Networking Final Exam
Which of the following IP addresses would be a loopback IP address?
127.0.0.1
What is the following equal to? 11000000 . 10101000 . 00001001 . 11111111
96.168.9.255
On a Linux system, which command allows you to modify settings used by the built-in packet filtering firewall? a. iptables b. netwall c. ipf d. modfire
A
In considering the responsibilities of each layer of the OSI model, what statement accurately reflects those of the Presentation layer?
The presentation layer is responsible for reformatting, compressing and or encrypting data in a way that the application on the receiving end can read.
What happens when a router receives a packet with a TTL of 0?
The router drops the packet and sends an ICMP TTL expired message back to the host.
Diffraction has what affect on a wireless signal's propagation?
The signal is split into secondary waves that continue in the direction in which they split
How do routers create a broadcast domain boundary?
They do not forward broadcast traffic.
All wireless signals are carried through the air by electromagnetic waves.
True
IP is an unreliable, connectionless protocol, as it does not establish a session to send its packets.
True
When troubleshooting wireless issues, what statement is accurate?
Access points that use overlapping channels can cause interference with each other if they are too close.
Multimode fiber contains a core that is larger than a single-mode fiber core?
True
The cost of upgrading infrastructure has been a major factor in the slow adoption of IPv6.
True
The fundamental difference between a switch and a router is that a switch belongs only to its local network and a router belongs to two or more local networks.
True
The most secure Wi-Fi communication is made possible by combining a RADIUS server with WPA or WPA2, known as WPA-Enterprise or WPA2-Enterprise, respectively.
True
Your supervisor has asked you to configure a new prototype network with a dual stack configuration. What does this mean?
Both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols will be used on the network.
What does DHCP stand for?
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
An IPv6 address consists of 128 bits that are written as 10 blocks of hexadecimal numbers separated by colons.
False
IPv4 and IPv6 use the same packet format.
False
Infrared technology utilizes an LED that emits light with shorter wavelengths than red light.
False
TCP uses a four-step process called a four-way handshake to establish a TCP connection.
False
The protocol data unit for the Physical layer of the OSI model is payload, or data.
False
UDP provides error checking, but not sequencing.
False
What is NOT one of the three characteristics of TCP in its role as a reliable delivery protocol?
Framing
What is a defining characteristic of a bus topology based network?
Devices or Daisy chained together in a single line
A differential backup covers what data on a system?
Includes data that has changed since last full back up
What does a statement of work document do?
It documents in detail the work that must be completed for a particular object, and includes specifics such as tasks, deliverables, standards, payment schedule, and work timeline.
Which of the following statements about fiber-optic cabling is accurate?
Light experiences has virtually no resistance when traveling through glass.
What are VLANs and why do we use them?
VLANs allow to segment one physical switch into several virtual switches or virtual lans (VLAN).VLANs allow network administrators to automatically limit access to a specified group of users by dividing workstations into different isolated LAN segments. When users move their workstations, administrators don't need to reconfigure the network or change VLAN groups. In a large company different departments need different services and servers to do that you would need different switches but that would be inefficient so VLANs are set up to make virtual switches from the 1 switch.
if multiple honeypots are connected to form a larger network, what term is used to describe the network? a. honeynet
a
if you wish to maintain a "4 nines" availability rating, what is the maximum amount of down time you can have per day? a. 8 seconds b. .4 seconds c. 14 minutes, 23 seconds d. 1 minute, 26 seconds
a
At what layer of the OSI model do the IP, ICMP, and ARP protocols operate?
Network
During termination of twisted pair cabling, what should be done to ensure minimal cross talk is introduced?
No more than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed.
In a domain, the process of allowing a user to sign on to the network from any computer on the network and get access to resources is managed by what service?
active directory domain services (ADDS)
A virus that remains dormant until a specific condition is met, such as the changing of a file or a match of the current date is known as what type of malware? A) encrypted virus B) logic bomb C) boot sector virus D) worm
b
Each managed object on a managed device using SNMP is assigned which of the following? a. inode number b. object identifier (OID) c. process ID d. TCP/UDP port
b
On a Cisco switch, what would the security association identifier be for VLAN 13? :a. 5013 b. 100013 c. 1013 d. 1000130
b
Once a device has failed, what metric measures the average amount of time to repair? a. mean field replacement time (MFRT) b. mean time to repair (MTTR) c. mean time to restore (MTTR) d. mean restoration time (MRT)
b
The combination of a public key and a private key are known by what term below? a. key set b. key pair c. key team d. key tie
b
What is distributed switching? a. It is a single physical switch that is partitioned in software to perform as multiple switches. b. It is a single distributed vSwitch that can service VMs across multiple hosts. c. It is when multiple physical switches are configured to act as a single switch. d. It is multiple switches that provide redundancy switching for all switches in the group.
b
What penetration testing tool combines known scanning and exploit techniques to explore potentially new attack routes? A) Nessus B) metasploit C) nmap D) Sub7
b
Which of the following scenarios represents a phishing attempt? a. A gift was offered to an employee with access to secured information in exchange for details. b. An e-mail was sent to a manager at your company that appeared to be from the company's CTO, asking for access. c. A person posing as an employee tried to access a secured area at your organization. d. An employee at your company has received a malware-infected file in their e-mail.
b
A snapshot is most similar to which type of backup scheme? a. versioned backup b. differential backup c. incremental backup d. full backup
c
An attack that relies on redirected and captured secure transmissions as they occur is known as what type of attack? a. buffer overflow b. session hijacking attack c. man-in-the-middle attack d. banner-grabbing attack
c
At what point is a packet considered to be a giant? a.It becomes a giant once a VLAN tag is added. b.It becomes a giant only when fragmented pieces are reassembled and the packet size is too large. c.It becomes a giant when it exceeds the medium's maximum packet size. d.It becomes a giant when it exceeds 1500 bytes.
c
If someone is offered a free gift or service in exchange for private information or access to a computer system, what type of social engineering is taking place? a. phishing b. baiting c. quid pro quo d. tailgating
c
In ACL statements, using the "any" keyword is equivalent to using a wildcard mask of what value? a. 0.0.255.255 b. 0.0.0.0 c. 255.255.255.255 d. 255.255.0.0
c
In metro settings, end-to-end, carrier-grade Ethernet networks can be established via what protocol? a. Metro Carrier Transport b. Intra-city Ethernet c. Carrier Ethernet Transport d. Ethernet SONET
c
The Group Policy utility can be opened by typing what name into a Run box? a. secpol.msc b. grouppol.msc c. gpedit.msc d. grppol.msc
c
What does the Common Address Redundancy Protocol do? a. It allows multiple devices to share hardware resources. b. It allows multiple devices to share the same fully qualified domain name. c. It allows a pool of computers or interfaces to share the same IP address. d. It allows a pool of computers or interfaces to share the same MAC address.
c
What is NOT a potential disadvantage of utilizing virtualization? a. Multiple virtual machines contending for finite resources can compromise performance. b. Licensing costs can be high due to every instance of commercial software requiring a separate license. c. Virtualization software increases the complexity of backups, making creation of usable backups difficult. d. Increased complexity and administrative burden can result from the use of virtual machines.
c
What is NOT one of the ways in which networks are commonly segmented? a. by geographic location b. by device types c. by device manufacturer d. by departmental boundaries
c
What security encryption protocol requires regular re-establishment of a connection and can be used with any type of TCP/IP transmission? A) L2TP B) TLS C) IPsec D) SSL
c
What statement regarding the different versions of the SHA hashing algorithm is accurate? a. SHA-1 supports a 128-bit hash function. b. SHA-0 is the most secure version of SHA. c. SHA-2 and SHA-3 both support the same hash lengths. d. SHA-2 only supports a 256-bit hash.
c
When an 802.1Q tag is added to an Ethernet frame, where is it placed? a. It is inserted between the preamble and the destination address. b. It is inserted between the destination and the source addresses. c. It is inserted between the source address and the Ethernet type field. d. It is appended to the end of the frame.
c
Which command can be used on a Windows system to create a hash of a file? a. md5 b. shasum c. Get-FileHash d. Compute-FileHash
c
Which of the following Layer 1 WAN technologies is not normally used as last mile service, but rather traverses multiple ISP networks, connecting these networks to the Internet backbone? a. digital subscriber line (DSL) b. T-carrier (T1s, fractional T1s, and T3s) c. SONET (Synchronous Optical Network) d. Carrier-Ethernet Transport (CET)
c
Which of the following is an advantage of leasing a frame relay circuit over leasing a dedicated circuit? a.Frame relay is a newly established network technology with more features than other technology. b.You are guaranteed to receive the maximum amount of bandwidth specified in the circuit contract c.You pay only for the bandwidth you require. d.The paths that your data will take are always known.
c
Which statement regarding the Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) technology is accurate? a.ATM is a point-to-multipoint WAN access technology that uses packet switching. b.In ATM, a message is called a frame and always consists of 1500 bytes of data. c.ATM can provide 4 levels of QoS, from best effort delivery to guaranteed, real-time transmission. d.ATM is highly dependent on predetermined schemes that specify the timing of data transmissions.
c
Which statement regarding the use of cable modems is NOT accurate? a. Cable broadband provides a dedicated and continuous connection. b. Modems that utilize the DOCSIS 3.0 or 3.1 standard are backward compatible with older DOCSIS networks. c. Cable modems only operate at the Physical layer of the OSI model. d. DOCSIS 3.1 allows for full duplex speeds up to 10 Gbps.
c
A highly available server is available what percentage of the time? a. 90% b. 99% c. 99.99% d. 99.999%
d
In a public switched telephone network, what portion of the network is known as the local loop? a. It is the portion of the network from the remote switching facility to the central office. b. It is the inside wire within the residence or business that connects to the NIU. c. It is the portion of the network between the NIU and the remote switching facility. d. It is the portion that connects any residence or business to the nearest central office.
d
Of all the DSL standards, which is the most commonly in use today? a. G.Lite b. VDSL c. SDSL d. ADSL
d
A RAID 5 configuration requires a minimum of two hard disks to operate. True False
f
A hot site consists of computers, devices, and connectivity necessary to rebuild a network exist, but without appropriate configuration. True False
f
A stateless firewall inspects each incoming packet to determine whether it belongs to a currently active connection. True False
f
A system with an availability of 99.999% can be down for a maximum of 52 minutes per year. t/f
f
An 802.11ac signal can travel for approximately 2 miles from the source. True False
f
DSL services require many subscribers to share the same local line, causing potential security concerns. t/f
f
A hot site consists of computers, devices, and connectivity necessary to rebuild a network exist, but without appropriate configuration.
false
The Data Link layer attaches a trailer to the end of a packet, and does not include a header.
false
What IPv6 field is similar to the TTL field in IPv4 packets?
hop limit
Where is a demarc located in relation to the structured cabling of an enterprise environment?
in the Main Distribution Frame (MDF)
What command can you utilize to display TCP/IP configuration information for each network adapter installed?
ipconfig /all
A Windows computer on your network is having issues resolving queries for a specific domain, but not other domains. Other computers on the same network resolve the name just fine. What command can you issue that might fix the problem?
ipconfig/flushdns
What routing metric affects a path's potential performance due to delay?
latency
At what layer of the OSI model does a network switch normally operate?
layer 2
What command will list only current connections, including IP addresses and port numbers?
netstat -n
What utility is used to verify that TCP/IP installed, bound to the NIC, configured correctly, and communicating with the network?
ping
At the Transport layer of the OSI, what is used to find and communicate with a particular application running on a host?
port numbers
A wireless node that is in active scanning mode transmits what special type of frame in order to find available access points?
probe frame
In general, a Layer 3 or Layer 4 switch is still optimized for fast Layer 2 data handling.
true
Latency on data networks is based on a calculation of a packet's round trip time (RTT).
true
If your network consists of all connected devices connecting to one central device, such as a switch, what type of topology is being used?
star topology
A brownout is a momentary decrease in voltage; also known as a sag. t/f
t
In a frame relay WAN, the ISP typically has the data circuit terminating equipment (DCE). t/f
t
A person posing as an employee strikes up a conversation with a legitimate employee as they walk into a secured area, in an attempt to gain access. What kind of social engineering is this?
tailgating
A hexadecimal number is a number written in the base 16 number system.
True
What IEEE standard specifies how VLAN information appears in frames and how switches interpret that information
802.1q
Convert this number to hex. 131
83
What scenario describes an evil twin attack?
A malicious access point is configured with the SSID of a non-malicious public access point.
Which of the following is not a task handled by a router?
A router forwards broadcasts over the network.
When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network router?
An icon that has a hockey-puck shape with two arrows pointing inward and two arrows pointing outward.
When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network switch?
An icon that is rectangular, which contains four arrows pointing in opposite directions.
When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network firewall?
An icon that resembles a brick wall.
Upon connecting to a Wi-Fi network, you're redirected to a login screen and a request to accept terms of service before being connected. What is this an example of?
Captive portal
The 802.11 standard specifies the use of what technique in order to minimize the potential for collisions?
Carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (CSMA/CA)
What occurs when a collision happens on a network?
Each node on the network waits a random amount of time and then resends the transmission.
The Data Link Layer utilizes what name for its protocol data unit (PDU)?
Frame
The Wired Equivalent Privacy standard had what significant disadvantage?
It used a shared encryption key for all clients, and the key might never change.
What statement correctly describes "jitter"?
Jitter is what happens when packets experience varying amounts of delay and arrive out of order.
The frame header at the Data Link layer includes hardware addresses of the source and destination NICs. What is another name for this address?
MAC address
By far the most popular AAA service, what open-source service runs in the Application layer and can use UDP or TCP in the Transport layer?
Radius
What statement correctly identifies the purpose of a software patch?
Software patch is a correction improvement or enhancement software
Proxy servers and ACLs on network devices are examples of non-security devices with security features, while firewalls and IDS/IPS systems are the network's specialized security devices. T/F
T
The IP connectionless protocol relies on what other protocol to guarantee delivery of data?
TCP
Which of the following is an example of encapsulation?
The addition of a header to data inherited from the lawyer above in the OSI model
Why should you not leave more than 1 inch of exposed cable before a twisted-pair termination?
The exposure of the cable can cause transmission interference between wires.
How can you determine the manufacturer of a NIC card based on the MAC address?
The first 24 bits, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier, identify the manufacturer.
In the event of a duplicate MAC address shared by two hosts on a switched network, what statement is accurate?
The hosts will still send and receive traffic, but traffic may not always reach the correct destination.
What part of a MAC address serves as the extension identifier, or device ID?
The last 24 bits of the MAC address.
What statement accurately reflects what occurs when a message is too large to transport on a network?
The message is divided into smaller messages called segments (for TCP) or diagrams for (UDP)
The TCP and UDP protocols both exist at what layer of the OSI model?
Transport
A differential backup covers what data on a system? a.It includes data that has changed since the last full backup. b.It includes only data that has changed since the last backup. c.It includes data that has changed since the last incremental backup. d.It includes all data every time it is performed.
a
A vSwitch (virtual switch) or bridge is a logically defined device that operates at what layer of the OSI model? a. Layer 2 b. Layer 7 c. Layer 1 d. Layer 4
a
An IP address of 192.168.18.73/28 has what network ID? a. 192.168.18.64 b. 192.168.16.0 c. 192.168.18.32 d. 192.168.18.0
a
At what layer of the OSI model does the IPsec encryption protocol operate? a. Network layer b. Transport layer c. Application layer d. Presentation layer
a
Enforcing a virtual security perimeter using a client's geographic location is known by what term? a. geofencing b. geohashing c. geolocking d. geolocating
a
Given a host IP address of 172.16.1.154 and a subnet mask of 255.255.254.0, what is the network ID for this host? answer choices a. 172.16.0.0 b. 172.16.1.0 c. 172.16.2.0 d. 172.0.0.0
a
In Open System Authentication, how does authentication occur? a. The client "authenticates" using only the SSID name. In other words, no real authentication occurs. b. The client requests an encrypted tunnel, after which, the client's MAC serves as the authentication. c. The client sends a pre-shared key along with the access point's SSID. d. The access point forces the client to authenticate via a captive portal, after which all communication is encrypted.
a
In a red team-blue team exercise, what is the purpose of the blue team? :a. The blue team is charged with the defense of the network. b. The blue team must observe the actions of the red team. c. The blue team is tasked with attacking the network. d. The blue team consists of regulators that ensure no illegal activity is undertaken.
a
In planning for disaster recovery, what is the ultimate goal? a. The continuation of business. b. The management of damage. c. The protection of infrastructure. d. The preservation of critical data
a
In regards to the use of local authentication, what statement is accurate? a. Local authentication is network and server failure tolerant. b. Local authentication provides the most security. c. Local authentication does not allow for strong enough passwords. d. Local authentication is scalable for large networks.
a
The grouping of multiple servers so that they appear as a single device to the rest of the network is known as which term? a. clustering b. server overloading c. link aggregating d. load balancing
a
What does the VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) do? a. It shares VLAN database information amongst switches that participate. b. It is the protocol that defines how VLAN tagging is accomplished in an Ethernet network. c. It is the protocol used by a trunk port for establishing a trunk with another switch. d. It shares trunking information amongst switches that participate.
a
What type of virtual circuit allows connections to be established when parties need to transmit, then terminated after the transmission is complete? a. switched virtual circuit (SVC) b. permanent virtual circuit (PVC) c. dynamic virtual circuit (DVC) d. looping virtual circuit (LVC)
a
When using public and private keys to connect to an SSH server from a Linux device, where must your public key be placed before you can connect? a. In an authorization file on the host where the SSH server is. b. In the /etc/ssh/keys folder. c. In an authorization file under your home directory on your computer. d. In the /var/run/ssh/public folder.
a
When using public and private keys to connect to an SSH server from a Linux device, where must your public key be placed before you can connect? A) in an authorization file under your home directory on your computer. B) in an authorization file on the host where the SSH server is. C) in the /etc/ssh/keys folder. D) in the /var/run/ssh/public folder.
a
Which of the following statements describes a RAID 0 configuration? a. It allows a pool of computers or interfaces to share the same IP address. b. It allows a pool of computers or interfaces to share the same MAC address. c. It allows multiple devices to share the same fully qualified domain name. d. It allows multiple devices to share hardware resources.
a
Why is the telnet utility a poor choice for remote access to a device? a. It provides poor authentication and no encryption. b. It does not allow for control of a computer remotely. c. It provides no mechanism for authentication. d. It cannot be used over a public WAN connection.
a
Which of the following statements describes a RAID 0 configuration? a. In a RAID 0, data is mirrored on multiple disks to provide fault tolerance. b. In a RAID 0, data is striped across multiple disks to improve performance. c. In a RAID 0, data is striped across three or more drives, with parity information added to the data. d. In a RAID 0, four or more disks are used to mirror data within each pair of disks, and then striped to multiple pairs of disks.
b
Which type of DSL technology has equal download and upload speeds maxing out at around 2 Mbps? a. VDSL b. SDSL c. ADSL2+ d. HDSL
b
which of the following is an advantage of leasing a frame relay circuit over leasing a dedicated circuit? a. You are guaranteed to receive the maximum amount of bandwidth specified in the circuit contract b. You pay only for the bandwidth you require. c. Frame relay is a newly established network technology with more features than other technology. d. The paths that your data will take are always known.
b
On an ATM network, how is the path that data will take determined? a. A frame relay route table establishes each hop that will be taken to a single destination. b. Data is transmitted, and then the path taken will vary depending on the load encountered at each ATM participant node. c. When data is ready to be transmitted, an ATM participating router will contact the destination ATM router, establish a tunnel, then pass the data. d. Switches determine the optimal path between sender and receiver, and then establish the path before transmission.
d
Packets that are smaller than a medium's minimum packet size are known by what term below? a. giants b. ghosts c. jabbers d. runts
d
When using DOCSIS 3.0, what is the minimum number of channels that can be used? a. 2 b. 1 c. 16 d. 4
d
What layer of the OSI model describes how data between applications is synced and recovered if messages don't arrive intact at the receiving application?
session layer
