NCTI 3 TO 4
The TCP/IP model Application Layer maps to which three Open Systems Interconnection reference model (OSI/RM) layers? (Choose three.)
*Application Layer. • Session Layer. • Presentation Layer.
Which two of the following are examples of email programs? (Choose two.)
.Microsoft Outlook • UNIX Sendmail
On an IP network, all hosts must be able to handle a packet size of at least how many bytes?
576
If we borrow 3 bits from a Class C network address, how many usable subnets have we created?
8
What is the decimal value of the binary number 1000
8
You are running an active browser session with your employer's Human Resources intranet web server. You issue the netstat command from your local workstation's command prompt. The resulting screen shows several connections to the web server, each using a separate transmission control protocol (TCP) port. Why does your client workstation have multiple active port connections open to the same web server?
Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) sessions often open multiple connections between the client and the server.
If you want to locate a previously saved Uniform Resource Locator (URL) so that you can quickly return to it as needed, where on the browser toolbar would you look?
Favorites
What is required when interleaving data bits or bytes in time division multiplexing (TDM)?
For TDM interleaving a "time slice" is reserved on the multiplexed stream for each individual input port via a synchronization channel that the demultiplexer uses to synchronize with the multiplexer.
The Open Systems Interconnection Reference Model (OSI/RM) Data Link Layer serves which primary purpose
It builds a flat network model with unroutable physical addresses
How does the user datagram protocol (UDP) support multiple application destinations on the same host?
It carries port numbers in its header, used to logically address a destination application.
Which is the primary purpose of the Open Systems Interconnection reference model (OSI/RM) Presentation Layer
It defines the format in which Application Layer information is sent across the network.
Which of the following is the primary purpose of the Open Systems Interconnection Reference Model (OSI/RM) Transport Layer?
It defines well known logical port addresses for communications between applications.
What unit have scientists used for centuries to quantify the color of light?
For centuries, scientists have quantified the colors of light, or frequencies, by the distance between the top of one light wave and the top of the next one, hence "wavelength".
What multiplexing scheme is used in broadband cable headends where multiple downstream channels of different frequencies, are combined before being transported over the hybrid fiber/coax (HFC) network?
Frequency division multiplexing (FDM) is used in broadband cable headends where multiple downstream channels of different frequencies, are combined before being transported over the HFC network.
Which best describes why an hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) server can handle multiple simultaneous connections?
HTTP is stateless, which means the server has no knowledge of previous connections after they are dropped.
Which statement best describes network address translation (NAT) masquerading?
It hides all internal addresses behind one external address.
Which statement best describes split horizons? •
It prevents a router from advertising a route out to the interface on which the route was learned
A file transfer protocol (FTP) server administrator can control server access in which three ways? (Choose three.)
Make only portions of the drive visible • Control read and write privileges • Limit file access
Which two of the following are Multpurpose Internet Mail Extension (MIME)- supported data types? (Choose two.)
Moving Picture Experts Group (MPEG). • Graphics interchange format (GIF).
Which TCP/IP application distributes news articles read from a central database?
Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP).
Which protocol works with Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) Quality of Service (QoS) mechanisms to provide video and other realtime data with reserved bandwidth across a data flow's path?
Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP).
Which TCP/IP application allows users to display locally a remote UNIX host's screen?
Rlogin
Which TCP/IP UNIX specific application would allow us to connect to a remote database over the network, but restrict database activity to the remote host?
Rlogin.
Which type of packet does the receiving transmission control protocol (TCP) send to the source indicating its receipt of the source's SYN packet?
SYN-ACK
Given the subnet mask 255.255.254.0, and considering the trick you learned for identifying subnet masking patterns, in which octet will the subnet wire addresses increment?
Second
Which of the following best describes an email message's communication flow through the TCP/IP model layers?
The Transport Layer breaks the data stream into pieces, which it passes to the Internetwork Layer. The Internetwork Layer adds the source and destination Internet protocol (IP) addresses and forwards the packets to the Network Interface Layer. The Network Interface Layer builds frames, and converts them to bits for transport across the physical network.
As a result of issuing the file transfer protocol (FTP) DIR command, each file listing entry begins with a "-"; what does the "-" indicate?
The entries are files
Why does Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) use identifier and sequence numbers?
To allow the sender to match ICMP reply messages with requests.
For what purpose would you choose to run the Telnet application?
To configure a router.
For what application is file transfer protocol (FTP) an excellent choice?
To download large files.
How much overhead is added to a T1 carrier to carry control information to help sort the multiplexed channels on each end?
To help sort the multiplexed channels on each end, 1 bit per frame is added in a T1 carrier to carry control information to help sort the multiplexed channels on each end. With 8,000 frames per second there is 8,000 bits of overhead added to a T1 carrier.
When might you use the rlogin TCP/IP application?
To remotely connect one UNIX workstation to another.
A group of computers are connected in a multistory building. This would be considered what type of network?
• A local area network (LAN).
What does the class network number 127.x.y.z designate?
• A loopback address
A group of computers in the south side of a city are connected to another group of computers downtown. This would be considered what type of network?
• A metropolitan area network (MAN)
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) structures management information base (MIB) information in which of the following trees?
• A name tree.
An Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) interior route is which of the following?
• A path to a directly attached, subnetted route
Which would cause a router to update a route entry still in the holddown period set by a previously received update?
• A triggered update with a lower hop count than previously received
Which types of transmission control protocol (TCP) segments contain window size advertisements?
• ACK
Which three parts of the transmission control protocol (TCP) header help the protocol ensure reliable communications between applications? (Choose three.
• ACK control bits • Sequence numbers • Checksum
Which text file type is the file transfer protocol (FTP) default?
• ASCII
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) represents object syntax with a subset of which International Organization for Standardization (ISO) standard?
• ASN.1
Which portion of the transmission control protocol (TCP) header specifies the next sequence number the receiver expects from the connection source?
• Acknowledgment number.
A hub that repeats and regenerates signals is called which type of hub?
• Active.
Typing ipconfig in the Windows command line interface (CLI) displays which three of the following pieces of client configuration information? (Choose three.)
• Adapter address. • IP address. • Lease expiration.
Which Domain Name System (DNS) record type specifies name to address translation, such as used in a glue record entry?
• Address (A).
In TCP/IP, what does a network host use to find a physical address, given a logical address?
• Address resolution protocol (ARP).
What is the first step in most client requests?
• Address resolution.
Encapsulation means that each layer on the sending node does which of the following?
• Adds its protocol header to the data
When do a Telnet terminal and remote host negotiate options?
• After establishing the transmission control protocol (TCP) connection
When can a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server reuse an address offered in a DHCPOFFER message?
• After the server times out waiting for a DHCPREQUEST message
Concerning routing information protocol (RIP), what is meant by the statement "maximum diameter of 15 hops"?
• Any single network cannot be more than 15 hops away.
Which three of the following are devices manageable with simple network management protocol (SNMP)? (Choose three.)
• Applications. • Bridges. • Routers.
Which two of the following are the interior gateway routing protocol (IGRP) default metrics? (Choose two.)
• Bandwidth • Delay
hich is another name for the binary number system?
• Base 2
Which of the following is another name for a distance vector algorithm (DVA)?
• Bellman-Ford algorithm.
Which TCP/IP protocol allows a diskless workstation to discover its IP address, as well as download a boot file
• Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP).
A router that an administrator designates to forward packets between autonomous systems (AS) is called what?
• Border system (BS).
Which three of the following networking devices break up collisions? (Choose three.)
• Bridge • Switch • Router
Which network device allows us to connect dissimilar network topologies?
• Bridge.
Address resolution protocol (ARP) requests are sent as which type of Ethernet frame?
• Broadcast
A peer-to-peer network is a practical solution in which of the following applications? (Choose two.)
• Building a simple network supporting a few clients accessing a shared printer • Creating an inexpensive solution for a small business just starting out
Bridges and OSI/RM Layer 2 switches filter traffic in which way?
• By building physical address to port mappings and making forwarding decisions based on these mappings.
How does a diskless workstation identify itself when requesting an IP address using reverse address resolution protocol (RARP)?
• By its media access control (MAC) address
How does the Domain Name System (DNS) resolve fully qualified domain names (FQDN) to IP addresses?
• By looking up the names in an address mapping database.
In which two ways does a Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) agent respond to the management station? (Choose two.)
• By responding to the management station's requests for updated data • By trapping information that exceeds a set threshold and forwarding the data to the management station
Transmission control protocol (TCP) includes which three types of mechanisms to ensure reliable data transmission? (Choose three.)
• Checksum • Acknowledgements • Sequence number
In which instance could you use Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing protocol (EIGRP) as a routing protocol?
• Cisco routers in the same autonomous system (AS) as other Cisco routers.
In which instance could you use Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) as a routing protocol?
• Cisco routers in the same autonomous system (AS) as other Cisco routers.
In a client/server arrangement, where are requests normally generated?
• Client
Which three of the following are common Telnet application uses? (Choose three.)
• Connect to an online database • Connect remotely to run a specific application • Connect to a router for network information
Which of the following are the three Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) mail transfer phases? (Choose three.)
• Connection closure. • Data transfer. • Connection establishment.
The concept of a virtual terminal allows for which of the following? (Choose two.)
• Connectivity to multiple host computers • Multitasking host computers
Which key combination will terminate a continuous Ping issued with the Ping -t option?
• Ctrl+C.
Which Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) command designates that the message's text follows?
• DATA
Which of the following choices is the correct order in which a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client initially obtains an IP address?
• DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPOFFER, DHCPREQUEST, DHCPACK
How might a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client relinquish its current lease?
• DHCPRELEASE message.
At which Open Systems Interconnection reference model (OSI/RM) layer does the physical address reside?
• Data Link
Internet protocol (IP) provides which three of the following services to transmission control protocol (TCP)? (Choose three.)
• Datagram routing. • Time-to-live (TTL). • Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP)
What must the Network Layer do to a received frame first in order to determine the route over which it will forward the datagram to the next network?
• Decapsulate the packet.
If a hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) client does not specify a document name in its HTTP request message, what will the HTTP server return in response?
• Default document.
Which IP packet bits does open shortest path first (OSPF) use to provide Type of Service (ToS) routing?
• Delay, throughput, reliability, and cost (D-T-R-C) bits
Which services does Real-time Transport Protocol (RTP) provide to add reliability to packet voice networks? (Choose three.)
• Delivery monitoring. • Sequence numbering. • Timestamping.
To reduce routing information traffic between adjacent networks, Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) networks elect which two devices? (Choose two.)
• Designated router (DR). • Backup designated router (BDR).
How does enhanced interior gateway routing protocol (EIGRP) avoid routing loops?
• Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL).
Simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is which type of message delivery system?
• Direct delivery
Border gateway protocol (BGP), though an exterior gateway protocol (EGP), operates as which type of routing protocol?
• Distance Vector Algorithm (DVA).
If the number of hosts per subnet exceeds 255, how might you solve for the subnet incremental range?
• Divide the number of hosts by 256.
A remote monitoring 2 (RMON2) probe can capture a network segment's performance statistics based on which two of the following? (Choose two.)
• IP address. • Application.
Which addresses combine to create a transmission control protocol (TCP) socket
• IP and port.
Which two statements concerning multicasting are true? (Choose two.
• IP multicast group membership is dynamic. • User datagram protocol (UDP) uses IP multicast services.
Which of the following best describes the function of a media access control (MAC) layer address?
• Identifies the destination device's physical address
When troubleshooting a network, we begin by performing which of the following?
• Identify the issue.
When might a BOOTP client discard a BOOTREPLY message? (Choose three.)
• If the destination port number is 67. • If the BOOTREPLY targets another media access control (MAC) address. • If the BOOTREPLY includes a transaction ID other than its own.
Which three of the following are advantages of remote terminal access (Telnet) over direct terminal-to-host access? (Choose three.)
• Increased user productivity • Access to multiple, separate sites from the same terminal • Reduction in the number of physical terminals
Which of the following is the generic routing protocol type that routers use to communicate within an autonomous system (AS)?
• Interior gateway protocol (IGP).
Which router protocol type shares routing information within an autonomous system (AS)?
• Interior gateway protocol (IGP).
Which three of the following are interior gateway protocol (IGP) examples? (Choose three.)
• Interior gateway routing protocol (IGRP). • Routing information protocol (RIP). • Open shortest path first (OSPF).
A router that can receive packets from a neighboring router and forward them to at least one other router is called what?
• Intermediate system (IS).
Which IP protocol will a router use to inform neighbor routers of congestion on an interface?
• Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).
Which three of the following are included in the TCP/IP Internetwork Layer? (Choose three.)
• Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP). • Internet protocol (IP). • Address resolution protocol (ARP).
A file transfer protocol (FTP) control port is used by an FTP server to perform which of the following?
• Interpret requests from a client.
Which troubleshooting step is likely to require the most time?
• Isolate the cause.
How does network address translation (NAT) help secure a private network from outside attacks?
• It allows networks to use private IP addresses on the internal network, and still access the Internet.
When troubleshooting a problem crossing network responsibilities, why is it best to start with the local network and work out? (Choose three.)
• It allows us to eliminate and resolve any internal problems first. • It provides information we can use to support our case, if the problem proves to be external to our network. • It breaks up the troubleshooting effort to specific areas of responsibility.
Network address translation (NAT) IP address translation assigns external addresses to internal devices in which way?
• It assigns the internal address to one of a pool of external addresses.
If a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client fails to renew its lease at the 50-percent point, what happens next?
• It attempts to obtain a lease at 87.5-percent lease time.
Which statement best describes an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) virtual link?
• It connects area border routes (ABR) over a nonbackbone area.
The Telnet default network virtual terminal (NVT) provides which fundamental characteristics? (Choose three.)
• It embeds control commands in the data stream. • The keyboard generates 128 ASCII codes. • It transmits data as a 7-bit ASCII value in an 8-bit field.
Which is the primary purpose of the Open Systems Interconnection reference model (OSI/RM) Session Layer?
• It establishes, manages, and terminates dialogs between Presentation Layer entities.
Which best describes a BOOTP relay agent
• It forwards client BOOTREQUEST messages across subnet boundaries.
How does a transmission control protocol (TCP) application acknowledge the last message's receipt?
• It increments the received sequence number by one and sends it in the response message's Acknowledgment Number field.
Which best describes the Telnet single commands options Do (253) code?
• It indicates that the sending Telnet desires the other party perform some specified option.
Which best describes transmission control protocol's (TCP) use of the Window header field?
• It is bidirectional, so both ends can control data flow.
Which of the following best describes a local area network (LAN)?
• It is confined to a single building or a single floor of a building
How does network address and port translation (NAPT) handle an IP packet's source and destination port and IP addresses?
• It leaves the destination port and address as is, and changes the source port and address to addresses from its address pool.
How does a router determine where to send packets addressed to hosts on remote networks?
• It looks in its routing table for an entry for the destination network.
Which statement best describes an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) area border router (ABR)?
• It maintains a link-state database for each area to which it is connected.
Which statement correctly describes Class of Service (CoS) routing?
• It makes routing decisions based on the packet's service category.
How does dynamic address translation enhance network security?
• It only maps internal hosts to external addresses for the duration of the connection.
How does RIPv2 authentication protect routing table information?
• It password protects routing table updates between routers.
In what three ways does Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) control network routing table update traffic? (Choose three.)
• It provides for partitioning networks into subdomains, called area routes . • It supports multicast, rather than broadcast route update messages. • It passes only route table changes, rather than entire tables.
How does virtual terminal protocol (VTP) support remote terminal access?
• It provides generic terminal interfaces for data and control transfer.
What happens if the retransmission timer set by the sending transmission control protocol (TCP) times out before it receives an acknowledgment.
• It retransmits the outstanding segments.
Which of the following describes a Domain Name System (DNS) resolver?
• It retrieves IP address information.
How does a transmission control protocol (TCP) process handle a failed connection?
• It sends an RST segment when the maximum retry count is exceeded.
How does the transmission control protocol (TCP) receiver control the data flowing from the source?
• It sets the receive window size with each ACK segment it returns.
Which of the following best describes a metropolitan area network (MAN)?
• It spans a single city and uses local telephone company facilities for connectivity
How does the Telnet network virtual terminal (NVT) support complex terminals?
• It supports a 3-byte negotiation sequence
How does a network address translation (NAT) netmask work to map internal addresses to external addresses
• It works as an inverse mask, converting the internal network address portion to a public address.
What message type does border gateway protocol (BGP) send to test a connection's state?
• KeepAlive.
Which open systems interconnection (OSI) model layer do routers support?
• Layer 3, the Network Layer.
In a link-state algorithm (LSA) shortest path first (SPF) tree, which three of the following are metrics the router uses to describe the cost to reach each destination network? (Choose three.)
• Line speed . • Line delay . • Hop counts.
The broadcast packets used by link-state protocols to share routing information about neighbor routers are called what?
• Link-state Algorithms (LSA).
Which advanced routing function allows for redundant paths between networks?
• Load splitting.
Which three of the following are network management model components for Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)? (Choose three.)
• Managed devices. • Network management station (NMS). • Network management protocol.
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) gathers network information from what type of database?
• Management information base (MIB).
Which three of the following terms refer to a physical address? (Choose three.)
• Media access control (MAC) address. • Adapter address. • Hardware address.
A classful routing protocol can pass which three types of information in its routing table update messages? (Choose three.)
• Metrics. • Network numbers. • Autonomous system (AS) numbers.
A Class D address is also known as which type of address?
• Multicast
Which routing type allows networks to recover from failed routes?
• Multipath routing.
Which Domain Name System (DNS) record lists a zone's name servers?
• Name server (NS).
Which command can we use in conjunction with the address resolution protocol (ARP) command to determine the hostname of a cached NetBIOSover-IP address?
• Nbtstat -A .<IPaddress>
Which are TCP/IP network troubleshooting tools? (Choose three.)
• Netstat. • Ping. • Tracert
Which TCP/IP protocol has us attach a remote device to the local file system by mounting it?
• Network File System (NFS).
A web browser client sends a web page request message to a hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) server. In which order will the server decapsulate the request message?
• Network Interface Layer, Internet Layer, Transport Layer, Application Layer.
Which TCP/IP Application Layer protocol allows companies to publicly post information over the Internet?
• Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP)
Which network address translation (NAT) address mapping technique maps internal IP addresses to a single, external IP address?
• Network address and port translation (NAPT).
What three addresses are needed to move data from one application to another across a network?
• Network address, network interface card (NIC) address, process address
Which device provides the connection point between a workstation or personal computer (PC) and the network?
• Network interface card (NIC).
Which network device requires a device driver in order to connect hosts to the network segment?
• Network interface card (NIC).
Can the "arp" command be used to determine your own media access control (MAC) address?
• No
An Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) autonomous system border router (ASBR) runs which two routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• OSPF on interfaces on its own autonomous system (AS). • Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) on interfaces on other autonomous systems (AS).
For which three purposes might you use multicasting on an IP network? (Choose three.)
• Online training • Teleconferencing • Software distribution
Which network segment hosts respond to an address resolution protocol (ARP) request?
• Only the target host responds
Which are the two control entries found in a master file resource record (RR) entry? (Choose two.)
• Origin • Include
What is the primary difference between active and passive destinations in an enhanced interior gateway routing protocol (EIGRP) topology table?
• Passive tables are stable and trusted
What types of processes are located on two computers that perform approximately the same services?
• Peer
The TCP/IP model Network Interface Layer maps to which Open Systems Interconnection reference model (OSI/RM) layer(s)? (Choose all that apply.)
• Physical Layer • Data Link Layer
Tracert uses which of the following commands and IP fields to carry out its operation?
• Ping and time-to-live (TTL).
How can we verify that name resolution is working correctly?
• Ping one or more network hosts by both name and address.
Which ping tests would indicate that TCP/IP is working correctly on a network segment? (Choose three)
• Ping the local IP address. • Ping other local segment hosts by IP address. • Ping the local network segment router port.
How would we verify that TCP/IP is working on the local host?
• Ping the local loopback address
Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) supports which TCP/IP utility?
• Ping.
Which routing information protocol (RIP) stability feature sets a route's hop count to 16, preventing further updates from setting an incorrect route to an unreachable network?
• Poison reverse
Which two protocols deliver email directly to the email client? (Choose two.)
• Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3). • Internet Message Access Protocol version 4 (IMAP4).
What is the Telnet character device responsible for displaying incoming data?
• Printer.
Which choice best describes a Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) proxy agent?
• Proxy agents translate between SNMP and proprietary management systems.
Which transmission control protocol (TCP) function forces data delivery before filling the transmit buffer?
• Push
Which two flags can a sending application set to force the transmission control protocol (TCP) process to send data before filling the transmit buffer? (Choose two.)
• Push (PSH). • Urgent (URG).
Which is the file transfer protocol (FTP) command used to place files on an FTP server?
• Put.
Which command does the sender Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) issue to terminate the transmission control protocol (TCP) connection?
• QUIT.
Which Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) command does the sender process use to identify separate recipient mailboxes?
• RCPT.
In which three of the following ways does RIPv2 differ from routing information protocol (RIP)? (Choose three.)
• RIPv2 adds a Route Tag routing table entry. • RIPv2 supports variable length subnet masks. • RIPv2 provides update message authentication.
Of the five trivial file transfer protocol (TFTP) packet types, which three choices below are TFTP packet types? (Choose three.)
• Read request • Write request • Acknowledgment
Which two of the following result from implementing classless interdomain routing (CIDR)? (Choose two.
• Reduced network bandwidth utilization. • Conservation of available addresses.
Which two of the following are advantages gained from using static routes? (Choose two.)
• Reduced network overhead • Added network security
Which two TCP/IP protocols are used for network management? (Choose two.)
• Remote monitoring (RMON). • Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP).
Which best describes using a remote terminal versus direct access to a number of different hosts?
• Remote terminal access provides single terminal access to a number of remote hosts.
Which address resolution protocol (ARP) feature allows the local host to maintain a mapping of recently discovered IP-to-media access control (MAC) addresses?
• The ARP cache
They state that some of the networks can no longer connect to Internet services. You Telnet into their border router and look at the routing table entries. You see that their router administrator configured their router to advertise the following internal network: 220.68.0.0/21 Which of the following might be the problem's cause?
• The CIDR prefix is incorrect for this range of addresses
Which remote monitoring (RMON) group records and stores sample statistics for each monitored interface?
• The History Control Group.
Which combined information triggers a transmission control protocol (TCP) or user datagram protocol (UDP) application to respond to an information request?
• The Internet protocol (IP) address and port number.
What happens when a dynamic network address translation (NAT) device runs out of addresses to assign?
• The NAT device refuses new connections.
Which portion of the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) architecture is responsible for implementing SNMP and exchanging messages between the management station and the managed elements?
• The SNMP engine.
Which best describes IP's use of the time-to-live (TTL) field
• The TTL specifies the time a datagram is allowed to remain on the network.
When subnetting Class B addresses, what is the first subnet's wire address equal to
• The default network wire address.
When subnetting Class A addresses, which two of the following is the first subnet's wire address equal to? (Choose two.)
• The default wire address. • Netid.0.0.0.
Which statement is true concerning IP routing?
• The destination and source media access control (MAC) addresses change at each hop.
Why might a device send an Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) source quench message?
• The device does not have the buffering capacity to forward a datagram.
A Domain Name System (DNS) start of authority (SOA) entry indicates which of the following?
• The domain's primary DNS
Which two statements are true concerning IP addressing? (Choose two.)
• The host portion should not be all 1s. • The network portion bits should not be all 0s.
A subnet's broadcast address has which portion's bits set to all ones?
• The host portion.
Which statement best describes Handshake #1?
• The initiator sends a SYN segment to the target host's transmission control process (TCP) process.
You are troubleshooting a name resolution problem on your local network. You run two internal Domain Name System (DNS) servers, and they resolve all local hostnames. Where would you look to verify that your Windows clients are configured to use the correct DNS servers?
• The ipconfig response.
Which enhanced interior gateway routing protocol (EIGRP) routing table keeps a list of neighbors which are directly attached to one of the router's interfaces?
• The neighbor table.
When written in binary, the first part of a subnetted Class B network's wire address will show which bit pattern
• The network portion set as the default Class B network portion, the subnet portion to all 0s, and the host portion to all 0s.
The Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) recommends organizations use private IP addresses under which condition?
• The network uses gateways, routers, or firewalls to act on the network host's behalf.
Which of the following is true about time division multiplexing frames?
• The number of input channels to the multiplexer determines the length of a TDM frame. • The multiplexer systematically switches between each input, long enough for 1 byte from each input to be placed in a time slot at the output of the multiplexer.
Where does the Domain Name System (DNS) namespace begin
• The root.
A router makes its packet forwarding decisions based on what information?
• The router's routing table.
Given the IP address 67.89.124.189 and the subnet mask 255.224.0.0, which is the subnetted octet, and how frequently will it increment
• The second octet, by 32.
What happens first when an IP host needs to resolve an IP address to a media access control (MAC) address?
• The sending host looks in its address resolution protocol (ARP) cache for the necessary mapping.
In order for a host to communicate on a subnetted network segment, which two portions of its IP address must match those of the subnet address? (Choose two.
• The subnet portion • The network portion
What happens to a datagram marked as "do not fragment" if it must be transmitted across a network segment with a maximum transmission unit field (MTU) smaller than the datagram?
• The transmitting network device will drop the datagram, and notify the source.
Distance vector algorithms (DVA) operate in which manner?
• They advertise their routing tables to directly connected neighbor routers.
In which two ways might using static routes provide additional network security over other routing options? (Choose two.)
• They can limit packet traffic to only a single, dedicated route. • They share no routing information with other routers.
Which best describes Telnet's use of subnegotiations?
• They can vary in length and format.
Which utility displays a host's current Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS) over a TCP/IP connection?
• nbtstat.
Which TCP/IP troubleshooting tool is the fastest and easiest method to evaluate whether a host is available across a TCP/IP network?
• ping.
Which of the following echoes information back from an IP process?
• ping.
Which two of the following are examples of relative domain names in the ncti.com domain? (Choose two.)
• telnet • telnet.nct
Which of the following commands shows the path between source and destination in a TCP/IP network?
• tracert.
Which of the following troubleshooting tools tells how many hops to the destination computer?
• tracert.
What is the binary equivalent of the subnet mask 255.248.0.0?
11111111.11111000.00000000.00000000
Which Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) option code is used for specifying vendor specific options?
128 • DHCP assigns reusable addresses to any requesting host
How many total bits does a Class B subnet allow us to borrow from the host portion?
14
What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 1010
10
Convert the decimal IP address 206.190.36.45 to a binary IP address.
11001110.10111110.00100100.00101101
You need to integrate these six class C networks 201.36.35.0/24, 201.36.72.0/24, 201.36.78.0/24, 201.36.79.0/24, 201.36.80.0/24, and 201.36.141.0/24. Which of these networks would be in the classless interdomain routing (CIDR) network range 201.36.72.0/21?
201.36.72.0/24 201.36.78.0/24 201.36.79.0/24
The maximum Domain Name System (DNS) domain name length is how many characters?
255
Your customer owns a full Class C address, 220.14.56.0. They currently operate a flat network using the default Class C subnet mask, 255.255.255.0, and use a single router to connect to the Internet. What should the subnet mask number be changed to in order to segment their network into six subnets to better control broadcast traffic
255.255.255.224
How many Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) packets does the tracert utility send per hop?
3
How many Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) address allocation steps are required to enable the client to successfully acquire a lease from a server?
4
How many fragments will the transmitting device have to create to match the datagram to the segment's 512 maximum transfer unit (MTU) size, having a 1,500-byte datagram, and a 20-byte IP header?
4
If we borrow 12 bits from a Class B address, how many usable subnets have we created?
4,096
Which best describes a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) scope?
A range of addresses from which the server chooses a client address assignment
Which Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) management mode allows us to change a device's characteristics and operating parameters?
Active management.
Which three of the following are H.323 gatekeeper functions? (Choose three.) • Admissions control. • Call signaling. • Bandwidth management.
Admissions control. • Call signaling. • Bandwidth management.
Telnet is a protocol in which TCP/IP layer?
Application
Which three of the following are Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) address allocation mechanisms? (Choose three.)
Automatic • Dynamic • Manual
Which three of the following cost factors might least cost routing use to calculate a minimum-cost path for a packet? (Choose three.) •
Bandwidth. • Delay. • Cash costs.
Which of the choices below is an example of an exterior gateway protocol (EGP)?
Border gateway protocol (BGP).
Which file transfer protocol (FTP) command allows you to change directories within a file listing?
CD
Which wavelength division multiplexing (WDM) scheme operates over wavelengths that are compatible with multimode and single-mode fiber?
Coarse wavelength division multiplexing (CWDM) operates over wavelengths that are compatible with multimode and single-mode fiber.
Your network Help desk calls and asks you to help troubleshoot an email problem. Several users have complained that when they send email messages with attachments, the recipients reply that the attachments are unreadable. The message body is legible, however. You know that your users encode all attachments using Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension (MIME). Which is the best solution to this problem?
Contact the recipients, and have them use MIME to decode attachments.
The file transfer protocol (FTP) server process can run as which two of the following? (Choose two.)
Daemon • Windows service
What type of network communication does not require a router's services?
Direct routing.
Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP) allows TCP/IP users to perform which of the following?
Download news articles.
Which Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) address allocation method assigns reusable addresses to DHCP clients?
Dynamic.
In a subnetted Class B network, in what state will the host bits be on each subnet's broadcast address
Each subnet's host bits are set to all 1s
You are a networking consultant for a major telecommunications firm. They ask you to help them resolve a hacked email problem. It seems that someone is intercepting emails between district offices and inserting pornographic pictures in place of legitimate email attachments. How might you resolve this problem for them?
Implement Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension (S/MIME) encoding on all outbound email attachments.
DENSE WDM:
In DWDM applications, the wavelength spacing is typically specified by gigahertz (GHz) instead of wavelengths. While 12.5 GHz channel spacing is the closest spacing specified in ITU-T G.694.1, most deployed DWDM networks use 200 GHz (20 channels), 100 GHz (40 channels), or 50 GHz (80 channels) spacing.
What is a time division multiplexing (TDM) frame?
In TDM, the time slots are grouped into frames, which is one complete cycle of time slots. The number of input channels determines the length of a frame
What characterizes a connection-oriented time division multiplexing (TDM) application?
In a connection-oriented TDM application the packets are transported over a preselected path established between their source and destination.
What is an inefficient characteristic of conventional, or synchronous time division multiplexing?
In conventional, or synchronous TDM, the time slots on the output of the multiplexer can be allocated to sources without data, creating empty time slots.
Which TCP/IP Internetwork Layer provides troubleshooting utilities, such as ping and traceroute
Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
Which TCP/IP Internetwork Layer provides troubleshooting utilities, such as ping and traceroute?
Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).
The Open Systems Interconnection Reference Model (OSI/RM) Application Layer serves which primary purpose?
It provides the user interface to the system
How does a sending transmission control protocol (TCP) process handle a zero receive window size?
It sends periodic probe segments and waits for an ACK with a nonzero window size.
The Open Systems Interconnection reference model (OSI/RM) Physical Layer serves which primary purpose?
It transmits data in the form of bits across the physical medium.
The Open Systems Interconnection Reference Model (OSI/RM) Network Layer serves which primary purpose?
It uses Layer 3 (Network Layer) addresses to create multiple routed networks.
How does secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension (S/MIME) protect email from forgery and interception?
It uses digital signatures and public-key encryption techniques.
what does operating with dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM) in the optical C-band (1,530 to 1,565 nm) allow?
Operating DWDM in the optical C-band is in the range of wavelengths that can be amplified in the network using erbium doped fiber amplifiers (EDFA).
When a management station polls a device agent process to collect information, the network management system is operating in which Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) network management mode?
Passive.
Which three of the following are examples of Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) router management categories? (Choose three.)
Performance • Configuration • Security
An H.323 multipoint control unit (MCU) provides which service on a converged network?
• Terminal conferencing.
Remote monitoring (RMON) uses which devices, placed on remote network segments, to gather network information?
Probes.
A host on the local IP network segment has data to send to another host, located on another IP network. The source host needs to resolve the destination host's IP address to a media access control (MAC) address. Which protocol might the gateway router run in order to answer the local host's address resolution protocol (ARP) request?
Proxy ARP.
How does remote monitoring 2 (RMON2) differ from remote monitoring (RMON)?
RMON2 looks at Layer 3 traffic, while RMON only looks at Layers 1 and 2.
Why does Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) need additional protocols to carry non-text data as attachments?
SMTP only carries ASCII text characters.
Which Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) sets object values on an agent with it's protocol data units (PDU)?
SetRequest
Which two choices are TCP/IP email protocols? (Choose two.)
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). • Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP).
COURSE WDM:
Since it operates with less expensive lasers than required for DWDM, CWDM applications were expanded to include use in large metropolitan networks, utilizing wavelengths that are in the E-band (1,360 nm to 1,460 nm). The the ITU G.694.2 standard specifies 20 nm channel spacing and 18 channels.
Which mode of fiber-optic cable is used throughout the telecommunications industry because of its increased signal capacity, low signal attenuation, and low manufacturing costs?
Single-mode fiber-optic cable is used throughout the telecommunications industry because of its increased signal capacity, lower signal attenuation, and lower manufacturing costs than multimode optical fiber
Which Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) remote monitoring (RMON) extension prepares reports about a group of devices that head a measured parameter's statistical list?
The Host Top N Group.
What happens when the browser application finishes downloading the files necessary to display a web page?
The browser and server drop the connections, and the browser maintains the page and its elements in memory.
Which portion of optical fiber surrounds the core and keeps most of the optical signal internally reflected within the core?
The cladding, which surrounds the core, has a lower refractive index than the core, keeping most of the optical signal internally reflected within the core.
What caused orthogonal frequency division multiplexing (OFDM) to lay dormant for several years after it was conceptualized?
The complexity in executing fast Fourier transforms (FFT) caused OFDM technology to lay dormant after it was conceptualized until digital signal processing became available.
What results from trapping data with an Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) agent?
The managed device alerts the management station of a threshold violation.
What are the two dimensions of a signal that most basic multiplexing schemes are based upon?
The most basic multiplexing schemes are based on the time dimension for time division multiplexing (TDM), and the frequency dimension for frequency division multiplexing (FDM)
Which Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) protocol data unit (PDU) notifies the management station of the occurrence of a significant event?
Trap
A client Domain Name System (DNS) resolver wishes to resolve a Web server fully qualified domain name (FQDN) to an IP address. It sends its first message to its designated DNS server, requesting name to IP address resolution. This message contains: 1) The LAN protocol Data Link Layer header and trailer. 2) The IP header. 3) The user datagram (UDP) header. 4) The DNS resolver request. Why did the resolver send the DNS request in the first packet, rather than send an initial empty SYN packet?
UDP does not use SYN and ACK packets.
Which is a true statement concerning user datagram protocol (UDP)?
UDP servers must listen for service requests on well known ports, or else the transactions may fail.
Which best describes the user datagram protocol (UDP) demultiplexing process
UDP uses port numbers to allow multiple applications to communicate simultaneously on the same host.
Which choice is the best solution for allowing externally initiated connections through a network address and port translation (NAPT) network address translation (NAT) device?
Use static address mappings for any internal services we wish to make externally available.
WIDE WDM:
Used in passive optical network (PON) installations such as for transporting television signals and high-speed data (HSD) signals from the headend throughout the network and HSD signals from connected premises back to the headend.
What process takes the optical output from multiple lasers operating at different wavelengths and transports them over a single, common optical fiber?
Wavelength division multiplexing (WDM) is a process wherein the optical output from multiple lasers operating at different wavelengths is combined and transported over a single, common optical fiber.
Which three of the following are functions of the TCP/IP Internetwork Layer? (Choose three.
• A global addressing structure • Packet fragmentation • Service type requests
Which is the best reason to use the file transfer protocol (FTP) application?
When you need to pass large files over a slow connection
Which statement best describes proxy address resolution protocol (ARP)
Which statement best describes proxy address resolution protocol (ARP)
Which form of wavelength division multiplexing (WDM) is used in passive optical network (PON) installations to transport two optical carriers downstream and another optical carrier upstream over a single optical fiber?
Wide wavelength division multiplexing (WWDM) is used in PON installations to transport two optical carriers downstream and another optical carrier upstream over a single optical fiber.
Which name resolution technique dynamically resolves Windows host names to IP addresses?
Windows Internet Naming Service (WINS).
Which is another name for the decimal number system?
base 10
Your customer called and stated that they have installed a new border router in their subnetted network. This router supports CIDR, and they are excited that they can now advertise a single network route to the Internet, instead of the six they had advertised before. They own the Class C address range 220.68.0.0/18, and use the following class C network addresses on their internal network segments:
• 220.68.7.0 220.68.11.0 220.68.17.0 220.68.21.0 220.68.23.0 220.68.24.0
A Class C network address provides for how many network and host bits?
• 24 network, 8 hosts
A Class C address provides for a maximum of how many usable hosts?
• 254
Which broadcast IP address limits packets to the local network segment only?
• 255.255.255.255
Which is a valid email address?
How does the receiver Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) respond to the sender SMTP issued Data command?
• 354 start mail input.
What is the overall data rate of a fractional T1 circuit with six voice circuits?
• 384 kbps
At which point in the lease period does the client first attempt to renew its lease
• 50 percent
How many total bits does a Class B subnet allow us to borrow from the host portion?
• 512
The local transmission control protocol (TCP) process sends four segments, each 4 bytes long. The first sequence number is 7,806,002. Which is the acknowledgment number the receiving process returned to indicate it received segment one?
• 7,806,006
Which Quality of Service (QoS( protocols could a network support to provide robust voice over Internet protocol (VoIP) services? (Choose two.)
• 802.1p. • Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP).
Which TCP/IP application allows a network user to remotely log on and manipulate a network device?
• Telnet.
In a set of subnet address ranges, which is the first wire address in the first subnet
the default network's wire address.
Which TCP/IP application allows us to transfer files either within a browser or at the command line?
• File transfer protocol (FTP).
Which two of the following are considered reserved IP addresses? (Choose two.)
• 0.x.y.z • 127.x.y.z
How would IP multicasting map address 224.0.0.1 to an Ethernet multicast address?
• 01:00:5E:00:00:01
What is the overall data rate of a T1 circuit?
• 1.544 Mbs
Which is the valid Class A IP address range available to network hosts?
• 1.hhh.hhh.hhh-126.hhh.hhh.hhh
Which are considered private Internet protocol (IP) addresses? (Choose three.)
• 10.0.0.0 • 172.31.255.255 • 192.168.0.0
What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 129
• 10000001
What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 254?
• 11111110
How long is an Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) address?
• 128 bits.
Which is the valid Class B IP address range?
• 128.001.hhh.hhh-191.254.hhh.hhh
Which is a valid Class B network address?
• 151.129.89.76
Convert the binary IP address 10101111.11001100.00010110.01010101 to a decimal IP address.
• 175.204.22.85
At what maximum distance would you have to add a repeater to a 10Base2 network segment to prevent signal degradation?
• 185 m
Which is the valid Class C IP address range?
• 192.000.001.hhh-223.255.254.hhh
Using the default Class C subnet mask, 255.255.255.0, which two addresses will be able to communicate on the same network segment? (Choose two.
• 192.200.129.18 • 192.200.129.179
Using the subnet mask 255.255.255.248, which two addresses are on the same subnet? (Choose two.
• 194.212.56.18 • 194.212.56.20
Using the subnet mask 255.255.255.240, which two addresses are on the same subnet? (Choose two.
• 200.193.15.49 • 200.193.15.61
Which two of the following are examples of local area network (LAN) logical addresses? (Choose two.)
• 201.90.35.78 • Port 23
You wish to implement voice over Internet protocol (VoIP) services on your existing data network. Part of your plan is to allow telecommuters to call network users from their home public switched telephone network (PSTN) telephones. Which H.323 device must you install in your existing data network to allow for these remote connections?
• A PSTN gateway.
Match the well known transmission control port (TCP) port numbers with the associated applications.
• Domain Name System (DNS) Port 53 • Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) Port 80 • Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) Port 25 • NetBIOS session service Port 139 • File transfer protocol (FTP) control Port 21 • File transfer protocol (FTP) data Port 20 • Telnet Port 23
To resolve fully qualified domain names (FQDN) to binary IP addresses, resolvers contact which type of TCP/IP application server?
• Domain Name System (DNS).
Which two choices are examples of trivial file transfer protocol (TFTP) use? (Choose two.)
• Download router upgrades. • Software upgrades to IP telephones.
Which Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) network address allocation mechanism assigns a host a temporary IP address?
• Dynamic
Which protocol allows clients to locate and download IP addressing and configuration information on an automatically renewable (lease) basis?
• Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
Which TCP/IP client/server service would allow an administrator to quickly reconfigure host configuration information?
• Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).
In order to automatically build a routing table, which type of indirect routing must a router use?
• Dynamic.
Which routing type allows network administrators to implement route load balancing and fault tolerance?
• Dynamic.
A ping command uses which Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) message types? (Choose two.)
• Echo Request. • Echo Reply.
Which of the following protocols scales better within a Cisco autonomous system?
• Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol.
With the subnet mask 255.255.255.128, how frequently will the Class B subnets increment, and in which octet
• Every 128 hosts; third and fourth octets.
By default, how frequently do routing information protocol (RIP) routers send out response messages to neighbor routers?
• Every 30 seconds
Which of the following protocols do autonomous systems (AS) use to exchange routing information between themselves?
• Exterior gateway protocol (EGP)
Which three of the following are file transfer protocol (FTP) objectives? (Choose three.)
• File sharing. • Transparent file storage technology. • Reliable data transfer.
Which two of the following might cause a ping across network boundaries to fail? (Choose two.)
• Firewalls on the router ports. • Internet Control Message Filters (ICMP) filters on the router ports.
What type of routing table update message does Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) send to quickly remove a route and place it in holddown?
• Flash updates.
Which three choices are transmission control protocol (TCP) features? (Choose three.)
• Flow control . • Packet error recovery. • Demultiplexing multiple applications.
Which two codecs support audio coding at 64 Kbps? (Choose two.)
• G.711 • G.722
Which of the following are H.323 audio codecs? (Choose two.)
• G.711 • G.728
Which protocol data unit (PDU) type requests that the management agent return attribute values for a list of managed objects?
• GetRequest.
Which two of the following result from using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing areas? (Choose two.)
• Greatly reduced routing information traffic within the entire autonomous system (AS). • The development of a routing information hierarchy.
Which H.323 recommendation protocol handles registration, admission, and status (RAS)?
• H.225
Which protocols assist H.323 in controlling and monitoring connections? (Choose two.)
• H.225 • H.245
Which Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) command identifies the sending host?
• HELO
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routers send which type of packet to locate their neighbors?
• Hello.
Which type of network architecture allows routers to perform different tasks depending on their functional position within an area?
• Hierarchical.
Which three choices are Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) stability features? (Choose three.)
• Holddowns • Split horizons • Poison reverse updates
Which three of the following are distance vector algorithm (DVA) stability features? (Choose three.)
• Holddowns • Hop-count limits • Split horizons
IP routing information protocol (RIP) uses which of the following metrics to make path decisions?
• Hop count
Which three of the following are examples of dynamic routing protocol metrics? (Choose three.)
• Hop count . • Line capacity. • Transmission delay.
Which metric does Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) use on a network with only one medium, such as one running 16-Mbps Token Ring exclusively?
• Hop count.
How does routing information protocol (RIP) resolve the count-to-infinity problem?
• Hop-count limits.
Which two mechanisms might a host use to resolve fully qualified domain names (FQDN) to IP addresses? (Choose two.)
• Hosts table • Domain Name System (DNS
What type of device is used with unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cable to create a star network configuration?
• Hub
Which statement best describes Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)?
• IMAP allows users to scan email headers and choose email messages to download from the email server.
The destination transmission control protocol (TCP) process has set a 1,000- byte receive buffer window. The source TCP sequence number starts at 23,100 and sends the following segments, in order: Segment 1-200 bytes; Segment 2-300 bytes; Segment 3-200 bytes; and Segment 4-300 bytes. The last acknowledgment the source received was sequence number 23,600 saying the receive buffer can now hold 800-300 byte streams. The retransmission timer for sequence number 23,600 has expired, so what will the source TCP do next?
• Resend segments 3 and 4.
Zones maintain domain name information in which record types?
• Resource records (RR).
Which IP protocol allows a diskless workstation to contact a server and obtain an IP address?
• Reverse address resolution protocol (RARP).
Which two of the following are default Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) features? (Choose two.)
• Route update period = 90 seconds • Maximum hop count = 100
Which network device allows communication between separate IP networks?
• Router.
Which network device can isolate broadcast traffic to the local network segment?
• Router.
Enhanced interior gateway routing protocol (EIGRP) was designed to replace or enhance which two previous routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• Routing Information Protocol • Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
Which two dynamic routing protocols create flat network topologies? (Choose two.)
• Routing information protocol (RIP). • Interdomain routing protocol (IDRP).
Which of the following statements concerning Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is correct?
• SMTP delivers mail from one computer to another.
You maintain an autonomous routing network that runs RIPv1 as its routing protocol. You calculate that at the workday's busy hours, routing changes occurring on the nearest router take 45 seconds to propagate to the furthest router. In the past, this slow convergence has resulted in routing loops. How might you configure your routers to avoid creating routing loops when route changes occur within the network?
• Set 50-second route update holddowns on all routers.
In what ways does open shortest path first (OSPF) improve upon the limitations of distance vector algorithm (DVA) protocols, such as routing information protocol (RIP)? (Choose three.)
• Shortest Path First (SPF) technology resists routing loops. • Routers exchange routing table updates only • All routing table exchanges are authenticated.
What does each link-state router build to describe the cost to reach each destination network?
• Shortest path first (SPF) tree
Internet email uses which two protocols? (Choose two.)
• Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). • Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3).
Which three of the following are typical network manager components? (Choose three.)
• Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) engine. • Transport/link. • Management information base (MIB) database.
Which communication process typically is the least intelligent?
• Slave
Which two statements are true concerning distance vector algorithm (DVA) routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• Slow convergence can cause such problems as routing loops and lost packets. • They usually require fewer router resources to compute the best path to a destination network than do other routing protocols.
Router 1, a routing information protocol (RIP) router in a two-router network, informs its neighbor, Router 2, of a route to the new, directly connected Network A. Router 2 updates its routing table accordingly. Almost immediately, Router 1's link to Network A fails. Router 1 prepares its regular update for Router 2, excluding the Network A entry from the update message. While Router 1 is waiting for its update timer to expire, Router 2 sends its regular update message to Router 1. This update tells Router 1 that Router 2 has a new route to Network A, with a hop count of 1. This route is through Router 2 back to Router 1, although Router 1's link to Network A is still failed. Which RIP stability feature will prevent this problem?
• Split horizons
What are the attributes of Carrier Ethernet?
• Standardized services • Scalability • Reliability • Service management • Quality of service
Hubs connect network hosts in which configuration?
• Star
Considering the default Cisco router default administrative distances (AD), which of the following routes will a router consider more trustworthy than the others?
• Static route.
Which three choices are indirect routing types? (Choose three.
• Static. • Default. • Dynamic.
Which three modes does file transfer protocol (FTP) use to transfer data? (Choose three.)
• Stream. • Block. • Compressed.
On which network type is a static route best used?
• Stub.
Which OSI/RM Data Link Layer 2 device creates multiple network segments, each offering the full network bandwidth?
• Switch
Which three devices forward broadcast traffic? (Choose three.)
• Switch. • Bridge. • Repeater.
Which multimedia protocol specifies a multipoint conferencing transport?
• T.120
Which are the well know transmission control protocol (TCP) ports for file transfer protocol (FTP) server control and data? (Choose two.)
• TCP Port 20 • TCP Port 21
The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) receiver accepts incoming email on which well known port?
• TCP Port 25
Before data can be sent between applications using transmission control protocol (TCP), which of the following must occur?
• TCP connection must be established.
Which application protocols does file transfer protocol (FTP) use on its command channel?
• Telnet
In which three ways do organizations benefit from using private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
• They gain more network design flexibility with a large address range. • They prevent Internet address clashes when obtaining only a small range of Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) assigned addresses. • They conserve public IP addresses when uniqueness is not required.
Which statement best describes transmission control protocol's (TCP) use of sequence numbers?
• They identify the sequence number of the first data byte in the segment.
If a Class B address's subnet mask is 255.255.254.0, in which octet does our subnet portion increment?
• Third
If a Class B address's subnet mask is 255.255.255.192, in which octet does the subnet portion increment?
• Third and fourth.
What makes time division multiplexing (TDM) ideal for applications that use circuit and packet switching protocols?
• Time slot allocation.
Which two of the following are reasons why an organization would choose to subnet their network? (Choose two.)
• To build a more scalable network • To conserve network addresses
Why might we use Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) testing on an IP network?
• To obtain feedback about various problems that might occur on the network.
Why would you use a Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) relay agent on your network?
• To pass BOOTP messages between subnets
When troubleshooting, why is it important to recreate a problem?
• To recognize that there is a problem. • To record the circumstances in which the problem occurred. • To help focus your efforts. •ALL OF THE ABOVE
Why did the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) design classless interdomain routing (CIDR)
• To reduce routing table entries.
Which three of the following are typical resolver functions? (Choose three.)
• Translation of host name to host address (IP address). • Translation of host address to host name. • General lookup function that returns all of a resource record's (RR) content, rather than a processed form
Which of the following services does Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) use?
• Transmission control protocol (TCP).
What is the primary purpose of a Physical Layer protocol?
• Transmit bits across a physical link
What is the primary purpose of a Data Link Layer protocol?
• Transmit frames across a physical link
What is the primary purpose of a Transport Layer protocol?
• Transmit messages from process to process
What is the primary purpose of a Network Layer protocol?
• Transmit packets across a network
Which three of the following are typical management agent components? (Choose three.)
• Transport protocol. • Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) engine. • Management profile.
Which three of the following applications utilize user datagram protocol (UDP)? (Choose three.
• Trivial file transfer protocol (TFTP). • Simple network management protocol (SNMP). • Domain Name System (DNS).
A hub may be used to provide connectivity in both a star and star ring network. True or False?
• True
An organization may use more than one type of topology in a single network. True or False?
• True
Quality of Service (QoS) routing uses which Internet protocol (IP) header field to make route decisions?
• Type of Service (ToS).
Which of the choices below is a Transport Layer protocol?
• User datagram protocol (UDP)
Which TCP/IP Transport Layer protocol provides an end-to-end, transaction- oriented, best-effort, connectionless service?
• User datagram protocol (UDP).
Which IP packet frame field ensures that the gateways handling a datagram agree on the datagram's format?
• Version.
Transmission control protocol (TCP) establishes which type of circuit between applications?
• Virtual
Which protocol reduces the number of client terminal protocols the remote host must support?
• Virtual terminal protocol (VTP)
In which cases will a BOOTP relay agent discard a BOOTREQUEST message? (Choose three.)
• When the destination port is 68. • If the OpCode is not 1 or 2. • If the Hop count field value exceeds 16.
Which Telnet single command option code tells the requestor that the remote will not perform the option?
• Won't (252).
To determine the path your IP packets take to reach a remote office router, you issue the tracert command from a local network host, targeted at the remote office router's outside interface. Previous tracert replies showed the router nine hops away, so you set the tracert command's maximum hops option to 10. You ping the remote router interface, 191.67.17.2, and it succeeds. You issue the command tracert -h 10 191.67.17.2, but the tracert result does not list the router interface's IP address. Which might be a reason why this occurred?
• Your Internet service provider (ISP) has added routers between your local and remote network
Which address resolution protocol (ARP) command option shows the contents of the local ARP cache?
• arp -a.
Which TCP/IP tool allows you to display a workstation's network configuration values?
• ipconfig.
Which of the following commands shows the addresses configured on a Microsoft PC?
• ipconfig.
Which of the following helps to determine local addressing information?
• ipconfig.
Which command uses Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS) to display protocol statistics on a local host?
• nbtstat.