NCCT PCT Exam

A patient expresses cultural beliefs about an alternative method of pain management that differs from the patient care technician's own view. How should the patient care technician respond? "Perhaps you should see a neurologist." "Tell me more about how this approach has worked for you." "The physician does not recommend that approach." "Standard pharmaceutical methods of pain management are proven to be more effective."

"Tell me more about how this approach has worked for you." Rationale: A respectful approach enhances patient-centered care, displays professionalism, and shows appreciation for diversity. The patient care technician should have the patient tell them more about their approach and how it has worked for them. The other options do not allow the patient to express their feelings to the patient care technician, and would not be the right response. Cultural competence in health care means delivering effective, quality care to patients who have diverse beliefs, attitudes, values, and behaviors. This practice requires systems that can personalize health care according to cultural and linguistic differences. It also requires understanding the potential impact that cultural differences can have on healthcare delivery.

The patient asks the patient care technician why vital signs are taken at every office visit. Which of the following is the BEST response? "To comply with health insurance reimbursement policies." "It is for diagnostic purposes. "To obtain a baseline measurement of your overall health status." "The physician requires it."

"To obtain a baseline measurement of your overall health status." Rationale: Vital signs are measured to obtain basic indicators of a patient's health status. Vital signs measure the body's basic functions. Vitals display a snapshot of what's going on inside the body.

The patient care technician is caring for an adult patient with a history of coronary artery disease. Which of the following BP measurements should prompt the patient care technician to notify the health care provider? (Select the three (3) correct answers.) 132/78 mmHg 162/96 mmHg 129/88 mmHg 138/98 mmHg 92/44 mmHg

162/96 mmHg, 138/98 mmHg, 92/44 mmHg Rationale: High blood pressure (hypertension) is a common condition in which the long-term force of the blood against the artery walls is high enough that it may eventually cause health problems, such as heart disease. Prehypertension is a warning sign that one may get high blood pressure in the future.

Which of the following indicates the normal resting heart rate for an adult? 50-90 bpm 60-100 bpm Less than 50 bpm Greater than 100 bpm

60-100 bpm Rationale: In addition to age, factors such as activity level, gender, size, physical condition, presence of disease, medications, or mood will influence pulse rate. Clinical Pearl: As age increases, heart rate decreases.

The medical abbreviation meaning both ears is AU. Bilat. AD. AS.

AU. Rationale: AU=both ears, AD=right ear, AS=left ear, Bilat=bilateral

The patient was seen in the office for follow up evaluation post CVA. The doctor noticed significant weakness on the patient's left side. Which of the following should the patient care technician expect to perform? Full weight bearing exercise assistance Active assist range of motion Crutch training Pulmonary function test

Active assist range of motion Rationale: The patient care technician should expect to perform active assistive range of motion with the patient since the patient has major weakness on one side. This type of exercise is done when a patient is able to perform some movements and exercises with the affected side, but still needs some help to get that side even stronger. Full weight bearing exercises are done to improve bone strength, and are done while the patient is on both feet and putting all of their weight against gravity. This would not be the exercise that this particular patient needs because the patient has weakness on one side. He needs to strengthen that side before he can perform full weight bearing exercises. Crutch training is typically done when a patient is suffering from a leg problem, but since this patient has weakness on his whole left side this would not be appropriate. A pulmonary function test is conducted to help determine risk for stroke, not after a CVA has occurred.

An adult patient presents with fever, muscular pain, and congestion. Which of the following is the appropriate response for the patient care technician following the physician's orders? Perform a rapid flu test Place the patient in an exam room and provide a mask Apply 10 liters of oxygen via non-rebreather Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg po

Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg po Rationale: Acetaminophen is known to relieve pain (an analgesic), reduce fever, and aid in relieving nasal congestion. The patient care technician should administer 650 mg orally of acetaminophen (Tylenol) since the patient is presenting with those three symptoms. A rapid flu test would not be the appropriate action to take at this time because the patient needs relief of the current symptoms before they worsen. The patient does not need to be placed in an exam room with a mask, nor does he/she need a non-rebreather mask. He/she is not showing any signs of hypoxia or respiratory distress.

The patient is experiencing a nose bleed. Which of the following actions should the patient care technician take? Place an ice pack on the patient's forehead to constrict blood vessels. Apply direct pressure to the affected nostril for 10-15 minutes. Flush the affected nostril with saline solution. Instruct the patient to sit with the head tilted back to prevent aspiration.

Apply direct pressure to the affected nostril for 10-15 minutes. Rationale: Applying direct pressure to the affected nostril for 10-15 minutes will generally stop the bleeding and allow clotting to take place. None of the other options listed in this scenario allow the blood to clot, therefore the patient would keep losing blood.

To help prevent a hematoma at the site after drawing blood, which of the following actions should the patient care technician take? Ask the patient to make a fist Clean the site with an alcohol prep Apply direct pressure with cotton gauze Have the patient bend the elbow to hold cotton gauze on the site

Apply direct pressure with cotton gauze Rationale: To promote clotting and help prevent leakage of blood outside of vein beneath skin (hematoma or bruise).

The patient care technician is caring for a patient with Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following should the patient care technician use to adapt communication needs? (Select the two (2) correct answers.) Provide multiple choices. Ask simple questions, speaking slowly. Answer quickly to enhance recall of patient. Provide for group activities. Identify other people by their names.

Ask simple questions, speaking slowly., Identify other people by their names. Rationale: Alzheimer's disease causes brain cells to die, so the brain works less well over time. This changes how a person acts. Some of these symptoms are personality and character changes that can be very alarming and disturbing, while others may be subtle. A once gentle tone of voice may become mean and sarcastic. There is little one can do to alter the changes wrought by Alzheimer's. By understanding them, one can better accept and adjust to these changes.

Which of the following are appropriate actions for the patient care technician to take when placing electrodes on a patient's skin for a 24-hour Holter monitor? (Select the three (3) correct answers.) Avoid scars and incisions. Tape the electrodes to the patient pointing toward the ankles. Tape the lead wires to the patient's skin. Abrade the skin with an alcohol pad or dry 4x4. Place limb leads with tabs facing up.

Avoid scars and incisions., Tape the lead wires to the patient's skin., Abrade the skin with an alcohol pad or dry 4x4. Rationale: To prepare the skin for electrode placement, dry, dead epidermal layers of skin must be removed, along with any natural oils and dirt that impede electrical flow and thus create a resistance to signal quality. A patient care technician will attach the electrodes to the skin with an adhesive gel/tape to hold them in place. If there is hair in the area, the patient care technician may need to shave it before securing the electrodes. Electrodes can loosen or fall off, and it is essential to reattach them.

Which of the following arteries is MOST commonly used for blood pressure measurement? Radial Brachial Carotid Popliteal

Brachial Rationale: Brachial artery - located in the antecubital region of the elbow. B/P is the measurement of force (pressure) of circulating blood against the walls of the artery. B/P is documented as Systolic (as the heart beats)/ Diastolic (as the heart relaxes between beats). EX. Average resting B/P for a young adult is at or below 120/80 mmHg (millimeters of mercury).

The physician orders a nebulized breathing treatment for a patient with asthma. The patient care technician should use which of the following types of medication when administering this treatment? Mucolytic Vasopressor Bronchodilator Expectorant

Bronchodilator Rationale: A bronchodilator is used to decrease the work of breathing by relaxing smooth muscles and opening large and small airways. A mucolytic is designed to help loosen and clear the mucus from the airways by breaking up the sputum. An antihypotensive agent, also known as a vasopressor agent, is any medication that tends to raise reduced blood pressure. An expectorant is a medication that helps bring up mucus and other material from the lungs, bronchi, and trachea.

A CMP is ordered for an older adult patient whose veins continue to collapse despite drinking water. Which of the following is the BEST collection method for this patient? Evacuated tube system Needle and syringe Capillary puncture Butterfly needle

Butterfly needle Rationale: The use of smaller gauge needles helps prevent trauma to small, fragile veins that frequently collapse. For veins that are small, difficult, and close to the surface, the best choice is a butterfly needle set. A butterfly needle is shorter with a smaller diameter (23-25 gauge) and easily controlled.

The primary objective of which of the following agencies is to regulate and ensure quality of clinical laboratory testing? OSHA FDA DEA CLIA

CLIA Rationale: CLIA - Clinical Laboratory Improvements Amendments of 1988 are United States federal regulatory standards that apply to all clinical laboratory testing performed on humans in the United States, except clinical trials and basic research. OSHA - Occupational Safety and Health Administration, a federal agency of the United States that regulates workplace safety and health. FDA - Food & Drug Administration is a federal agency of the United States Department of Health and Human Services. DEA - Drug Enforcement Administration is a United States federal law enforcement agency under the U.S. Department of Justice, tasked with combating drug smuggling and use within the United States.

Which of the following is a CLIA waived test that can be performed by the patient care technician? Differential Chemical urinalysis Gram stain analysis Crossmatch

Chemical urinalysis Rationale: A patient care technician can perform a chemical urinalysis test, which shows if the patient has protein or glucose in their urine, but would require intervention by the primary care provider. A chemical urinalysis can also tell what the specific gravity of the urine, meaning how diluted or concentrated it is. The test is done with a small dipstick that changes color when it comes into contact with urine. The patient care technician then compares the stick to a chart to see what is in the urine and if anything is abnormal. A differential is done by a laboratory technician. It is done by drawing blood and then placing the blood on a glass slide to look for any signs of infection or anemia. A Gram stain analysis is also done in the lab under a microscope when a bacterial or viral infection is suspected. Cross-matching is a test administered before a blood transfusion to ensure the donor's blood is compatible with the recipient. This test is performed by a certified laboratory technologist.

Which of the following describes the correct technique for cleansing a patient's minor wound? Cleanse from the outside of the wound toward the inside. Cleanse from the inside of the wound toward the outside. Use a gentle back and forth motion above the wound. Use a gentle back and forth motion below the wound.

Cleanse from the inside of the wound toward the outside. Rationale: To clean an open wound, wipe using circular motions from the center of the wound outward. Be sure to clean at least 1" beyond the wound margins. This is to prevent infection and promote healing. Never clean from the outside towards the inside. Debris and contaminants can be carried into the wound and lead to infection. Once the wound itself has been dealt with, cleansing in the areas around the wound would then be appropriate to check for possible further injury.

Which of the following are outside of a patient care technician's scope of practice? Assist with oxygen therapy. Collect ABG specimens. Perform catheter care. Visually inspect stool specimen for abnormalities.

Collect ABG specimens. Rationale: Patient care technicians are allowed to remove surgical staples, perform peak flow testing, and test specimens for occult blood, but it is not in their scope of practice to collect ABG specimens. ABG specimens are typically collected by a phlebotomist and not by a patient care technician. Most ABG samples can be drawn by a respiratory technician or specially trained nurse and a Certified Phlebotomy Technician II. Collection from the femoral artery, however, is usually performed by a doctor. Before attempting a radial puncture, an Allen's test should be performed.

Which of the following refers to a physician's written order specifying a patient has indicated that he or she does not want CPR? Living will Durable power of attorney for health care Advanced Beneficiary Notice DNR

DNR Rationale: A DNR (do not resuscitate) order is generated at the request of a patient, or by the patient's durable power of attorney for health care if the patient is incapable of making medical decisions. A DNR indicates that cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) should not be performed to sustain life in the event that the patient is in a medical crisis. A patient's advanced directive (a.k.a. living will) is also kept on file with the electronic health record or chart and includes information regarding the patient's values, goals for treatment, and wishes that should be considered if the patient is incapable of making those medical decisions. An advanced beneficiary notice of noncoverage (ABN) is a form that patients sign to accept payment responsibility for tests/procedures that may not be covered by Medicare.

How should the stoma be cleaned when performing ostomy care? From the stoma outward Toward the stoma Slow, concentric circles Inside the stoma

From the stoma outward Rationale: To clean the area of skin around a stoma, it is best to use warm water, mild soap, and a washcloth. Soaps and cleansers with oils, perfumes, and deodorants should be avoided since they can sometimes cause skin problems and prevent the skin barrier from sticking.

Which of the following actions should the patient care technician take to decrease the potential for hemolysis of a blood specimen in an EDTA tube? Store the tube in the refrigerator after the specimen has been collected. Use a 25 gauge needle or smaller to collect the specimen. Allow the tube to stand for 20 minutes prior to processing. Gently invert the tube after collecting the specimen.

Gently invert the tube after collecting the specimen. Rationale: To maintain the integrity and prevent rupture of RBC's in the sample.

A patient care technician and nurse discuss a patient's laboratory results outside the patient's room. Two visitors could overhear the conversation. Which of the following standards has been violated? Medicare HITECH HIPAA JCAHO

HIPAA Rationale: The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) is a federal law that required the creation of national standards to protect sensitive patient health information from being disclosed without the patient's consent or knowledge.

Which of the following information should the patient care technician measure to calculate BMI? Height and weight Vital signs and height Skin fold thickness and vital signs Weight and skin fold thickness

Height and weight Rationale: Height and Weight are used for the formula to get BMI, which tells if the PT is obese. BMI = WT /HT

Which of the following conditions is exhibited by paralysis on one side of the body? Paraplegia Hemorrhagia Hemiplegia Quadriplegia

Hemiplegia Rationale: The prefix hemi means half and the suffix -plegia refers to paralysis of something, therefore hemiplegia is the paralysis of one side of the body. Paraplegia is the paralysis of the lower extremities, hemorrhagia is a term referring to a large amount of bleeding, and quadriplegia is the loss of function of all of the extremities.

Forceful shaking of blood in an evacuated collection tube will cause which of the following complications? Hemostasis Hemoconcentration Hemolysis Contamination

Hemolysis Rationale: Breakdown/damage of blood cells, unusable specimen, and costly re-draw for the patient.

Which of the following should the patient care technician do after drawing blood from a patient on anticoagulant therapy? (Select the three (3) correct answers.) Call the nurse for instructions. Hold pressure and elevate the patients arm. Wait for the bleeding to stop. Have the patient bend the arm and hold pressure. Apply a pressure dressing over the site.

Hold pressure and elevate the patients arm., Wait for the bleeding to stop., Apply a pressure dressing over the site. Rationale: Applying pressure to the puncture site is the best way to stop the bleeding. Place a clean and dry piece of material while maintaining firm and continuous pressure until the bleeding has stopped.

An adult patient with vital signs of T 37.0 C, P 72, R 18, B/P 192/102 mm Hg indicates which of the following conditions? Orthostatic hypotension Hypoxia Tachycardia Hypertension

Hypertension Rationale: These vital signs align with a patient experiencing hypertension (a.k.a. high blood pressure). Both the systolic an asystolic readings are high. Postural hypotension (orthostatic hypotension) is low blood pressure resulting when a patient stands after sitting or lying down. Tachycardia refers to a high heart rate. A normal adult resting pulse rate is 60-100 beats per minute, so this patient is within normal limits at 72. Hypoxia translates to low oxygen levels and that was not indicated in these vitals.

A patient has a pulse oximetry reading of 88% on room air. Which of the following conditions does this reading indicate? Eupnea Hypoxia Apnea Arrhythmia

Hypoxia Rationale: The hemoglobin in red blood cells is responsible for carrying oxygen in the body. This carrying capacity is measured by a pulse oximeter. In most circumstances, a normal oxygen saturation reading would fall between 95%-100%. Generally, a pulse oximetry reading under 90% would indicate low blood oxygen levels (a.k.a. hypoxia). Eupnea indicates a normal breathing, apnea is without breath, and arrhythmia describes an irregular heartbeat.

Which of the following conditions describes poor oxygenation? Hypoxia Jaundice Hypothermia Erythema

Hypoxia Rationale: The prefix hypo means low or below the normal level, and the suffix oxia refers to oxygen, therefore the condition hypoxia describes poor oxygenation. Jaundice refers to a yellow coloring of the skin or eyes, hypothermia is a term used to describe an extremely low body temperature, and erythema is when the skin or mucous membranes have a reddish color.

A patient's temperature is 40°C (104°F). Which of the following signs and symptoms should the patient care technician expect to observe as the body's physiologic response to the fever? (Select the three (3) correct answers.) Hypotension Increased heart rate Chills Hypertension Increased respiratory rate

Increased heart rate, Chills, Increased respiratory rate Rationale: he patient care technician would expect to see an increased heart rate, increased respiratory rate, and chills. These are all common body responses to a fever. Blood pressure changes are not necessarily directly associated with a fever, but could be associated with other issues a patient may be experiencing in addition to a fever.

Which of the following is required for permission to treat a patient scheduled for a complex procedure? Implied consent Informed consent Advanced directive Living will

Informed consent Rationale: Before a patient can undergo a complex procedure he/she must first sign an informed consent. Informed consent states that the patient agrees with the procedure they are having and understand what will occur. If a patient has not signed an informed consent, it is illegal to perform any complex procedure on them. Implied consent is consent that is understood by the person's actions or silence. An advanced directive is a legal document stating what a patient wants in regard to their medical care in the event they could no longer make decisions for themselves. It covers decisions that the patients would want made if he/she were unconscious or very ill and unable to communicate. A living will is very similar to an advanced directive but focuses more on end-of-life care and fulfilling the patient's wishes when they cannot make decisions for themselves. Both of these documents are encouraged but not required to have before a complex procedure.

A patient's chief complaint of difficulty falling asleep is described as which of the following conditions? Nocturia Insomnia Narcolepsy Sleep apnea

Insomnia Rationale: The suffix -somnia means sleep, and the term insomnia refers to difficulty falling asleep. Nocturia is the need to urinate at night, narcolepsy is excessive drowsiness, and sleep apnea is when a person stops breathing for periods of time while they're sleeping.

Which of the following actions should the patient care technician take to ensure proper monitoring of a patient during a stress test? (Select the three (3) correct answers.) Instruct the patient to start at a rapid pace. Instruct the patient to report any symptoms. Adjust the temperature of the room to the patient's preference. Measure blood pressure and heart rate frequently. Observe facial expressions, skin color and perspiration.

Instruct the patient to report any symptoms., Measure blood pressure and heart rate frequently., Observe facial expressions, skin color and perspiration. Rationale: A stress test usually involves walking on a treadmill, riding a stationary bike, or administered drugs while the heart rhythm, blood pressure and breathing are monitored for any developing symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, dizziness, and extreme fatigue. The stress test shows how the heart works during physical activity.

Which of the following terms describes a yellowish-appearance to the skin? Cyanosis Jaundice Pallor Erythema

Jaundice Rationale: Jaundice is caused by a buildup of bilirubin, a waste material, in the blood. An inflamed liver or obstructed bile duct can lead to jaundice, as well as other underlying conditions. Symptoms include a yellow tinge to the skin and whites of the eyes, dark urine, and itchiness. Cyanosis is a bluish color, pallor is another word for pale, and erythema is a reddish color.

Which of the following procedures involves the process of cleaning out the contents of the stomach through a nasogastric tube? Gavage Lavage Cleansing enema Lumbar puncture

Lavage Rationale: Lavage is the irrigation of the stomach through a nasogastric tube. Gavage is the input of food into the body through a tube, a cleansing enema is used to clean out the rectum and relieve constipation, and a lumbar puncture is also known as a spinal tap and is when a needle is inserted into the back to remove fluid.

A physician has ordered STAT blood work for a patient. The tests ordered are Hgb/Hct, chemistry panel, and PT test. Which of the following tubes are needed for this procedure? (Select the three (3) correct answers.) Lavender Gray Light blue Red Yellow

Lavender, Light blue, Red Rationale: The medical assistant should draw the following tubes: Lavender for the Hgb, Hct Red for serum chemistry test Light blue for the PT (Yellow is used for blood cultures and gray is generally used for glucose samples.) CLSI lists the order of draw as follows. 1. Blood culture tube 2. Coagulation tube (blue closure) 3. Serum tube with or without clot activator, with or without gel (red closure) 4. Heparin tube with or without gel plasma separator (green closure) 5. EDTA tube with or without gel separator (lavender closure, pearl closure) 6. Glycolytic inhibitor (gray closure)

The patient care technician is obtaining a blood pressure measurement on a patient with a right-sided mastectomy. At which of the following sites should the technician take the blood pressure? Right lower leg Left lower leg Right upper arm Left upper arm

Left upper arm Rationale: After axillary lymph node clearance in patients with breast cancer, some women experience lymphoedema and recurrent infections. To obtain accuracy of blood pressure, it is recommended to use the opposite arm of surgery site.

The expected time frame to obtain a reading when measuring a temperature with a digital thermometer is which of the following? 45 to 60 seconds 3 to 4 minutes Less than 30 seconds 2 to 3 minutes

Less than 30 seconds Rationale: A digital thermometer will signal quickly when a stable temperature reading is registered. Generally, this happens within a few seconds (and less than 30 seconds). The temperature may disappear if the clinical professional does not read it within a timely fashion.

The physician orders a PT/PTT. Which of the following evacuated tubes should the patient care technician select for collecting the specimen? Light green Red Gray Light blue

Light blue Rationale: A light blue top on the tube means that the tube contains buffered sodium citrate, an additive that removes calcium to prevent blood from clotting. Therefore, this tube would be the one used for the PT/PTT test since those tests are done to see how well the blood clots. The light green tubes are used for STAT tests and will counteract the clotting tubes. Red tubes are for tests on hormones, and gray tubes are typically used for glucose testing and for testing blood alcohol content.

A patient on coumadin therapy is at the lab for their weekly coagulation test. Which of the following tubes should the patient care technician collect for this test? Red top Lavender top Light blue top Green top

Light blue top Rationale: A light blue top on the tube means that the tube contains buffered sodium citrate, an additive that removes calcium to prevent blood from clotting. Therefore, this tube would be the one used for the PT/PTT test, since those tests are done to see how well the blood clots.

A patient has laboratory orders for a CBC, PT, electrolytes, and glucose. Place the evacuated tubes in the correct order of draw. (Click and drag the options in the left column to their correct position in the right column.) Light blue Green Lavender Gray

Light blue, Green, Lavender, Gray Rationale: Blood tube collection in a specific order avoids cross-contamination of the sample by additives found in different collection tubes. Cross contamination, depending on the tests ordered, could cause seriously erroneous results, improper patient treatment and possibly death.

The patient care technician has a requisition for chemistry and coagulation testing. Which of the following is the correct tube selection and order of draw? Light blue, SST Red, royal blue SST, royal blue Red, light blue

Light blue, SST Rationale: Light blue top tubes contain the anticoagulant sodium citrate. They are used mostly for coagulation (clotting) studies. SST tubes contain a clot activator and serum gel separator, used for various chemistry, serology, and immunology tests.

The term oliguria is used to describe which of the following conditions? Cystitis Frequent urination Low urine output Renal calculi

Low urine output Rationale: The kidneys make more or less urine, depending on what the body needs to keep things in balance. If a patient urinates too much or not enough, it can sometimes be a sign that something is wrong. Oliguria is when someone urinates less than usual. For adults, that means less than 400 milliliters of urine a day.

An adult patient sitting in the waiting area, with a known history of epilepsy, begins having apparent tonic-clonic movement of the arms and legs. How should the patient care technician respond? Provide glucose immediately. Place a tongue depressor in the patient's mouth to maintain an open airway. Move the patient to the floor and clear surrounding objects. Restrain the patient and hold extremities down.

Move the patient to the floor and clear surrounding objects. Rationale: The patient care technician should move the patient to the floor and clear surrounding objects in order to protect the patient from injury. Nothing should be placed in the patient's mouth, because they could choke on it, and the patient shouldn't be restrained because this could cause further injury.

The presence of which of the following is MOST likely to cause a false low reading on an oxygen saturation monitor? Jaundice Anaphylaxis Nail polish Artifact

Nail polish Rationale: An oxygen saturation monitor is a device that measures the amount of saturated hemoglobin in the tissue capillaries by transmitting a beam of light through the tissue to a receiver. It may be used on either the earlobe or the fingertip. This is a noninvasive method of measuring the saturated hemoglobin, a useful screening tool for determining basic respiratory function. The presence of nail polish may affect the light sensor reading within the probe. To correct for this issue, place the pulse oximeter on a peripheral finger that is free of nail polish. Jaundice is a medical condition with yellowing of the skin or whites of the eyes resulting from an excess of bilirubin (typically caused by obstruction of the bile duct). Anaphylaxis is an acute allergic reaction to an antigen to which the body has become hypersensitive (this would not influence this oxygen saturation monitor). An artifact would likely cause a reading error (or show no number instead of a low reading as is listed in this scenario). Black or dark nail polish could also block the signal.

The patient care technician measures the patient's blood pressure at 178/108 (mmHg) during the check-in process. Which of the following actions should the patient care technician take? Notify the health care provider Administer nitroglycerin Assist the patient into Trendelenburg position Calculate the patient's BMI and document

Notify the health care provider Rationale: The normal adult blood pressure range is 100/60-119/79 mm Hg. A BP reading of 178/108 would be considered hypertension (high blood pressure). The health care provider would need to be notified because a BP that high could be harmful to the patient if left untreated. Nitroglycerin is administered when a client is experiencing chest pain, which the patient in this scenario is not. Assisting the patient into Trendelenburg position will not fix the blood pressure problem. Though it might be a contributing factor to overall patient health, calculating the patient's BMI isn't the best approach in this situation because knowledge of the BMI would not have an immediate effect on the hypertension issue.

The medical abbreviation meaning both eyes is OU. OS. OD. AU.

OU. Rationale: Patient care technicians are likely to see the abbreviated terms OD, OS and OU. OD refers to Oculus Dexter while OS represents Oculus Sinister. They are Latin words that mean right eye and left eye respectively. OU refers to Oculus Uterque, and it stands for both eyes. AU stands for auris utraque, and it means both ears.

After receiving an injection of medication, a patient begins to experience coughing, wheezing, and labored breathing. Which of the following actions should the patient care technician take? Initiate chest compressions, followed by rescue breaths. Perform the Heimlich maneuver. Obtain epinephrine and oxygen and await physician's orders. Call the Poison Control Center immediately.

Obtain epinephrine and oxygen and await physician's orders. Rationale: In the event of an allergic reaction, the Patient care technician should obtain epinephrine and oxygen and wait for the physician's orders. Epinephrine is a medication given during allergic reactions, and oxygen is needed since the child is wheezing and has labored breathing. A shot check should always be performed and documented 20 minutes following an immunization injection to assess for signs of allergic reaction. Chest compressions aren't necessary since the child can breathe on their own, and the Heimlich is also unnecessary since the child isn't choking on anything. The Poison Control Center doesn't need to be called immediately, because treating the allergic reaction and helping the patient breathe is the first priority.

A pulse oximetry monitor measures which of the following? Pulse pressure Respiratory rate Oxygen saturation Oxygen flow rate

Oxygen saturation Rationale: A pulse oximetry monitor is a noninvasive measurement of the oxygen saturation of a patient's arterial blood. Pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure, respiratory rate is measured by counting the patient's breaths, and oxygen flow rate is the set amount of oxygen that a patient is receiving while wearing a nasal cannula or oxygen mask.

A patient complains of nausea and vomiting, and has been unable to keep fluids down over the course of two days. A suppository has been ordered. Which of the following abbreviations is the correct route of administration? IM PR SC INH

PR Rationale: Common pharmaceutical abbreviations are as follows: PR = per rectum, IM = intramuscular, SC = subcutaneous, INH = isoniazid Drugs administered PR have a faster action than via the oral route and a higher bio-availability - that is, the amount of effective drug that is available is greater, as it has not been influenced by upper gastrointestinal tract digestive processes. Rectal absorption results in more of the drug reaching the systemic circulation with less alteration on route. As well as being a more effective route for delivering medication, rectal administration also reduces side-effects of some drugs, such as gastric irritation, nausea, and vomiting.

The patient care technician suspects elder abuse. The patient leaves before seeing anyone else. Who is responsible to report the potential elder abuse? Patient care technician Physician Office manager Receptionist

Patient care technician Rationale: Those required by law to file are considered mandated reporters. These professionals can include health care providers, mental health providers, crisis counselors, school personnel, social workers, day care providers and law enforcement personnel, among others.

The older adult patient who is observed talking in the clinic waiting area begins to choke on a piece of hard candy. Which of the following actions should the patient care technician take immediately? Begin chest compressions Perform abdominal thrusts Obtain the AED Measure a full set of baseline vitals

Perform abdominal thrusts Rationale: Since the patient is not experiencing heart issues, utilizing an Automated External Defibrillator and administering chest compressions are not warranted. Baseline vitals are not the primary concern, as the immediate need is clearance of the airway. A choking person might need intervention to assist in dislodging the blockage. Abdominal thrusts (a.k.a. the Heimlich Maneuver) are an effective way to assist in this situation. To administer abdominal thrusts, stand behind the patient while wrapping arms around the torso directly above the navel. Make a fist (thumb in) with one hand, cover it with the other, and thrust upward and inward with force sufficient enough to briefly lift the patient off his or her feet.

When giving a nebulizer treatment with a bronchodilator, the patient care technician should MOST closely monitor for which of the following complications? Persistent tachycardia Persistent bradycardia Severe nausea and vomiting Severe epistaxis

Persistent tachycardia Rationale: The patient care technician should monitor for persistent tachycardia when giving a nebulizer treatment with a bronchodilator. Bronchodilators are medications that open up the bronchioles, and by doing this, the heart rate can increase. Bradycardia (reduced heart rate), nausea and vomiting, and epistaxis (nosebleed) are not typical side effects of pairing a nebulizer treatment with a bronchodilator.

Which of the following has ownership of a patient's medical records? Patient Physician Guarantor Insurance company

Physician Rationale: In essence, the health care provider becomes the legal custodian of a patient's health care record and is given specific legal rights and duties relating to possession and protection of those health records.

When administering eye drops, which of the following actions by the patient care technician is correct? Ask the patient sit upright on the exam table. Pull gently upward on the upper eye lid. Place each drop individually in the inner canthus of the eye. Ask the patient to gently rub the eye after administering the drops.

Place each drop individually in the inner canthus of the eye. Rationale: The patient care technician should place each drop individually in the inner canthus of the eye to allow the medication to absorb. The patient should be instructed to pull downward on the lower eyelid and the head should be tilted back to make sure all of the medication gets in the eye. The patient should not be told to rub their eyes afterwards, because this could cause the medication to not stay in the eye. The object is to make sure all of it stays in the eye to be most effective.

Which of the following actions by the patient care technician is correct when administering medication to a patient sublingually? Placing the medication between the gum and cheek Asking the patient to swallow the medication Applying the medication directly to the skin Placing the medication under the tongue

Placing the medication under the tongue Rationale: Sublingual medication is absorbed systemically through intact mucous membranes. Instruct the patient to place the medication under the tongue, sit upright and swallow frequently until the medication dissolves. Ex. Nitroglycerin tablets.

During a routine visit, a patient becomes very upset while discussing the recent death of a spouse and suddenly faints. Which of the following actions should the patient care technician take NEXT? Protect the patient from injury. Activate EMS. Notify the physician. Draw blood for laboratory tests.

Protect the patient from injury. Rationale: Protecting the patient is the ultimate priority here. Quickly and carefully lay the patient flat (in the supine position) with her head lower than her feet. Once you have tended to the patient, stay with her to eliminate the potential for any injuries. Then call the physician or other medical personnel to alert them to your situation. Fainting itself does not constitute a reason for activating EMS (that would be necessary if the patient's heart and/or breathing stopped). Phlebotomy is the last consideration; blood work is not the main concern at this time.

Which of the following indicates a medical facility is compliant with the Americans with Disabilities Act? Providing interpreting services for a non-English speaking patient. Providing employees the opportunity to receive the Hepatitis B vaccine. Providing hand rails in at least one restroom stall. Providing up to 12 weeks of unpaid leave to an employee that has a critically ill child.

Providing hand rails in at least one restroom stall. Rationale: By providing access and accessibility for individuals with disabilities, the Americans with Disabilities Act secures each person's right to an independent life. Providing a bi-lingual service would be only a courtesy by the provider for non-English speaking patients. Providing services for employees is not covered under the ADA. The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) prohibits discrimination against people with disabilities in several areas, including employment, transportation, public accommodations, communications and access to state and local government' programs and services.

Which of the following techniques should the patient care technician use when collecting a blood specimen from a geriatric patient? A tighter tourniquet to anchor more fragile veins Vigorous massaging of the arm to increase blood flow in the veins Pulling the skin taunt and firmly anchor the vein Using a sharper angle of needle insertion to decrease rolling

Pulling the skin taunt and firmly anchor the vein Rationale: Elderly patients' veins tend to move or "roll" very easily. Using the thumb to gently pull the skin taut and anchor the vein (If the vein disappears, simply release the skin to re-visualize the vein and then gently pull taut again). Stabilize the vein by applying manual traction on the skin and puncture the vein in a quick, smooth motion.

An adult patient presents for a follow-up visit one week after a ruptured appendectomy. The patient care technician obtains the following measurements: T 36.9C (98.5F), P 110, R 28, B/P 88/56, O2 Sat 96%. Which of the following findings should be reported to the provider? (Select the three (3) correct answers.) Temperature Pulse Respirations Blood pressure O2 sat

Pulse, Respirations, Blood pressure Rationale: The provider should be notified about the pulse, respirations, and blood pressure. A normal pulse range is 60-100, a normal respiratory rate is 12-20, and a normal blood pressure is 120/80. Therefore, all of these demonstrate abnormal, reportable findings. The temperature is normal, and the oxygen saturation is also normal.

Which of the following terms describes a wound that is pus-producing? Parietal Percutaneous Pyogenic Parenteral

Pyogenic Rationale: The prefix pyo refers to pus, and the suffix -genic refers to the formation of, therefore pyogenic means pus-producing. The term parietal refers to something that is attached to or is touching a wall or cavity, and percutaneous means the skin was punctured. When something is delivered through the parenteral route, it means it is not given through the intestinal tract, and is delivered somewhere else in the body, like through a feeding tube.

The patient care technician should select which of the following sites to measure the heart rate when obtaining vital signs? Cephalic vein Radial artery Brachial artery Basilic vein

Radial artery Rationale: The radial artery is most easily accessed and palpated (inside of the wrist just below the thumb) for measurement. The cephalic vein runs from the hand to the shoulder and is typically used for blood samples. The brachial artery is used when measuring blood pressure. The basilic vein runs along the forearm and is not used to measure heart rate.

A patient receiving an albuterol treatment by nebulizer in the medical facility complains of tremors, nausea, blurred vision, and headache. Which of the following actions should the patient care technician take? Decrease the oxygen flow meter to three liters per minute. Report these symptoms to the physician. Have the patient lie down with the head elevated. Tell the patient these are common side effects.

Report these symptoms to the physician. Rationale: Bronchodilators (Ex. Albuterol) relax smooth muscles of the airway. Common side effects are tremors, tachycardia, and hypertension. Nausea, blurred vision, and headache may indicate the patient is having an adverse reaction, or has a toxic level of medication in their system, and should be reported.

When measuring oxygen saturation on a patient breathing room air, with normal color, and no signs of respiratory distress, the patient care technician obtains a reading of 79%. Which of the following actions should the patient care technician take NEXT? Notify the physician Supplement the patient with oxygen per protocol Reposition the finger probe Take a full set of vital signs

Reposition the finger probe Rationale: Oxygen saturation (O2 Sat or Pulse Ox) on a child with a structurally normal heart should be >92% . Patient movement, poor probe attachment, or nail polish can distort the sensor reading during monitoring. Always observe the child's condition first, and machine reading 2nd when troubleshooting. O2 saturation should be obtained and documented as part of a full set of vital signs for patients being evaluated for respiratory conditions.

Vital signs documented on an older adult patient in the outpatient clinic are recorded as: Temperature: 98.6F (37.0C), Pulse: 68, Respirations: 30, B/P 128/84 mmHg. Which of the following measurements should the patient care technician reassess? Temperature Pulse Respirations Blood pressure

Respirations Rationale: The normal respiratory range for an adult is 14-20, therefore a RR of 30 would indicate tachypnea (increased RR). The temperature, pulse, and BP are all within normal limits, but the RR should be reassessed.

Which of the following are included in the five rights of medication administration? (Select the three (3) correct answers.) Right patient Right medication Right dose Right position Right cost

Right patient, Right medication, Right dose Rationale: 5 rights of medication administration=right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time. A systematic approach should be used every time in checking the five rights prior to administering medication to a patient. The order will be initiated by a physician. Practicing medical assistants should know applicable state scope of practice laws for administering medications under the supervision of a physician.

The patient care technician is drawing blood on an 88-year-old patient that has multiple skin tears. Which of the following should be used to secure the 2 x 2 gauze sponge? Paper tape Adhesive tape Band aid Rolled gauze

Rolled gauze Rationale: Avoid adhesive bandages or medical tape as these can cause delicate skin to tear. Roller gauze bandages are frequently used due to their ease in wrapping the limb and holding the dressing in place.

Which of the following should the patient care technician do when initiating first aid for a patient with a second-degree burn? (Select the two (2) correct answers.) Apply moisturizing cream to the affected area. Soak the affected area in Epsom salt. Run cool water over affected area of intact skin. Protect the burn from pressure or injury. Drain large, intact blisters.

Run cool water over affected area of intact skin., Protect the burn from pressure or injury. Rationale: Cool water should be ran over the affected area of intact skin, and the burn should be protected from pressure injury. Oil or ointment application increases the risk of breaking blisters and increases the potential for infection. Intact skin is a first line of defense in preventing infection, therefore the blisters should not be broken or drained, and Epsom salt would not be used.

Which of the following pieces of equipment should the patient care technician anticipate using when taking a patient's blood pressure? Sphygmomanometer Otoscope Speculum Pulse oximeter

Sphygmomanometer Rationale: A sphygmomanometer is used to auscultate and measure blood pressure readings. An otoscope is used to examine the ear, a speculum is used to examine body cavities, and a pulse oximeter is used to see what a person's oxygen saturation is in the body.

The patient care technician should administer nitroglycerin by which of the following methods? Buccal Sublingual Intramuscular Intradermal

Sublingual Rationale: The patient care technician should administer the nitroglycerin sublingually, which is done by placing the tablet under the patient's tongue and letting it dissolve. Taking nitroglycerin in this form is typically done when the patient is experiencing acute angina, because it is easily absorbed by the body when taken sublingually. The buccal area refers to the area between the cheek and the gums, and intramuscular requires the medication to be injected into one of the major muscles, such as the deltoid in the arm or the vastus lateralis in the leg. Intradermal administration means injecting the medicine into the dermis (the outer layer of skin).

Commitment to privacy, continuity of care, advance directives, and the authority to refuse treatment are granted according to which of the following? Americans with Disabilities Act The Patient's Bill of Rights Informed Consent Good Samaritan Law

The Patient's Bill of Rights Rationale: Patients are guaranteed certain standards of care listed in this question by The Patient's Bill of Rights. In 2010, in conjunction with the Affordable Care Act, a new Patient's Bill of Rights was set forth to include protections associated with insurance companies. Patients do have a right to be fully informed of a procedure or treatment option and have the right to consent to it or refuse. The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) addresses discrimination of disabled individuals. The Good Samaritan Law protects individuals who are willing to help someone in an emergency situation.

The patient care technician auscultates an apical pulse of 70 bpm in an older adult patient who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). How should the patient care technician interpret this finding? The patient is experiencing tachycardia. The patient is experiencing bradycardia. The patient is experiencing a pulse deficit. The patient's heart rate is within normal limits.

The patient's heart rate is within normal limits. Rationale: Digoxin works to slow and control the heart rate, and a normal heart rate is between 60 and 100. This patient's heart rate is within normal limits, but Digoxin should not be given if a patient's baseline apical heart rate is less than 60 bpm. Tachycardia would be a heart rate greater than 100 bpm, bradycardia would be a heart rate less than 60 bpm, and a pulse deficit is when the pulse cannot be found because the heart isn't contracting properly.

A patient falls unconscious while sitting in the office waiting room. Which of the following should the patient care technician do regarding consent to treat? Obtain a signed consent to treat. Treat based on implied consent. Treat based on expressed consent. Obtain consent from a family member.

Treat based on implied consent. Rationale: Implied consent happens when the rescuer is unable to communicate with the victim. This most often happens because the victim is unconscious.

When a complete metabolic profile (CMP) and complete blood count (CBC) are ordered at the same time. Why should the CMP be drawn FIRST? The CMP is used for blood cultures which are a sterile specimen. Drawing the tubes with additives first leads to hemolysis. Tubes without additives should be drawn before tubes with additives. Whole blood should be collected before serum.

Tubes without additives should be drawn before tubes with additives. Rationale: To prevent specimen contamination.

When performing a 12-lead ECG, which of the following positions demonstrates correct lead placement? V4 is placed left midclavicular 5th intercostal space V4 is placed left midclavicular 4th intercostal space V5 is placed left midaxillary 5th intercostal space V5 is paced left midclavicular 4th intercostal space

V4 is placed left midclavicular 5th intercostal space Rationale: The precordial chest lead is positioned at the apex of the heart, where the apical pulse is auscultated and Point of Maximal Impulse (PMI) can be felt. V4 is placed on the left midclavicular 5th intercostal space, at the mitral valve (left ventricular) area.

The patient care technician is helping a patient who has arrived accidently on a day when no clinicians are in the clinic. The patient is asking for a refill of her prescription. The patient care technician is familiar with the patient and knows she receives the same medication each visit. The patient care technician should dispense the medication, make a note in the chart, and leave the chart for a clinician to sign when one is on site. apologize, politely decline the patient's request, and offer to reschedule the visit. offer the patient enough of the medication to last until a new scheduled visit can be arranged. call in a new prescription order for the medication to the pharmacy.

apologize, politely decline the patient's request, and offer to reschedule the visit. Rationale: It is not within the scope of practice of the patient care technician to prescribe medications or refill prescriptions without the consent of a licensed practitioner. Only licensed physicians, physician's assistants (P.A.), nurse practitioners, pharmacists, and clinical psychologists can prescribe medications under various circumstances.

If a medication has been ordered to be taken twice daily, the patient care technician should document this in the chart as qd. qid. tid. bid.

bid. Rationale: The term bid = twice per day, qd = every day (sometimes mistaken for QOD or qds, best to spell out "everyday"), qid = four times a day (can be mistaken for qd or qod, best to write out "4 times a day"), and tid = three times a day (AMA style avoids the use of this abbreviation, best to spell out "3 times a day"). Bid is an abbreviation for "bis in die" which is Latin for "twice a day".

The patient care technician should instruct the patient obtaining a 24-hour urine collection to keep the sample at room temperature. discard the first morning sample. void mid-stream into the collection container. collect samples exactly two hours after each meal.

discard the first morning sample. Rationale: When doing a 24-hour urine collection it is important the patient knows to discard the first morning sample. This allows the collection to begin with fresh urine to ensure the results of the test are not skewed. The sample should be refrigerated during the collection and all urine should be collected, not just urine excreted after meals. The patient should be instructed to collect all urine during the 24-hour period and not just to catch urine mid-stream.

The patient exhibits signs of anaphylaxis following an allergy injection. The patient care technician should anticipate administration of epinephrine. diazepam. insulin. dextrose.

epinephrine. Rationale: Anaphylaxis is a potentially fatal systemic (whole body) allergic reaction that can cause a multitude of symptoms, including shock, anxiety, sudden hypotension, narrowing airways, nausea, vomiting, itching and hives. Treatment for anaphylaxis involves an epinephrine injection, which can immediately reverse the life-threatening symptoms.

The physician asks the patient care technician to calculate a patient's BMI. The importance of this measurement is to determine the patient's level of hydration. estimate the patient's body fat and obesity-related health risks. screen the patient for diabetes mellitus and related complications. assess the patient's skin fold thickness.

estimate the patient's body fat and obesity-related health risks. Rationale: Body Mass Index (BMI) is a relationship of weight to height: BMI = weight [kg]/height [m2] (weight is in kilograms; height is in meters, which is squared in the calculation). 75kg/1.7m2 = 75/2.89 = 26 BMI A high BMI can be an indicator that a patient is overweight or obese. There are increased chronic health risks associated with overweight and obese individuals (diabetes, high blood pressure, etc.). The BMI is one measurement that helps determine an overall risk factor for obesity-related health issues. It is not a screen for diabetes (a glucose tolerance test, fasting glucose, triglycerides, and Hgb A1C would help determine if a patient is diabetic) or related complications. The BMI is not used to detect hydration levels or skin fold thickness.

After the patient care technician has introduced herself and identified the patient, she should NEXT ask the patient about chief complaint. state the purpose for which the physician is ordering the test. reassure the patient that it will not hurt. explain the procedure.

explain the procedure. Rationale: In order for patients to make informed treatment decisions they must be provided with pertinent information presented in a manner that promotes understanding.

The abbreviations o.d., o.s., and o.u. are used in reference to the ear. nose. throat. eye.

eye. Rationale: The 'o' in the abbreviations denotes the Latin word 'oculus', meaning eye. Ear is designated by the Latin term 'auris'; ear in Greek is 'ot' (oto is the combining form). Nose in Latin is 'nasus' and in Greek is 'rhino'. Greek pharyngo/pharynx = throat o.d. = oculus dexter (right eye), o.s. = oculus sinister (left eye), o.u. = oculus uterque (both eyes)

The medical abbreviation meaning drops is gtt. mL. oz. drp.

gtt. Rationale: Taber's Medical Dictionary states that: gtt = drop mL (also ml) = milliliter oz = ounce drp has no pharmacological designation and is a distractor in this question

The patient care technician measures the patient's blood pressure in the office. The reading is 220/88 mmHg. This indicates hypertension. hypotension. bradycardia. tachycardia.

hypertension. Rationale: Normal Blood Pressure ranges for an adult: 100/60 to 119/79. Any readings above these would indicate hypertension (high blood pressure). Hypotension indicates low blood pressure. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate, whereas tachycardia is a fast heart rate.

The patient care technician measures a patient's BP in the left upper arm at 188/110 mm Hg. This reading is consistent with hyperplasia. tachycardia. hyperthermia. hypertension.

hypertension. Rationale: This patient's blood pressure is above the normal reading, and this is referred to as hypertension. Hyperplasia is the increased cell production, tachycardia is increased heart rate, and hyperthermia is increased body temperature.

A patient calls the office asking for ECG test results. The individual answering the phone should verify the patient's first and last name before giving the patient results. verify the patient's first and last name, date of birth, and social security number before giving results. inform the patient that results cannot be discussed over the phone. make an appointment for the patient to meet with the ECG technician to discuss results.

inform the patient that results cannot be discussed over the phone. Rationale: Test results can only be given by a provider and not by a patient care technician. They will need to make an appointment with their provider to discuss results in-person. Due to privacy and HIPAA laws, results cannot be discussed over the phone. It is also out of the scope of practice for patient care technician to give results.

The physician explains the procedure to the patient and asks the patient care technician to obtain consent and record the proper documentation. Upon completion of this task, the patient care technician alerts the doctor that the patient is ready for the procedure. This scenario is an example of implied consent. informed consent. verbal consent. expressed consent.

informed consent. Rationale: Informed consent is a process of communication between a patient and their health care provider that often leads to agreement or permission for care, treatment, or services. Every patient has the right to get information and ask questions before procedures and treatments.

The adult patient's respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute, with no apparent distress. This finding is within normal limits. indicates tachypnea. indicates apnea. should be reported to the physician.

is within normal limits. Rationale: The normal range for an adult is 12-20 breaths per minute, so this finding would be within normal limits and would not need to be reported to the physician. Tachypnea would be a respiratory rate above 20 breaths per minute, and apnea is when breathing is stopped.

The patient experiencing dyspnea is placed on oxygen via nasal cannula. The patient care technician should document the flow rate as liters per minute. volume per minute. degrees per minute. percentage per minute.

liters per minute. Rationale: Liter flow is the flow of oxygen received from an oxygen delivery device. This flow of oxygen is measured in liters per minute, or LPM. [1] Every liter per minute of oxygen increases the percentage of oxygen provided to the patient by about 3-4%. The usual oxygen flow meter is between 0-15 liters per minute. The flow should be adjusted per physician's order, typically initiated for an adult between 2-6 LPM via nasal cannula.

Under recommendation of the physician, a patient has opted to undergo an invasive procedure. When serving as a witness to the patient's consent to treatment, the patient care technician is attesting to the fact that the patient has the ability to make the decision. patient was made aware of alternative methods of treatment. patient's signature was his/her own. patient comprehended all relevant information.

patient's signature was his/her own. Rationale: If someone serves as a witness to signing a form, that person is solely attesting to the fact that the patient's signature was his/her own. It is not an attestation that the patient has the ability to make the decision, that the patient comprehended all relevant information, or that the patient was made aware of alternative methods of treatment.

Providing high-quality chest compressions while performing CPR prevents aspiration of gastric contents. maintains alignment to open the airway. eliminates the need for an AED. pumps blood from the heart.

pumps blood from the heart. Rationale: Chest compressions are essential while administering CPR, doing the work of the heart muscle to generate blood flow to vital organs during cardiopulmonary arrest. When available, an automated external defibrillator (AED) can help restore normal heart rhythms in a patient experiencing cardiac arrest. To maintain open airway alignment, keep the patient in the supine position on a hard flat surface with the head tilted back and mouth open, head and neck aligned. Patients can aspirate gastric contents if the larynx is not functioning in an unconscious state.

While changing a patient's dressing, the patient care technician notices thick, yellow drainage with a foul odor coming from the wound. The wound exudate noted should be documented as serous. purulent. sanguinous. serosanguinous.

purulent. Rationale: Purulent describes a thick drainage containing pus with a yellowish color to it, and is not a normal finding in a wound. Serous drainage is thin and clear in appearance, sanguineous drainage is fresh blood, and serosanguinous drainage is a pinkish color.

The physician has instructed the patient care technician to obtain a patient's temperature. Before placing the oral thermometer in the patient's mouth, it is important to ensure the accuracy of the reading by asking the patient if she has recently ingested hot or cold food or beverages. taken her prescribed medications today. had a fever in the last 24 hours. pain with swallowing.

recently ingested hot or cold food or beverages. Rationale: An oral temperature reading can be falsely elevated or decreased if a patient ingests hot or cold food or drink close to the time the temperature is taken. Prescribed medications would not cause the reading to be inaccurate (though they may help accurately reduce the fever if they include antipyretics). Neither having a fever within the last 24 hours nor trouble swallowing should have any bearing on the accuracy of an oral temperature reading, provided it is taken correctly.

The purpose of The Joint Commission's "Do Not Use" abbreviation list is to reduce the number of medication errors caused by incorrect use of medical terminology. ensure the Five Rights of Medication Administration are verified. track adverse medication reactions. promote a culture of safety by labeling medications that are not labeled.

reduce the number of medication errors caused by incorrect use of medical terminology. Rationale: Acceptable abbreviations and terminology must be used to prevent medication errors. Example: Humalog 1 unit sq (always write out the word unit or take the time to clarify if it is written incorrectly): If written Humalog 1 u sq, the u could easily be mistaken for a 0, and the patient could receive 10 units instead of 1 unit (10 times the intended dose). The Joint Commission's List of Error-Prone Abbreviations, Symbols, and Dose Designations contains abbreviations, symbols, and dose designations which have been reported through the ISMP National Medication Errors Reporting Program (ISMP MERP) and have been misinterpreted and involved in harmful or potentially harmful medication errors. These abbreviations, symbols, and dose designations should NEVER be used when communicating medical information verbally, electronically, and/or in handwritten applications.

The patient care technician received a requisition for blood test on a 70-year-old female patient with diabetes and a mastectomy of the left breast. Upon entering the room, the patient care technician notices a PICC line in the patient's right arm. For this specimen collection, the patient care technician should draw above the PICC line. draw from the left arm. refer the draw to the nurse. draw directly from the PICC line.

refer the draw to the nurse. Rationale: A patient care technician cannot draw from the left side due to a mastectomy of left breast. A patient care technician cannot draw out of right arm due to PICC line. It is out of the patient care technician's scope of practice to draw from PICC line.

According to the American Hospital Association, if a Spanish-speaking patient is not provided a translator although one was requested. This would be considered a violation of protected health information. the Patient's Bill of Rights. patient confidentiality. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.

the Patient's Bill of Rights. Rationale: Patients have the right to accurate and easily-understood information about their health plan, health care professionals, and health care facilities. If a patient speaks another language, has a physical or mental disability, or just doesn't understand something, help should be given so them so they can make informed health care decisions.

When reading the results of an HCT the patient care technician should read starting at the top of the packed cells. bottom of the meniscus. top of the buffy coat. bottom of the plasma.

top of the packed cells. Rationale: When testing the hematocrit (hct) level in the blood it is important that the medical assistant read from the top of the packed cells. The hematocrit level in the blood tells how much of the blood is composed of red blood cells, therefore, the medical assistant must look at the packed red blood cells to get an accurate reading. Looking at the bottom of the plasma, top of the buffy coat, or the bottom of the meniscus will not give an accurate reading of the hematocrit level because they will not show the total amount of red blood cells in the sample.

Metoprolol (Lopressor) 40mg tab po bid is prescribed for a patient with hypertension. The patient care technician should help the patient take the medication twice per day. daily. every other day. after meals.

twice per day. Rationale: bid=twice a day pc= after meals For patient safety reasons, daily and every other day should be written out on the prescription.

The patient is given an incorrect dose of acetaminophen (Tylenol) in the medical office. The patient care technician should complete an incident report in this situation in order to ensure it becomes part of the patient's medical record. understand the circumstances and prevent future occurrences. begin disciplinary action against the responsible employee. prevent legal action against the practice.

understand the circumstances and prevent future occurrences. Rationale: The reporting of medical errors is essential to patient safety improvement and risk management in all health care settings. Incident reports are not part of a patient's medical record, but may be used in litigation. It should not be documented in the patient's medical record that an incident report was submitted. Reporting (providing accounts of mistakes) and disclosing (sharing with patients and significant others) actual errors and near misses provide opportunities to reduce the effects of errors and prevent the likelihood of future errors by, in effect, warning others about the potential risk of harm.

When obtaining a temperature reading using a tympanic thermometer, the patient care technician should pull the pinna of an adult patient gently down and back. up and back. straight back. straight down.

up and back. Rationale: To straighten the ear canal shape to gain the best access to the tympanic membrane (ear drum) for an accurate reading. For smaller patients <3 years old, gently pull the ear lobe straight down and slightly back to gain the best position of the TM.