NCLEX - Neuro #2087

The nurse is caring for a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which change in vital signs would occur if ICP is rising? 1.Increasing temperature, increasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing BP 2.Decreasing temperature, decreasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing BP 3.Decreasing temperature, increasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing BP 4.Increasing temperature, decreasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing BP

.Increasing temperature, decreasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing BP A change in vital signs may be a late sign of increased ICP. Trends include increasing temperature and blood pressure and decreasing pulse and respirations. Respiratory irregularities may also arise.

A client seeking treatment for an episode of hyperthermia is being discharged to home. The nurse determines that the client needs clarification of discharge instructions if the client makes which statement? 1."I can resume a full activity level immediately." 2."I need to stay in a cool environment when possible." 3."I should increase my fluid intake for the next 24 hours." 4."I need to monitor my voiding for adequacy of urine output.

1."I can resume a full activity level immediately." Discharge instructions for the client hospitalized for hyperthermia include prevention of heat-related disorders, increased fluid intake for 24 hours, self-monitoring of voiding, and the importance of staying in a cool environment and resting.

The nurse is preparing a client who is scheduled to have cerebral angiography performed. Which should the nurse check before the procedure? 1.Claustrophobia 2.Excessive weight 3.Allergy to salmon 4.Allergy to iodine or shellfish

4.Allergy to iodine or shellfish The client undergoing cerebral angiography is assessed for possible allergy to the contrast dye, which can be determined by questioning the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish. Allergy to salmon is not associated with this procedure. Claustrophobia and excessive weight are areas of concern with magnetic resonance imaging.

The client recovering from a head injury is arousable and participating in care. The nurse determines that the client understands measures to prevent elevations in intracranial pressure (ICP) if the nurse observes the client doing which activity? 1.Blowing the nose 2.Isometric exercises 3.Coughing vigorously 4.Exhaling during repositioning

4.Exhaling during repositioning Activities that increase intrathoracic and intraabdominal pressures cause indirect elevation of the ICP. Some of these activities include isometric exercises, Valsalva maneuver, coughing, sneezing, and blowing the nose. Exhaling during activities such as repositioning or pulling up in bed opens the glottis, which prevents intrathoracic pressure from rising.

The nurse is caring for a client following a craniotomy in which a large tumor was removed from the left side. In which position can the nurse safely place the client? Refer to the Figure. 1.A 2.B 3.C 4.D

1. A Clients who have undergone craniotomy should have the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees to promote venous drainage from the head. The client is positioned to avoid extreme hip or neck flexion and the head is maintained in a midline, neutral position. If a large tumor has been removed, the client should be placed on the nonoperative side to prevent displacement of the cranial contents. A flat position or Trendelenburg's position would increase intracranial pressure. A reverse Trendelenburg's position would not be helpful and may be uncomfortable for the client.

The nurse reviews the primary health care provider's treatment plan for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which prescription noted in the client's record should the nurse question? 1.Clear liquid diet 2.Vital signs every 2 to 4 hours 3.Bilateral calf measurements three times daily 4.Passive range-of-motion exercises three times daily

1.Clear liquid diet Clients with Guillain-Barré syndrome have dysphagia. Clients with dysphagia are more likely to aspirate clear liquids than thick or semisolid foods. Clients with Guillain-Barré syndrome are at risk for hypotension or hypertension, bradycardia, and respiratory depression and require frequent monitoring of vital signs. Passive range-of-motion exercises can help prevent contractures, and checking calf measurements can help detect deep vein thrombosis, for which clients are at risk

A client has a cerebellar lesion. The nurse determines that the client is adapting successfully to this problem if the client demonstrates proper use of which item? 1.Walker 2.Slider board 3.Raised toilet seat 4.Adaptive eating utensils

1.Walker The cerebellum is responsible for balance and coordination. A walker would provide stability for the client during ambulation. Adaptive eating utensils may be beneficial when the client has partial paralysis of the hand. A raised toilet seat is useful when the client does not have the mobility or ability to flex the hips. A slider board is used in transferring a client from a bed to stretcher or wheelchair.

The nurse is assisting in gathering data on cranial nerve XII of a client who sustained a brain attack (stroke). The nurse understands that the client should be asked to perform which action? 1.Extend the arms. 2.Extend the tongue. 3.Turn the head toward the nurse's arm. 4.Focus the eyes on the object held by the nurse.

2.Extend the tongue. To assess the function of cranial (hypoglossal) nerve XII, the nurse would assess the client's ability to extend the tongue. Options 1, 3, and 4 are unrelated to assessing this cranial nerve.

The nurse has provided discharge instructions to a client with an application of a halo device. The nurse determines that the client needs further teaching if which statement is made? 1."I will use a straw for drinking." 2."I will drive only during the daytime." 3."I will use caution because the device alters balance." 4."I will wash the skin daily under the lamb's-wool liner of the vest."

2."I will drive only during the daytime." The client should not drive because the device impairs the range of vision. The halo device alters balance and can cause fatigue because of its weight. The client should cleanse the skin daily under the vest or the device to protect the skin from ulceration and should use powder or lotions sparingly or not at all. The wool liner should be changed if odor becomes a problem. The client should have food cut into small pieces to facilitate chewing and use a straw for drinking. Pin care is done as instructed

An 84-year-old client in an acute state of disorientation was brought to the emergency department by the client's daughter. The daughter states that this is the first time that the client experienced confusion. The nurse determines from this piece of information that which is unlikely to be the cause of the client's disorientation? 1.Hypoglycemia 2.Alzheimer's disease 3.Medication dosage error 4.Impaired circulation to the brain

2.Alzheimer's disease Alzheimer's disease is a chronic disease with progression of memory deficits over time. The situation presented in the question represents an acute problem. Medication use, hypoglycemia, and impaired cerebral circulation require evaluation to determine if they play a role in causing the client's current symptoms

A client in the emergency department is diagnosed with Bell's palsy. The nurse collecting data on this client expects to note which observations? Select all that apply. 1.Double vision 2.Excessive tearing 3.Inability to furrow brow 4.Pain in cheek, jaw, and teeth 5.Altered level of consciousness 6.A lag in closing the bottom eyelid

2.Excessive tearing 3.Inability to furrow brow 6.A lag in closing the bottom eyelid Excessive tearing and an inability to furrow the brow are signs of Bell's palsy. The facial drooping associated with Bell's palsy makes it difficult for the client to close the eyelid on the affected side. Double vision and altered level of consciousness are signs of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Paroxysms of excruciating pain are seen with trigeminal neuralgia.

A client has experienced an episode of myasthenic crisis. The nurse collects data to determine whether the client has experienced which precipitating factor? 1.Too little exercise 2.Omitted doses of medication 3.Increased doses of medication 4.Decreased intake of fatty foods

2.Omitted doses of medication Myasthenic crisis is often caused by undermedication and responds to administration of cholinergic medications such as neostigmine and pyridostigmine. Cholinergic crisis (the opposite problem) is caused by excess medication and responds to withholding of medications. Too little exercise and fatty food intake are incorrect options. Overexertion and overeating could trigger myasthenic crisis.

The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis who has been prescribed oxybutynin. The nurse evaluates the effectiveness of the medication by asking the client which question? 1."Are you consistently fatigued?" 2."Are you having muscle spasms?" 3."Are you getting up at night to urinate?" 4."Are you having normal bowel movements?"

3."Are you getting up at night to urinate?" Oxybutynin is an antispasmodic used to relieve symptoms of urinary urgency, frequency, nocturia, and incontinence in clients with uninhibited or reflex neurogenic bladder. Expected effects include improved urinary control and decreased urinary frequency, incontinence, and nocturia. Options 1, 2, and 4 are unrelated to the use of this medication.

A client is somewhat nervous about having magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Which statement by the nurse should provide reassurance to the client about the procedure? 1."You will be able to eat before the procedure unless you get nauseated easily. If so, you should eat lightly." 2."The MRI machine is a long, hollow narrow tube, and may make you feel somewhat claustrophobic." 3."Even though you are alone in the scanner, you will be in voice communication with the technologist during the procedure." 4."It is necessary to remove any metal or metal-containing objects before having the MRI done to avoid the metal being drawn into the magnetic field."

3."Even though you are alone in the scanner, you will be in voice communication with the technologist during the procedure." The MRI scanner is a hollow tube, which gives some clients a feeling of claustrophobia. Metal objects must be removed before the procedure so that they are not drawn into the magnetic field. The client may eat and take all prescribed medications before the procedure. If a contrast medium is used, the client may wish to eat lightly if there is a tendency to get nauseated easily. The client lies supine on a padded table, which moves into the imager. The client must lie still during the procedure. The imager makes tapping noises while scanning. The client is alone in the imager, but the nurse can reassure the client that the technician is in voice communication with the client at all times during the procedure.

An adult client had a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis after lumbar puncture. The nurse interprets which finding as abnormal if present? 1.Protein 2.Glucose 3.Red blood cells 4.White blood cells

3.Red blood cells The adult with normal cerebrospinal fluid has no red blood cells in the CSF. The client may have small levels of white blood cells (0 to 3/mm3). Protein (15 to 45 mg/dL) and glucose (40 to 80 mg/dL) are normally present in CSF

The nurse has given suggestions to the client with trigeminal neuralgia about strategies to minimize episodes of pain. The nurse determines that the client needs further teaching if the client made which statement? 1."I will wash my face with cotton pads." 2."I'll have to start chewing on the unaffected side." 3."I should rinse my mouth if tooth brushing is painful." 4."I will try to eat my food either very warm or very cold."

4."I will try to eat my food either very warm or very cold." Facial pain can be minimized by using cotton pads and room temperature water to wash the face. The client should chew on the unaffected side of the mouth, eat a soft diet, and take in foods and beverages at room temperature. If tooth brushing triggers pain, sometimes an oral rinse after meals is more helpful.

A resident in a long-term care facility prepares to walk out into a rainstorm after saying, "My father is waiting to take me for a ride." An appropriate response by the nurse is which? 1."I need you to sign a form before leaving." 2."If you try to leave, I will need to restrain you." 3."How old are you? Your father must no longer be living." 4."I'm glad you told me that. Let's have a cup of coffee and you can tell me about your father."

4."I'm glad you told me that. Let's have a cup of coffee and you can tell me about your father." The correct response acknowledges the client's comment and feelings. Option 1 fails to protect the client from possible harm. Option 2 is inappropriate and is inconsistent with legal aspects of care based on the information given. Option 3 does not preserve the client's dignity

Family members of an elderly client ask the nurse if there is any test to determine if a person will eventually get Alzheimer's disease? Which appropriate response should the nurse make? 1."A radionuclide imaging (brain scan) test can predict Alzheimer's disease." 2."A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan can tell if a person will get Alzheimer's disease." 3."A positron emission tomography (PET) scan can be a test to determine if a person will get Alzheimer's disease." 4."There are no tests to determine if a person will get Alzheimer's disease, but research for new diagnostic tests will continue."

4."There are no tests to determine if a person will get Alzheimer's disease, but research for new diagnostic tests will continue." Currently there are no diagnostic tests for providers to use in making the diagnosis of preclinical Alzheimer's disease. But research does continue. The other tests are used for diagnosing other cognitive or neurological disorders.

A client with spinal cord injury becomes angry and belligerent whenever the nurse tries to administer care. Which is the best response by the nurse? 1.Ask the family to deliver the care. 2.Leave the client alone until ready to participate. 3.Advise the client that rehabilitation progresses more quickly with cooperation. 4.Acknowledge the client's anger and continue to encourage participation in care.

4.Acknowledge the client's anger and continue to encourage participation in care. Adjusting to paralysis is difficult both physically and psychosocially for the client and family. The nurse recognizes that the client goes through the grieving process in adjusting to the loss and may move back and forth among the stages of grief. The nurse acknowledges the client's feelings while continuing to meet the client's physical needs and encouraging independence.

The nurse observes the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) positioning the client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which position would require intervention by the nurse? 1.Head midline 2.Head turned to the side 3.Neck in neutral position 4.Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees

2.Head turned to the side The head of the client with increased ICP should be positioned so that the head is in a neutral, midline position. The nurse should avoid flexing or extending the neck or turning the head side to side. The head of the bed should be raised to 30 to 45 degrees. Use of proper positions promotes venous drainage from the cranium to keep ICP down.

The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis (MS) who has been prescribed amantadine. The client asks the nurse why the amantadine has been prescribed. Which response should the nurse make? 1."It is prescribed to relieve fatigue." 2."It is prescribed to decrease spasticity." 3."It is prescribed to treat urinary retention." 4."It is prescribed to relieve neuropathic pain."

1."It is prescribed to relieve fatigue." Amantadine is used to relieve fatigue associated with the disease. The spasticity experienced by MS patients may respond to treatment with baclofen. Carbamazepine and gabapentin are used to relieve neuropathic pain. Urinary retention is treated with cholinergic drugs such as bethanechol.

The nurse is caring for the client who has suffered spinal cord injury. The nurse further monitors the client for signs of autonomic dysreflexia and suspects this complication if which sign/symptom is noted? 1.Sudden tachycardia 2.Pallor of the face and neck 3.Severe, throbbing headache 4.Severe and sudden hypotension

3.Severe, throbbing headache The client with spinal cord injury above the level of T7 is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia. It is characterized by a severe, throbbing headache, flushing of the face and neck, bradycardia, and sudden severe hypertension. Other signs include nasal stuffiness, blurred vision, nausea, and sweating. It is a life-threatening syndrome triggered by a noxious stimulus below the level of the injury

The nurse is caring for an unconscious client who is experiencing persistent hyperthermia with no signs and symptoms of infection. The nurse understands that there may be damage to the client's thermoregulatory center which is located in which part of the brain? 1.Cerebrum 2.Cerebellum 3.Hippocampus 4.Hypothalamus

4.Hypothalamus Hypothalamic damage causes hyperthermia, which may also be called "central fever." It is characterized by a persistent high fever with no diurnal variation. There is also an absence of sweating. Options 1, 2, and 3 are not associated with temperature regulation

The nurse is preparing for the admission of a client with a diagnosis of early stage Alzheimer's disease. The nurse assists in developing a plan of care, knowing that which is a characteristic of early Alzheimer's disease? 1.Confusion 2.Wandering 3.Forgetfulness 4.Personality changes

3.Forgetfulness In early Alzheimer's disease, forgetfulness begins to interfere with daily routines and may compromise client safety. The client has difficulty concentrating and difficulty learning new material. Options 1, 2, and 4 are characteristics of dementia that occur late as the disease progresses.

A client has just undergone computed tomography (CT) scanning with a contrast medium. The nurse determines that the client understands postprocedure when the client makes which statement? 1."I will drink extra fluids for the day." 2."I will eat lightly for the remainder of the day." 3."I will rest quietly for the remainder of the day." 4."I will not take any medications for at least 4 hours."

1."I will drink extra fluids for the day." After CT scanning, the client may resume all usual activities. The client should be encouraged to take in extra fluids to replace those lost with diuresis from the contrast dye. Options 2, 3, and 4 are unnecessary.

Which symptoms would validate the diagnosis of a cluster headache? Select all that apply. 1.A runny nose 2.Photophobia 3.Phonophobia 4.Burning sensation in the eye 5.Tearing on the affected eye

1.A runny nose 4.Burning sensation in the eye 5.Tearing on the affected eye The pain of a cluster headache peaks in about 5 minutes and may last for an hour. Someone with a cluster headache may experience several headaches a day for weeks at a time then experience a pain-free period of variable length. A burning sensation in the eye, tearing in the affected eye, and a runny nose are common. Sensitivity to light and sounds occurs in migraine headaches not cluster headaches.

The nurse is caring for a client who sustained a spinal cord injury. While administering morning care, the client developed signs and symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. Which is the initial nursing action? 1.Elevate the head of the bed. 2.Digitally examine the rectum. 3.Check the client's blood pressure. 4.Place the client in the prone position.

1.Elevate the head of the bed. Autonomic dysreflexia is a serious complication that can occur in the spinal cord of the injured client. Once the syndrome is identified, the nurse elevates the head of the client's bed and then examines the client for the source of noxious stimuli. The nurse also assesses the client's blood pressure, but the initial action is to elevate the head of the bed. The client should not be placed in the prone position.

The nurse determines that motor function of which cranial nerve is intact if the client can perform this action? Refer to figure. 1.Facial 2.Acoustic 3.Trigeminal 4.Glossopharyngeal

1.Facial The motor function of the facial nerve is tested by asking the client to smile, frown, close the eyes tightly, lift the eyebrows, and puff the cheeks. The acoustic nerve assesses hearing and is sensory. To determine if motor function of the trigeminal nerve is intact, the nurse should have the client clench the teeth tightly and attempt to separate the client's jaw while the teeth are tightly clenched. To test the motor function of the glossopharyngeal nerve, the nurse should depress the client's tongue with a tongue blade, have the client say "ahhh," and watch for the uvula and soft palate to rise in the midline

The nurse suspects neurogenic shock in a client with complete transection of the spinal cord at the T3 (thoracic 3) level if which clinical symptoms are observed? 1.Hypotension and tachycardia 2.Hypotension and bradycardia 3.Hypertension and tachycardia 4.Hypertension and bradycardia

2.Hypotension and bradycardia Spinal cord transection at the T5 level or above may lead to neurogenic shock. This injury results in massive vasodilation without compensation because of the loss of sympathetic nervous system vasoconstrictor tone. As a result, hypotension and bradycardia will be manifested. Hypertension with either bradycardia or tachycardia would not be exhibited.

The nurse notices that a client with trigeminal neuralgia has been withdrawn, is having frequent episodes of crying, and is sleeping excessively. Which method is the best way for the nurse to explore issues with the client regarding these behaviors? 1.Have the client express the feelings in writing. 2.Have the primary health care provider speak to the client. 3.Conduct a group discussion with the client's family. 4.Ignore the behavior because it is expected in clients with trigeminal neuralgia.

1.Have the client express the feelings in writing. Speaking can exacerbate the pain that occurs with trigeminal neuralgia. Having the client record feelings in writing will help the nurse gain an understanding of the client's concerns without increasing the client's pain. Discussing the issue with the family will not provide insight into the client's feelings. It is not in the client's best interest to refer the matter to the primary health care provider or to ignore the behavior. The nurse should explore the client's concerns and offer support

The nurse develops a plan of care for a client following a lumbar puncture. Which interventions should be included in the plan? Select all that apply. 1.Monitor the client's ability to void. 2.Maintain the client in a flat position. 3.Restrict fluid intake for a period of 2 hours. 4.Monitor the client's ability to move the extremities. 5.Inspect the puncture site for swelling, redness, and drainage. 6.Maintain the client on a nothing-by-mouth (NPO) status for 24 hours.

1.Monitor the client's ability to void. 2.Maintain the client in a flat position. 4.Monitor the client's ability to move the extremities. 5.Inspect the puncture site for swelling, redness, and drainage. Following a lumbar puncture, the client remains flat in bed for 6 to 24 hours, depending on the primary health care provider's prescriptions. A liberal fluid intake (not NPO status) is encouraged to replace cerebrospinal fluid removed during the procedure, unless contraindicated by the client's condition. The nurse checks the puncture site for redness and drainage and monitors the client's ability to void and move the extremities

A client recovering from a craniotomy complains of a "runny nose." Based on the interpretation of the client's complaint, which action should the nurse take? 1.Notify the registered nurse. 2.Provide the client with tissues. 3.Tell the client not to blow the nose. 4.Monitor the client for signs of a cold.

1.Notify the registered nurse. If the client has sustained a craniocerebral injury or is recovering from a craniotomy, careful observation of any drainage from the eyes, ears, nose, or traumatic area is critical. Cerebrospinal fluid is colorless and generally nonpurulent, and its presence is indicative of a serious breach of cranial integrity. The nurse would check the drainage for the presence of glucose, which would be indicative of the presence of cerebrospinal fluid and would report the presence of any suspicious drainage to the registered nurse, who would then contact the primary health care provider

A client with a stroke (brain attack) is experiencing residual dysphagia. The nurse should remove which food items that arrived on the client's meal tray from the dietary department? 1.Peas 2.Scrambled eggs 3.Mashed potatoes 4.Cheese casserole

1.Peas In general, flavorful, very warm, or well-chilled foods with texture stimulate the swallowing reflex. Moist pastas, casseroles, egg dishes, and potatoes are usually well tolerated. Raw vegetables; chunky vegetables such as diced beets; and stringy vegetables such as spinach, corn, and peas are commonly excluded from the diet of a client with a poor swallowing reflex.

A client complains of pain in the lower back and pain and spasms in the hamstrings when the nurse attempts to extend the client's leg. How should the nurse record this finding on the client's medical record? Refer to figure. 1.Positive Kernig's sign 2.Positive Babinski's sign 3.Positive Trousseau's sign 4.Positive Brudzinski's sign

1.Positive Kernig's sign Both Kernig's and Brudzinski's signs are suggestive of meningeal irritation, which occurs in meningitis. A positive Kernig's sign is the inability to extend the leg from a 90-degree flexion at the hip. Attempts to extend the leg cause pain and spasms in the hamstring muscles. With positive Brudzinski's sign, passive flexion of the head and neck causes flexion of the thighs and legs. Positive Trousseau's sign is a carpopedal spasm observed in the hypocalcemic client when a blood pressure cuff is inflated on the arm above the systolic pressure. A Babinski's reflex is elicited when the nurse strokes along the sole of the foot.

A client with tetraplegia complains bitterly about the nurse's slow response to the call light and the rigidity of the therapy schedule. Which interpretation of this behavior should serve as a basis for planning nursing care? 1.The client is reacting to loss of control. 2.The client's complaints indicate depression. 3.The client must adjust to institutional schedules. 4.Limits must be set on staff response time to call bells.

1.The client is reacting to loss of control. Clients who feel a sense of control over their situation will adapt to their limitations more readily than those who think that they have lost control. Both of the client's complaints indicate a need for greater control. Clients should be offered an opportunity for input into scheduling and planning for staff response to their needs. For this reason, options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect interpretations of the client's behavior.

The nurse is assisting in the care of a client who is being evaluated for possible myasthenia gravis. The primary health care provider gives a test dose of edrophonium. The nurse recalls that the client should have which reaction if the client has this disease? 1.Joint pain for the next 15 minutes 2.An increase in muscle strength within 1 to 3 minutes 3.A decrease in muscle strength within 1 to 3 minutes 4.Feelings of faintness or dizziness for 5 to 10 minutes

2.An increase in muscle strength within 1 to 3 minutes Edrophonium is a short-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used to diagnose myasthenia gravis. An increase in muscle strength should be seen in 1 to 3 minutes following the test dose if the client does have the disease. If no response occurs, another dose is given over the next 2 minutes, and muscle strength again is tested. If no increase in muscle strength occurs with this higher dose, the muscle weakness is not caused by myasthenia gravis. Clients who receive injections of this medication commonly demonstrate a drop in blood pressure, feel faint and dizzy, and are flushed

The nurse is caring for the client with a head injury secondary to a motor vehicle crash. The nurse observes the client's status regularly, monitoring closely for which change in vital signs that could indicate increased intracranial pressure? 1.Increasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing blood pressure (BP) 2.Decreasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing BP 3.Decreasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing BP 4.Increasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing BP

2.Decreasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing BP A change in vital signs may be a late indication of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Trends include increasing BP and decreasing pulse and respiratory rate. Irregularities of respiratory rhythm may also arise.

A client who sustained a closed head injury has a new onset of copious urinary output. Urine output for the previous 8-hour shift was 3300 mL, and 2800 mL for the shift before that. The findings have been reported to the primary health care provider, and the nurse anticipates a prescription for which medication? 1.Mannitol 2.Desmopressin 3.Ethacrynic acid 4.Dexamethasone

2.Desmopressin A complication of closed head injury is diabetes insipidus (DI). This may occur if the injury affects the hypothalamus, antidiuretic hormone storage vesicles, or the posterior pituitary gland. Urine output that exceeds 9 L/day generally requires treatment with desmopressin, an antidiuretic. Ethacrynic acid and mannitol are both diuretics, which would be contraindicated for this client. Dexamethasone is a glucocorticoid that is used to treat cerebral edema. This medication already may be prescribed for the head-injured client but does not relate to DI

A client who suffered a cervical spine injury had Crutchfield tongs applied in the emergency department. The nurse should avoid which action in the care of the client? 1.Placing the client on a Stryker frame 2.Removing the weights when repositioning the client 3.Checking the status and integrity of the weights and pulleys 4.Checking the amount of traction in use against the prescription each shift

2.Removing the weights when repositioning the client Crutchfield tongs are a method of skeletal traction used with cervical spine injury. All of the principles of assessment and care that apply to the client in traction apply to this client. The nurse should not remove the weights to administer care; removing the weights will disrupt the traction applied. The nurse should ensure that weights hang freely and that the amount of weight matches the current prescription. The nurse should inspect the integrity and position of the ropes and pulleys. The client is placed on a Stryker frame or Roto-Rest bed while the Crutchfield tongs are in use

The nurse is told in report that a client has a positive Chvostek's sign. Which other data should the nurse expect to find on data collection? Select all that apply. 1.Coma 2.Tetany 3.Diarrhea 4.Possible seizure activity 5.Hypoactive bowel sounds 6.Positive Trousseau's sign

2.Tetany 3.Diarrhea 4.Possible seizure activity 6.Positive Trousseau's sign Focus on the subject, a positive Chvostek's sign, which is indicative of hypocalcemia. Other signs and symptoms include tachycardia, hypotension, paresthesias, twitching, cramps, tetany, seizures, positive Trousseau's sign, diarrhea, hyperactive bowel sounds, and a prolonged QT interval.

The nurse is preparing to care for a client with a diagnosis of brain attack (stroke). The nurse notes in the client's record that the client has anosognosia. The nurse plans care, knowing which is a characteristic of anosognosia? 1.The client has difficulty speaking. 2.The client neglects the affected side. 3.The client has difficulty swallowing. 4.The client experiences physical fatigue.

2.The client neglects the affected side. In anosognosia, the client neglects the affected side of the body. The client may neglect the affected side (often creating a safety hazard as a result of potential injuries) or state that the involved arm or leg belongs to someone else. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not associated with anosognosia.

A client with spinal cord injury has experienced more than one episode of autonomic dysreflexia. The nurse should avoid which action that could trigger an episode of this complication? 1.Preventing pressure on the client's lower limbs 2.Rigidly adhering to a bowel retraining program 3.Allowing the client's bladder to become distended 4.Keeping the linen under the client free of wrinkles

3.Allowing the client's bladder to become distended Autonomic dysreflexia is triggered most frequently by a distended bladder. To prevent this, straight catheterization is done every 4 to 6 hours, and indwelling urinary catheters are checked frequently to prevent kinks in the tubing. Constipation and fecal impaction are other causes, so maintaining bowel regularity is important. Other causes include stimulation of the skin from tactile, thermal, or painful stimuli. The nurse administers care to minimize risk in these areas. The interventions in options 1, 2, and 4 would not trigger an episode of autonomic dysreflexia

The nurse is collecting neurological data on an unconscious client. On application of a central noxious stimulus, the nurse observes this response. How should the nurse document this response on the client's record? Refer to figure. 1.Client demonstrated ataxic posturing. 2.Client demonstrated decorticate posturing. 3.Client demonstrated decerebrate posturing. 4.Client demonstrated opisthotonic posturing.

3.Client demonstrated decerebrate posturing. In decerebrate posturing, the arms are extended and the hands are hyperpronated while the legs are extended with plantar flexion of the feet. In decorticate posturing, the arms are internally rotated, adducted, and are flexed at the elbows and wrists while the legs are extended. In opisthotonic posturing, there is arching of the spine. Option 1 is not a type of posturing.

A client has just undergone lumbar puncture (LP). The nurse assists the client into which optimal position? 1.Side-lying, with a pillow under the hip 2.Prone, in slight Trendelenburg's position 3.Flat, turning from side to side as needed 4.Supine, with the head of the bed elevated 15 degrees

3.Flat, turning from side to side as needed Keep client flat in bed to reduce headache for 1 hour or longer after procedure. It is important that the head of the bed remain flat to prevent CSF leakage and to prevent postprocedure headache.

A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome has been asking many questions about the condition, and the nursing staff feels that the client is very discouraged about her condition. It is important for the nurse to include which information in discussions with the client? 1.Paralysis occurs proximally to distally. 2.Maximum paralysis occurs within 48 hours following diagnosis. 3.Generally, a vast number of people recover from this condition. 4.With maximum rehabilitation, function is regained within 3 months.

3.Generally, a vast number of people recover from this condition. The vast majority of clients with Guillain-Barré syndrome recover from the paralysis because it affects peripheral nerves that have the capacity to remyelinate. Maximum paralysis can take up to 4 weeks to develop. Paralysis progresses distally to proximally. Rehabilitation can take from 6 months to 2 years.

The nurse is assisting in admitting a client who experienced seizure activity in the emergency department. The nurse avoids which action when managing this client's environment? 1.Placing padding on the side rails of the bed 2.Having intravenous (IV) equipment available 3.Keeping the bed position raised to the nurse's waist level 4.Ensuring that an airway, oxygen, and suction equipment are at the bedside

3.Keeping the bed position raised to the nurse's waist level Seizure precautions may vary somewhat from agency to agency, but they generally have some commonalities. Usually an airway, oxygen, and suctioning equipment are kept available at the bedside. The side rails of the bed are padded, and the bed is kept in the lowest position. The client has an IV access in place to have a readily accessible route if IV anticonvulsant medications must be administered.

When the nurse taps at the level of the client's facial nerve, the following response is noted. How should the nurse document this finding on the client's record? Refer to figure. 1.Positive Cullen's sign 2.Positive Babinski's reflex 3.Positive Chvostek's sign 4.Positive Trousseau's sign

3.Positive Chvostek's sign Chvostek's sign and Trousseau's sign may be elicited in hypocalcemic clients. Tapping at the level of the facial nerve may result in ipsilateral twitching of the eye, cheek, and lip; this is called Chvostek's sign. Trousseau's sign refers to carpopedal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff on the hypocalcemic client's arm. Cullen's sign is ecchymosis around the umbilicus. Babinski's reflex may be elicited when the sole of the foot is stroked. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect

The nurse is caring for a client following craniotomy who has a supratentorial incision. The nurse reviews the client's plan of care, expecting to note that the client should be maintained in which position? 1.Prone position 2.Supine position 3.Semi-Fowler's position 4.Dorsal recumbent position

3.Semi-Fowler's position In supratentorial surgery (surgery above the brain's tentorium), the client's head usually is elevated 30 degrees to promote venous outflow through the jugular veins. The client's head or the head of the bed is not lowered in the acute phase of care after supratentorial surgery. An exception to this position is the client who has undergone evacuation of a chronic subdural hematoma, but a primary health care provider's prescription is required for positions other than those involving head elevation.

A nursing student is collecting data on a client recently diagnosed with meningitis. The student expects to note which signs and symptoms? Select all that apply. 1.Diarrhea 2.Tinnitus 3.Tachycardia 4.Photophobia 5.Red, macular rash 6.Positive Kernig's sign

3.Tachycardia 4.Photophobia 5.Red, macular rash 6.Positive Kernig's sign Meningitis is an infection or inflammation of the membranes covering the brain and spinal cord. Signs and symptoms can include a positive Kernig's sign, tachycardia (heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute), a red macular-type rash, and photophobia. Other signs and symptoms include severe headache, stiffness of the neck, irritability, malaise, and restlessness. Diarrhea and tinnitus are not usually associated with meningitis

The nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions to a client who has undergone transsphenoidal surgery for a pituitary adenoma. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the discharge instructions? 1."I need to remove the nasal packing in 1 week." 2."I need to cough and deep breathe every 2 hours." 3."I can take acetaminophen (Tylenol) if I get a severe headache." 4."I need to call the doctor if I develop frequent swallowing or postnasal drip."

4."I need to call the doctor if I develop frequent swallowing or postnasal drip." The client should report frequent swallowing or postnasal drip after transsphenoidal surgery because it could indicate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. The surgeon removes the nasal packing, usually after 24 hours. The client should deep breathe, but coughing is contraindicated because it could cause increased intracranial pressure (ICP). The client should also report a severe headache because it could indicate increased ICP.

The nurse is monitoring a client with a spinal cord injury for signs of spinal shock. Which sign is indicative of this complication of a spinal cord injury? 1.Hypertension 2.Tachycardia 3.Profuse diaphoresis 4.Areflexia below the level of injury

4.Areflexia below the level of injury Spinal shock represents a temporary but profound disruption of spinal cord function, which occurs immediately after injury and is clinically evident within 30 to 60 minutes. It is a state of areflexia characterized by the loss of all neurological function below the level of injury. Flaccid paralysis, bradycardia, and hypotension occur. The body is unable to use either shivering or perspiring as a means of controlling body temperature.

The nurse is preparing a plan of care for a client with a brain attack (stroke) who has global aphasia. The nurse incorporates communication strategies in the plan of care, knowing that the client's speech should fit which characterization? 1.Rambling 2.Difficult to understand 3.Characterized by literal paraphasia 4.Associated with poor comprehension

4.Associated with poor comprehension Global aphasia is a condition in which a person has few language skills as a result of extensive damage to the left hemisphere. The speech is nonfluent and is associated with poor comprehension and limited ability to name objects or repeat words. The client with conduction aphasia has difficulty repeating words spoken by another, and the speech is characterized by literal paraphasia with intact comprehension. The client with Wernicke's aphasia may exhibit a rambling type of speech

A client with Bell's palsy exhibits facial asymmetry and cannot close the eye completely on one side. The client is also drooling and has loss of tearing in one eye. The nurse documents that the client displays symptoms of involvement of which cranial nerve (CN)? 1.CN I 2.CN IV 3.CN V 4.CN VII

4.CN VII Bell's palsy is a common problem involving CN VII. In addition to the symptoms identified in the question, the client may exhibit loss of the nasolabial fold, an inability to blink automatically or to swallow secretions, and possible loss of taste on the anterior two thirds of the tongue. Other conditions that can affect CN VII function include fracture of the temporal bone and parotid lacerations or contusions.

The nurse is collecting data on a client diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. Which finding indicates a serious complication of this disorder? 1.Shuffling and propulsive gait 2.Resting and pill-rolling tremors 3.Last bowel movement was 48 hours ago 4.Congested cough and coarse rhonchi heard during auscultation

4.Congested cough and coarse rhonchi heard during auscultation Clients with Parkinson's disease are at risk for aspiration. A congested cough and coarse rhonchi may be present after a client aspirates. Although constipation is a problem for clients with Parkinson's disease, the concern is greater if the client has not had a bowel movement by the third day. Resting and pill-rolling tremors and a shuffling, propulsive gait are characteristic findings in Parkinson's disease.

A client with Parkinson's disease "freezes" while ambulating, increasing the risk for falls. Which suggestion should the nurse include in the client's plan of care to alleviate this problem? 1.Use a wheelchair to move around. 2.Stand erect and use a cane to ambulate. 3.Keep the feet close together while ambulating and using a walker. 4.Consciously think about walking over imaginary lines on the floor

4.Consciously think about walking over imaginary lines on the floor Clients with Parkinson's disease can develop bradykinesia (slow movement) or akinesia (freezing or no movement). Having these individuals imagine lines on the floor to step over can keep them moving forward. Although standing erect and using a cane can help prevent falls, these measures will not help a person with akinesia move forward. Clients with Parkinson's disease should walk with a wide gait, not with the feet close together. A wheelchair should be used only when the client can no longer ambulate with assistive devices such as canes or walkers

The nurse is monitoring a client who sustained a head injury and suspects that the client has a skull fracture. This conclusion is based on which findings? Select all that apply. 1.Coughing 2.Tachycardia 3.Lower back pain 4.Drainage from ear 5.Bruising around the eyes 6.Pink-tinged drainage from the nose

4.Drainage from ear 5.Bruising around the eyes 6.Pink-tinged drainage from the nose Drainage from the ear or nose (clear or pink-tinged) is an indicator of the presence of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), which could be leaking as a result of the skull fracture. Bruising around the eyes (raccoon sign) is also an indicator of basilar skull fractures. Tachycardia, coughing, and lower back pain are not associated specifically with skull fractures.

A client with suspected Guillain-Barré syndrome has a lumbar puncture performed. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein is 750 mg/dL. The nurse analyzes these results as which? 1.Normal 2.Lower than normal, ruling out Guillain-Barré 3.Not significant and unrelated to Guillain-Barré 4.Higher than normal, supporting the diagnosis of Guillain-Barré

4.Higher than normal, supporting the diagnosis of Guillain-Barré Seven to 10 days following the onset of symptoms of Guillain-Barré, the spinal fluid protein levels become extremely high. Normal CSF protein is 15 to 45 mg/dL. A value of 750 mg/dL is higher than normal, supporting the diagnosis of Guillain-Barré.

The nurse is collecting neurological data on a poststroke adult client. Which technique should the nurse perform to adequately check proprioception? 1.Tap the Achilles tendon using the reflex hammer. 2.Gently prick the client's skin on the dorsum of the foot in two places. 3.Firmly stroke the lateral sole of the foot and under the toes with a blunt instrument. 4.Hold the sides of the client's great toe, and while moving it, ask what position it is in.

4.Hold the sides of the client's great toe, and while moving it, ask what position it is in. Proprioception is tested by holding the sides of the client's great toe and, while moving it, asking the client what position it is in. Option 1 identifies the assessment for gastrocnemius muscle contraction, and option 2 tests two-point discrimination. The plantar reflex is elicited in option 3. Normally, the toes plantar flex, but when abnormal, the toes dorsiflex and fan out

The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of brain attack (stroke) with anosognosia. To meet the needs of the client with this deficit, which action does the nurse plan? 1.Encourage communication. 2.Provide a consistent daily routine. 3.Promote adequate bowel elimination. 4.Increase the client's awareness of the affected side.

4.Increase the client's awareness of the affected side. In anosognosia, the client neglects the affected side of the body. The nurse should plan care activities that encourage the client to look at the affected arm or leg and that will increase the client's awareness of the affected side. Options 1, 2, and 3 are not associated with this deficit.

The nurse is assisting in checking for Tinel's sign in a client suspected of having carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS). Which technique should the nurse expect to be used to elicit this sign? 1.Dorsiflex the client's hand, and monitor for pain in the forearm. 2.Place pressure on the client's radial nerve, and monitor circulation status. 3.Ask the client to flex the wrist at a 90-degree angle for 1 minute, and monitor for numbness. 4.Percuss the medial nerve at the wrist as it enters the carpal tunnel, and monitor for tingling sensations.

4.Percuss the medial nerve at the wrist as it enters the carpal tunnel, and monitor for tingling sensations. The presence of Tinel's sign is determined by percussing the medial nerve at the wrist as it enters the carpal tunnel. A tingling sensation over the distribution of the nerve occurs in CTS. The presence of Phalen's sign is determined by asking the client to flex the wrist at a 90-degree angle for 1 minute. Numbness and tingling over the distribution of the median nerve, the palmar surface of the thumb, and the index and middle fingers suggest CTS. Phalen's sign is also an indication of CTS. Options 1 and 2 are incorrect

A client is about to undergo a lumbar puncture (LP). The nurse tells the client that which position will be used during the procedure? 1.Side-lying with a pillow under the hip 2.Prone with a pillow under the abdomen 3.Prone in slight Trendelenburg's position 4.Side-lying with the legs pulled up and the head bent down onto the chest

4.Side-lying with the legs pulled up and the head bent down onto the chest The client undergoing LP is positioned lying on the side, with the legs pulled up to the abdomen, and with the head bent down onto the chest. This position helps open the spaces between the vertebrae and allows for easier needle insertion by the primary health care provider. All of the other options are incorrect.

A client with a T4 spinal cord injury is to be monitored for autonomic dysreflexia (hyperreflexia). Which finding is indicative of this complication? 1.Pupil responses are brisk bilaterally. 2.Knee-jerk reaction is absent bilaterally. 3.One hundred mL of residual urine remains after the client voids. 4.The client complains of a headache, and the blood pressure is elevated.

4.The client complains of a headache, and the blood pressure is elevated. Autonomic dysreflexia, also known as autonomic hyperreflexia, is a life-threatening syndrome. It is a cluster of clinical symptoms that results when multiple spinal cord autonomic responses discharge simultaneously. Exaggerated autonomic nervous system reactions to stimuli result in sudden hypertensive episodes with severe headache. The client may sweat profusely above the level of the cord lesion and complain of a stuffy nose. The knee-jerk response is not affected. Pupils may be dilated. Although a distended bladder is often the precipitating event, it is not indicative of dysreflexia, and not all clients with bladder distention exhibit dysreflexia.

The nurse has given medication instructions to the client receiving phenytoin. The nurse determines that the client understands the instructions if the client makes which comments? Select all that apply. 1."I should not suddenly stop taking this medication." 2."Alcohol is not contraindicated while taking this medication." 3."Good oral hygiene is needed, including brushing and flossing." 4."The medication dose may be self-adjusted, depending on side effects." 5."The morning dose of the medication should be taken before a sample for a serum drug level is drawn."

1."I should not suddenly stop taking this medication." 3."Good oral hygiene is needed, including brushing and flossing." Typical anticonvulsant medication instructions include taking the prescribed dose daily to keep the blood level of the drug constant, having a serum drug level drawn before taking the morning dose, avoiding abruptly stopping the medication, avoiding alcohol, checking with the primary health care provider before taking over-the-counter medications, avoiding activities in which alertness and coordination are required until medication effects are known, providing good oral hygiene and getting regular dental care, and wearing a Medic-Alert bracelet or tag

The client with spinal cord injury suddenly experiences an episode of autonomic dysreflexia. After checking vital signs, which immediate action should the nurse take? 1.Raise the head of the bed and remove the noxious stimulus. 2.Lower the head of the bed and remove the noxious stimulus. 3.Lower the head of the bed and administer an antihypertensive agent. 4.Remove the noxious stimulus and administer an antihypertensive agent.

1.Raise the head of the bed and remove the noxious stimulus. Key nursing actions are to sit the client up in bed, remove the noxious stimulus, and bring the blood pressure under control with antihypertensive medication per protocol. The nurse can also clearly label the client's chart identifying the risk for autonomic dysreflexia. Client and family should be taught to recognize, and later manage, the signs and symptoms of this syndrome

The nurse is trying to help the family of an unconscious client cope with the situation. Which intervention should the nurse plan to incorporate into the care routine for the client? 1.Discouraging the family from touching the client 2.Explaining equipment and procedures on an ongoing basis 3.Ensuring adherence to visiting hours to ensure the client's rest 4.Encouraging the family not to "give in" to their feelings of grief

2.Explaining equipment and procedures on an ongoing basis Families often need assistance to cope with the sudden, severe illness of a loved one. The nurse can help the family of an unconscious client by assisting them to work through their feelings of grief. The nurse should explain all equipment, treatments, and procedures, and supplement or reinforce information given by the primary health care provider. The family should be encouraged to touch and speak to the client and to become involved in the client's care to the extent that they are comfortable. The nurse should allow the family to stay with the client as much as possible and should encourage them to eat and sleep adequately to maintain their strength

The nurse is assisting in caring for a client who sustained a traumatic head injury following a motor vehicle crash. The nurse documents that the client is exhibiting decerebrate posturing. The nurse bases this documentation on which observation? 1.Flexion of the extremities and pronation of the arms 2.Extension of the extremities and pronation of the arms 3.Upper extremity flexion with lower extremity extension 4.Upper extremity extension with lower extremity flexion

2.Extension of the extremities and pronation of the arms Decerebrate posturing (abnormal extension), which is associated with dysfunction in the brainstem area, consists of extension of the extremities and pronation of the arms. Posturing is a late sign of deterioration in the client's neurological status and warrants immediate primary health care provider notification.

Which data collection finding supports the possible diagnosis of Bell's palsy? 1.Burning pain in the nose with intermittent facial paralysis 2.Speech or chewing difficulties accompanied by facial droop 3.Stabbing facial pain with intermittent tingling sensations in the eyes 4.Tingling sensations of the eyelid, in addition to decreased lacrimation

2.Speech or chewing difficulties accompanied by facial droop Bell's palsy is a one-sided facial paralysis from compression of cranial nerve VII (facial). There is facial droop from paralysis of the facial muscles, increased lacrimation, and speech or chewing difficulty. The remaining options are not characteristics of Bell's palsy.

A client with diplopia has been taught to use an eye patch to promote better vision and prevent injury. The nurse determines that the client understands how to use the patch if the client states that he or she will do which? 1.Wear the patch for 1 hour at a time. 2.Wear the patch continuously, alternating eyes each day. 3.Wear the patch continuously, alternating eyes each week. 4.Use the patch only when vision is especially troublesome.

2.Wear the patch continuously, alternating eyes each day. Placing an eye patch over one eye in the client with diplopia removes the second image and restores more normal vision. The patch is worn continuously and is alternated on a daily basis to maintain the strength of the extraocular muscles of the eyes

The nurse is collecting data on a client with myasthenia gravis. The nurse determines that the client may be developing myasthenic crisis if the client makes which statement? 1."I took my pills late last night." 2."I can hardly think straight today." 3."I can't swallow very well today." 4."I dropped one of my pills on the floor."

3."I can't swallow very well today." Because dysphagia is a classic sign of myasthenia gravis exacerbation, observing how a client is able to ingest food is an important assessment. Timing of this medication is of paramount concern. Although options 1, 2, and 4 may require further assessment, option 3 reflects the potential of developing myasthenic crisis.

The nurse is monitoring a client with a blunt head injury sustained from a motor vehicle crash. Which would indicate a basal skull fracture as a result of the injury? Select all that apply. 1.Epistaxis 2.Periorbital edema 3.Bruising behind ears ("Battle's sign") 4.Bruising around eyes ("raccoon eyes") 5.Purulent drainage from the auditory canal 6.Bloody or clear drainage from the auditory canal

3.Bruising behind ears ("Battle's sign") 4.Bruising around eyes ("raccoon eyes") 6.Bloody or clear drainage from the auditory canal Bloody or clear watery drainage from the auditory canal, "Battle's sign" and "raccoon eyes" indicate a cerebrospinal fluid leak following trauma and suggest a basal skull fracture. This warrants immediate attention. Option 5 is indicative of an infectious process. Options 1 and 2 are not specifically associated with a basal skull fracture.

A client who is paraplegic after spinal cord injury has been taught muscle-strengthening exercises for the upper body. The nurse determines that the client will derive the least muscle-strengthening benefit from which activity? 1.Squeezing rubber balls 2.Doing push-ups in a prone position 3.Extending the arms while holding weights 4.Doing active range of motion to finger joints

4.Doing active range of motion to finger joints Range-of-motion exercises of the finger joints prevent contractures but do not actively strengthen muscle groups needed for self-mobilization with paraplegia. Other activities that are more effective include push-ups from a prone position, sit-ups from a sitting position, extending the arms while holding weights, and squeezing rubber balls or crumpling newspaper

The nurse is caring for a client with the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. Which primary health care provider's prescription should the nurse question? 1.Administer the prescribed corticosteroid daily in the morning. 2.Notify a surgeon to consult regarding thymectomy surgery. 3.Notify the plasmapheresis team to perform an exchange in the morning. 4.Administer the prescribed anticholinesterase medication 30 minutes after meals.

4.Administer the prescribed anticholinesterase medication 30 minutes after meals. Corticosteroids are administered concurrently with the anticholinesterase drug and daily in the morning is an expected schedule. Because a large number of patients with myasthenia gravis have hyperplasia of the thymus gland, thymectomy is performed early after the initial diagnosis. Plasmapheresis is an adjunctive therapy based on the autoimmune theory of myasthenia gravis. Anticholinesterase drugs are ordered 30 minutes before meals to improve muscle strength

A client with myasthenia gravis is experiencing prolonged periods of weakness. The primary health care provider prescribes a test dose of edrophonium and the client becomes weaker. The nurse interprets this outcome as indicative of which result? 1.Normal 2.Positive 3.Myasthenic crisis 4.Cholinergic crisis

4.Cholinergic crisis Edrophonium is administered to differentiate overdose of medication (cholinergic crisis) from the need for increased medication (myasthenic crisis). Worsening of the symptoms after edrophonium is administered indicates a cholinergic crisis (overdose of the medication), or a negative test.

The nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury. High-top sneakers on the client's feet will prevent the occurrence of which? 1.Foot drop 2.Plantar flexion 3.Pressure ulcers 4.Deep vein thrombosis

1.Foot drop The most effective way to prevent foot drop is to use posterior splints or high-top sneakers. A foot board prevents plantar flexion but also places the client at greater risk for developing pressure ulcers of the feet. Pneumatic boots prevent deep vein thrombosis but not foot drop.

The nurse is collecting admission data on a client with Parkinson's disease. The nurse asks the client to stand with the feet together and the arms at the side and then to close the eyes. The nurse notes that the client begins to fall when the eyes are closed. Based on this finding, the nurse documents which in the client's record? 1.Positive Romberg's test 2.Negative Romberg's test 3.Positive Trousseau's sign 4.Negative Trousseau's sign

1.Positive Romberg's test Romberg's test checks for cerebellar functioning related to balance. The client stands with the feet together and the arms at the side and then closes the eyes. Slight swaying is normal, but loss of balance indicates a problem and a positive Romberg's test. Trousseau's sign indicates a calcium imbalance.

The nurse is monitoring a client with a spinal cord injury who is experiencing spinal shock. Which assessment will provide the nurse with the best information about recovery from the spinal shock? 1.Reflexes 2.Pulse rate 3.Temperature 4.Blood pressure

1.Reflexes Areflexia characterizes spinal shock; therefore, reflexes should provide the best information. Vital sign changes are not consistently affected by spinal shock

A client with Parkinson's disease is developing dementia. Which action should the nurse plan to assist the client in maintaining self-care abilities? 1.Plan group activities. 2.Break down activities into small steps. 3.Change the time and day of bathing frequently. 4.Avoid playing music when the client is dressing.

2.Break down activities into small steps. It is often necessary to break down activities of daily living (ADLs), such as dressing, into small steps and explain what is happening at each step in very specific and simple terms. Large groups and complex activities should be avoided when clients have Parkinson's disease and dementia, because they are likely to cause the individual to become agitated or have a catastrophic reaction (become angry and display aggressive behavior). Routine is very important, and it is necessary to introduce changes very slowly so the day and time of bathing should remain constant. Music has a positive influence including improved capacity to communicate, reminisce, and recall memories.

The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of right (nondominant) hemispheric brain attack (stroke). The nurse notes that the client is alert and oriented to time and place. Based on these findings, the nurse makes which determination? 1.The client experienced a very mild stroke. 2.The client suffered a transient ischemic attack. 3.The client may have perceptual and spatial disabilities. 4.The client may have difficulty with language abilities only.

3.The client may have perceptual and spatial disabilities. The client with a right (nondominant) hemispheric stroke may be alert and oriented to time and place. These signs of apparent wellness often result in interpretations that the client is less disabled than is the case. However, impulsive actions and confusion in carrying out activities may be very much a problem for these clients as a result of perceptual and spatial disabilities. The right hemisphere is considered specialized in sensory-perceptual and visuospatial processing and awareness of body space. The left hemisphere is dominant for language abilities

The nurse is reinforcing instructions to the client who has just been fitted for a halo vest. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching? 1."I will use a straw to make drinking easier." 2."I will wash my skin daily under the lamb's wool liner of the vest." 3."I will use caution because the vest alters the center of gravity and balance." 4."I will avoid driving at night because the vest limits the ability to turn the head."

4."I will avoid driving at night because the vest limits the ability to turn the head." The client wearing a halo vest should not drive at all because the device impairs head movement and the range of vision. The inability to turn the head without turning the torso would make driving contraindicated. The halo device does alter balance and can pose increased risk of falls for the client. The client should clean the skin daily under the vest to protect the skin from ulceration and should use powder or lotions sparingly or not at all. The client should have food cut into small pieces to facilitate chewing and use straws for drinking because the head immobilization makes eating and drinking harder

The nurse is caring for a client with a cerebral aneurysm who is on aneurysm precautions and is monitoring the client for signs of aneurysm rupture. The nurse understands that which is an early sign of rupture? 1.Motor weakness 2.Widened pulse pressure 3.Slowing of pupil response 4.A decline in the level of consciousness

4.A decline in the level of consciousness Rupture of a cerebral aneurysm usually results in increased intracranial pressure (ICP). The first sign of pressure is a change in the level of consciousness because of compression of the reticular formation in the brain. This change in level of consciousness can be as subtle as drowsiness or restlessness. Because centers that control blood pressure are located lower in the brainstem than those that control consciousness, changes in pulse pressure are a later sign. Options 1 and 2 are not early signs of ICP. These signs may occur later if the ICP has led to neurological damage.

The nurse is planning care for a client with Bell's palsy. Which measure should be included in the plan? 1.Apply cold packs to the affected side four times a day. 2.Ensure that the client avoids touching the affected side. 3.Ensure that the client avoids wearing glasses with dark lenses. 4.Instill artificial tears and wear a patch over the affected eye at night.

4.Instill artificial tears and wear a patch over the affected eye at night. Instilling artificial tears and patching the affected eye at night protects the eye from corneal abrasions. Warm packs, not cold, will alleviate discomfort. Wearing dark glasses is recommended, as is gentle massage of the affected side.

The nurse is preparing for the admission of a client with a suspected diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which sign/symptom is considered a primary symptom of this syndrome? 1.Multifocal seizures 2.Altered level of consciousness 3.Abrupt onset of fever and headache 4.Development of muscle weakness

4.Development of muscle weakness A hallmark symptom of Guillain-Barré syndrome is muscle weakness that develops rapidly. The client does not have symptoms such as a fever or headache. Cerebral function, level of consciousness, and pupillary responses are normal. Seizures are not normally associated with this disorder.

The nurse is assisting in caring for a client with a supratentorial lesion. The nurse monitors which criterion as the critical index of central nervous system (CNS) dysfunction? 1.Temperature 2.Blood pressure 3.Ability to speak 4.Level of consciousness

4.Level of consciousness Level of consciousness is the most critical index of CNS dysfunction. Changes in level of consciousness can indicate clinical improvement or deterioration. Although blood pressure, temperature, and ability to speak may be components of the assessment, the client level of consciousness is the most critical index of CNS dysfunction.

The nurse is caring for a client with a head injury and is monitoring the client for signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which sign, if noted in the client, should the nurse report immediately? 1.The client vomits. 2.The client complains of feeling tired. 3.The client complains of pain at the site of injury. 4.The client complains of dizziness when getting out of bed for the first time

1.The client vomits. The client with a closed head injury is at risk of developing increased ICP. This is evidenced by symptoms such as headache, dizziness, confusion, weakness, and vomiting. Options 2, 3, and 4 are expected occurrences. Option 1 may be an indication of increased ICP, requiring notification of the registered nurse and primary health care provider.

The nurse is preparing a plan of care to monitor for complications in a client who will be returning from the operating room following transsphenoidal resection of a pituitary adenoma. Which nursing intervention does the nurse document in the plan as a priority for this client? 1.Monitor temperature. 2.Monitor urine output. 3.Monitor blood pressure. 4.Monitor apical pulse rate.

2.Monitor urine output. The most common complication of surgery on the pituitary gland is temporary diabetes insipidus. This results from deficiency in antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion as a result of surgical trauma. The nurse measures the client's urine output to determine whether this complication is occurring. Options 1, 3, and 4 are also components of the plan, but option 2 clearly identifies the priority intervention for this type of surgery.

A female client with myasthenia gravis comes to the primary health care provider's office for a scheduled office visit. The client is very concerned and tells the nurse that her husband seems to be avoiding her because she is very unattractive. Which is the appropriate nursing response? 1."You need to look at the positives in life." 2."You need to deal with this concern because it is a reality." 3."Would you consider joining a peer support group for help?" 4."Have you thought about sharing your feelings with your husband?"

4."Have you thought about sharing your feelings with your husband?" Encouraging the client to share feelings with her husband directly addresses the subject of the question. Advising the client to join a support group will not address the client's immediate and individual concerns. The remaining options are blocks to communication and avoid the client's concerns.

A client with myasthenia gravis becomes increasingly weaker. The primary health care provider injects a dose of edrophonium to determine whether the client is experiencing a myasthenic crisis or a cholinergic crisis. The nurse expects that the client will have which reaction if the client is in cholinergic crisis? 1.No change in the condition 2.Complaints of muscle spasms 3.An improvement of the weakness 4.A temporary worsening of the condition

4.A temporary worsening of the condition Edrophonium is a short-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used to diagnose myasthenia gravis or differentiate between myasthenic and cholinergic crisis. An edrophonium injection makes the client in cholinergic crisis temporarily worse, known as a negative edrophonium test. An improvement of the condition (option 3) indicates myasthenia crisis. The other two options are unrelated to the test.

A halo vest is applied to a client following a cervical spine fracture. The nurse reinforces instructions to the client regarding safety measures related to the vest. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? 1."I will scan the room to see things." 2."I will wear rubber-soled shoes for walking." 3."I will use a walker for ambulating if I need to." 4."I will bend at the waist, keeping the halo vest straight to pick up items."

4."I will bend at the waist, keeping the halo vest straight to pick up items." The client with a halo vest should avoid bending at the waist because the halo vest is heavy and the client's trunk is limited in flexibility. It is helpful for the client to scan the environment visually because the client's peripheral vision is diminished from keeping the neck in a stationary position. Use of a walker and rubber-soled shoes may help prevent falls and injury, so these items are also helpful.

An adult client with suspected meningitis has undergone lumbar puncture to obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis of a bacterial infection. The nurse checks for which value indicating a bacterial infection of the CSF? 1.Red blood cells 2.Decreased protein level 3.Decreased glucose level 4.Decreased white blood cells

3.Decreased glucose level Findings that indicate a bacterial infection of the cerebrospinal fluid include presence of a bacterial organism, elevated WBC count, elevated protein level, and decreased glucose level. Red blood cells should not be present in CSF.

The client is admitted to the hospital for observation with a probable minor head injury after an automobile crash. The nurse expects the cervical collar will remain in place until which time? 1.The client is taken for spinal x-rays. 2.The family comes to visit after surgery. 3.The nurse needs to provide physical care. 4.The primary health care provider (PHCP) reviews the x-ray results.

4.The primary health care provider (PHCP) reviews the x-ray results. There is a significant association between cervical spine injury and head injury. For this reason, the nurse leaves any form of spinal immobilization in place until lateral cervical spine x-rays rule out fracture or other damage and the results have been reviewed by the primary health care provider.

Which information will the nurse reinforce to the client scheduled for a lumbar puncture? 1.An informed consent will be required. 2.The test will probably take about 2 hours. 3.Food and fluids will be restricted until after the test is completed. 4.There is no need to maintain a supine position following the test

1.An informed consent will be required. Client preparation for lumbar puncture includes obtaining informed consent from the client. No dietary or food restrictions are required before the test. The client is told that the test will take approximately 15 to 60 minutes. The nurse needs to inform the client about the need to lie flat following the test.

The nurse has obtained a personal and family history from a client with a neurological disorder. Which finding in the client's history is least likely associated with a risk for neurological problems? 1.Allergy to pollen 2.Previous back injury 3.History of headaches 4.History of hypertension

1.Allergy to pollen Previous neurological problems such as headaches or back injuries place the client more at risk for development of a neurological disorder. Chronic diseases such as hypertension and diabetes mellitus also place the client at greater risk. Assessment of allergies is a routine part of the health history, regardless of the nature of the client's problem. In addition, an allergy to pollen would not place the client at risk for a neurological problem

The nurse is ambulating a client with a known seizure disorder. The client says, "I'm seeing those flashing lights again," then loses consciousness and develops a clonic-tonic seizure. Which would be the nurse's initial action? 1.Assist the client to the floor. 2.Administer a dose of phenytoin. 3.Stat page the primary health care provider. 4.Insert an oral airway into the client's mouth.

1.Assist the client to the floor. Assisting the client to the floor is the initial action to prevent client injury. Inserting an oral airway may actually cause harm to the client and no item should be inserted into the client's mouth during a seizure. Administering a dose of phenytoin requires a primary health care provider's prescription and would not be the first action. Stat paging the primary health care provider would not be the first action from the options provided

The nurse is preparing for the admission of a client with a suspected diagnosis of herpes simplex encephalitis. Which diagnostic test should be prescribed to confirm this diagnosis? 1.Brain biopsy 2.Lumbar puncture 3.Electroencephalogram (EEG) 4.Computed tomography (CT) scan

1.Brain biopsy The diagnosis of herpes simplex encephalitis can be made by brain biopsy and is rarely made from the culture of cerebrospinal fluid obtained from a lumbar puncture. The EEG is abnormal, in many cases, indicating temporal lobe abnormalities, but it will not confirm the diagnosis. The CT scan is normal up to the first 5 days, with low-density lesions in the temporal lobe noted later.

A client has a halo vest that was applied following a C6 spinal cord injury. The nurse performs which action to determine whether the client is ready to begin sitting up? 1.Puts both of the client's hip joints through full range of motion 2.Compares the client's pulse and blood pressure when both flat and sitting 3.Loosens the vest to gather data on the client's ability to support his own trunk 4.Inspects the halo vest pin sites to monitor for purulent drainage, redness, and pain

2.Compares the client's pulse and blood pressure when both flat and sitting Clients with cervical spinal cord injuries may lose control over peripheral vasoconstriction, causing postural (orthostatic) hypotension when upright. A drop of 15 mm Hg in the systolic pressure or 10 mm Hg in the diastolic pressure accompanied by an increase in heart rate when the head is elevated may indicate autonomic insufficiency that can cause dizziness or syncope in the upright position. Assessment of skin integrity of the pin sites is important but does not affect sitting readiness. Hip range of motion is not affected initially in this type of cord injury. The halo vest is not loosened by the nurse. The vest provides trunk stability for sitting

The nurse has applied a hypothermia blanket to a client with a fever. The nurse should inspect the skin frequently to detect which complications of hypothermia blanket use? Select all that apply. 1.Frostbite 2.Skin breakdown 3.Arterial insufficiency 4.Venous insufficiency 5.Diminished peripheral perfusion

2.Skin breakdown 5.Diminished peripheral perfusion When a hypothermia blanket is used, the skin is inspected frequently for pressure points that over time could lead to skin breakdown, and peripheral perfusion is observed to ascertain for signs of it being diminished. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not complications of hypothermia blanket use.

The nurse is suctioning an unconscious client who has a tracheostomy. The nurse should avoid which action during this procedure? 1.Keeping a supply of suction catheters at the bedside 2.Suctioning for longer than 30 seconds 3.Auscultating breath sounds to determine the need for suctioning 4.Hyperoxygenating the client before, during, and after suctioning

2.Suctioning for longer than 30 seconds Suction equipment should be kept at the bedside of an unconscious client, regardless of whether an artificial airway is present. The nurse auscultates breath sounds every 2 to 4 hours, or more frequently if there is a need. The client should be hyperoxygenated before, during, and after suctioning to minimize cerebral hypoxia. The client should not be suctioned for longer than 10 seconds at one time to prevent cerebral hypoxia and an increase in intracranial pressure

The nurse has instructed the client with myasthenia gravis about ways to manage his or her own health at home. The nurse determines that the client needs further teaching if the client makes which statement? 1."Here's the Medic-Alert bracelet I obtained." 2."I should take my medications an hour before mealtime." 3."Resting in a sauna will be a relaxing form of activity." 4."I've made arrangements to get a portable resuscitation bag and home suction equipment."

3."Resting in a sauna will be a relaxing form of activity." Most ongoing treatment for myasthenia gravis is done in outpatient settings, and the client needs to be aware of the lifestyle changes needed to maintain independence. Taking medications 1 hour before mealtime gives greater muscle strength for chewing and is indicated. The client should have portable suction equipment and a portable resuscitation bag available in case of respiratory distress. The client should carry medical identification about the condition. The client should avoid activities that could worsen the symptoms, including stress, infection, heat (including saunas, staying out of the sun at the beach), surgery, or alcohol.

The nurse has given instructions to the client with Parkinson's disease about maintaining mobility. The nurse determines that the client understands the directions if the client states that he or she will perform which activity? 1.Sit in soft, deep chairs. 2.Exercise in the evening to combat fatigue. 3.Rock back and forth to start movement slowly. 4.Buy clothes with many buttons to maintain finger dexterity.

3.Rock back and forth to start movement slowly. The client with Parkinson's disease should exercise in the morning, when energy levels are highest. The client should avoid sitting in soft, deep chairs because getting up from them can be difficult. The client can rock back and forth to initiate movement. The client should buy clothes with Velcro fasteners and slide-locking buckles to allow for easier dressing.

A client with a spinal cord injury expresses little interest in food and is very particular about the choice of meals that are actually eaten. How should the nurse interpret this? 1.Anorexia is a sign of clinical depression, and a referral to a psychologist is needed. 2.The client has compulsive habits that should be ignored as long as they are not harmful. 3.The client probably has a naturally slow metabolism, and the decreased nutritional intake won't matter. 4.Meal choices represent an area of client control and should be encouraged as much as is nutritionally reasonable.

4.Meal choices represent an area of client control and should be encouraged as much as is nutritionally reasonable. Depression is frequently seen in the client with spinal cord injury and may be exhibited as a loss of appetite. The client should be allowed to choose the types of food eaten and to eat as much as is feasible because it is one of the few areas of control that the client has left.

The nurse is planning care for a client who displays confusion secondary to a neurological problem. Which approach by the nurse would be least helpful in assisting this client? 1.Providing sensory cues 2.Giving simple, clear directions 3.Providing a stable environment 4.Encouraging multiple visitors at one time

4.Encouraging multiple visitors at one time Clients with cognitive impairment from neurological dysfunction respond best to a stable environment that is limited in the amounts and type of sensory input. The nurse can provide sensory cues and give clear, simple directions in a positive manner. Confusion and agitation can be minimized by reducing environmental stimuli (such as television, multiple visitors) and keeping familiar personal articles (such as family pictures) at the bedside.

The nurse is reinforcing instructions to the family of a stroke client who has homonymous hemianopsia about measures to help the client overcome the deficit. The nurse determines that the family understands the measures to use if they state that they will do which? 1.Place objects in the client's impaired field of vision. 2.Approach the client from the impaired field of vision. 3.Discourage the client from wearing his or her own eyeglasses. 4.Remind the client to turn the head to scan the lost visual field.

4.Remind the client to turn the head to scan the lost visual field. Homonymous hemianopsia is loss of half of the visual field. The client with homonymous hemianopsia should have objects placed in the intact field of vision, and the nurse should approach the client from the intact side. The nurse instructs the client to scan the environment to overcome the visual deficit and performs client teaching from within the intact field of vision. The nurse encourages the use of personal eyeglasses if they are available

The nurse reinforces home care instructions to the postcraniotomy client. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching? 1."I will not hear sounds clearly unless they are loud." 2."If I tend to have seizures or gets dizzy spells, someone should be with me while walking." 3."I need to use a check-off system for my anticonvulsant medications to avoid missing doses." 4."A tub bath or shower is permitted, but I need to keep my scalp dry until the sutures are removed."

1."I will not hear sounds clearly unless they are loud." Seizures are a complication that can occur for up to 1 year after surgery. For this reason, the client must diligently take anticonvulsant medications. The client and family are encouraged to keep track of doses administered. The family should learn seizure precautions and accompany the client while ambulating if dizziness or seizures tend to occur. The suture line is kept dry until sutures are removed to prevent infection. The postcraniotomy client can hear sounds, is typically sensitive to loud noises, and can find them irritating (e.g., loud television). Awareness control of environmental noise by others is helpful to this client

The nurse is monitoring a client with a C5 spinal cord injury for spinal shock. Which findings would be associated with spinal shock in this client? Select all that apply. 1.Bowel sounds are absent. 2.The client's abdomen is distended. 3.Respiratory excursion is diminished. 4.The blood pressure rises when the client sits up. 5.Accessory muscles of respiration are areflexic.

1.Bowel sounds are absent. 2.The client's abdomen is distended. 3.Respiratory excursion is diminished. 5.Accessory muscles of respiration are areflexic. During the period of areflexia that characterizes spinal shock, the blood pressure may fall when the client sits up. The bowel and bladder often become flaccid, may become distended, and fail to empty spontaneously. Bowel sounds would be absent. Accessory muscles of respiration may become areflexic as well, diminishing respiratory excursion and oxygenation.

A client with a stroke (brain attack) has residual dysphagia. When a diet prescription is initiated, the nurse should avoid which action? 1.Giving the client thin liquids 2.Thickening liquids to the consistency of oatmeal 3.Placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth 4.Allowing plenty of time for chewing and swallowing

1.Giving the client thin liquids Before the client with dysphagia is started on a diet, the gag and swallow reflexes must have returned. The client is assisted with meals as needed and is given ample time to chew and swallow. Food is placed on the unaffected side of the mouth. Liquids are thickened to avoid aspiration

A client with right leg hemiplegia is experiencing difficulty with mobility. The nurse determines that there is a need for further teaching if the nurse observes which action by the family? 1.Applying a premolded splint 2.Performing active ROM to the affected leg 3.Encouraging the client to stand unassisted on the leg 4.Providing passive range of motion (ROM) to the affected leg

3.Encouraging the client to stand unassisted on the leg The question is worded to elicit an unsafe action on the part of the family. Depending on the client's functional ability, either passive or active ROM is indicated to keep the joint moving freely. Application of a premolded splint would also keep the limb aligned and in good position. The client should not attempt to stand unsupported on a weak or paralyzed limb. The inability to bear weight will cause the client to fall

An older gentleman is brought to the emergency department by a neighbor who heard him talking and wandering in the street at 3 am. The nurse should first determine which about the client? 1.His insurance status 2.Blood toxicology levels 3.Whether he ate his evening meal 4.Whether this is a change in his usual level of orientation

4.Whether this is a change in his usual level of orientation The nurse should first determine whether this is a change in the client's neurological status. The next item to determine should include when the client last ate. Blood toxicology levels may be needed, but the primary health care provider would prescribe these. Insurance information must be obtained at some point, but it is not the priority from a clinical care viewpoint

The nurse caring for a client following a craniotomy monitors for signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which indicates an early sign of increased ICP? 1.Confusion 2.Bradycardia 3.Sluggish pupils 4.A widened pulse pressure

1.Confusion Early signs/symptoms of increased intracranial pressure are subtle and may often be transient, lasting for only a few minutes in some cases. These early clinical signs/symptoms include changes in level of consciousness, including episodes of confusion and drowsiness, and slight pupillary and breathing changes. Clinical signs/symptoms of later increased intracranial pressure include decreasing levels of consciousness, a widened pulse pressure, and bradycardia. Cheyne-Stokes respiratory pattern, or a hyperventilation respiratory pattern, and sluggish and dilating pupils appear in the later stages

The nurse is collecting data on a client suspected of having Alzheimer's disease. The priority data should focus on which characteristics of this disease? Select all that apply. 1.Difficulty learning 2.Recent memory loss 3.Problems with concrete thinking 4.Difficulty in performing new tasks 5.Problems with hearing and discriminating the spoken word from other sounds

1.Difficulty learning 2.Recent memory loss Dementia (difficulty learning and recent memory loss) is the hallmark of Alzheimer's disease. Recent memory loss (such as forgetting to turn off a stove after cooking) is one characteristic. Difficulty learning is another characteristic. Others include problems with abstract thinking, problems with speech (not hearing), and difficulty in performing familiar tasks.

The nurse is caring for a client with an intracranial aneurysm who was previously alert. Which findings are early indications that the level of consciousness (LOC) is deteriorating? Select all that apply. 1.Drowsiness 2.Clear speech 3.Less frequent speech 4.Ptosis of the left eyelid 5.Slight slurring of speech 6.Frequent spontaneous speech

1.Drowsiness 3.Less frequent speech 5.Slight slurring of speech Early changes in LOC relate to orientation, alertness, and verbal responsiveness. Less frequent speech, slight slurring of speech, and mild drowsiness are early signs of decreasing LOC. Ptosis of the eyelid is due to pressure on and dysfunction of cranial nerve III and does not relate to LOC.

The nurse is caring for a client who was diagnosed with Bell's palsy 1 week ago. Which data would indicate a potential complication associated with Bell's palsy? 1.Excessive tearing 2.Partial facial paralysis 3.The ability to taste food 4.Negative outcomes on the electromyography

1.Excessive tearing Complications of Bell's palsy include abnormal return of nerve function; "crocodile tears" (autonomic fibers reconnect to the lacrimal duct instead of the salivary glands, so the client develops excessive tearing while eating); abnormal facial movements because of reinnervation of inappropriate muscles; and spasms, atrophy, and contractures caused by incomplete motor fiber reinnervation. Partial facial paralysis is a factor indicating recovery. Negative outcomes on the electromyography performed 1 week after symptom onset indicate that nerve function is present (a negative test indicates a positive prognostic outcome). Tasting food 1 week after symptom onset indicates a good prognosis for recovery.

The nurse is assigned to care for an adult client who had a stroke and is aphasic. Which interventions should the nurse use for communicating with the client? Select all that apply. 1.Face the client when talking. 2.Speak slowly and maintain eye contact. 3.Use gestures when talking to enhance words. 4.Avoid the use of body language when talking to the client. 5.Give the client directions using short phrases and simple terms. 6.Phrase what was said differently the second time, if there is a need to repeat it.

1.Face the client when talking. 2.Speak slowly and maintain eye contact. 3.Use gestures when talking to enhance words. 5.Give the client directions using short phrases and simple terms. A client who is aphasic has difficulty expressing or understanding language. The nurse should face the client when talking, establish and maintain eye contact, and speak slowly and distinctly. The nurse should use gestures and pantomime when talking to enhance words and use body language to enhance the message. The nurse should give the client directions using short phrases and simple terms, and phrase questions so that they can be answered with a yes or no. If there is a need to repeat something, the nurse should use the same words a second time.

The family of an unconscious client with increased intracranial pressure is talking at the client's bedside. They are discussing the gravity of the client's condition and wondering if the client will ever recover. How should the nurse interpret the client's situation? 1.It is possible the client can hear the family. 2.The family needs immediate crisis intervention. 3.The client may have wanted a visit from the hospital chaplain. 4.The family could benefit from a conference with the primary health care provider.

1.It is possible the client can hear the family. Some clients who have awakened from an unconscious state report that they remember hearing specific voices and conversations. Family and staff should assume that the client's sense of hearing is still intact and act accordingly. Research has also demonstrated that positive outcomes are associated with coma stimulation, that is, speaking to and touching the client.

A client with myasthenia gravis is having difficulty speaking. The client's speech is dysarthric and has a nasal tone. The nurse should use which communication strategies when working with this client? Select all that apply. 1.Listening attentively 2.Encouraging the client to speak quickly 3.Asking yes and no questions when able 4.Using a communication board when necessary 5.Repeating what the client said to verify the message

1.Listening attentively 3.Asking yes and no questions when able 4.Using a communication board when necessary 5.Repeating what the client said to verify the message The client has speech that is nasal in tone and dysarthric because of cranial nerve involvement of the muscles governing speech. The nurse listens attentively and verbally, verifies what the client has said, asks questions requiring a yes or no response, and develops alternative communication methods (e.g., letter board, picture board, pen and paper, flash cards). Encouraging the client to speak quickly is an ineffective communication strategy and is counterproductive

The nurse observes that a client with Parkinson's disease has very little facial expression. The nurse attributes this piece of data to which information? 1.Masklike facies is a component of Parkinson's disease. 2.The client does not want her emotional reaction to the disease to show. 3.Clients with Parkinson's disease have diminished emotional involvement. 4.Clients with Parkinson's disease act very much like schizophrenics in that they have very little affect.

1.Masklike facies is a component of Parkinson's disease. A masked facial expression is typical of the client with Parkinson's disease. There are no data to support the assumption provided in option 2. Option 3 is not a true statement. Option 4 places a false interpretation on the client's expression.

The nurse is planning care for a client in spinal shock. Which action would be least helpful in minimizing the effects of vasodilation below the level of the injury? 1.Moving the client quickly as one unit 2.Using vasopressor medications, as prescribed 3.Applying compression stockings, as prescribed 4.Monitoring vital signs before and during position changes

1.Moving the client quickly as one unit Reflex vasodilation below the level of spinal cord injury places the client at risk of orthostatic hypotension, which may be profound. Actions to minimize this include measuring vital signs before and during position changes, use of a tilt table in early mobilization, and changing the client's position slowly. Venous pooling can be reduced by using compression stockings, if prescribed. Vasopressor medications are used as per protocol and as prescribed

The nurse is collecting data on a client with a diagnosis of meningitis and notes that the client is assuming this posture. (Refer to figure.) The nurse contacts the registered nurse and reports that the client is exhibiting which? 1.Opisthotonos 2.Decorticate rigidity 3.Decerebrate rigidity 4.Flaccid quadriplegia

1.Opisthotonos Opisthotonos is a prolonged arching of the back with the head and heels bent backward. Opisthotonos indicates meningeal irritation. In decorticate rigidity, the upper extremities (arms, wrists, and fingers) are flexed with adduction of the arms. The lower extremities are extended with internal rotation and plantar flexion. Decorticate rigidity indicates a hemispheric lesion of the cerebral cortex. In decerebrate rigidity, the upper extremities are stiffly extended and adducted with internal rotation and pronation of the palms. The lower extremities are extended stiffly with plantar flexion. The teeth are clenched and the back is hyperextended. Decerebrate rigidity indicates a lesion in the brainstem at the midbrain or upper pons. Flaccid quadriplegia is complete loss of muscle tone and paralysis of all four extremities, indicating a completely nonfunctional brainstem.

The nurse is preparing for the admission of a client with a prescription for seizure precautions. Which supplies will the nurse make available to this client? Select all that apply. 1.Oxygen 2.Suction machine 3.Prescribed diazepam 4.Prescribed divalproex 5.Arm and leg restraints 6.Padding for the side rails

1.Oxygen 2.Suction machine 3.Prescribed diazepam 6.Padding for the side rails Full seizure precautions include bed rest with padded side rails in a raised position, a suction machine at the bedside, having diazepam or lorazepam available, and oxygen. The client should not be restrained during a seizure. Divalproex is used to control absence, myoclonic, or akinetic seizures and would not be given to stop a seizure.

A client with a seizure disorder is being admitted to the hospital. Which should the nurse plan to implement for this client? Select all that apply. 1.Pad the bed's side rails. 2.Place an airway at the bedside. 3.Place oxygen equipment at the bedside. 4.Place suction equipment at the bedside. 5.Tape a padded tongue blade to the wall at the head of the bed.

1.Pad the bed's side rails. 2.Place an airway at the bedside. 3.Place oxygen equipment at the bedside. 4.Place suction equipment at the bedside The nurse should plan seizure precautions for a client with a seizure disorder. The precautions include padded side rails and an airway (to maintain airway patency if required), and oxygen and suction equipment at the bedside. Attempts to force a padded tongue blade between clenched teeth may result in injury to the teeth and mouth; therefore, a padded tongue blade is not placed at the bedside.

The nurse is providing care to a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which approaches would be beneficial in controlling the client's ICP from an environmental viewpoint? Select all that apply. 1.Reducing environmental noise 2.Maintaining a calm atmosphere 3.Allowing the client uninterrupted time for sleep 4.Clustering nursing activities to be done all at once 5.Keeping overhead lights on most of the day and night

1.Reducing environmental noise 2.Maintaining a calm atmosphere 3.Allowing the client uninterrupted time for sleep Nursing interventions should be spaced out over the shift to minimize the risk of a rise in ICP. If possible, activities known to raise ICP should be avoided when possible. Other interventions to control the ICP include keeping the lighting in the room dim or off; maintaining a calm, quiet environment; and avoiding emotional stress and interruption of sleep

The nurse is caring for a client who begins to experience seizure activity while in bed. Which actions by the nurse would be contraindicated? Select all that apply. 1.Restrain the client's limbs. 2.Loosen restrictive clothing. 3.Consider insertion of a padded tongue blade. 4.Remove the pillow and raise the padded side rails. 5.Position the client to the side, if possible, with head flexed forward.

1.Restrain the client's limbs. 3.Consider insertion of a padded tongue blade. Nursing actions during a seizure include providing privacy; loosening restrictive clothing; removing the pillow and raising the padded side rails in bed; and placing the client on one side with the head flexed forward, if possible, to allow the tongue to fall forward and facilitate drainage. The limbs are never restrained because the strong muscle contractions could cause the client harm. If the client is not in bed when seizure activity begins, the nurse lowers the client to the floor, if possible; protects the head against injury; and moves furniture that may injure the client. Padded tongue blades should not be inserted into the mouth during a seizure

The nurse is reviewing the record of a client with a suspected diagnosis of Huntington's disease. Which documented symptoms support this diagnosis? Select all that apply. 1.Vertigo 2.Confusion 3.Flat affect 4.Balance and coordination problems 5.Difficulty remembering new information

1.Vertigo 4.Balance and coordination problems Early symptoms of Huntington's disease include restlessness, forgetfulness, clumsiness, falls, balance and coordination problems, vertigo, and altered speech and handwriting. Difficulty with swallowing occurs in the later stages. Confusion and difficulty remembering new information are signs of Alzheimer's disorder. Flat affect is a sign of Parkinson's.

The nurse is planning care for the client with hemiparesis of the right arm and leg. Where should the nurse plan to place objects needed by the client? 1.Within the client's reach, on the left side 2.Within the client's reach, on the right side 3.Just out of the client's reach, on the left side 4.Just out of the client's reach, on the right side

1.Within the client's reach, on the left side Hemiparesis is a weakness of the face, arm, and leg on one side. The client with one-sided hemiparesis benefits from having objects placed on the unaffected side and within reach. Other helpful activities with hemiparesis include range-of-motion exercises to the affected side and muscle-strengthening exercises to the unaffected side.

A client experiences an episode of Bell's palsy and complains about increasing clumsiness. The nurse should prepare the client for which diagnostic study (studies) to determine the cause of the complaints? Select all that apply. 1.Serum sodium level 2.Cerebral angiography 3.Lumbar puncture (LP) 4.Oculovestibular reflex 5.Electroencephalogram 6.Computed tomography

2.Cerebral angiography 3.Lumbar puncture (LP) 6.Computed tomography Bell's palsy can be caused by inflammation or a lesion of the facial nerve, and when the client presents with both Bell's palsy and increasing clumsiness, the health care team suspects more diffuse central nervous system lesions. The client should be referred to a neurologist or otolaryngologist as soon as possible to exclude other neurologic conditions. The most sensitive and specific tests that provide relevant diagnostic information for these types of pathology are cerebral angiography, LP, and computed tomography (options 2, 3, 6). The imaging studies illustrate central nervous system lesions, and the LP enables the care provider to analyze cerebrospinal fluid for immunoglobulins (antibodies) and other components. Because the client's neurological problem is unlikely to be metabolic, the sodium level is unlikely to be helpful (option 1). Usually electroencephalogram and oculovestibular reflex are tests reserved to evaluate electrical activity of the brain in seizure disorders and to determine brain death (option 4 and 5). In addition, the oculovestibular reflex is not performed on a client who is conscious.

A client admitted to the hospital with a neurological problem indicates to the nurse that magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) may be done. Which findings noted in the client history indicates that the client may be ineligible for this diagnostic procedure? Select all that apply. 1.Hypertension 2.Hip replacement 3.Permanent pacemaker 4.Prosthetic valve replacement 5.Chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder

2.Hip replacement 3.Permanent pacemaker 4.Prosthetic valve replacement The client having an MRI must have all metallic objects removed because of the magnetic field generated by the device. A careful history is done to determine if any metal objects are inside the client, such as orthopedic hardware, pacemakers, artificial heart valves, aneurysm clips, or intrauterine devices. These may heat up, become dislodged, or malfunction during this procedure. The client may be ineligible if there is significant risk.

The client has clear fluid leaking from the nose after a basilar skull fracture. The nurse determines that this is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) if the fluid meets which criteria? 1.Is grossly bloody in appearance and has a pH of 6 2.Clumps together on the dressing and has a pH of 7 3.Is clear in appearance and tests negative for glucose 4.Separates into concentric rings and tests positive for glucose

4.Separates into concentric rings and tests positive for glucose Leakage of CSF from the ears or nose may accompany basilar skull fracture. It can be distinguished from other body fluids because the drainage will separate into bloody and yellow concentric rings on dressing material, which is known as the halo sign. It also tests positive for glucose. Options 1, 2, and 3 are not characteristics of CSF.

The nurse notes documentation that a postcraniotomy client is having difficulty with body image. The nurse determines that the client is still working on the postoperative outcome criteria when the client indicates which altered personal appearance? 1.Wears a turban to cover the incision 2.Indicates that facial puffiness will be a permanent problem 3.Verbalizes that periorbital bruising will disappear over time 4.States an intention to purchase a hairpiece until the hair has grown back

2.Indicates that facial puffiness will be a permanent problem After craniotomy, the client may experience difficulty with altered personal appearance. The nurse can help by listening to the client's concerns and by clarifying any misconceptions about facial edema, periorbital bruising, and hair loss, which are temporary. The nurse can encourage the client to participate in self-grooming and use personal articles of clothing. Finally, the nurse can suggest the use of a turban, followed by a hairpiece, to help the client adapt to the temporary change in appearance

The nurse is assisting in caring for a client with a suspected diagnosis of meningitis. The nurse reinforces to the client information regarding which diagnostic test that is commonly used to confirm this diagnosis? 1.Urine culture 2.Lumbar puncture 3.Serum electrolytes 4.White blood cell (WBC) count

2.Lumbar puncture Meningitis is an acute or chronic inflammation of the meningeal area and the cerebrospinal fluid. The key diagnostic test used in meningitis is the lumbar puncture. The remaining options also may be performed but will not confirm the diagnosis.

The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Which initial sign/symptom of this disorder supports this diagnosis? 1.Muscle wasting 2.Mild clumsiness 3.Altered mentation 4.Diminished gag reflex

2.Mild clumsiness The initial manifestation of ALS is a mild clumsiness usually in the distal portion of one extremity. The client may complain of tripping and may drag one leg when the lower extremities are involved. Mentation and intellectual function are usually normal. Diminished gag reflex and muscle wasting are not initial clinical signs/symptoms.

The client was seen and treated in the emergency department (ED) for a concussion. Before discharge, the nurse explains the signs/symptoms of a worsening condition. The nurse determines that the family needs further teaching if they state they will return to the ED if the client experiences which sign/symptom? 1.Vomiting 2.Minor headache 3.Difficulty speaking 4.Difficulty awakening

2.Minor headache A concussion after head injury is a temporary loss of consciousness (from a few seconds to a few minutes) without evidence of structural damage. After concussion, the family is taught to monitor the client and call the PHCP or return the client to the emergency department if certain signs and symptoms are noted. These include confusion, difficulty awakening or speaking, one-sided weakness, vomiting, or severe headache. Minor headache is expected.

Which signs/symptoms are observed in the clonic phase of a seizure? Select all that apply 1.Body stiffening 2.Muscular relaxation 3.Sudden loss of consciousness 4.Brief flexion of the extremities 5.Extension spasms of the body 6.Contortion of the face with eye rolling

2.Muscular relaxation 5.Extension spasms of the body 6.Contortion of the face with eye rolling The clonic phase of a seizure is characterized by violent extension spasms of the entire body interrupted by muscular relaxation and accompanied by strenuous hyperventilation. The face is contorted and the eyes roll. There is excessive salivation resulting in frothing from the mouth, biting of the tongue, profuse sweating, and a rapid pulse. The clonic jerking subsides by slowing in frequency and losing strength over a period of 30 seconds. Options 1, 3, and 4 identify the tonic phase of a seizure

A client receives a dose of edrophonium. The client shows improvement in muscle strength for a period of time following the injection. The nurse should interpret this finding as indicative of which disease process? 1.Multiple sclerosis 2.Myasthenia gravis 3.Muscular dystrophy 4.Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

2.Myasthenia gravis Myasthenia gravis can often be diagnosed based on clinical signs and symptoms. The diagnosis can be confirmed by injecting the client with a dose of edrophonium. This medication inhibits the breakdown of an enzyme in the neuromuscular junction, so more acetylcholine binds to receptors. If the muscle is strengthened for 3 to 5 minutes after this injection, it confirms a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. Another medication, neostigmine, also may be used because its effect lasts for 1 to 2 hours, providing a better analysis. For either medication, atropine sulfate should be available as the antidote

A client is recovering at home after suffering a brain attack (stroke) 2 weeks ago. A home caregiver tells the home health nurse that the client has some difficulty swallowing food and fluids. Which nursing action would be appropriate? 1.Observe the caregiver feeding the client. 2.Observe the client feeding himself or herself. 3.Arrange for a home health aide to assist at mealtimes. 4.Instruct the caregiver to use a feeding syringe to feed the client.

2.Observe the client feeding himself or herself. It is not uncommon for a client to have difficulty swallowing after having a brain attack (stroke). Often the client has hemiplegia. The client's arm may be paralyzed, and the client has to learn to use an opposite arm to feed himself or herself. Using a different arm may require rehabilitation and retraining. Also a client may have partial paralysis of the mouth, tongue, or esophagus. To best assist the client, the nurse should first assess the situation by watching the client feed himself or herself. Perhaps the problem lies in the feeding technique, the type of feeding tool used, the types of foods being served, or a combination of problems. Having someone else feed the client may be necessary if the client is determined to be unable to feed himself or herself, but this action does not promote independence in the client. A feeding syringe is not recommended for feeding most clients.

The nurse is trying to communicate with a stroke (brain attack) client with aphasia. Which action by the nurse would be least helpful to the client? 1.Speaking to the client at a slower rate 2.Allowing plenty of time for the client to respond 3.Completing the sentences that the client cannot finish 4.Looking directly at the client during attempts at speech

3.Completing the sentences that the client cannot finish Clients with aphasia after stroke often fatigue easily and have a short attention span. General guidelines when trying to communicate with the aphasic client include speaking more slowly and allowing adequate response time, listening to and watching attempts to communicate, and trying to put the client at ease with a caring and understanding manner. The nurse should avoid shouting (because the client is not deaf), appearing impatient for a response, and completing responses for the client

The nurse is planning to institute seizure precautions for a client who is being admitted from the emergency department. Which measure should the nurse avoid in planning for the client's safety? 1.Padding the side rails of the bed 2.Putting a padded tongue blade at the head of the bed 3.Placing an airway, oxygen, and suction equipment at the bedside 4.Having intravenous (IV) equipment ready for insertion of IV access

2.Putting a padded tongue blade at the head of the bed Seizure precautions may vary somewhat from agency to agency, but they generally have some commonalities. Usually airway, oxygen, and suctioning equipment are kept available at the bedside. The side rails of the bed are padded, and the bed is kept in the lowest position. The client should have an IV access in place to have a readily accessible route if anticonvulsant medications must be administered. The use of padded tongue blades is no longer best practice, and they should not be kept at the bedside. Forcing a tongue blade into the mouth during a seizure will more likely harm the client who bites down during seizure activity. Other risks include blocking the airway from improper placement, chipping the client's teeth, and subsequent risk of aspirating tooth fragments. If the client has an aura before the seizure, it may give the nurse enough time to place an advanced airway before seizure activity begins

A client is suspected of having a diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS). Which findings would support a diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome? Select all that apply. 1.Permanent paralysis of the legs 2.Visual and hearing disturbances 3.Decreased level of consciousness 4.Decreased intellectual functioning 5.Ascending symmetrical muscle weakness

2.Visual and hearing disturbances 5.Ascending symmetrical muscle weakness Guillain-Barré syndrome may affect cranial nerves resulting in visual and hearing disturbances. It is characterized by symmetrical muscle weakness that typically begins in the lower extremities and ascends to the trunk and upper extremities. Approximately 95% of patients with GBS have a nearly complete recovery. Despite all the motor and sensory changes, level of consciousness and intellectual functioning remain unchanged.

The nurse is monitoring a client with a head injury and notes that the client is assuming the posture shown in the figure. What is the client exhibiting that would require the nurse to notify the registered nurse immediately? Refer to the figure. 1.Opisthotonos 2.Flaccid quadriplegia 3.Decorticate posturing 4.Decerebrate posturing

3.Decorticate posturing In decorticate posturing, the upper extremities (arms, wrists, and fingers) are flexed with adduction of the arms. The lower extremities are extended with internal rotation and plantar flexion. Decorticate posturing indicates a hemispheric lesion of the cerebral cortex. In decerebrate posturing, the upper extremities are extended stiffly and adducted with internal rotation and pronation of the palms. The lower extremities are extended stiffly with plantar flexion. The teeth are clenched and the back is hyperextended. Decerebrate posturing indicates a lesion in the brainstem at the midbrain or upper pons. Flaccid quadriplegia is complete loss of muscle tone and paralysis of all four extremities, indicating a completely nonfunctional brainstem. Opisthotonos is prolonged arching of the back with the head and heels bent backward. Opisthotonos indicates meningeal irritation

Acetazolamide is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of a supratentorial lesion. The nurse monitors the client for effectiveness of this medication, knowing which is its primary action? 1.Prevent hypertension 2.Prevent hyperthermia 3.Decrease cerebrospinal fluid production 4.Maintain an adequate blood pressure for cerebral perfusion

3.Decrease cerebrospinal fluid production Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor. It is used in the client with, or at risk for, increased intracranial pressure to decrease cerebrospinal fluid production. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not actions of this medication.

A client with Parkinson's disease is embarrassed about the symptoms of the disorder and is bored and lonely. The nurse should plan which approach as therapeutic in assisting the client to cope with the disease? 1.Plan only a few activities for the client during the day. 2.Cluster activities at the end of the day when the client is most bored. 3.Encourage and praise perseverance in exercising and performing ADL. 4.Assist the client with activities of daily living (ADL) as much as possible.

3.Encourage and praise perseverance in exercising and performing ADL. The client with Parkinson's disease tends to become withdrawn and depressed and therefore should become an active participant in his or her own care to prevent this. Activities should be planned throughout the day to prevent daytime sleeping and boredom. The nurse gives the client encouragement and praises the client for perseverance. Activities such as exercise help prevent progression of the disease, and self-care improves self-esteem.

A client with a neurological impairment experiences urinary incontinence. Which nursing action should help the client adapt to this alteration? 1.Using adult diapers 2.Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter 3.Establishing a toileting schedule 4.Padding the bed with an absorbent cotton pad

3.Establishing a toileting schedule A bladder retraining program, such as use of a toileting schedule, may be helpful to clients experiencing urinary incontinence. An indwelling urinary catheter should be used only when necessary because of risk of infection. Use of diapers or pads is the least acceptable alternative because the risk of skin breakdown exists.

The nurse is caring for a client who has undergone craniotomy with a supratentorial incision. The nurse should plan to place the client in which position postoperatively? 1.Head of bed flat, head and neck midline 2.Head of bed flat, head turned to the nonoperative side 3.Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees, head and neck midline 4.Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees, head turned to the operative side

3.Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees, head and neck midline Following supratentorial surgery, the head of the bed is kept at a 30- to 45-degree angle. The head and neck should not be angled either anteriorly or laterally, but rather should be kept in a neutral (midline) position. This will promote venous return through the jugular veins, which will help prevent a rise in intracranial pressure.

The nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client taking divalproex sodium. The nurse tells the client to return to the clinic for follow-up laboratory studies related to which test? 1.Electrolyte studies 2.Glucose tolerance test 3.Liver function studies 4.Renal function studies

3.Liver function studies Divalproex sodium, an anticonvulsant, can cause hepatotoxicity, which is potentially fatal. The nurse instructs the client to return to the clinic for follow-up liver function studies, such as lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT), serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT), and ammonia levels. This is especially indicated in the first 6 months of therapy. The laboratory studies identified in the other options are not specifically related to the administration of this medication

A client is admitted to the emergency department with a C4 spinal cord injury. The nurse performs which intervention first when collecting data on the client? 1.Taking the temperature 2.Observing for dyskinesia 3.Monitoring the respiratory rate 4.Checking extremity muscle strength

3.Monitoring the respiratory rate Because respiratory compromise is a leading cause of death in cervical spinal cord injury, respiratory assessment is the highest priority. Assessment of temperature and strength can be done after adequate oxygenation is assured. Dyskinesia occurs in cerebellar disorders, so it is not important in cord-injured clients, unless a head injury is suspected.

The clinic nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client scheduled to be seen in the clinic. The nurse notes that the client is prescribed selegiline hydrochloride. The nurse understands that this medication is prescribed for which disorder? 1.Anxiety 2.Alzheimer's disease 3.Parkinson's disease 4.Myasthenia gravis

3.Parkinson's disease Selegiline hydrochloride is an antiparkinsonian medication. The medication increases dopaminergic action, assisting in the reduction of tremor, akinesia, and the rigidity of parkinsonism. This medication is not used to treat anxiety, myasthenia gravis, or Alzheimer's disease

A client has an impairment of cranial nerve II. Specific to this impairment, the nurse plans to do which to ensure client safety? 1.Speak loudly to the client. 2.Place the client on aspiration precautions. 3.Provide a clear path for ambulation without obstacles. 4.Prohibit intensely smelling foods such as onions and tuna.

3.Provide a clear path for ambulation without obstacles. Cranial nerve II is the optic nerve, which governs vision. The nurse can provide safety for the visually impaired client by clearing the path of obstacles when ambulating. Testing the shower water temperature would be useful if there were impairment of peripheral nerves. Speaking loudly may help overcome a deficit of cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear). Cranial nerves VII (facial) and IX (glossopharyngeal) control taste from the anterior two thirds and posterior one third of the tongue, respectively.

The nurse is assisting with caring for a client after a craniotomy. Which are the positions that can be used for the client? Select all that apply. 1.Prone position 2.Supine position 3.Semi-Fowler's position 4.Dorsal recumbent position 5.With the foot of the bed flat 6.With the foot of the bed elevated 30 degrees

3.Semi-Fowler's position 5.With the foot of the bed flat After a craniotomy, the client is at risk for developing complications of increased intracranial pressure and cerebral edema. The head of the bed is elevated 30 degrees (semi-Fowler's position), and the client's head is maintained in a midline, neutral position to facilitate venous drainage. The foot of the bed should be flat because flexion at the hips will impair venous drainage. Blocking venous drainage increases the risk for increased intracranial pressure and cerebral edema. Remember there are no valves in the veins that drain the head.

The nursing instructor asks a nursing student about the points to document if the client has had a seizure. The instructor determines that the student needs to research seizures and related documentation points if the student states which assessment is important? 1.Duration of the seizure 2.Changes in pupil size or eye deviation 3.Seizure progression and type of movements 4.Client's diet in the 2 hours preceding seizure activity

4.Client's diet in the 2 hours preceding seizure activity Typically, seizure assessment includes the time the seizure began, part(s) of the body affected, the type of movements and progression of the seizure, changes in pupil size, eye deviation or nystagmus, client condition and vital signs during the seizure, and postictal status.

The nurse is preparing to give the postcraniotomy client medication for incisional pain. The family asks the nurse why the client is receiving codeine sulfate and not "something stronger." The nurse should formulate a response based on which understanding of codeine? 1.Codeine is one of the strongest opioid analgesics available. 2.Codeine cannot lead to physical or psychological dependence. 3.Codeine does not cause gastrointestinal upset or constipation as do other opioids. 4.Codeine does not alter respirations or mask neurological signs as do other opioids.

4.Codeine does not alter respirations or mask neurological signs as do other opioids. Codeine sulfate is the opioid analgesic often used for clients after craniotomy. It is frequently combined with a nonopioid analgesic such as acetaminophen for added effect. It does not alter the respiratory rate or mask neurological signs as do other opioids. Side effects of codeine include gastrointestinal upset and constipation. The medication can lead to physical and psychological dependence with chronic use. It is not the strongest opioid analgesic available

The client with a cervical spine injury has Crutchfield tongs applied in the emergency department. The nurse should perform which essential action when caring for this client? 1.Providing a standard bed frame 2.Removing the weights to reposition the client 3.Removing the weights if the client is uncomfortable 4.Comparing the amount of prescribed weights with the amount in use

4.Comparing the amount of prescribed weights with the amount in use Crutchfield tongs are applied after drilling holes in the client's skull under local anesthesia. Weights are attached to the tongs, which exert pulling pressure on the longitudinal axis of the cervical spine. The nurse ensures that weights hang freely and that the amount of weight matches the current prescription. The client with Crutchfield tongs is placed on a Stryker frame or Roto-Rest bed. The nurse does not remove the weights to administer care or change the level of tension or traction based on client comfort level

The nurse is admitting a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome to the nursing unit. The client has an ascending paralysis to the level of the waist. Knowing the complications of the disorder, the nurse should bring which items into the client's room? 1.Nebulizer and pulse oximeter 2.Blood pressure cuff and flashlight 3.Flashlight and incentive spirometer 4.Electrocardiographic monitoring electrodes and intubation tray

4.Electrocardiographic monitoring electrodes and intubation tray The client with Guillain-Barré syndrome is at risk for respiratory failure because of ascending paralysis. An intubation tray should be available for use. Another complication of this syndrome is cardiac dysrhythmia, which necessitates the use of electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring. Because the client is immobilized, the nurse should routinely assess for deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism

A client with Parkinson's disease is experiencing a parkinsonian crisis. The nurse should immediately place the client where? 1.In a bed with padded side rails, with limb restraints nearby 2.In a room near the nurses' station that is near the code cart 3.In a high-Fowler's position, with a nasogastric tube at the bedside 4.In a quiet, dim room with respiratory and cardiac support available

4.In a quiet, dim room with respiratory and cardiac support available Parkinsonian crisis can occur with emotional trauma or sudden withdrawal of medications. The client exhibits severe tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. The client also displays anxiety, is diaphoretic, and has tachycardia and hyperpnea (tachypnea). The client should be placed in a quiet, dim room, and respiratory and cardiac support should be available.

The client with spinal cord injury is prone to experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. The least appropriate measure to minimize the risk of autonomic dysreflexia is which action? 1.Strictly adhering to a bowel retraining program 2.Keeping the linen wrinkle-free under the client 3.Avoiding unnecessary pressure on the lower limbs 4.Limiting bladder catheterization to once every 12 hours

4.Limiting bladder catheterization to once every 12 hours The most frequent cause of autonomic dysreflexia is a distended bladder. Straight catheterization should be performed every 4 to 6 hours, and indwelling bladder catheters should be checked frequently for kinks in the tubing. It is not appropriate to catheterize the client every 12 hours. Constipation and fecal impaction are other causes, so maintaining bowel regularity is important. Other causes include stimulation of the skin from tactile, thermal, or painful stimuli. The nurse administers care to minimize risk in these areas

The nurse is planning to put aneurysm precautions in place for the client with a cerebral aneurysm. Which item should be included as part of the precautions? 1.Limiting cigarettes to 3 per day 2.Allowing out-of-bed activities as tolerated 3.Allowing 1 cup of caffeinated coffee per day 4.Maintaining the head of the bed at 15 degrees

4.Maintaining the head of the bed at 15 degrees Aneurysm precautions include placing the client on bed rest with the head of the bed elevated in a quiet setting. Lights are kept dim to minimize environmental stimulation. Any activity such as pushing, pulling, sneezing, coughing, or straining that increases blood pressure or impedes venous return from the brain is prohibited. The nurse provides all physical care to minimize increases in blood pressure. For the same reason, visitors, radio, television, and reading materials are prohibited or limited. Stimulants such as caffeine and nicotine are prohibited; decaffeinated coffee or tea may be given.

The nurse is teaching the client with myasthenia gravis about prevention of myasthenic and cholinergic crises. The nurse tells the client that this is most effectively done by which activity? 1.Eating large, well-balanced meals 2.Doing muscle-strengthening exercises 3.Doing all chores early in the day while less fatigued 4.Taking medications on time to maintain therapeutic blood levels

4.Taking medications on time to maintain therapeutic blood levels Clients with myasthenia gravis are taught to space out activities over the day to conserve energy and restore muscle strength. It is very important to take medications correctly to maintain blood levels that are not too low or too high. Muscle-strengthening exercises are not helpful and can fatigue the client. Overeating is a cause of exacerbation of symptoms as are exposure to heat, crowds, erratic sleep habits, and emotional stress