. Overhead squat b. 40-yard dash c. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT) d. Pro shuttle

40-yard dash

Robert is a recently retired military veteran. He has earned his NASM-CPT credential because he wants to help young people prepare for the physical demands of serving in the military. Which employment options provide him with the greatest access to potential clients in all geographic locations? Select one: a. Conducting online coaching and personal training b. Working in a nonprofit facility c. Hosting boot camps in a local park d. Working as an in-home independent personal trainer

Conducting online coaching and personal training

What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers? Select one: a. Valsalva maneuver b. Frank Starling Law of the Heart c. Venous pooling d. Peripheral resistance

Frank Starling Law of the Heart

If someone engages in a short, intense burst of activity lasting less than 30 seconds, which energy system will contribute the most to ATP production? Select one: a. The citric acid cycle b. Glycolysis c. The ATP-PC system d. Oxidative phosphorylation

The ATP-PC system

Balance is best described as which of the following? Select one: a. The ability to change direction quickly and accelerate b. The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position c. Increased ability to overcome the force of gravity during jumping d. The ability to maintain control of the body while in motion

The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position

In most individuals, to what pressure is the blood pressure cuff inflated when measuring resting blood pressure? Select one: a. The cuff is inflated to a value 45 to 55 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. b. The cuff is inflated to a value 5 to 10 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. c. The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. d. The cuff is inflated to a value 70 to 80 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.

The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.

What is the ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)? Select one: a. The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel b. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise c. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise d. The point at which it is still possible to talk during exercise

The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel

How is ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) best defined? Select one: a. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources b. An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods c. An aerobic test that measures the participant's ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels d. The point during graded exercise in which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen uptake

The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources

How can systolic blood pressure be defined? Select one: a. The action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body b. The measurement of the number of times a heart beats within a specified time period (usually 1 minute) c. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded d. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded

The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded

How should the amortization phase of the stretch-shortening cycle be described? Select one: a. The transition between the isometric and eccentric phases b. The transition from concentric loading to eccentric unloading c. The transition between the concentric and isometric phases d. The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading

The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading

Which of the following is the functional unit of a muscle cell? Select one: a. Myosin b. A sarcomere c. Endomysium d. Actin

a sarcomere

What percentage of alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) converts to a biologically available form called eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)? Select one: a. About 30% b. About 50% c. About 5-15% d. About 90%

about 5-15%

Which of the following would occur during intermittent exercise? Select one: a. Fat would be the main energy source. b. A steady-state intensity would be used. c. All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity. d. Carbohydrates would not be a major energy source.

all three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity

The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures? Select one: a. Pulmonary arteries b. Bronchioles c. Trachea d. Alveolar sacs

alveolar sacs

Which division of the skeleton is made up of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle? Select one: a. Peripheral b. Lateral c. Axial d. Appendicular

appendicular

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core? Select one: a. Back extension b. Dead bug c. Plank d. Medicine ball overhead throw

back extension

Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training? Select one: a. Speed b. Power c. Strength d. Change of direction

change of direction

Which of the following is a behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to overcome them? Select one: a. Implementation intentions b. Self-monitoring c. Coping responses d. Resisting social pressure

coping responses

Which chronic disease is the leading cause of death in the world today? Select one: a. Coronary artery disease b. Dementia c. Diabetes d. Cancer

coronary heart disease

Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominis? Select one: a. Medicine ball throw b. Back squat c. Drawing-in maneuver d. Bracing

drawing-in maneuver

Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most freedom of movement in the transverse plane? Select one: a. Suspended chest press b. Elastic band woodchop c. Dumbbell lat row d. Seated abdominal crunch machine

elastic band woodchop

Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core? Select one: a. Pelvic floor muscles b. Transverse abdominis c. Multifidus d. Erector spinae

erector spinae

In a group exercise setting within a fitness facility, which person should greet all members, make everyone feel welcome, and ensure that participants have the right equipment and attire to participate safely? Select one: a. Exercise leader b. Certified Personal Trainer c. General manager d. Fitness manager

exercise leader

What is the concept used to describe the action of muscles that have the ability to contract automatically in anticipation of movement? Select one: a. Antagonist function b. Feed-forward c. Synergist function d. Feedback

feed-forward

What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise? Select one: a. Proprioceptive plyometrics b. Depth jumps c. Ice skaters d. Squat jump

ice skaters

Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following? Select one: a. Landing mechanics b. Force production c. Core stability d. Power development

landing mechanics

At which stage of change are self-efficacy levels generally the highest? Select one: a. Preparation b. Precontemplation c. Contemplation d. Maintenance

maintenance

Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training? Select one: a. Movement assessments b. PAR-Q+ c. Strength assessments d. Body composition assessments

movement assessments

Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training? Select one: a. Heart b. Nerves c. Bone d. Soft tissue

nerves

What causes initial improvements in strength when youths engage in a resistance training program? Select one: a. Muscle hypertrophy b. Sarcopenia c. Muscle atrophy d. Neural adaptations

neural adaptations

Which type of nerve receptor senses pain? Select one: a. Nociceptor b. Action potential c. Neurotransmitter d. Mechanoreceptor

nociceptor

Which term describes the movement of bones, such as flexion and extension? Select one: a. Arthropathy b. Osteokinematics c. Osteoporosis d. Arthrokinematics

osteokinematics

Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client's shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance? Select one: a. Neuromuscular control b. Sensorimotor function c. Somatosensation d. Perturbation

perturbation

In which of the following phases of the OPT model is suspended bodyweight training considered ideal? Select one: a. Phases 1 and 2 b. Phases 1 and 3 c. Phases 3 and 4 d. Phases 4 and 5

phases 1 and 2

Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness? Select one: a. Muscular strength b. Flexibility c. Power d. Aerobic fitness

power

Improved performance during a plyometric jump is dependent upon which of the following? Select one: a. Absent stretch reflex b. Rapid amortization phase c. Release of stored energy during concentric phase d. Prolonged amortization phase

rapid amortization phase

Which plane of movement can be described as an imaginary line that bisects the body into right and left sides? Select one: a. Frontal b. Sagittal c. Extension d. Transverse

sagittal

When developing a safe and effective warm-up for Phase 1, what is an important consideration for flexibility? Select one: a. Dynamic stretches b. Sports drills c. Self-myofascial techniques d. Active stretches

self-myofascial techniques

Which balance task would require significant use of the vestibular system? Select one: a. Standing on two limbs catching a ball b. Standing on two limbs with eyes open c. Naming the months of the year while standing on one limb d. Squatting on one limb with eyes closed

squatting on one limb with eyes closed

If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine? Select one: a. Rhomboids b. Diaphragm c. Upper trapezius d. Sternocleidomastoid

sternocleidomastoid

Which phase of training would be most appropriate for a beginner who has had previous experience within the last few months? Select one: a. Strength Endurance Training b. Power Training c. Maximal Strength Training d. Stabilization Endurance Training

strength endurance training

Speed is the product of what two variables? Select one: a. Quickness and agility b. Stride rate and stride length c. Power and time d. Acceleration and deceleration

stride rate and stride length

Which of the following blood pressure values would be classified as normal according to the American Heart Association? Select one: a. Systolic 120 to 129 and diastolic <80 b. Systolic >180 and/or diastolic >120 c. Systolic 130 to 139 or diastolic 80 to 89 d. Systolic <120 and diastolic <80

systolic <120 and diastolic <80

The number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of which of the following? Select one: a. The manufactured environment b. The built environment c. The constructed environment d. The assembled environment

the built environment

What is an example of an external factor that may influence the risk of falling in older adults? Select one: a. Muscle strength b. Ligament integrity c. Joint stability d. The environment

the environment

Which of the following is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Sagittal plane box jump-up b. Sagittal plane box jump-down c. Transverse plane box jump-down d. Frontal plane box jump-up

transverse plane box jump-down

What type of diabetes occurs when specialized cells in the pancreas (called beta cells) stop producing insulin? Select one: a. Prediabetes b. Gestational c. Type 1 d. Type 2

type 1

If a client performs a stabilization workout on Monday, a power workout on Wednesday, and an SAQ sports workout on Saturday, what kind of periodization is being used for their mesocycle? Select one: a. Linear b. Undulating c. Macrocycle d. Mesocycle

undulating

Which sense provides information about movement of the head in space? Select one: a. Visual system b. Vestibular system c. Hearing system d. Somatosensory system

vestibular system