NCLEX

अब Quizwiz के साथ अपने होमवर्क और परीक्षाओं को एस करें!

The nurse is caring for a client suffering from major depression. The client spends all day in bed. Which nursing action is appropriate? 1. Frequently initiate contact with client. 2. Frequently round at regular intervals. 3. Patiently wait for the client to come out of the room. 4. Question the client about reason for not getting out of the bed.

1. Correct: Be accepting of, and spend time with the client. The client may exhibit pessimism and negativism. The nurse should focus on strengths and accomplishments, and minimize failures

Which finding in fetal heart rate during a non-stress test would indicate to the nurse that a potential problem for the fetus may exist? 1. Increases 30 beats per minute for 20 seconds with fetal movement. 2. Increases 8 beats per minute for 10 seconds with fetal movement. 3. Remains unchanged with maternal movement. 4. Increases 5 beats per minute for 30 seconds with maternal movement.

2. Correct. A non-reactive test is when the FHR accelerates less than 15 beats per minute above baseline. This may indicate fetal compromise.

What would the nurse include when teaching a client newly prescribed timolol maleate eyedrops for glaucoma? 1. The medication works by causing the pupils to constrict 2. The medication will dilate the canals of Schlemm 3. This medication decreases the production of aqueous humor 4. The medication improves ciliary muscle contraction

3. Correct: timolol does decrease aqueous humor formation; therefore decreasing IOP

What discharge instructions should the nurse provide to the parents of a child diagnosed with sickle cell anemia? 1. Provide high-calorie, low protein diet. 2. Inheritance is by autosomal dominate genes. 3. Restrict all activities for 3 months. 4. Deferasirox helps prevent liver damage from iron deposits. 5. Avoid high altitudes.

4., & 5. Correct: Deferasirox is an orally administered iron chelation agent shown to reduce the liver iron concentration due to repeated RBC transfusions. It binds iron. Low oxygen environments such as airplanes and high altitudes should be avoided.

The nurse assess a client receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which assessment findings are most important to notify to the HCP? A-cloudy outflow B-low grade fever C-oliguiria D-pruritus E-Tachycardia

ABD These symptoms suggest peritonitis. Low grade fever, tachycardia, and cloudy outflow

After a liver biopsy what position should the client be in ?

Right side lying so they can splint the site

The emergency room nurse is assessing a client with an eye injury that occurred while chopping wood. The client states the chain saw caused a log to splinter, sending slivers of wood into the right eye. While waiting for the eye specialist, the nurse discusses future safety precautions for such an activity. What safety precautions are most important for the nurse to include in client teaching? 1. Wear heavy gloves. 2. Stand with feet together. 3. Use steel-toed boots. 4. Wear unbreakable googles. 5. Use ear covers and plugs. 6. Wear loose-fitting clothing.

1, 4 and 5. CORRECT. When engaging in a potentially risky activity, precautions should be taken even if the activity has been completed multiple times before. Functional body parts, such as hands, fingers and toes, are particularly vulnerable to injury. Heavy duty work gloves made of leather or suede along with protective eye googles should be worn even before turning on any machines. Ears should also be protected with regulation ear phones or ear plugs because of equipment noise levels.

A client has been admitted with a diagnosis of pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP). What initial assessment findings would the nurse expect? (Select All That Apply). 1. Fever 2. Night sweats 3. Hemoptysis 4. Dry cough 5. Dyspnea

1, 4 and 5. CORRECT: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, now known as pneumocystis jirovecii, is caused by a fungus and occurs in clients with weakened immune systems. Expected assessment findings include fever, dry non-productive cough and dyspnea. Any additional symptoms are related to other co-morbidities and not the pneumonia itself.

A client has a diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which findings does the nurse expect when completing an assessment? Select All That Apply 1.Butterfly rash 2.Weight gain 3.Edema 4.Fatigue 5.Proteinuria

1, 4, 5 SLE is a chronic autoimmune condition characterized by exacerbations and remissions. It affects 1.5 million people in the United States. Symptoms associated with SLE include chest pain with inspiration, fatigue, fever, general discomfort, hair loss, mouth sores, photosensitivity, and weakness.

The nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism. The nurse will monitor the client for which complications? 1. Kidney stones 2. Diarrhea 3. Osteoporosis 4. Tetany 5. Fluid volume deficit

1. & 3. Correct: Yes, because too much calcium in the blood equals too much calcium in the urine and increased risk of kidney stones. Increased parathyroid hormone (PTH) is pulling the calcium from the bones, leaving them weak.

What is the best instruction the nurse should provide when administering acetylsalicylic acid 81 mg to a client experiencing severe, crushing chest pain radiating up the left jaw? 1. Chew the acetylsalicylic acid prior to swallowing. 2. Place the acetylsalicylic acid under the tongue so that it can dissolve. 3. Swallow the acetylsalicylic acid tablet. 4. Insert the acetylsalicylic acid between the cheek and gum for greater absorption.

1. Correct: Acetylsalicylic acid has been shown to decrease mortality and re-infarction rates after MI. The fastest way to get the aspirin into the circulatory system is to have the client chew the acetylsalicylic acid prior to swallowing.

Two hours after a gastrectomy, a client has pink tinged drainage from the nasogastric (NG) tube, and the tube appears occluded. What is the nurse's initial action at this time? 1. Call the primary healthcare provider. 2. Reposition the client. 3. Increase the suction level. 4. Irrigate the tube.

1. Correct: Do not tamper with fresh surgery tubes. Call the primary healthcare provider for blood draining from the NG tube after gastrectomy.

An 82 year old client tells the nurse at the clinic, "I have lived a good, successful life and married my best friend". Which of Erikson's developmental tasks does the nurse recognize that this client has probably accomplished? 1. Ego Integrity versus Despair 2. Generativity versus Stagnation 3. Intimacy versus Isolation 4. Industry versus Inferiority

1. Correct: Ego Integrity versus Despair is the major task of those 65 and over: The developmental task for this age involves the individual reviewing one's life and deriving meaning from both positive and negative events, while achieving a positive sense of self. If the individual considers accomplishments and views self as leading a successful life, a sense of integrity is developed. On the contrary, if life is viewed as unsuccessful without accomplishing life's goals, a sense of despair and hopelessness develops.

The nurse is caring for a Puerto Rican client. The client has several injuries from a car accident and is experiencing pain. Which behavior is likely to be noted? 1. Loud crying with pain. 2. Enduring the pain in order to bring honor. 3. Quiet and stoic responses to pain. 4. Refusing pain medication because it is God's will.

1. Correct: Puerto Rican clients tend to cope with pain by loud and outspoken reports of pain. This is consistent with Puerto Rican culture and their response to pain.

The nurse is talking with a parent regarding childhood immunizations. What vaccination is recommended for children to receive at 6 months? SATA 1. Diphtheria 2. Hib 3. Influenza 4. Measles 5. Mumps 6. Rubella

1., 2., & 3. In both the US and Canada, the third diphtheria vaccination is recommended at 6 months. The third Hib vaccine is also recommended in both countries at 6 months. Both countries also recommend that everyone 6 months of age and older get a flu vaccine each year. 4. Incorrect: The first measles vaccination is recommended at 12 months in Canada and between 12-18 months in the US. 5. Incorrect: The first mumps vaccination is recommended at 12 months in Canada and between 12-18 months in the US. 6. Incorrect: The first rubella vaccination is recommended at 12 months in Canada and between 12-18 months in the US.

The son of an elderly diabetic client reports that his mother is frequently having low blood sugar. What should the nurse teach this family member about symptoms of hypoglycemia in the elderly? 1. Elders may not be aware that blood sugar is dropping due to decreased release of epinephrine in response to the lowered blood sugar. 2. Suggest that the client and family check with primary healthcare provider to ensure that the medication prescribed has low incidence of hypoglycemic episodes. 3. Symptoms of hypoglycemia may be averted if the client maintains routines and regular meal schedules. 4. Stress the importance of proper foot care and regular eye exams. 5. Check blood glucose levels if client becomes unsteady, has difficulty concentrating, or is tremulous.

1., 2., 3. & 5. Correct: Older clients are at risk for hypoglycemia unawareness. Blood sugar levels should be checked frequently. Some oral medications are more likely to cause hypoglycemia episodes. If the client has frequent episodes, perhaps a medication change is warranted. The elderly must maintain regular meal schedules and adequate food intake. This may present challenges for the elder who lives alone. If an elder develops unsteady gait, loss of concentration, and/or lightheadedness, the blood glucose levels should be checked. These symptoms are typical in a hypoglycemic episode.

A client arrives at the emergency department after sustaining partial and full-thickness burns over the anterior neck, chest, and right arm. Which interventions will the nurse initiate? 1. Administer oxygen 2. Start two intravenous lines 3. Remove necklace 4. Elevate right arm 5. Debride wounds

1., 2., 3., & 4. Correct: Burns over the anterior neck and chest mean that the client is likely to have inhalation burns, putting him/her at high risk for impaired gas exchange. The inhalation will cause edema of the airway. It goes back to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs. Administer oxygen and start two IVs so that fluid resuscitation can begin. Metal continues to burn and swelling will occur, so remove the necklace or any jewelry. Elevate the arm to decrease swelling.

An adolescent has been admitted for evaluation of excessive weight loss over several months. When assessing the client, what data gathered by the nurse would be most important to support a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa? 1. Dehydration 2. Poor appetite 3. Amenorrhea 4. Tachycardia 5. Muscle loss 6. Constipation

1., 3., 5., and 6. CORRECT: The client has lost excessive weight over several months, indicating possibly early stages of anorexia nervosa. In the initial stages of starvation, skin becomes very dry and dehydrated. Hair and nails become brittle from lack of fluids, and the client eventually develops amenorrhea. As weight decreases, muscle mass and strength is lost. Poor intake of fiber or fluids can also lead to increased constipation.

The nurse is obtaining a health assessment from the preoperative client scheduled for hip replacement surgery. Which statement by the client would be most important for the nurse to report to the primary healthcare provider? 1. "When I was 8 years old I had chickenpox." 2. "I had rheumatic fever when I was 10 years old." 3. "There is a strong history of gastric cancer in my family." 4. "I have pain in my hip with any movement."

2. Correct: After having rheumatic fever, a client would need to be pre-medicated with antibiotics prior to any surgical or dental procedure to prevent a recurrence.

Following a motor vehicle accident, a client is brought to the emergency room with shallow, labored respirations. The client is intubated and placed on a ventilator. What is the nurse's priority action immediately after the intubation? 1. Suction to clear all secretions 2. Listen for bilateral breath sounds 3. Secure the endotracheal tube 4. Obtain x-ray to verify tube placement

2. Correct: All actions are important but assessment is the nurse's immediate priority. Clear and equal bilateral breath sounds along with equal chest wall movement would confirm that the endotracheal tube has been correctly inserted into trachea.

The nurse is working at the triage station. Which client should the nurse triage first? 1. A client with hepatitis A who states, "My arms and legs are itching." 2. A client with a cast on the right leg who states, "My right leg is killing me and nothing I do makes it stop hurting. " 3. A client with nausea and vomiting for two days states, "I am very weak and can't eat." 4. A client with hematuria and reports left flank pain.

2. Correct: The client who has a cast with unrelieved severe pain indicates compartment syndrome and requires immediate action. This client is at greatest risk for harm because untreated compartment syndrome can cause irreparable nerve, and muscle damage and can lead to amputation.

An elderly Asian woman has been in the hospital for three weeks, and it seems that her condition is such that nursing home placement is in the client's best interest. The family is against placing their relative in the nursing home. How should the nurse respond to this? 1. Encourage the family to accept nursing home placement as the best option for their loved one. 2. Listen to the family's concerns and report those to the primary healthcare provider. 3. Ask the client what she wants and tell the family to abide by the client's wishes. 4. Realize that the nurse does not need to be involved in this decision.

2. Correct: The nurse should listen to the concerns of the family. The Asian culture tends to be opposed to nursing home placement and see it as their duty to care for their elders in the home. The nurse should listen and serve as an advocate.

Which assessment finding would indicate to a nurse that a client receiving chemotherapy may have difficulty maintaining proper nutrition? 1. Fatigue 2. Mucositis 3. Neutropenia 4. Diarrhea

2. Correct: Ulcerations in the oral cavity can make it difficult to chew food or be intolerant to certain foods due to discomfort and pain. Intake may be inadequate as a result of this.

The nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department after a violent altercation with her husband. She describes increasingly violent episodes over the past 10 years. She says, "This is the last time he will hit me." Which response by the nurse demonstrates understanding of the violence cycle? 1. When you leave, you don't have to worry anymore. 2. You are at greatest risk when you leave. 3. That is the best decision you can make. 4. I am glad that you won't be hurt ever again.

2. Correct: Violence is likely to escalate and may become lethal when the spouse leaves the abusive partner. The risk of death or injury is highest at the time the abused person decides to leave the abusive relationship or shortly after leaving.

Which signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to see in a client who has taken prednisone for two months? 1. Weight loss 2. Decreased wound healing 3. Hypertension 4. Decreased facial hair 5. Moon face

2., 3. & 5. Correct: Decreased wound healing is a side effect with prolonged steroid use due to the immunosuppressive effects. All steroid medications, such as prednisone, can lead to sodium retention which then leads to dose related fluid retention. Hypertension is seen due to this fluid and sodium retention. Cushingoid appearance (moon face) is a side effect that is created from the abnormal redistribution of fat from prolonged steroid use.

The school nurse has identified a large outbreak of viral conjunctivitis among one middle school class and plans to educate these students on this illness. Which data should the nurse be sure to include? 1. Use personal handkerchief to wipe the eye of discharge. 2. Light cold compresses over the eyes several times a day will ease discomfort. 3. Do not share towels or linens. 4. Discard all makeup and use new makeup after infection resolves. 5. Wash hands frequently with soap and water.

2., 3., 4. & 5. Correct: All of these measures will promote comfort and decrease risk of transmitting infection. Clients should also avoid touching the eyes and shaking hands/touching other. Cool compresses provide symptomatic relief.

A client is being discharged with halo traction. What should the nurse teach about home care of this traction? 1. Showering is permitted. 2. Apply baby powder under the halo vest to prevent irritation. 3. Never pull on any part of the halo traction. 4. Clean around pins at least twice a day using sterile technique. 5. Driving is allowed after discharge.

3. & 4. Correct: Never pull on any part of the halo traction. It can damage or loosen the traction. Pin care is done to prevent infection. Clean around pins at least twice daily with sterile q-tip applicator. Use a new sterile q-tip for each pin site to decrease contamination from one pin site to another. Do not use ointments or antiseptics unless prescribed.

On the third postoperative day, a client develops a fever of 103.3ºF (39.6ºC) shivering and nausea. The primary healthcare provider writes these prescriptions. Which should the nurse do first? 1. Apply cooling blanket for fever. 2. Give ceftriaxone 1 gram IVPB stat. 3. Draw blood cultures. 4. Give promazine 50 mg po PRN for nausea.

3. Correct: Blood cultures MUST be drawn immediately to identify the causative bacteria. Once the organism is identified, the primary healthcare provider will order organism specific antibiotics. Always draw blood cultures before administering the antibiotic. If antibiotics are given before the blood cultures are drawn, the culture will be inaccurate, and the client cannot be treated appropriately.

The nurse is assisting an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) move an obese and dependent client toward the top of the bed. Which action is most important to prevent shearing forces on the skin? 1. Each person puts hands under the client and slides client toward the top of the bed. 2. Apply powder to the sheet before pulling client toward the top of the bed. 3. Place turn sheet under the client and use it to slide the client toward the top of bed. 4. Seek assistance of another person before pulling up in bed.

3. Correct: Placing a turn sheet under the client before moving will prevent friction and shearing forces which may lead to an abrasion or skin tear. Pressure ulcers are more likely to develop in tissues where shear force injury has occurred.

The nurse is performing morning care on a client on the medical unit. What should the nurse do after changing a client's bed linen? 1. Hold the linen close to the body while transporting it to the dirty utility room. 2. Wear a gown and gloves to transport the linen to the biohazard container. 3. Place the linen into a leak proof container sitting outside the room. 4. Place the linen in a pillow case and set it on the floor until client care is completed.

3. Correct: Soiled linen should be placed in a leak proof container for transport off the unit to the laundry. Make sure the linen bags are not overfilled which would prevent complete closure.

The primary healthcare provider prescribes a combination of pyrazinamide and isoniazid to treat a client with tuberculosis. The client asks the nurse, "Why am I taking two drugs?" Which explanation should the nurse give the client? 1. One diminishes the side effects of the other. 2. Hepatoxicity is reduced. 3. Bacterial resistance is decreased. 4. One kills the live bacteria, and the other the spores.

3. Correct: The CDC says that the initial phase of treatment for newly diagnosed cases of pulmonary TB should consist of a multiple-medication regimen because many cases of TB are caused by strains of the bacteria that are resistant to isoniazid or rifampin. This client has been prescribed the multiple medication regimen of pyrazinamide and isoniazid.

A parent asks the nurse why their child should be immunized against Rubella. What should the nurse tell the parent? 1. Rubella can cause a severe rash over the body, and a high fever which can lead to febrile seizures. 2. Rubella is the most common cause of meningitis and acquired deafness. 3. If a pregnant woman gets rubella from an unimmunized child during the first trimester, there is a chance the child will have a birth defect. 4. Rubella complications can include swelling of the testicles or ovaries, deafness, encephalitis or meningitis and can lead to death.

3. Correct: The goal of rubella immunization is to protect unborn children from developing birth defects in utero.

The nurse is providing care for an elderly client who has a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) feeding tube and is receiving continuous feeding. Which interventions should the nurse include when providing care? SATA 1. Add medications to enteral feeding formula. 2. Change dressing around insertion site weekly. 3. Flush feeding tube with 30 mL warm tap water every 4 hours. 4. Maintain head of bed at 30 degree elevation. 5. Monitor for hypoglycemia.

3., & 4. Correct: All enteral feedings require flushing. Flush feeding tubes in adults with 30 mL of warm tap water every 4 hours during continuous feedings or before and after each intermittent feeding. To prevent aspiration, elevate the head of bed to a minimum of 30 degrees, but preferably 45 degrees.

What medication should the nurse anticipate giving to a client in preterm labor to stimulate maturation of the baby's lungs? 1. Magnesium sulfate 2. Terbutaline 3. Methotrexate 4. Betamethasone

4. Correct: Betamethasone is used to stimulate maturation of the baby's lungs in case preterm birth occurs. This medication is given to help prevent respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) by improving storage and secretion of surfactant that helps to keep the alveoli from collapsing.

A nurse is teaching a client about the prescription aripiprazole discmelt. The nurse documents that teaching has been effective when the client makes which statement? 1. "If I start to have shakiness and sweating I need to call my primary healthcare provider at once." 2. "I must be certain to take this medication with food to eliminate vomiting." 3. "If I miss a dose of medication, I need to take an extra dose to make up for the missed dose." 4. "I will allow the tablet to dissolve in my mouth."

4. Correct: Discmelt is an orally disintegrating tablet. Since this tablet is formulated to dissolve on the tongue, the tablet should not be swallowed.

In what position should the nurse place a client diagnosed with gastric reflux? 1. Orthopneic 2. Semi-Fowler's 3. Sims' 4. Reverse Trendelenburg

4. Correct: The entire bed is tilted with the foot of the bed lower than the head of the bed. This position promotes gastric emptying and prevents esophageal reflux.

Which client could the charge nurse assign to an LPN/VN? 1. Eight year old in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) 2. Six year old in sickle cell crisis 3. Two month old with dehydration 4. Five year old in skeletal traction

4. Correct: The fracture would be most appropriate for an LPN/VN and is within the scope of practice. This LPN/VN would need minimal assistance from the RN. Possibly, the other clients could have intravenous fluid (IVF) needs and medications that would require skill from an RN.

Assess newborn's airway and breathing. Assess newborn's heart rate. Administer sterile ophthalmic ointment containing 0.5% erythromycin. Bulb suction excessive mucus. Place identification bands on newborn and mom.

Remember Maslow's hierarchy of needs will guide your assessment. First, Assess newborn's airway and breathing. The most critical change that a newborn must make physiologically is the initiation of breathing. The nurse should assess the newborn's crying. If the cry is weak, it may indicate a respiratory disturbance. Other signs of respiratory compromise may include: stridor, grunting, retractions, apnea or diminished breath sounds. Normal respiration are 30 - 60 breaths a minute.

A homebound client lives alone, has a history of poorly controlled diabetes, and has an open wound on the left heel. The home health nurse is concerned about the client's condition and the possible need for a referral. Which intervention should the nurse initiate for this client? 1. Ask the primary healthcare provider to prescribe a diabetes educator consult. 2. Increase home health visits to monitor the healing process of the open wound. 3. Suggest nursing home placement to the family until wound has healed. 4. Suggest that the client's family hire sitters to assist with hygiene care.

1. Correct: Referrals to appropriate agencies or departments are often made by the home care nurse. Client needs must be met in the most efficient way while utilizing appropriate expertise. This client has poorly controlled diabetes resulting in a wound. A diabetes educator can help develop a plan to prevent further complications of diabetes.

A nurse from the neonatal unit is transferred to the adult medical-surgical unit. Which client should the charge nurse assign to the neonatal nurse? 1. Undergoing surgery for placement of a central venous catheter. 2. Diagnosed with leukemia, hospitalized for induction of high-dose chemotherapy. 3. Receiving IV heparin for left leg thrombosis. 4. Admitted with a cerebrovascular accident.

1. Correct: This is the most stable client to give to the nurse who was transferred from the neonatal unit. A neonatal nurse cares for central lines daily in this specialty area and can transfer this knowledge to the adult client.

A pediatric nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to a group of parents who have children nearing the age of 1 year old. What milestones should the nurse teach the parents to expect to see in their 1 year old child? 1. Gets to a standing position without help. 2. Puts out arm or leg to help with dressing. 3. Able to say several single words. 4. Pulls toys while walking. 5. Builds a tower of 4 blocks.

1., & 2. Correct: A 1 year old should be able to get to a standing position without help. May stand alone. Can assist in getting dressed by putting out arm or leg.

The nurse enters the client's room and finds the client having a seizure on the floor. Which nursing interventions should the nurse implement? SATA 1. Loosen tight shirt or jacket. 2. Move the client to the couch. 3. Place a pillow under the head. 4. Position the head tilted forward. 5. Insert a wash cloth between the teeth.

1., & 4. Correct: Client safety should be the priority action. The tight clothing should be loosened to reduce the potential of the clothing obstructing the airway. During a seizure, the head is tilted forward to allow the tongue to advance forward. This will assist in the drainage of saliva and mucus.

A client who was diagnosed with amyotropic lateral sclerosis (ALS) has been immobile for 2 weeks. Which of the nursing interventions would the nurse implement? 1. Explore diversional activities. 2. Perform range of motion exercises. 3. Maintain the feet in dorsiflexion position. 4. Assess pressure points for skin changes.

1., 2., 3., & 4. Correct: The client's immobility may lead to apathy and isolation. The nurse should explore diversional activities which can reduce the frustration and depression of being immobile. Immobility will result in muscle weakness and decreased venous return. The client is encouraged to perform active range of motion exercises. Also passive range of motion exercises should be performed if the client cannot perform the active exercises themselves. Due to the client's decreased movement of the ankles, the client's feet should be positioned in the dorsiflexion position to prevent plantar flexion contractures. A bed board should be positioned to the foot of the bed. Active and passive range of motion exercises to the ankle and foot will promote proper joint movement. An immobile client's skin is affected by extrinsic, intrinsic, and shear forces. A decrease in the client's perfusion and peripheral circulation are intrinsic factors. The immobile client is experiencing the extrinsic factor of increased skin temperature at the skin pressure points. Moving the immobile client may result in a shearing force on the skin.

When assessing a client's testes, which finding would indicate to the nurse the need for further investigation? 1. Rope like area located at the top of the back of a testicle. 2. Right testicle is slightly larger than the left testicle. 3. Lump the size of a piece of rice. 4. Nonpalpable lymph nodes in groin.

3. Correct: The most common symptoms of testicular cancer are a painless enlargement of one testis and the appearance of a palpable small hard lump on the front or side of the testicle..

A nurse is preparing to conduct a presentation on barriers to therapeutic communication with clients from a culture other than the nurse's culture. Which points should the nurse include in the presentation? 1. Lack of knowledge about a client's culture is a major barrier to therapeutic communication. 2. Follow cultural beliefs when caring for all clients of that particular culture. 3. Ethnocentrism facilitates therapeutic communication. 4. Do not touch the client until you know what the cultural belief is about touching. 5. Adapt care to client's cultural needs and preferences.

1., 4. & 5. Correct: Nurses must understand and take into consideration the cultural differences of their clients. Some cultures do not approve of touching or shaking hands. By assessing the client's culture preference, the nurse is able to provide individualized care.

The nurse is caring for a client following gastric bypass surgery. The client reports dizziness, sweating and palpitations after eating meals. The nurse would recommend which actions to alleviate these symptoms? 1. Increase liquids with food. 2. Reduce intake of carbohydrates. 3. Eat small, frequent meals daily. 4. Sit semi-recumbent for meals. 5. Remain upright for one hour after eating.

2, 3, & 4. Correct: The symptoms described indicate the client is experiencing dumping syndrome, an adverse response following gastric or bariatric surgery. Clients may also experience tachycardia, nausea or cramping with the intake of food due to surgical restructuring of the gastrointestinal tract. Because this will be a lifetime issue, the nurse must teach the client to adjust eating habits and patterns. Reduction of carbohydrates will help decrease the problem since carbohydrates speed through the digestive track too quickly. Eating smaller, more frequent meals in a semi-recumbent position will further slow food through the digestive tract and eliminate most of the uncomfortable symptoms.

The nurse is administering the prescribed Mantoux tuberculin skin test to a client. The nurse does not observe the tense blister-like formation at the injection site. Which action should the nurse take? 1. Chart the injection site response as the only action. 2. Administer another Mantoux tuberculin skin test at a different site. 3. Circle the area, wait 48 to 72 hours, and assess for a reaction. 4. Call the primary healthcare provider.

2. Correct: If there is not a wheal of at least 6 mm in diameter after the solution is injected , the test should be administered again. The nurse would need to administer another Mantoux tuberculin skin test in another area about 5-6 cm from the original injection site.

Which client will the charge nurse intervene on behalf when making rounds? 1. The client turned to left side 1 ½ hour ago. 2. Client who has been sitting in a chair for 2 ½ hours. 3. Client who is day one postop from hip replacement with abduction pillow in place. 4. The client who is in buck's traction with foot boots.

2. Correct: Limit sitting in a chair to less than 2 hours. Prolonged sitting or lying in one position predisposes the client to skin breakdown and other hazards of immobility.

A client is preparing to be discharged after a total colectomy with the creation of an ileoanal reservoir for ulcerative colitis. The nurse recognizes that education has been successful if the client makes which statement? 1. "Ulcerative colitis cannot be cured." 2. "I look forward to having the ileostomy closed." 3. "I am going to eat a hamburger and fries for dinner." 4. "Because of this surgery, I am at a higher risk of developing colon cancer."

2. Correct: Once the reservoir has healed, the ileostomy will be closed.

What signs/symptoms would the nurse expect to find in a client diagnosed with pernicious anemia? 1. Pain 2. Smooth, red tongue 3. Burning feeling in feet 4. Lightheadedness 5. Dyspnea on exertion

2., 3., 4., & 5. Pernicious anemia symptoms could include a smooth tongue that is red in color rather than a healthy pink. And neurological problems such as a burning feeling in the feet, slow reflexes, and disorientation. Light headedness, dyspnea on exertion, fatigue, and breathlessness are anemia symptoms that clients often report.

Which nursing tasks can the RN delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? 1. Tell a female client who has recurrent urinary tract infections how to wipe after urinating. 2. Obtain blood pressure of client diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. 3. Collects a urine specimen from an indwelling catheter tubing. 4. Document the intake and output of a client in acute renal failure. 5. Irrigate the foley catheter of a client who has had transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). 6. Perform perineal care of a client who has urinary incontinence.

2., 4., & 6. Correct: These are all tasks that can be performed by the UAP. The UAP has received training for completing these tasks

The nurse is working in a long term care facility. What actions by the nurse are appropriate when taking a telephone prescription from a primary healthcare provider? 1. Document the prescription prior to the end of the shift. 2. Explain to the pimary healthcare provider that nurses cannot take telephone prescriptions. 3. Repeat the prescription back to the primary healthcare provider prior to hanging up. 4. Transcribe the prescription in the client's record. 5. Ask the primary healthcare provider to wait and write the prescription during rounds.

3. & 4. Correct: Whenever a verbal or telephone prescription is given, the nurse is to transcribe the prescription, and then read it back to the prescribing primary healthcare provider at the time the prescription is given for validation of accuracy of the prescription received. Otherwise an error may occur.

A client being discharged home following hip surgery is prescribed to use a walker. While observing the client walk across the room, the nurse is most concerned when the client does what? 1. Applies shoes securely before ambulating with walker. 2. Checks walker to be certain the legs are securely locked. 3. Slides walker slowly forward when walking across the room. 4. Places walker to right of the chair after sitting down in chair.

3. CORRECT: The nurse is observing the client ambulate with a walker prior to discharge, to determine whether the client is using the assistive device safely. The nurse becomes concerned upon noting the client sliding the walker during ambulating. The correct use of a walker involves the client lifting and placing the walker approximately one-foot length ahead, then stepping into the non-moving walker. It is important for the walker to remain stationary when the client takes a step forward.

A client is admitted to the emergency department reporting abdominal discomfort and constipation lasting 3 days. Which abdominal assessment data would the nurse report to the primary healthcare provider? 1. Striae. 2. Borborygmi. 3. High-pitched bowel sounds. 4. Tympany noted on percussion.

3. Correct: High-pitched bowel sounds are indicative of an early bowel obstruction and hypoactive bowel sounds develop as obstruction worsens. The additional signs presented are also clues of a possible obstruction.

A client who had a triple lumen catheter placed in the right subclavian vein 30 minutes ago reports chest discomfort and shortness of breath. The assessment reveals BP 92/58, HR 104, Resp 28, and unequal breath sounds over lung fields. What problem should the nurse suspect this client is exhibiting? 1. Myocardial infarction 2. Atelectasis 3. Pneumothorax 4. Pneumonia

3. Correct: Pneumothorax is the number one potential complication of all central venous access devices. Signs and symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, shoulder or neck pain, irritability, palpitations, light-headedness, hypotension, cyanosis, and unequal breath sounds.

A client was prescribed thioridazine hcl five days ago and presents to the emergency department with a shuffling gait, tremors of the fingers, drooling, and muscle rigidity. Which adverse reaction to this medication does the nurse suspect? 1. Akinesia 2. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome 3. Pseudoparkinsonism 4. Oculogyric crisis

3. Correct: Pseudoparkinsonism may appear 1 to 5 days following initiation of antipsychotic medications: occurs most often in women, the elderly, and dehydrated clients. Symptoms include tremor, shuffling gait, drooling, and rigidity.

The charge nurse is reviewing correct body mechanics with a group of newly hired UAPs. The nurse reinforces that muscle injuries can best be prevented by avoiding what action? 1. Carry objects close to body but do not touch clothing. 2. Use the largest muscles for lifting, such as thigh muscles. 3. Move objects with quick fast tugs to avoid muscle fatigue. 4. Lean into objects such as a litter and push instead of pull.

3. Correct: Quick jerking motions can injury the body, especially the low back, shoulders or elbows, by exerting sudden, excessive force in uneven motions. Sudden movements do not allow time to engage larger, more powerful muscle groups and risks injury to fragile structures such as the neck or joints.

Which pediatric client should the nurse see first? 1. Six year old with a femur fracture. 2. Two year old with a fever of 102 ° F (38.8 ° C) 3. Three year old with wheezes in right lower lobe. 4. Two year old whose gastrostomy tube came out.

3. Correct: The child having respiratory difficulty should be seen first. This is an example of using Maslow to set priorities. Airway will always be first followed by breathing and circulation. This client is not stable.

A client in a psychiatric unit sings over and over, "It is hot, I am a hot tot in a lot, I sit all day on a cot drinking a pop." How should the nurse document this form of thought? 1. Neologisms 2. Dissociation 3. Fugue 4. Clang Association

4. Correct: Clang association involves the choice of words governed by sounds, often taking the form of rhyming even though the words themselves don't have any logical reason to be grouped together.

The nurse is instructing a client on achieving relaxation using deep breathing exercises. Which statement by the client indicates to the nurse that further teaching is necessary? 1. "I can perform deep breathing exercises anywhere and at any time that I feel tension and anxiety." 2. "I should sit or lie in a comfortable position, making sure my back is straight." 3. "I will inhale slowly and deeply through my mouth focusing on my chest expansion." 4. "When I have inhaled in as much as possible, I will hold my breath for a few seconds before exhaling." Rationale

3. Correct: The proper method is to inhale slowly and deeply through the nose, allowing the abdomen to expand. The chest should be moving only slightly.

Blood and urine samples are sent to the laboratory for a client who has had a spinal cord injury. After reviewing these results, the nurse would expect which finding? Complete Blood Count RBCs 5 million/mm3 (5 X 106 /mm3) (5 X 1012 /L) WBCs 5,000 (5 X 103/mm3) (5 X 109 /L) Urinalysis RBCs 2 to 3/hpf WBCs greater than 5/hpf. 1. Gross hematuria 2. Septicemia 3. Urinary tract infection 4. Anemia

3. Correct: The urinalysis results of red blood cells (RBC) of 2/hpf or greater and urine white blood cells (WBC) of greater than 4/hpf indicate a urinary tract infection (UTI).

The emergency room nurse is assessing a client reporting severe abdominal pain for several hours prior to arrival at the hospital. Assessment findings include slight mottling of the lower extremities and a pulsating mass near the umbilicus. Which actions should the nurse implement immediately? 1. Position client on the left side. 2. Apply warm blankets to legs. 3. Administer I.M. pain medication. 4. Alert the operating room staff. 5. Notify the primary healthcare provider. 6. Palpate mass to determine size.

4. & 5. Correct: The client's symptoms indicate the presence of an aortic abdominal aneurysm that may be dissecting (rupturing) at this time. This is a life-threatening emergency and the client will need urgent surgery to survive. The nurse should immediately notify the healthcare provider and alert the operating room staff of impending surgery.

A nurse is at highest risk for blood-borne exposure during which situation? 1. When removing a needle from the syringe. 2. While placing a suture needle into the self-locking foreceps. 3. Prior to inserting the intravenous (IV) line, the client moves causing a needle stick to the nurse. 4. A clean needle sticks the nurse through blood-soiled gloves.

4. Correct: A clean needle that moves through blood-soiled gloves to stick the nurse is considered to be potentially contaminated and results in a blood-borne exposure. All other answers are considered a clean stick.

Which client must the nurse assign to a private room? 1. Primiparous client who delivered twins at 28 weeks gestation two days ago 2. Postpartum client on IV Ampicillin and Gentamicin for chorioamnionitis 3. Postpartum client whose 2 hour old infant is being worked up for sepsis 4. Postpartum client 32 hours after delivery with a temperature of 101º F (38.05 ° C)

4. Correct: A temperature of 100.5° F (38.05° C) or greater in a client more than 24 hours postpartum is likely an indication of infection. This client should be kept separate from other mothers and babies.

The nurse will be admitting a client from the operating room following a left total pneumonectomy for adenocarcinoma. Which type of chest drainage should the nurse anticipate that the client will have? 1. Bilateral chest tubes. 2. One chest tube on the operative side 3. Two chest tubes on the operative side 4. No chest drainage will be necessary.

4. Correct: A total pneumonectomy means the excision of the entire lung. A drainage tube is not inserted, since the fluid and air must accumulate in the thoracic space. This is to prevent mediastinal shift to the left.

In what position should the nurse place a client post liver biopsy? 1. Left Sims' 2. Reverse Trendelenburg 3. Semi-Fowler's 4. Right Lateral Decubitus

4. Correct: Right lateral decubitus is defined as lying on the right side. The client is placed on the right side post liver biopsy to reduce bleeding by compressing the liver capsule to the puncture site.

The nurse is caring for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is essential for the nurse to teach this client regarding treatment? 1. Frequent low-calorie snacks. 2. Strict monitoring of intake and output. 3. Use of sweeping gaze when walking. 4. Setting the alarm clock for medication times.

4. Correct: Yes! Medication must be taken on time. Too early can cause weakness and too late can cause extreme weakness to point of paralysis.

The nurse cares for a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS). The nurse administers what treatment first? A-Normal saline at 1 L/hour for three hours B-Hourly neurological assessment C-Potassium supplementation D-Continuous IV insulin

A- IV fluid replacement is the highest priority. Isotonic fluids such as 0.9% NaCl (normal saline) are given at 1 L/hr over the first two to three hours. HHS results when prolonged hyperglycemia causes fluid to shift into the vascular compartment in an attempt to balance out the increased osmolarity of the blood. This leads to diuresis and extreme dehydration. Rapid fluid replacement is required to maintain cardiovascular integrity and avoid shock. The nurse then prioritizes correcting hyperglycemia via continuous IV insulin that is titrated closely. Then, the nurse anticipates the need for potassium replacement and monitors for adverse effects of cerebral edema related to overly aggressive correction of the hyperosmolar state

A nurse educates a client in a clinic about a new diagnosis of Cushing disease. The nurse tells the client to watch for which manifestations? Select All That Apply A-Hypotension B-Infection C-Muscle weakness D-Hyperglycemia E-Striae

B,C,D,E Hypertension, not hypotension, may occur due to fluid and electrolyte disturbances triggered by excess cortisol.Excessive cortisol decreases the number of circulating lymphocytes, inhibits the activity of macrophages, limits antibody synthesis, and stops production of cytokines and inflammatory chemicals such as histamine. Decreased immune function occurs as a result.Muscle weakness occurs with Cushing disease because of nitrogen and mineral loss. A decrease in muscle mass results and places the client at risk for falls.Cortisol affects glucose regulation. Fasting blood glucose levels are elevated as a result of glucose release by the liver and the decreased sensitivity of insulin receptors. The movement of glucose into the tissues is then slowed.Striae on the skin can be seen in clients with Cushing disease because cortisol has a destructive effect on collagen.

A client with an adenoma of the adrenal cortex and adrenal Cushing syndrome has a rounded face, blood pressure of 175/105, hip pain, and fragile skin. The nurse provides which interventions to improve the outcome for the client? Select All That Apply A-Administer NSAIDs for pain. B-Encourage high-calcium foods. C-Provide a low-protein diet. D-Use paper tape for lab draws. E-Restrict sodium in the client's diet.

B,D,E A client with a tumor of the adrenal cortex and adrenal Cushing disease has excess levels of cortisol. This decreases bone density, placing the client at risk for pathologic fractures. Additional calcium supplementation is required. A client with a tumor of the adrenal cortex and adrenal Cushing disease has thin, fragile skin that requires extra care to prevent breakdown, bruising, or tearing. Excess cortisol levels may destroy the collagen in the client's skin. A client with a tumor of the adrenal cortex and adrenal Cushing disease may retain sodium and fluid. Both sodium and fluid restrictions may be necessary to prevent excess water retention.

A client is prescribed antibiotics for the treatment of pneumonia. The nurse informs the client to contact the healthcare provider (HCP) if the symptoms are not improved after which period of time? A-Five days B-One week C-Three days D-24 hours

C The client should expect to feel an obvious decrease in pneumonia symptoms within 72 hours of being on antibiotic therapy. If symptoms persist past this time, it is an indication the antibiotics are not effective and should be changed.

A client who is right-handed is one day postoperative a right modified radical mastectomy. The nurse includes what nursing interventions in the client's care plan to prevent injury to the client? A-Teach the client to avoid lifting anything heavier than five pounds. B-Avoid exercising the right arm until after the removal of drains. C-Elevate the client's arm while at rest. D-Support the client's attempts at toothbrushing with the left hand.

C The nurse encourages the client to elevate the affected arm above the level of the right atrium to prevent edema. A modified radical mastectomy is often performed for breast cancer that has spread to the lymph nodes. After a radical mastectomy, the client typically has axillary drains inserted to collect blood and prevent the collection of fluid underneath the skin. The nurse promotes the client's independence by encouraging the client to do activities of daily living with the affected limb as the client is able. The client avoids lifting items greater than 10 pounds up to six weeks following surgery. Gentle postoperative exercises will be encouraged, but the client should avoid vigorous exercise as it may increase the risk of complications

Which assignment would be most appropriate for the charge nurse to assign to the LPN/VN in the Labor, Delivery, Recovery and Postpartum Unit (LDRP)? 1. Primipara needing assistance with breastfeeding. 2. Multipara reporting a headache and epigastric discomfort. 3. Primipara who is two days post op cesarean section. 4. Primipara who is preeclamptic in active labor. 5. Multipara post op cesarean section with a PCA pump.

1. & 3. Correct: These are stable clients whose care is within the scope of practice of an LPN/VN.

While performing a vaginal examination on a client in labor, the nurse feels soft, squishy tissue instead of a head. What conclusion should the nurse make based on this assessment finding? 1. Breech presentation 2. Edema of cervix 3. Closed cervix 4. Bulging membranes

1. Correct: The nurse is palpating the buttocks of the fetus. The buttocks would be assessed as soft, squishy tissue. This is evidence of a breech presentation.

A client tells the nurse, "I am dying from cancer. I have told my primary healthcare provider that I do not want to be revived if my heart stops beating or I stop breathing." What action should the nurse take first to assure that the client's request is respected? 1. Ensure a do-not-resuscitate prescription has been provided. 2. Report client wishes during the end-of-shift report. 3. Have the client sign an advanced directive. 4. Ask the client who holds the durable power of attorney for health care decisions.

1. Correct: The nurse should check the medical record for a DNR order. By law, a person who does not have a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) prescription, must be provided CPR in the event of a cardiac/respiratory arrest. This action will ensure the client's end-of-life wishes have been communicated and will honor the client's wishes.

A client diagnosed with glomerulonephritis presents with generalized malaise, weight gain, generalized edema, and flank pain. The primary healthcare provider prescribes antibiotics and strict bedrest. What is the best explanation to give the client regarding the strict bedrest prescription? 1. Promotes diuresis 2. Prevents injury 3. Promotes rest 4. Stimulates RBC production

1. Correct: Bedrest and the supine position promote diuresis. When the client is supine, there is a gradual shift of fluids away from the legs toward the thorax, abdomen and head. This increased volume causes the right atrium of the heart to stretch and release ANP, which leads to diuresis: renal blood flow increases due to vasodilation, and aldosterone and ADH secretion are inhibited.

The unit charge nurse is responsible for reporting all healthcare associated infections. Which client condition needs to be reported? 1. A client diagnosed with Clostridium Difficile while receiving intravenous (IV) antibiotics. 2. A client admitted with Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in a wound. 3. A client with ulcerative colitis exhibiting diarrhea. 4. A client with a fever of 99.1º F (37.2° C) two days post gastrectomy.

1. Correct: Clostridium Difficile is a spore forming bacterium that has significant healthcare associated infections (HAI) potential. Clients with intravenous catheters are at a higher risk for HAI.

A client suffers from migraine headaches. What assessment finding would the nurse expect to find during a migraine attack? 1. Unilateral, pulsating pain quality. 2. Bilateral, pressing/tightening pain quality. 3. Ipsilateral nasal congestion and rhinorrhea. 4. Headache occurs after recovering from a headache treated with narcotics.

1. Correct: Migraine headaches have a pulsating pain quality, unilateral location, moderate or severe pain intensity, aggravated by or causing avoidance of routine physical activity (walking, climbing stairs). During headache at least one of the following accompanies the headache: nausea and/or vomiting; photophobia and phonophobia.

The nurse is planning care for a pediatric client reporting acute pain with sickle cell crisis? What should the nurse identify as an appropriate goal for this client? 1.Client will report a pain level of less than 2 on a Faces scale. 2. The nurse will administer prescribed pain meds around the clock. 3. Client will only take breakthrough pain medication. 4. Client will use distraction instead of pain medication.

1. Correct: Yes, having a pain level of less than 2 is the best goal for pain and the use of a Faces scale, instead of a numerical scale is age appropriate. Sickle cell crisis is extremely painful, and often times, the pain is not completely relieved during the acute stage.

A client asked the nurse what could have caused them to develop right sided heart failure? What would be the best response by the nurse? 1. High blood pressure in the lungs. 2. Long term hypertension. 3. The inability of the mitral valve to close properly. 4. Narrowing of the aorta.

1. Correct: Yes, the right side of the heart pumps to the lungs. When the client has higher pressure in the pulmonary circuit from such things as emphysema, the pulmonary pressure can exceed the systemic pressure. The result is back flow to the right side of the heart and resulting right sided heart failure.

The nurse on a neuro rehabilitation unit is caring for a client with a T4 lesion. The client suddenly reports a severe, pounding headache. Profuse diaphoresis is noted on the forehead. The blood pressure is 180/112 and the heart rate is 56. What interventions should the nurse initiate?

1. Place client supine with legs elevated. 2. Assess bladder and bowel for distention. 3. Examine skin for pressure areas. 4. Eliminate drafts. 5. Remove triggering stimulus. 6. Administer hydralazine if BP does not return to normal.

An RN on the general pediatric unit has been reassigned to the spinal/neurology unit. What assignment by the charge nurse would be appropriate for this RN? 1. Child with spina bifida with a previous shunt revision 2. Adolescent who is 4 days post op from a spinal fusion 3. Child with a ventriculoperitoneal shunt one day post-op 4. Child with spinal muscle atrophy who is ventilator assisted 5. Child with cerebral palsy who had a tracheostomy performed this AM

1., & 2. Correct: The child who had a previous shunt revision and the adolescent who is 4 days post spinal fusion will be the most stable and will require the least skill level when compared with the other choices. On a general pediatric unit, the nurse would be familiar with checking for increased ICP, which would be necessary for caring for any client with a previous shunt revision. Immediately postop, the adolescent with spinal fusion would require special turning and lung assessment to prevent and observe for congestion/pneumonia, skills not acquired on a general floor. However, at 4 days postop this client should be ambulating and will not need specialized turning, so the nurse from the general pediatric unit could care for this client.

An adult client has just returned to the nursing care unit following a gastroscopy. Which intervention should the nurse include on the plan of care? 1. Vital sign checks every 15 min x 4 2. Supine position for 6 hours 3. NPO until return of gag reflex 4. Irrigate NG tube every 2 hours 5. Raise four siderails

1., & 3. Correct: Vital signs post procedure are important to monitor for any post-procedure complications such as bleeding or any signs of respiratory compromise. VS are checked frequently for the first hour post procedure. Any client who has a scope inserted down the throat and has received numbing medication in the back of the throat to depress the gag reflex should be kept NPO until the gag reflex returns.

Which prescriptions would the nurse recognize as being appropriate for the client with shingles? 1. Private room 2. Negative pressure airflow 3. Respirator mask 4. Face Shield 5. Positive pressure room

1., 2. & 3. Correct: According to the current standards of Standard Precautions per the CDC, the client with shingles should be placed on airborne precautions which require the use of a private room with negative pressure airflow and a N-95 respirator mask.

The nurse is planning health promotion strategies for a single parent of young children who is trying to increase personal physical activity level but expresses a lack of time. Which interventions would help the client get more regular physical activity into the day? 1. Suggest walking up and down steps at home several times each morning and evening. 2. Suggest parking further away from the grocery store and work. 3. Walk with the children in the evening instead of watching TV with them. 4. Suggest waking one hour earlier in the morning to go to the gym. 5. Suggest walking for 30 minutes with a buddy each afternoon before leaving work.

1., 2. & 3. Correct: This plan will allow the parent to stay home without adding further time demands to the day. Parking farther away is one plan to get more steps into the day without increasing time demands drastically. Walking with the children allows the parent to spend quality time with the children as well as offers them a good example.

The nurse is caring for a client on the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder. The client has frequent hand washing rituals. Which nursing interventions would be advisable for this client? 1. Allow time for ritual. 2. Provide positive reinforcement for nonritualistic behavior. 3. Provide a flexible schedule for the client. 4. Remove all soap and water sources from the client's environment. 5. Create a regular schedule for taking client to bathroom.

1., 2. & 5. Correct: Initially meet the client's dependency needs as required to keep anxiety from escalating. Anything that increases the client's anxiety tends to increase the ritualistic behavior. Positive reinforcement for nonritualistic behavior takes the focus off of the ritual. A lack of attention to ritualistic behaviors can help to decrease the ritual. By creating a regular schedule when the client goes to the bathroom, (where the handwashing ritual occurs most frequently) allows the client a structured but limited time for the ritual. This can help give the client a sense of control of the maladaptive behavior until the client can start setting own limits on the behavior and develop more adaptive coping mechanisms.

The nurse is teaching parents of a school aged child about interventions to keep the child safe. Which interventions would be appropriate to include in the health promotion plan? 1. Encourage bicycle helmet use when riding bikes. 2. Teach children to swim at an early age. 3. Use booster seats until the child is at least 6 years old. 4. Keep firearms in the home locked and unloaded. 5. Teach "stop, drop, and roll" in case clothing catches on fire.

1., 2. 4., & 5. Correct: Role modeling the value of helmet use is an excellent way to encourage the child to use a helmet. Children should learn to swim at early ages. Children may drown in home or neighborhood pools. Children are curious about firearms, which should be safely locked away. Fire safety is important. Being able to extinguish a fire quickly can save a life.

The nurse is working with a LPN/VN and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which clients would be appropriate for the nurse to assign to the LPN/VN? You answered this questionIncorrectly 1. In Bucks traction requiring frequent pain medication. 2. 24 hours post appendectomy. 3. Diagnosed with cholelithiasis and scheduled for surgery in the AM. 4. Admitted 6 hours ago in adrenal insufficiency. 5. Client newly diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes.

1., 2., & 3. Correct These clients are stable and require predictable care that can be done appropriately by the LPN/VN.

Which immunizations obtained by the age of two would indicate to the pediatric nurse that the child is up-to-date on immunizations? 1. Diptheria-tetanus-pertussis (DTaP). 2. Inactivated polio (IPV). 3. Herpes zoster. 4. Meningococcal 5. Haemophilus influenza type B (Hib).

1., 2., & 5. Correct: By the age of two, the DTaP, IPV, MMR, Hib, varicella, pneumococcal, and rotovirus vaccines should have been received. The nurse should clarify this with the parent.

The nurse is working with a committee at the local school to develop an emergency preparedness plan for tornados. What should be included in the plan? 1. Identification of safe zones. 2. Methods for accounting for all people present in the building. 3. Warning system activation. 4. Identification of the gymnasium as the routine safe place. 5. Regular practice protocols.

1., 2., 3. & 5. Correct: Everyone should be aware of safe zones within the school. Personnel should be given this information and signs posted in safe zones. There must be systems in place to accurately determine the number of people in the building at any given time. There also must be a system in place to alert personnel and students of tornado warnings. Regular practice prepares everyone for an actual event.

What should the nurse tell the parents of a newborn about a Guthrie test? 1. The purpose of this test is to determine the presence of phenylalanine in the blood. 2. A positive test indicates a metabolic disorder. 3. To conduct this test, a sample of blood is taken from the baby's heel. 4. An increase in protein intake can interfere with the test. 5. This test will be done when your baby is 6 weeks old.

1., 2., 3. Correct: These are true statements. A positive test indicates decreased metabolism of phenylalanine, leading to phenylketonuria. The normal level of phenylalanine in newborns is 0.5to 1 mg/dl. The Guthrie test detects levels greater than 4 mg/dl. Only fresh heel blood, not cord blood, can be used for the test. The main objective for diagnosing and treating this disorder is to prevent cognitive impairment.

The charge nurse is making assignments for one RN and one LPN/VN on a pediatric unit. Which clients would be most appropriate for the charge nurse to assign to the RN? 1. 2 year old with asthma receiving IV medication. 2. 6 year old with new onset seizures. 3. 12 year old with colitis receiving TPN. 4. 2 month old with urinary tract infection. 5. 10 year old paraplegic needing assistance with bowel training.

1., 2., 3. Correct: These clients should be assigned to the RN as they will require more frequent assessment due to the nature of each diagnosis and have a potential for more rapid change in condition. Also, these clients may require skills by the RN that the LPN/VN could not do; for example, giving IV medications that asthma clients take; teaching the family about seizures, meds, and management; and administering TPN intravenously.

A home health nurse inspects the home of a client scheduled to be discharged home after receiving care for a cerebrovascular accident with generalized weakness. What safety interventions should the nurse recommend based on findings within the home? 1. Place ramp over the front steps. 2. Move client's bedroom downstairs. 3. Remove throw rugs. 4. Secure furniture so client can use for support. 5. Apply nonskid strips to shower stall.

1., 2., 3., 5. Correct: The client will have difficulty navigating the steps, both outside and inside the home. The client may trip on throw rugs, and shower stalls are slippery when wet. These things, along with the generalized weakness, makes the client more prone to falls. These interventions will promote safety for the client and decrease the risk of falling.

A quality assurance (QA) manager plans to evaluate performance improvement regarding the implementation of fall precautions for at risk clients. What steps should the QA manager include in this evaluation? 1. Chart review for fall precaution documentation. 2. Direct observation of unit staff. 3. Poll staff to identify what fall precautions are implemented for at risk clients. 4. Identify at risk clients on unit. 5. Make unannounced visits to the unit for evaluating staff performance.

1., 2., 4 & 5. Correct: The QA manager is responsible for evaluating performance improvement plans to ensure that staff are providing appropriate care. The QA manager can do chart reviews to see if staff are documenting fall precaution for a client. Direct observation of unit staff will let the QA manager know if staff are performing proper precautions while caring for clients. The first step is to identify what clients are at risk for falls and then see if the staff have identified these clients as at risk as well. Monitoring should be at unpredictable intervals, so staff do not comply just for a scheduled evaluation.

The nurse is teaching the client about benzodiazepines. Which comments by the client indicate adequate understanding of the drug effects/side effects? 1. I should not drive my car until I see how the medication affects me. 2. I can expect my reaction time to be slowed in the beginning. 3. I may need to double the dose if I continue to be anxious. 4. I must be careful to take the medication for a limited time. 5. There is a risk for dependence on this medication.

1., 2., 4. & 5. Correct: Benzodiazepines slow reaction time and may affect general alertness. The client should not operate machinery until effects of the medication are observed, and client can drive safely. Benzodiazepine medications are usually prescribed for short periods of time. Benzodiazepines are frequently abused. Clients develop tolerance and dependence on the drugs.

The home care nurse visits a client who has moderate cognitive impairment and whose family provides care for the client. Which suggestions would be helpful for this family to reduce the risk of injury? 1. Suggest that the family lock up medications and poisons and keep the keys. 2. Encourage the family to place locks high on the door frame to make it difficult for the client to leave. 3. Suggest that the family talk with the client weekly about safety issues around the house. 4. Suggest that the family remove knobs from stove when not in use. 5. Keep fire extinguishers present and in working order.

1., 2., 4. & 5. Correct: Clients with cognitive impairment may forget that they have taken their medicines and take them again. They may also confuse harmful substances with other substances. Locks in places that are not normally expected will make it more difficult for the client with a cognitive impairment to find and open. This is especially useful if the client wanders. The client may turn the stove on and be burned or cause a fire. If the knobs are removed, the home is safer for everyone. Fires are a hazard for people with cognitive impairment; therefore, the presence of a working fire extinguisher could prevent damage from a fire.

A case manager is assessing an unresponsive client diagnosed with terminal hepatic encephalopathy for equipment needs upon discharge home for hospice care. Which equipment should the case manager obtain for this client? 1. Alternating pressure mattress 2. Hospital bed 3. Walker 4. Suction equipment 5. Oxygen

1., 2., 4., & 5. Correct: An alternating pressure mattress will help to prevent pressure ulcers. The risk of respiratory compromise increases as the neurologic status deteriorates. A hospital bed is needed so that the head of the client's bed can be elevated to 30 degrees to ease respirations and decrease the work of breathing. The client with hepatic encephalopathy is unresponsive due to accumulation of toxins and may need suctioning if unable to clear secretions from the oropharynx. Hepatic encephalopathy frequently has associated bleeding varices. The increasing ascites leads to hypovolemia. Both of these conditions can result in hypoxemia for the client at the end stages of liver disease; therefore, oxygen therapy is provided.

What statements by a client diagnosed with a hiatal hernia would indicate to the nurse that the discharge teaching was effective? 1. "I should eat six small meals a day." 2. "Sitting up for an hour after I eat will decrease symptoms." 3. "Eating a grapefruit for breakfast will help digest the rest of my food." 4. "Ten inch blocks need to be placed under the head of my bed." 5. "I will get assistance for lifting heavy objects." 6. "I will avoid using laxatives."

1., 2., 4., & 5. Correct: Clients with a hiatal hernia should eat small frequent meals, because large meals cause them to be symptomatic with heartburn and other symptoms. Sitting up after eating will keep the stomach down as much as possible. If they lie down, the stomach will go upward and cause regurgitation, heartburn, nausea, and fullness. Placing blocks under the bed also helps keep the stomach downward and reduces symptoms when the client sleeps. One of the major causes and aggravating actions for a hiatal hernia is straining. Therefore, the clients do not need to be lifting heavy objects.

A client diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has been prescribed celecoxib. What should the nurse include in the client's education regarding this medication? 1. Do not take celecoxib with ibuprofen. 2. GI complaints and headache are among the most common side effects. 3. Drink a lot of water to offset the dehydration that may occur. 4. Notify the healthcare provider immediately if black stools are noted. 5. This medication provides relief of pain and swelling so you can perform normal daily activities.

1., 2., 4., & 5. Correct: Concomitant use of celecoxib with aspirin or other NSAIDs (for example, ibuprofen, naproxen, etc.) may increase the occurrence of stomach and intestinal ulcers. This would increase the risk of GI bleeders. GI complaints and headache are two of the most common side effects. The client should stop taking celecoxib and get medical help right away if the client notices bloody or black/tarry stools. This would be an indication of GI bleeding. This medication is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), which relieves pain and swelling. It is used to treat arthritis. The pain and swelling relief provided by this medication should help the client perform normal daily activities.

While examining a client's health history, which data indicates to the nurse that the client is at increased risk for developing cancer? 1. Family history 2. Alcohol consumption 3. Spicy diet 4. Human papillomavirus 5. Tobacco use

1., 2., 4., & 5. Correct: Family history of cancer increases the risk for having the same type of cancer. Alcohol and tobacco use increase the risk of cancer. When used together, they have a synergistic effect. Human papillomavirus (HPV) increases the risk of cervical, head, and neck cancers.

An elderly client arrives in the emergency department (ED) after a fall. What assessment findings would lead the nurse to suspect that the client has a fractured right hip? 1. Severe pain in the right hip and groin. 2. Inability to bear weight on the right leg. 3. Right leg slightly longer in length than the left leg. 4. External rotation of right lower leg. 5. Bruising and swelling around the right hip.

1., 2., 4., & 5. Correct: Pain in the affected hip, often severe, is one of the main signs of a hip fracture. This pain may radiate to the groin area. The pain and bone injury generally prevent the client from being able to bear weight on the affected leg. The client will often assume a position in which the leg on the injured side is held in a still and externally rotated position (the foot and knee turns outward). Discoloration and swelling can be an indication of a hip fracture in some clients.

What should a nurse teach family members prior to them entering the room of a client who has agranulocytosis? 1. Meticulous hand washing is needed. 2. Do not visit if you have any infection. 3. The client must wear a mask. 4. Children under 12 may not visit. 5. Flowers are not allowed in the room.

1., 2., 4., & 5. Correct: Protective isolation is needed for this client because of the presence of a low white blood cell count. We are protecting the client from acquiring an infection. So any visitors will need to have meticulous hand washing prior to entering. The visitor should not enter if he or she has any type of infection. To decrease the risk of infection, small children should not visit. Even the mildest symptom of infection could be detrimental to the client. Flowers have bacteria and should not be brought into the room.

Which tasks would be appropriate for the nurse to assign to an LPN/VN? 1. Changing a colostomy bag. 2. Administer antibiotic via intravenous piggyback (IVPB). 3. Teach insulin self administration to a diabetic client. 4. Administer IV pain medication to a two day post op client. 5. Check for urinary retention. 6. Remove wound sutures.

1., 2., 5., & 6. Correct. These tasks are within the PNs practice scope. The PN can change a colostomy bag, administer antibiotics by IVPB, monitor for urinary retention and remove wound sutures.

The nurse is providing discharge education to a client after a concussion. What should the nurse emphasize to report to the primary healthcare provider? 1. Difficulty waking up 2. Headache (3/10 on the pain scale) 3. Blurry vision 4. Achy feeling all over 5. Vomiting

1., 3. & 5. Correct: Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is a result of increased pressure around the brain or blood in the brain. These are signs of increasing intracranial pressure (post-concussion syndrome). This is a medical emergency, and the PHP should be notified immediately.

The nurse is advising the family of a client receiving palliative care on alternative methods for pain control to be used in conjunction with pain medications. Which method should the nurse include? 1. Providing a back massage 2. Administering pain medication when pain is rated at 5 out of 10 3. Distracting with music 4. Exercise 5. Prayer

1., 3., & 5. Correct: These are types of alternative pain control that could be used in conjunction with traditional pain management. They can be used to provide relaxation and comfort; mind-body therapies such as meditation, guided imagery and hypnosis may be effective. Other measures may include: acupuncture, therapeutic touch, music therapy and spiritual practices such as prayer. These have been found to be effective in helping to reduce pain.

To reduce the risk of developing a complication following balloon angioplasty, the nurse should implement which measure? 1. Monitor cardiac rhythm 2. Assess the puncture site every 8 hours 3. Measure urinary output hourly 4. Prevent flexion of the affected leg 5. Avoid lifting buttocks off the bed

1., 3., 4., & 5. Correct: The primary healthcare provider should be notified of any rhythm changes or report chest pain/discomfort. These could be signs of re-occlusion. Decreased urinary output (UOP) could be due to poor renal perfusion, which can result from decreased cardiac output and shock. Frequent VS and UOP measurements are needed. Flexion should be avoided at the catheter access site to allow time for the clot to stabilize and reduce the risk of bleeding and hematoma formation. The client should avoid lifting the buttocks off the bed because this increases pressure at the insertion site which increases the risk of hematoma formation/bleeding.

The parents of a 4 year old child are concerned about whether the child will adapt to the newborn baby they are expecting in two weeks. What suggestions should the nurse make to assist with sibling adaptation? 1. Allow child to be one of the first to see the newborn. 2. Have child stay with parents during labor and delivery. 3. Arrange for one parent to spend time with the child while the other parent cares for the newborn. 4. Provide a gift from the newborn to give to the child. 5. Have child care for a doll.

1., 3., 4., & 5: These are good recommendations for the nurse to make to the parents in an effort to promote sibling adaptation. Make the 4 year old part of the process as much as possible. Demonstrate the importance of the child by allowing the child to see the baby first. Provide personal time with the 4 year old. This shows that the 4 year old is important to the family. The baby is providing a gift to the child which promotes a bond between the two and demonstrates to the child that he or she is important. Having a 4 year old care for a doll gets the child involved in caring for another. The child can learn what a newborn needs both physically and emotionally by imitating the parents.

The family member of a schizophrenic client asks the nurse why the client is receiving chlorpromazine and benztropine. What is the best response by the nurse? 1. The chlorpromazine makes the benztropine more effective so a smaller dose of both drugs can be used. 2. Benztropine is given to treat the side effects produced by the chlorpromazine. 3. Chlorpromazine is used for severe hiccups that can occur with the use of benztropine. 4. Chlorpromazine is used for psychosis and benztropine is used for preventing agranulocytosis.

2. Correct: Benztropine is used to treat parkinsonism of various causes and drug-induced extrapyramidal reactions seen with chlorpromazine, which is an antipsychotic agent. Extrapyramidal symptoms are neurologic disturbances in the area of the brain that controls motor coordination. This disruption can cause symptoms that mimic Parkinson's disease, including stiffness, rigidity, tremor, drooling and the classic "mask like" facial expression. These symptoms can be treated and are reversible using such medications as benztropine.

A nurse, assigned to take care of a client who is HIV positive, refuses the assignment, stating fear of personal injury. What action should the charge nurse take first? 1. Re-assign the client to a nurse who does not mind caring for HIV positive clients. 2. Inform the nurse that refusing client care is not acceptable nursing practice. 3. Have the nurse document rationale and support for refusing the client assignment. 4. Transfer the nurse to a unit where there are no HIV positive clients.

2. Correct. This action by the charge nurse demonstrates an understanding of the code of ethics for nurses. Any nurse who feels compelled to refuse to provide care for a particular type of client faces an ethical dilemma. The reasons given for refusal range from a conflict of personal values to fear of personal risk of injury. Such instances have increased since the advent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) as a major health problem. The ethical obligation to care for all clients is clearly identified in the first statement of the Code of Ethics for Nurses. To avoid facing these moral and ethical situations, a nurse can follow certain strategies. For example, when applying for a job, one should ask questions regarding the client population. If one is uncomfortable with a particular situation, then not accepting the position would be an option. Denial of care, or providing substandard nursing care to some members of our society, is not acceptable nursing practice. As a professional, the nurse should provide the same level of care to every client, regardless of diagnosis, skin color, ethnicity or economic status.

Which client should the nurse place in the room with a 6 year old with glomerulonephritis? 1. Twenty-two month old diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). 2. Four year old with nephrotic syndrome. 3. Three year old admitted with febrile seizures. 4. Two year old who has a fractured tibia.

2. Correct. This child is not infectious and could be placed in the room with the child who has glomerulonephritis. Since the children are close in age, they will adapt well together.

2. Correct: After having rheumatic fever, a client would need to be pre-medicated with antibiotics prior to any surgical or dental procedure to prevent a recurrence.

A 13 year old, found unresponsive in the park, is brought into the emergency department. The nurse sees a medical alert bracelet stating "Diabetic", and notes a fruity smell to the breath. There are no family members available to obtain consent for treatment and an attempt to call them has been unsuccessful. What action should the nurse take? 1. Obtain consent from the social worker on duty in the emergency department. 2. Begin treatment by inserting two large bore IVs of Normal Saline. 3. Give glucogon IM and wait for the arrival of a parent to consent to further treatment. 4. Withhold treatment until a parent arrives to the emergency department.

2. Correct: In emergencies, if it is impossible to obtain consent from the client or an authorized person, a health care provider may perform a procedure required to benefit the client or save a life without liability for failure to obtain consent. In such cases the law assumes that the client would wish to be treated. Begin treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).

A new nurse is preparing to give a medication to a nine month old client. After checking a drug reference book, the nurse crushes the tablet and mixes it into 3 ounces of applesauce. The new nurse proceeds to the client's room. What priority action should the supervising nurse take? 1. Tell the new nurse to recheck the drug reference book before administering the medication. 2. Suggest that the new nurse reconsider the client's developmental needs. 3. Check the prescription order and the client dose. 4. Observe the new nurse administer the medication.

2. Correct: Mixing medication with applesauce is appropriate in some circumstances, but the volume of 3 ounces is excessive for a nine month old. The nurse will want to make sure the client gets all of the medication. Additionally, applesauce may or may not have been introduced into the diet, and it is inappropriate to introduce a new food during an illness.

A client diagnosed with major depression has been taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for the past 6 weeks. When visiting the mental health center, the nurse discusses the medication and response with the client. The nurse's assessment reveals that the client is confused about the date and about the prescribed dosage of the medication. Which question would be most important for the nurse to ask to further assess the situation? 1. Are you having trouble sleeping at night? 2. Do you have periods of muscle jerking? 3. Are you having any sexual dysfunction? 4. Is your mood improving?

2. Correct: Myoclonus, high body temperature, shaking, chills, and mental confusion are some of the symptoms of serotonin syndrome. This client may be having symptoms of this adverse reaction which, if severe, can be fatal.

A child is being admitted with possible rheumatic fever. What assessment data would be most important for the nurse to obtain from the parent? 1. 102° F (38.89° C) temperature that started 2 days previously. 2. History of pharyngitis approximately 4 weeks ago. 3. Vomiting for 3 days. 4. A cough that started about 1 week earlier.

2. Correct: Rheumatic fever is often the result of untreated or improperly treated group A β-hemolytic streptococcal infections (GABHS), such as pharyngitis. Therefore, the history of pharyngitis or upper respiratory infection is a key assessment finding for establishing a diagnosis of rheumatic fever. Subsequent development of rheumatic fever usually occurs 2 to 6 weeks following the GABHS, so the assessment should include a remote history of pharyngitis.

A client with a history of increasing dyspnea over the past week comes to the emergency department. After arterial blood gases (ABGs) are drawn, which information would be important for the nurse to document? 1. The client had not been NPO prior to the test. 2. The client was on 2 L of oxygen by nasal canula. 3. Lung sounds are wet. 4. Client is sitting in upright position.

2. Correct: The fact that the client is on 2 L/min of oxygen will affect the analysis of the ABG results. If the client is on oxygen, the partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) will be elevated due to the increased inhaled oxygen.

The primary healthcare provider has prescribed phenytoin 100 mg intravenous push (IVP) stat for an adult client. What is the least amount of time that the nurse can safely administer this medication? 1. 1 minute 2. 2 minutes 3. 5 minutes 4. 10 minutes

2. Correct: The rate of IV administration should not exceed 50 mg/min. for adults and 1-3 mg/kg/min (or 50 mg/min, whichever is slower) in pediatric clients because of the risk of severe hypotension and cardiac arrhythmias. So 100 mg can safely be delivered over a period of at least 2 minutes.

A client is in the surgical suite to have a left total knee replacement. Prior to the surgeon initiating the first incision, what should the circulating nurse remind the surgical team to perform? 1. Surgical scrub 2. Time-out 3. Sponge and instrument count 4. Inspection of the surgical site

2. Correct: Time-out, done immediately before the procedure, is a final verbal verification of the correct client, procedure, site, and implant. Time-out is active communication among all members of the surgical/procedural team, initiated by a member of the team before surgery.

Which factors should the nurse include when teaching a parent about risk factors for otitis media? 1. Breast-feeding 2. Contact with siblings 3. Day care attendance 4. Season of the year

2., 3. & 4. Correct: Contact with siblings, day care attendance, and season of the year all increase a child's risk of developing otitis media. Otitis media usually follows or accompanies an upper respiratory infection or the common cold. The exposure to upper respiratory infections is increased when other siblings are in the home and when the child attends daycare. More upper respiratory infections occur during times when the climate changes and during the winter months.

The nurse wants to provide anticipatory guidance for a group of young parents who have children between the ages of 18 months to 3 years. What points about the next year should the nurse be sure to provide these parents? 1. Be strict and rigid with toilet training, rather than being accepting and letting the child lead the training. 2. Tell the parents about the importance of letting the child do tasks alone. 3. Provide finger foods for the child to eat. 4. Your child will want you to provide emotional support when needed. 5. Assist your child with all tasks to promote independence.

2., 3. & 4. Correct: Letting the child do things on their own will promote a sense of self control and independence during this stage of autonomy versus shame and doubt. Finger foods allow for independence with eating and builds a sense of autonomy. At this age, the child becomes increasingly aware of separateness from the parent. The need is for the parent to be available for emotional support when needed. However, if emotional needs are inconsistently met or if the parent rewards clinging, dependent behaviors and withholds nurturing when the child demonstrates independence, feelings of rage and fear of abandonment may develop in adulthood. The support provided by the parent can lessen feelings of anxiety for the child when the emotional presence is needed.

Post thyroidectomy, the nurse assesses the client for complications by performing which assessment? 1. Perform blood glucose monitoring every 6 hours 2. Check for a positive Chvostek's 3. Assess swallowing reflex 4. Monitor neck dressings for change in fit and comfort 5. Administer desmopressin per nasal spray for urinary output (UOP) greater than 200 mL/hr

2., 3., & 4. Correct: A positive Chvostek's and Trousseau's is indicative of tetany (low calcium). This can occur when one or more of the parathyroids are accidently removed when the thyroid is removed. A weak, raspy voice, swallowing difficulty, and impaired respiratory status can be caused by nerve injury. Change in fit and comfort of the dressing can indicate possible neck swelling, which can affect the airway.

A nurse is caring for a client who delivered a baby vaginally two hours ago. What signs and symptoms of postpartum hemorrhage should the nurse report to the primary healthcare provider? 1. Two blood clots the size of a dime. 2. Perineal pad saturation in 10 minutes. 3. Constant trickling of bright red blood from vagina. 4. Oliguria 5. Firm fundus

2., 3., & 4. Correct: Lochia should not exceed an amount that is needed to partially saturate four to eight peripads daily, which is considered a moderate amount. Perineal pad saturation in 15 minutes or less is considered excessive and is reason for immediate concern. Saturation of a peripad in one hour is considered heavy. Also, trickling of bright red blood from the vagina can indicate hemorrhage and is often a result of cervical or vaginal lacerations. Bright red blood indicates active bleeding. Oliguria is a sign of fluid volume deficit. As blood volume goes down, renal perfusion decreases and urinary output (UOP) decreases. The kidneys are also attempting to hold on to what little fluid volume is left.

A client's last two central venous pressure (CVP) readings were 13 cm of water. The nurse would expect the client to manifest which associated signs and symptoms? 1. Dry oral mucus membranes 2. Tachypnea 3. Orthostatic hypotension 4. Rales in the posterior chest 5. Jugular vein distention 6. Weight gain

2., 4., 5. & 6. Correct: The normal range for CVP is 2-8 cmH2O or 2-6 mmHg. Therefore, the readings of 13 cmH2O are high and may be the result of fluid volume excess. The signs and symptoms of FVE include: tachynea, rales, and jugular vein distention from the increased volume and preload. Acute weight gain is one of the best indicators of FVE due to circulatory overload.

Which findings would indicate to the nurse that a client with Addison's disease has received too much glucocorticoid replacement? 1. Dry skin and hair 2. Hypotension 3. Rapid weight gain 4. Decreased blood glucose level 5. Increased cholesterol

3, & 5. Correct: Excessive drug therapy with glucocorticoids will cause rapid weight gain, round face, and fluid retention. Cholesterol and triglycerides in the blood are also increased by glucocorticoids. Long term use of high steroid doses can lead to symptoms such as thinning skin, easy bruising, changes in the shape or location of body fat (especially in your face, neck, back, and waist), increased acne or facial hair, menstrual problems, impotence, or loss of interest in sex.

The primary healthcare provider suspects the client has tuberculosis (TB) and prescribes a Mantoux test. What precautions should the nurse take when administering the Mantoux test? 1. Don sterile gloves. 2. Place the client on reverse isolation. 3. Wear a particulate respirator 4. Obtain a consent form. 5. Initiate airborne precautions.

3. & 5. Correct: A disposable particulate respirator that fits snugly around the face is needed. The client needs to be on acid-fast bacilli (AFB) isolation precautions, not reverse isolation. Airborne precautions include a private room with negative pressure and a minimum of 6 air exchanges per hour. Ultraviolet lamps and high efficiency particulate air filters are also needed.

A nurse from an adult unit was reassigned to the pediatric unit. Which client would be least appropriate to assign to this nurse? 1. Ten year old with 2nd and 3rd degree burns. 2. Five year old that was in a MVA and has a femur fracture. 3. Six year old admitted for evaluation of possible sexual abuse by a parent 4. Two month old with bronchopulmonary dysplasia being admitted for reflux.

3. Correct: The least appropriate client to assign the nurse from the adult unit would be the suspected sexual abuse. Caring for an abused child requires skill that must be developed from understanding the dynamics of abuse as well as working with a certain developmental level.

A teenage client is placed on life-support as a result of a motor vehicle accident (MVA). Following an electroencephalogram (EEG), the client has been declared brain dead. Which action by the nurse would take priority? 1. Call the respiratory department to have the ventilator removed. 2. Notify the facility's pastoral personnel. 3. Contact the regional organ procurement team. 4. Ask the family to select a funeral home.

3. Correct: The first priority is to notify the designated organ procurement team. These personnel are trained to determine if the client would be an appropriate donor, how to approach the grieving family and discuss options, and to make any necessary arrangements in such a situation. Time is of the essence in the case of organ donation. Even if the family refuses to donate organs, it is the Procurement Team that will deal with the situation.

A client has been admitted for exacerbation of ulcerative colitis with severe dehydration. What is the best indicator that this client has an actual fluid deficit? 1. Stool count of 10 episodes of diarrhea in 24 hours. 2. Weight increase of 2 kg and a 24 hour output of 1000 mL. 3. Admission weight of 74.3 kg and 2 days later a weight of 72 kg. 4. Daily intake of 2400 mL and an output of 1600 mL, plus diarrheal stools.

3. Correct: Any acute weight gain or loss is fluid. Weight is the best measurement for fluid loss or gain. Acute weight losses correspond to fluid volume deficits. This client has lost 2.3 kg over a 2 day period, indicating a fluid volume deficit (FVD).

The nurse is caring for a newly diagnosed diabetic in diabetic hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic (HHNK) state. What does the nurse anticipate the immediate treatment plan for this client will include? 1. NPH insulin. 2. Potassium 40 mEq (40 mmol/L) slow intravenous push. 3. Intravenous administration of isotonic saline. 4. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate.

3. Correct: Clients who present with HHNK are severely dehydrated. This is because high glucose levels in the vascular space lead to particle induced diuresis (PID) or osmotic diuresis. The clients lose large amounts of volume out of vascular space. The client may even be "shocky". Isotonic saline is the treatment of choice for clients who are in HHNK. Isotonic saline will go into the vascular space and stay there thus improving the fluid volume deficit that has developed.

The nurse is providing care to a client who has a large abdominal dressing. Which intervention is most likely to reduce the risk of skin irritation due to frequent dressing changes? 1. Use a paper tape for adhering the dressing. 2. Use tape sparingly. 3. Secure the dressing with Montgomery straps. 4. Change the dressing only if it becomes saturated with drainage.

3. Correct: Montgomery straps will allow the dressing to be held in place without the use of tape. The adhesive on the ends of the straps is the only adhesive used.

The nurse is preparing to provide oral care to an unconscious client. What is the most important step for the nurse to provide? 1. Performing hand hygiene. 2. Explaining the procedure to the family. 3. Positioning the client in side-lying position. 4. Raising the head of bed 30 degrees.

3. Correct: Positioning the client in a side-lying position allows secretions to drain from the mouth and prevents aspiration. The most important aspect of care is the protection of the airway of this unconscious client. This is accomplished through proper positioning of the client in a side-lying position.

A client was admitted to the psychiatric unit with delusions and a history of auditory hallucinations. The client reports, "The FBI has been watching my house and are going to raid it and arrest me." What is the nurse's best response? 1. The FBI would not be watching you unless there was a good reason. 2. I don't think that the FBI is watching your house. 3. I believe that your thoughts are very disturbing to you. 4. Tell me more about your thoughts.

3. Correct: The client's delusions can be very distressing. The nurse should empathize with the feelings of the client, but should not validate the belief itself. Empathy displays that the nurse is concerned, interested, and accepts the client but does not support the delusion.

A home care nurse is preparing to perform venipuncture to draw blood. As the nurse gathers supplies, the client begins to experience palpitations, trembling, nausea, shortness of breath and a feeling of losing control. What should be the nurse's first action? 1. Hug the client to provide support. 2. Take the client to the emergency department for sedation. 3. Decrease stimuli in the room. 4. Teach the client deep breathing exercises.

3. Correct: The nurse should remain calm and quiet by the client. A stimulating environment may increase the client's level of anxiety.

Which clients would be appropriate for the RN to assign to an LPN/LVN? 1. Seventy four year old client with unstable angina who needs teaching for a scheduled cardiac catheterization. 2. Sixty year old client experiencing chest pain scheduled for a graded exercise test. 3. Forty eight year old client who is five days post right-sided cerebral vascular accident (CVA). 4. Eighty four year old client with heart disease and mild dementia. 5. Newly admitted ninety year old client with decreased urinary output, altered level of consciousness, and temperature of 100.8°F (38.2°C) 6. Sixty six year old client with chronic emphysema experiencing mild shortness of breath.

3., 4., 6. Correct: The client who is five days post CVA is one of the most stable clients and could be assigned to the LPN/LVN. There is nothing in the option to indicate that this client is unstable. There is no indication that the eighty-four year old client with heart disease and dementia is unstable so this client can be assigned to the LPN/LVN. The client with chronic emphysema will experience shortness of breath. There is nothing to indicate that this client is unstable.

A nurse is caring for a client who has developed ventricular fibrillation. Where should the nurse place the conductive electrodes for maximum defibrillation effectiveness? 1. The left lower sternum and the right side of the thorax in the midclavicular line. 2. On the right shoulder and the left side of the sternum just below the rib cage. 3. The left upper chest to the left of the sternum and the lower right half of the sternum. 4. Below the right clavicle to the right of the sternum and just below the left nipple.

4. Correct: One electrode should be placed just below the clavicle to the right of the sternum, and the other electrode placement is on the left side just under the left nipple (pectoral area) and in the midaxillary line.

When preparing a client for surgery, the nurse realizes the operative permit has not been signed. The client tells the nurse he understands the procedure, but received his preoperative medication approximately 10 minutes ago. What would be the appropriate action by the nurse? 1. Have the client sign the permit, as he verbalizes understanding. 2. Witness the form after having the client sign it. 3. Have his wife sign the form as she witnessed his statement that he understands. 4. Call the surgical area and explain that the surgery will have to be cancelled.

4. Correct: The client must sign the operative permit or any other legal document prior to taking preoperative drugs that can affect judgment and decision-making capacity.

After reviewing the nursing notes on a client receiving a unit of packed red blood cells, what action should the charge nurse take? 1. Decrease the transfusion rate to 50 mL/hour. 2. Assess the client for a transfusion reaction. 3. Check primary healthcare provider prescription for prescribed administration time. 4. Stop the transfusion and send blood bag to the lab.

4. Correct: All blood from each unit of packed red blood cells must be completed within a 4 hour time frame due to risk of hemolysis and bacterial invasion. If the unit of blood is not completed in a 4 hour time frame, the blood must be sent to the lab to be discarded. Keep in mind that the time frame for administering platelets and fresh frozen plasma differs (20-30 min).

During a conversation with a client on a psychiatric unit the client tells the nurse, "Everyone here hates me." Which response by the nurse is best? 1. No, they do not hate you. 2. What did you do to make others not like you? 3. Just don't pay attention to what others think of you. 4. I can't speak for the other people, but I don't hate you.

4. Correct: Here the nurse is speaking only for the nurse. The nurse cannot legitimately speak for anyone else. The nurse must model the process of not speaking for anyone else. The response also lets the client know that the nurse cares about the way the client feels.

The occupational health nurse is caring for an employee after a chemical explosion at the local tire factory. The client reports a foreign body in the right eye. The right eye is watery, and the client reports photophobia. Which nursing action takes priority? 1. Evert eyelid and examine for foreign body. 2. Measure visual acuity. 3. Notify the receiving hospital immediately for transfer of the client. 4. Place an eye shield over eye.

4. Correct: If a foreign body is the result of explosion or blunt or sharp trauma, the eye should be protected from further damage by placing an eye shield over the eye (or if a shield is not available, a paper cup to prevent rubbing of the eye). Then make arrangements to transport the client for emergency care by an ophthalmologist. If movement of the unaffected eye creates movement in the affected eye, it may be necessary to cover the unaffected eye also to prevent further injury to the eye from movement.

A client, admitted in Sickle Cell Crisis, is started on oxygen at 2L/NC and given a narcotic analgesic for pain control. What additional prescription is a priority for the nurse to initiate? 1. A high protein, low fat diet 2. Administration of a thrombolytic, such as streptokinase 3. Implementation of bleeding precautions 4. Administration of IV fluids for hydration

4. Correct: Increasing hydration status via the administration of IV fluids is indicated in sickle cell crisis to increase that volume in the vascular space and subsequently decrease the vaso-occlusion from the sickling effects of the RBCs. The increased volume separates the sickled cells to reduce the clumping together of the cells.

What is most important for the nurse to have at the client's bedside when inserting a large orogastric tube for rapid gastric lavage? 1. Emesis basin 2. Portable x-ray machine 3. Oxygen 4. Suction equipment

4. Correct: Insertion of a large orogastric tube designed for rapid lavage often causes gagging and vomiting, so suction equipment should be readily available to reduce the risk of aspiration. Maintaining the client's airway is the priority.

A client with cancer of the larynx undergoes radiation therapy for 5 weeks prior to a neck dissection and tumor excision. The client asks the nurse how long the post surgical recovery time will be. How should the nurse reply? 1. "I really don't know. It is different for everyone, but speak to your surgeon." 2. "Your medical insurance will cover the whole length of your stay, so don't worry." 3. "You shouldn't worry about how long you are going to stay. You should focus on getting better." 4. "It may be a little longer than average. The radiation you received sometimes delays tissue healing."

4. Correct: This is the best, most accurate response. Radiation can cause tissue trauma and changes that can delay wound healing.

A client diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer is prescribed lansoprazole and sucralfate. What should the nurse teach the client about how to take these medications? 1. Take together immediately before meals. 2. Take together immediately after meals. 3. Take the sucralfate first, wait at least 30 minutes, then take the lansoprazole. 4. Take the lansoprazole first, wait at least 30 minutes, then take the sucralfate.

4. Correct: When prescribed any medication along with sucralfate, the client should avoid taking the medication at the same time with sucralfate. Sucralfate can make it harder for the body to absorb lansoprazole because it forms a "coating" or "barrier" on the stomach lining. Therefore, the client should wait at least 30 minutes after taking the lansoprazole before taking sucralfate.

NCLEX

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Back Injury and Lifting

GRAPHIC DESIGN

MDC 2 Exam 2 NCLEX Style Practice Questions

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Psych exam 2

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