NCLEX PN - Nutrition NCLEX Questions
the nurse is preparing to administer a continuous tube feeding to a client with a nasogastric tube. the healthcare provider has prescribed an amount of 100 mL/hr. how much formula should the nurse plan to add to fill the feeding bag? A) 400 mL of formula B) 600 mL of formula C) 800 mL of formula D) enough formula to last for 8 hours
C) 800 mL of formula rationale feeding can be hung at room temperature for a period of 4 hours. if 100 mL/ hr is prescribed, the nurse should fill the feeding bag with a maximum amount of 400 mL. Feeding hung longer than 4 hours at room temperature creates the risk of bacterial invasion in the formula.
the nurse is developing a nutritional plan for an assigned client. which is the most critical piece of data to collect before formulating the plan? A) a dietary diary B) food preferences C) the presence of food allergies D) lack of a facilitative eating environment
C) the presence of food allergies rationale the presence of food allergies is critical to know before developing a nutritional plan. the items listed in the other options also provide good information but are not as crucial as the presence of food allergies
a postoperative client has been placed on a clear liquid diet. Which items is the client allowed to consume. Select all that apply Broth Coffee Gelatin Pudding Ice Cream Vegetable Juice
Broth // coffee // gelatin rationale a clear liquid diet consists of foods that are relatively transparent to light and are clear and liquid at room and body temperature. these foods include water, bouilon, clear broth, carbonated beverages, gelatin, hard candy, lemonade, popsicles, and regular or decaffeniated coffee. the incorrect food items are allowed on a full liquid diet.
a client receiving total parenteral nutrition complains of nausea, excessive thirst, and increased frequency of voiding. the nurse should initially review which client data? A) rectal temperature B) last serum potassium level C) capillary blood glucose level D) serum blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
C) capillary blood glucose level rationale the symptoms exhibited by the client are consistent with hyperglycemia. the nurse would need to check the client's blood glucose level to verify this. clients receiving parenteral nutrition are at risk for hyperglycemia related to increased glucose load of the solution. the other options would not provide any information that would correlate with the clients symptoms
the nurse is asked to assist with preparing a client who will be receiving a total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution via a central line. The nurse plans to obtain which essential piece of equipment for this procedure? A) urine test strips B) blood glucose meter C) electronic infusion pump D) noninvasive blood pressure monitor
C) electronic infusion pump rationale the nurse obtains an electronic infusion pump in preparation for the administration of TPN. it is necessary to use an infusion pump to ensure that the solution does not infuse too rapidly or fall too far behind. Because the client's blood glucose level is monitored every 6 to 8 hours during the administration of TPN, a blood glucose meter will also be needed, bu this is not the most essential item. Use of urine test strips to measure spilled glucose is not necessary and is not an accurate measure of a complication. A noninvasive blood pressure cuff is unnecessary for this procedure.
the mother of an infant newly diagnosed with cystic fibrosis is being taught proper nutritional needs for the infant. the nurse determines that the mother understands nutritional needs when the mother gives which response? A) i know that my infant needs to drink predigested formula until she has her stool pattern developed B) when I begin feeding my infant cereal, I will make sure to warm the cereal and administer the pancreatic enzyme mixed in C) i know i need to monitor my infant's stools and if there are more than four stools a day, i will increase the pancreatic enzyme D) i will make sure that I give my infant fat-free milk as a supplement to her predigested formula, because she is not able to digest fat
C) i know i need to monitor my infant's stools, and if there are more than four stools a day, I will increase the pancreatic enzyme rationale cystic fibrosis requires a high-calorie, high-protein diet with pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy the infant needs to remain on the predigested formula until 1 year of age when formula can be discontinued and then fat-free milk consumed. the pancreatic enzyme should not be mixed with warmed foods because this inactivates the enzyme. stools must be monitored, and pancreatic enzymes are administered based on the stool patterns
a newly pregnant client is asking how to prevent neural-tube birth defects. Which food choice should the nurse recommend? A) milk B) peanuts C) oranges D) egg yolks
C) oranges rationale folic acid (folate) helps prevent neural-tube birth defects; it is found in green, leafy vegetables; liver, beef, and fish; legumes; and grapefruit and oranges. Peanuts are high in protein and niacin. Milk is high in carbohydrates and vitamin D. Egg yolks are high in vitamin A, iron and cholesterol.
the nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent tube feeding to a client. the nurse aspirates 90 mL of residual tube feeding. which action should the nurse take with the aspirated residual? A) contact the health care provider B) flush it down the toilet and hold the feeding C) reinstill the residual and administer the feeding D) deduct the amount of the residual from the new feeding and administer that amount to the client
C) reinstill the residual and administer the feeding rationale unless otherwise instructed (or per agency policy) a residual amount of less than 100 mL may be reinstilled and the prescribed amount of tube feeding administered. it is important to return the contents to the stomach to prevent electrolyte imbalances. therefore the other options are incorrect
the nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent tube feeding to a client. The nurse aspirates 90 mL of residual from the tube. What should the nurse do with the aspirated residual? A) hold the feeding B) place it into a container for lab analysis C) reinstill the residual and administer the feeding D) deduct the amount of the residual from the new feeding and administer that amount to the client
C) reinstill the residual and administer the feeding rationale: unless otherwise instructed or if the residual contents appear abnormal, an amount of less than 100 mL may be reinstituted; then a normal amount of prescribed tube feeding is administered. It is important to return the contents to the stomach to prevent electrolyte imbalances. therefore options A, B, and D are incorrect
the nurse is reinforcing diet teaching for a client on a low-sodium diet for hypertension. the nurse determines that the client needs further teaching when the client makes which statement? A) this diet will help lower my blood pressure B) the reason i need to lower salt intake is to reduce fluid retention C) this diet is not a replacement for my antihypertensive medications D) canned foods are inexpensive and are good to use on a low-sodium diet
D) canned foods are inexpensive and are good to use on a low-sodium diet rationale a low-sodium diet is used as an adjunct to antihypertensive medications for the treatment of hypertension. sodium retains fluid, which leads to hypertension secondary to increased fluid volume. canned foods use salt as a preservative and should not be encouraged as part of a low-sodium diet. lifelong medication is necessary in the treatment of hypertension
a client is admitted to a long-term care facility with the diagnosis of weight loss secondary to anorexia. the health care provider inserts a nasogastric tube and prescribes a tube feeding of a standard formula feeding to run at 50 ml/hr the nurse plans care, knowing that which is true regarding enteral feedings? A) enteral feedings are a frequent cause of sepsis B) tube feedings should be refrigerated until just before use C) the caloric value of enteral feedings is generally 5 to 10 kcal/ml D) enteral feedings require the normal digestive capabilities of the GI tract
D) enteral feedings require the normal digestive capabilities of the GI tract rationale enteral nutrition can include providing nutrients by mouth, nasogastric tube, gastrostomy tubes or a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostromy tube (PEG tube) the common element in each of these methods of delivery is that the client must have normal GI digestive capabilities if the client does not have a normal GI tract, other methods of nutrient delivery must be sought, such as parenteral nutrition. enteral feedings may cause aspiration pneumonia because of regurgitation of formula into the lungs; however, they are not generally associated with sepsis. tube feedings should be given at room temperature to avoid problems with diarrhea. the caloric value of most standard enteral feeding formulas is 1 to 2 kcal/ml
a clear liquid diet has been prescribed for a client with gastroenteritis. Which item is appropriate to offer to the client? A) soft custard B) orange juice C) clam chowder D) fat-free beef broth
D) fat-free beef broth rationale: a clear liquid diet consists of foods that are relatively transparent. Soft custard and orange juice would be included in a full liquid diet because they are opaque, not clear. Clam chowder is opaque and also includes pieces of clams, thus eliminating it from a full liquid diet.
the nurse is caring for a client following a total hip replacement. the client has been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. the nurse instructs the client to increase intake of which foods? A) milk and yogurt B) potatoes and carrots C) apples and mangos D) lean beef and chicken liver
D) lean beef and chicken liver rationale the client with iron deficiency anemia should increase intake of foods that are naturally high in iron. the best sources of dietary iron are red meat, liver, and other organ meats, blackstrap molasses, and oysters. milk products are lowest in iron of all the food sources listed
the nurse is instructing a client on how to decrease the intake of magnesium in the diet. the nurse tells the client that which food item contains the least amount of magnesium? A) spinach B) broccoli C)peanut butter D) processed drinking water
D) processed drinking water rationale drinking water that has been processed through a water softener is low in magnesium. peanut butter, spinach, and broccoli are magnesium-containing foods and should be avoided by the client on a magnesium-restricted diet
the nurse needs to increase the calcium in the diet of a client who is lactose intolerant. Which food items should the nurse encourage? Select all that apply Milk Tofu Cheese Broccoli Sardines Mustard Greens
tofu // broccoli // sardines // mustard greens rationale: lactose-intolerant clients should not eat dairy products. Therefore, these clients need high-calcium foods from nondairy sources. Tofu, broccoli, mustard greens, and sardines are foods that are high in calcium that do not come from dairy sources. Although milk and cheese are high in calcium, they are dairy products, which lactose-intolerant clients need to avoid.
a client with hypertension has been prescribed a low-sodium diet. the nurse teaching the client about foods that are allowed should include which food in a list provided to the client? A) tomato soup B) boiled shrimp C) instant oatmeal D) summer squash
D) summer squash rationale foods that are lower in sodium are fruits and vegetables (option D) because they do not contain physiological saline. highly processed or refined foods (options A and C) are higher in sodium unless they are noted specifically to be "low sodium" saltwater fish and shellfish are high in sodium
a client is receiving an enteral feeding that delivers 1.5 calories/mL the feeding is infusing at 30 ml/hr via a feeding pump. which is the maximal amount of calories the client should receive in an 8-hour period if the tube feeding is not interrupted?
360 calories rationale multiply the milliliters per hour by the calories per milliliter. then, using the ratio/proportion method, determine teh maximal number of calories the client should receive in an 8-hour period 30 mL/hr x 1.5 calories/mL = 45 calories in 1 hour 45 calories : 1 hour :: x calories : 8 (hours) x= 360 calories
the nurse employed in a well-baby clinic is reinforcing nutrition instructions to the mother of a 1-month old infant. which instruction should the nurse provide the mother? A) introduce strained fruits one at a time B) introduce strained vegetables one at a time C) offer breast milk or formula as the main food D) offer rice cereal mixed with breast milk or formula
C) offer breast milk or formula as the main food rationale breast milk or formula is the main food throughout infancy. rice cereal mixed with breast milk or formula is introduced at 4 months of age. strained vegetables, fruits, meats, are introduced one at time and can begin at 6 months of age
a client with hyperkalemia has a prescription for taking sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) for several days. the client also needs to consume a diet low in potassium. which foods high in potassium content should the client avoid. select all that apply cabbage peaches soybeans mushrooms strawberries
cabbage // mushrooms // strawberries rationale foods high in potassium content include cabbage, mushrooms, and strawberries. foods low in potassium content are peaches and soybeans
the nurse teaches the family of an infant with spina bifida that the infant should not be given which baby foods that may trigger a latex-type food allergy? select all that apply kiwi prunes apples bananas avocados
kiwi // bananas // avocados rationale infants with spina bifida develop a latex allergy and should be in a latex-free environment. parents should be informed about food sensitivities that are common to children with latex allergies. foods that should be avoided are bananas, kiwis, avocados. prunes and apples will not cause a latex-type reaction
an older postoperative client has been tolerating a full liquid diet, and the nurse plans to advance the diet to solid food as prescribed. the nurse collects data regarding which important item before advancing the diet to solids? A) ability to chew B) food preferences C) cultural preferences D) presence of bowel sounds
A) ability to chew rationale it may be necessary to modify a client's diet to a soft or mechanical chopped diet if the client has difficulty chewing. food and cultural preferences should have been determined on admission. bowel sounds should be present before introducing any diet.
the nurse instructs a client at risk for hypokalemia about the foods high in potassium that should be included in the daily diet. the nurse tells the client that which food provides the least amount of potassium? A) apple B) carrots C) spinach D) apricots
A) apple rationale an apple provides approximately 3 mEq of potassium per serving. spinach and carrots (1/2 cup cooked) and four apricots provide approximately 7 mEq of potassium per serving
when reinforcing instructions to a client with acute diverticulitis, which should the nurse include? A) avoid whole-grain products B) limit fluids to 1000 mL daily C) increase intake of seeds and nuts D) increase intake of raw fruits and vegetables
A) avoid whole-grain products rationale: diet therapy for acute diverticulitis involves allowing the bowel to rest by avoiding high-fiber foods, such as whole-grain products and raw fruits and vegetables. Fluids are encouraged rather than restricted. Seeds and nuts are to be avoided so that they do not become trapped in the diverticula and cause irritation. In non-acute stages, a high-fiber diet may be prescribed.
a low-sodium diet has been prescribed for a client with hypertension. Which food selected from the menu by the client indicates an understanding of this diet? A) baked turkey B) tomato soup C) boiled shrimp D) chicken gumbo
A) baked turkey rationale: regular soup (1 cup) contains 900 mg of sodium. Fresh shellfish (1 oz) contains 50 mg of sodium. Poultry (1 oz) contains 25 mg of sodium
the nurse instructs a client at risk for hypokalemia about the foods high in potassium that should be included in the daily diet. the nurse determines that the client needs further teaching if the client states that which food is high in potassium? A) eggs B) beef C) pork D) raisins
A) eggs rationale one large egg provides 66 mg of potassium. one-half cup of raisins contains 700 mg of potassium. four ounces of beef contains 420 mg and 4 ounces of port contains 525 mg of potassium
a client is a lacto-vegetarian. Which food item should the nurse remove from the tray? A) eggs B) milk C) cheese D) broccoli
B) eggs rationale: eggs are not consumed by lacto-vegetarians. Other dairy and plant products are eaten by lacto-vegetarians
the nurse is reinforcing dietary instructions to a client with tuberculosis. the nurse should specifically instruct the client to increase intake of which food items in the daily diet? A) rice and fish B) eggs and bacon C) cereal and milk D) meats and citrus fruits
D) meats and citrus fruits rationale the nurse teaches the client with tuberculosis to increase intake of protein, iron and vitamin C. food sources that are rich in protein include meats and legumes. food rich in iron include liver and other meats, from which 10% to 30% of available iron is absorbed. foods rich in vitamin C include citrus fruits, berries, melons, pineapple, broccoli, cabbage, green peppers, tomatoes, chard, kale, asparagus, and turnip greens. less than 10% of iron is absorbed from eggs and less than 5% is absorbed from grains and vegetables
the nurse reinforces instructions to a client to increase the amount of riboflavin in the diet. The nurse should tell the client to select which food item that is high in riboflavin? A) milk B) tomatoes C) citrus fruits D) green, leafy vegetables
D) milk rationale food sources of riboflavin include milk, lean meats, fish and grains. Tomatoes and citrus fruits are high in vitamin C. Green leafy vegetables are high in folic acid.
a client is recovering from abdominal surgery and has a large abdominal wound the nurse encourages the client to at which food that is naturally high in vitamin C to promote wound healing? A) milk B) chicken C) bananas D) oranges
D) oranges rationale citrus fruits and juices are especially high in vitamin C other sources are potatoes, tomatoes, and other fruits and vegetables meats and dairy products are two food groups that are not especially high in vitamin C
a client who has calcium phosphate kidney stones tells the nurse, "tell me what i can do, so that i never have this pain again." which instructions should the nurse plan to include in the reinforcement of dietary instructions? select all that apply avoid spinach decrease sodium intake limit the intake of organ meats limit the intake of whole grains limit protein to 5 to 7 servings per week
decrease sodium intake // limit the intake of whole grains // limit protein to 5 to 7 servings per week rationale the client should decrease sodium intake because sodium decreases the kidney tubular calcium reabsorption, which will result in increased phosphorus. limiting whole grains can aid in the reduction of urinary phosphate. limiting proteins can decrease the acidity of urine, which prevents calcium precipitation spinach should be limited in clients with calcium oxalate calculi, not calcium phosphate calculi organ meat should be limited in clients with uric acid and calculi stones because of purine content
a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition may begin to take small amounts of clear liquids today. The nurse's priority is to collect data regarding which criterion before giving the client anything by mouth. A) the client's appetite B) the client's current weight C) the presence of the swallow reflex D) adequate pulse and blood pressure readings
C) the presence of the swallow reflex rationale the nurse ensures that the client has intact gag and swallow reflexes before giving clear liquids. The nurse should also check for the presence of bowel sounds. The pulse, blood pressure, and weight require ongoing monitoring, but they are not the most important items given the wording of the question. The client may be expected to have a poor appetite after being without oral intake for a period of time.
a client is having problems with blood clotting. Which food item should the nurse encourage the client to eat? A) legumes B) citrus fruits C) vegetable oils D) green, leafy vegetables
D) green, leafy vegetables rationale: green, leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, which acts as a catalyst for facilitating blood-clotting factors. Legumes are high in folic acid and thiamine. Citrus fruits are high in vitamin C, which helps with wound healing. Vegetable oil is high in vitamin E, which acts as an antioxidant.
a client receiving enteral feedings develops abdominal distention and diarrhea shortly after initiation of the feedings. in review of the nursing history for this client, which of these notations indicates the need to notify the health care provider? A) difficulty swallowing B) history of hemorrhoids C) history of enteral feedings D) lactose intolerance since childhood
D) lactose intolerance since childhood rationale lactose intolerance would require the client to be placed on a lactose-free formula. the primary health care provider would be notified to change the prescribed enteral solution. the other options are unrelated to the client's problem.
a client has a serum sodium level of 151 mEq/L and the nurse reinforces dietary teaching about the types of foods to avoid. the nurse determines that the client needs further teaching if the client states that which is a good food choice? A) fish B) rhubarb C) spinach D) american cheese
D) american cheese rationale the client's laboratory value reflects hypernatermia because the normal serum sodium level is 135 to 145 mEq/L based on this finding, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid foods high in sodium these should include foods from animal sources, which contain physiological saline, and highly processed meats and other foods that often have sodium added as a preservative. spinach and rhubarb are good food sources of calcium fish is high in phosphorus.
a client in a long-term care facility is being prepared to be discharged to home in 2 days. the client has been eating a regular diet for a week, yet is still receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings and will need to receive these feedings at home. the client states concern about not being able to continue the tube feedings at home. which nursing response would be appropriate at this time? A) do you want to stay in the nursing home a few more days? B) have you discussed your feelings with your health care provider? C) you need to talk to your health care provider about these feelings D) tell me more about your concerns with your feelings after going home.
D) tell me more about your concerns with your feelings after going home. rationale a client often has fears about leaving the secure, cared-for environment of the health care facility. this client has a fear about not being able to provide self-care at home and not being able to handle the tube feedings at home. an open communication statement such as "tell me more about...." often leads to valuable information and the client's concerns. the other options are nontherapeutic statements
the nurse caring for a client with a neurological disorder is assisting in planning care to maintain nutritional status. the nurse is concerned about the client's swallowing ability. the nurse avoids including which food item in this client's diet? A) spinach B) scrambled eggs C) cheese casserole D) mashed potatoes
A) spinach rationale moist pastas, casseroles, egg dishes, and potatoes are usually well tolerated by the client who has difficulty swallowing. Raw vegetables, chunky vegetables such as diced beets, and stringy vegetables such as spinach, corn, and peas are foods commonly excluded from the diet of a client who has difficulty swallowing
the nurse who is assisting in conducting a weight loss program prepares to monitor a client's weight. the nurse understands that which data most accurately determines the effectiveness of weight loss? A) daily weights B) calorie counts C) serum protein levels D) daily intake and output
A) daily weights rationale the most accurate measurement of weight loss is daily weighing of the client at the same time, in the same clothes, and using the same scale. however, the health care provider's recommendations about daily weight should be followed because of the frequent fluctuations resulting from retained water (including urine) and elimination of feces. options B, C and D assist in measuring nutrition and hydration status rather than actual loss of pounds.
the nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client about complete / high quality protein foods. Which food choice should indicate the client understood the teaching A) eggs B) beans C) cereal D) oranges
A) eggs rationale complete / high-quality proteins are found in a variety of meats and dairy products, specifically eggs. beans are incomplete / low-quality proteins as are some cereals. oranges contain vitamins and minerals.
the nurse is assigned to assist in caring for a client who is receiving parenteral nutrition with fat emulsion. the nurse is instructed to monitor the client for signs of fat overload. the nurse monitors for which signs and symptoms of this complication? A) fever and pruritic urticaria B) bradycardia and chest pain C) hypothermia and muscle weakness D) hypertension and decreased urine output
A) fever and pruritic urticaria rationale signs and symptoms of fat overload include, fever, leukocytosis, hyperlipidemia, pruritic urticaria, and possibly focal seizures. hepatosplenomegaly may also be present. the other options are not signs of this complication.
a 17 year-old pregnant client is being seen at the obstetric clinic. the nurse is reviewing the following laboratory results, which were obtained 2 hours after breakfast hemoglobin 10.5 g/dL sodium 140 mEq, glucose 120 mg/dL potassium 4.1 mEq. which dietary instruction should the nurse reinforce for this client? A) increase the amount of red meats B) increase the intake of milk products C) limit the number of bananas per day D) decrease the amounts of heavily sugared items
A) increase the amount of red meats rationale this client's hemoglobin level is low; red meats are a good source of iron. the glucose level is within range of nonfasting samples. based on the laboratory results, there is no reason for the client to increase the milk intake or limit the number of bananas consumed daily.
the nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client on how to decrease the intake of potassium in the diet. The nurse should tell the client that which food contains the least amount of potassium? A) lettuce B) potatoes C) apricots D) avocados
A) lettuce rationale lettuce contains less than 100 mg of potassium. Potatoes, apricots and avocados are potassium-containing foods and should be avoided by the client on a potassium-restricted diet.
A client with heart disease is instructed regarding a low-fat diet. The nurse determines that the client understands the diet if the client states to avoid which food item? A) apples B) cheese C) oranges D) skim milk
B) cheese rationale: fruits, vegetables and skim milk contain minimal amounts of fat. cheese is high in fat.
the nurse provides dietary instructions to a client at risk for hypokalemia about the foods high in potassium that should be included in the daily diet. the nurse tells the client that the fruit highest in potassium is which selection? A) apples B) peaches C) kiwifruit D) pineapple
C) kiwifruit rationale: foods that are high in potassium include bananas, cantaloupe, kiwifruit, and oranges. fruits low in potassium include apples, cherries, grapefruit, peaches, pineapple, and cranberries
a client states that he has removed all dairy foods from his diet because he is lactose intolerant . the nurse plans care for the client, knowing which information? A) leafy green vegetables will provide all of the necessary calcium B) calcium supplements only will be needed to supplement for dairy products C) lactose enzymes must be taken to eliminate the effects of lactose intolerance D) calcium and protein are valuable nutrients and need to be supplemented in some form
D) calcium and protein are valuable nutrients and need to be supplemented in some form. rationale calcium and protein need to be supplemented in some form in the diet of the client with lactose intolerance. lactose enzymes may help clients with lactose intolerance, but they may not eliminate the client's problems. an individual generally does not consume enough leafy green vegetables daily to obtain sufficient calcium
the nurse has given dietary instructions to a client to minimize the risk of osteoporosis. the nurse determines that the client understands the recommended changes if the client verbalizes to increase intake of which food? A) fish B) chicken C) potatoes D) cottage cheese
D) cottage cheese rationale calcium intake is important to minimize the risk of osteoporosis. the major dietary source of calcium is from dairy foods, including milk, yogurt, and a variety of cheeses. calcium also may be added to certain products, such as orange juice, which are then advertised as being "fortified" with calcium. calcium supplements are also recommended to minimize the risk of osteoporosis. options A, B, and C are not high in calcium.
the nurse is instructing a client with osteomalacia about appropriate food items to include in the diet. of the following, which food item should provide the best source of vitamin D? A) milk B) citrus fruits C) bread products D) green, leafy vegetables
A) milk rationale osteomalacia is the softening of bone tissue characterized by inadequate mineralization of osteoid. it is the adult equivalent of rickets and vitamin D deficiency in children. of the food items presented, milk provides the best source of vitamin D. Citrus fruits are high in vitamin C bread products are high in niacin green leafy vegetables are high in folic acid.
a client with a burn injury is transferred to the nursing unit and a regular diet has been prescribed. The nurse encourages the client to eat which dietary items to promote wound healing? A) veal, potatoes, gelatin, and orange juice B) chicken breast, broccoli, strawberries, and milk C) peanut butter and jelly sandwich, cantaloupe and tea D) spaghetti with tomato sauce, garlic bread, and ginger ale
B) chicken breast, broccoli, strawberries and milk rationale protein and vitamin C are necessary for wound healing. Poultry and milk are good sources of protein. Broccoli and strawberries are good sources of vitamin C. Peanut butter is a source of niacin. Gelatin and jelly have no nutrient value. Spaghetti is a complex carbohydrate
a client has a diagnosis of hyperphosphatemia. the nurse reinforces teaching the client to eliminate which from the diet? A) tea B) fish C) cocoa D) coffee
B) fish rationale foods naturally high in phosphate should be avoided by the client with hyperphosphatemia. these include fish, eggs, milk products, vegetables, whole grains, and carbonated beverages. coffee, tea, cocoa are not high in phosphates.
the nurse is providing dietary instructions to a client with a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis. which food should the nurse instruct the client to avoid? A) whole-grain cereals B) fresh corn on the cob C) broiled chicken breast D) bagels with cream cheese
B) fresh corn on the cob rationale a low-residue (low-fiber) diet places less strain on the intestines because this type of diet is easier to digest. this diet is used for ulcerative colitis, diverticulitis, and irritable bowel syndrome. the item that contains high residue and thus would place stain on the intestines is the fresh corn on the cob.
the nurse has conducted dietary teaching with the client diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. the nurse determines that the client understands the information if the client states to increase intake of which food? A) pineapple B) egg whites C) kidney beans D) refined white bread
C) kidney beans rationale the client with iron deficiency anemia should increase intake of foods that are naturally high in iron. the best sources of dietary iron are red meat, liver, other organ meats, blackstrap molasses, and oysters. other good sources of iron are kidney beans, whole wheat bread, egg yolk, spinach, kale, turnip tops, beets greens, carrots, raisins, and apricots
a child with leukemia is experiencing nausea realted to medication therapy. The nurse, concerned about the child's nutritional status, should offer which during an episode of nausea? A) low-calorie foods B) cool, clear liquids C) low-protein foods D) the child's favorite foods
B) cool, clear liquids rationale when the child is nauseated, it is best to offer frequent intake of cool, clear liquids in small amounts because small portions are usually better tolerated. Cool, clear fluids are also soothing and better tolerated when a client is nauseated. It is best not to offer favorite foods when the child is nauseated because foods eaten during times of nausea will be associated with being sick. It is best to offer small, frequent meals of high-protein and high-calories content once the nausea has been controlled with medication or has subsided.
the nurse has completed diet teaching for a client who has been prescribed a low-sodium diet to treat hypertension. The nurse determines that there is a need for further teaching when the client makes which statement? A) this diet will help lower my blood pressure B) fresh foods such as fruits and veggies are high in sodium C) this diet is not a replacement for my antihypertensive medications D) the reason I need to lower my salt intake is to reduce fluid retention
B) fresh foods such as fruit and vegetables are high in sodium rationale: a low-sodium diet is used as an adjunct to antihypertensive medications for the treatment of hypertension. Sodium retains fluid, which leads to hypertension secondary to increased fluid volume. Fresh foods such as fruits and vegetables are low in sodium.
a client who has recently been started on enteral feedings begins to complain of abdominal cramping, followed by passage of two liquid stools. the nurse notes that the client has abdominal distention as well. the nurse reviews the nutritional content on the label of the can to see if it contains which ingredient? A) maltose B) lactose C) sucrose D) fructose
B) lactose rationale several tube feeding formulas contain lactose. a client with an unreported history of lactose intolerance would develop symptoms such as these in response to nutritional therapy with these formulas. if the client is diagnosed as lactose intolerant, a lactose-free formula should be prescribed by the health care provider. this will resolve the client's symptoms and promote adequate nutrition for the client
the nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client regarding how to decrease the intake of phosphorus in the diet. The nurse should tell the client that which food item contains the least amount of phosphorus? A) fish B) oranges C) almonds D) whole-grain bread
B) oranges rationale: an orange contains the least amount of phosphorus. Foods high in phosphorus include fish, pork, beef, chicken, organ meats, nuts, whole-grain breads, and cereals
a caregiver states that the client eats only about 25% of the food that is offered and seems to be losing weight. the caregiver asks the nurse about feeding the client by a tube into the stomach. which initial response by the nurse would be appropriate? A) tube feedings are only for long-term feeding problems B) tube feedings can provide adequate amounts of required nutrients C) tube feedings often result in complications such as aspiration pneumonia. D) tube feedings are not helpful in cases of intractable vomiting or severe diarrhea
B) tube feedings can provide adequate amounts of required nutrients rationale weight loss and a dietary intake of only 25% indicate that alternative sources of nutritional intake should be sought tube feeding is an alternative for temporary or permanent nutritional maintenance. enteral tube feedings are generally safer and significantly less costly than peripheral or parenteral nutrition option A is incorrect because tube feedings are often temporary measures. option C may be correct; however, it is not the best response to a caregiver seeking initial information option D is unrelated to the situation of this question
the nurse reviews a client's serum sodium level and notes that the level is 150 mEq/ L the health care provider prescribes dietary instructions for the client based on the sodium level. Which food item should the nurse instruct the client to avoid? A) squash B) spinach C) molasses D) processed oat cereals
D) processed oat cereals rationale the normal serum sodium level is 135 to 145 mEq / L. a serum sodium level of 150 mEq/L is indicative of hypernatremia. based on this finding, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid foods high in sodium, such as processed foods. spinach and molasses are good food sources of calcium. squash is high in phosphorus.
a client has been diagnosed wit pernicious anemia. in planning care for the client, the nurse anticipates that the client will be treated with which? A) iron B) folic acid C) thiamine D) vitamin B12
D) vitamin B12 rationale pernicious anemia is caused by a deficiency of vitamin B12. treatment consists of monthly injections of vitamin B12. thiamine is most often prescribed for the client with alcoholism. iron is administered for iron deficiency anemia, and folic acid is prescribed for folic acid deficiency.
the nurse is providing dietary instructions to a client with gout. The nurse should tell the client to avoid which food item? A) scallops B) chocolate C) cornbread D) macaroni products
A) scallops rationale: scallops should be omitted from the diet of a client who has gout because of the high purine content. The food items in the remaining options have negligible purine content and may be consumed by the client with gout.
