Neuro Nclex (Assessment, stroke, headache, seizure)

2. When a patient is experiencing a cluster headache, the nurse will plan to assess for a. nuchal rigidity. b. projectile vomiting. c. unilateral eyelid swelling. d. throbbing, bilateral facial pain.

.ANS: C Unilateral eye edema, tearing, and ptosis are characteristic of cluster headaches. Nuchal rigidity suggests meningeal irritation, such as occurs with meningitis. Although nausea and vomiting may occur with migraine headaches, projectile vomiting is more consistent with increases in intracranial pressure (ICP). Unilateral sharp, stabbing pain, rather than throbbing pain, is characteristic of cluster headaches.

3) A client with subdural hematoma was given mannitol to decrease intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following results would best show the mannitol was effective? 1. Urine output increases 2. Pupils are 8 mm and nonreactive 3. Systolic blood pressure remains at 150 mm Hg 4. BUN and creatinine levels return to normal

1 Mannitol promotes osmotic diuresis by increasing the pressure gradient in the renal tubes. Fixed and dilated pupils are symptoms of increased ICP or cranial nerve damage. No information is given about abnormal BUN and creatinine levels or that mannitol is being given for renal dysfunction or blood pressure maintenance.

The primary health care provider diagnoses that a patient has a cluster headache. Which statements made by the patient support the health care provider's diagnosis? Select all that apply. 1 "My cheeks also ache during the headache." 2 "I feel like my limbs are moving during the headache." 3 "I don't feel like sitting in one place during the headache." 4 "My skin appears pale during the headache." 5 "I have a strong desire to eat ice cream and chocolates during the headache."

1,3,4 A cluster headache is manifested by pain in the cheeks, gums, nose, and forehead. Cluster headache is also associated with restlessness and pallor (skin paleness). Feelings of limb movement and food cravings are clinical manifestations of migraine headache.

The nurse is providing instructions to a client with a seizure disorder who will be taking phenytoin (Dilantin). Which statement, if made by the client, would indicate an understanding of the information about this medication? 1. "I need to perform good oral hygiene, including flossing and brushing my teeth." 2. "I should try to avoid alcohol, but if I'm not able to, I can drink alcohol in moderation." 3. "I should take my medication before coming to the laboratory to have a blood level drawn." 4. "I should monitor for side effects and adjust my medication dose depending on how severe the side effects are."

1. "I need to perform good oral hygiene, including flossing and brushing my teeth." Rationale: The client should perform good oral hygiene, including flossing and brushing the teeth. The client also should see a dentist at regularly scheduled times because gingival hyperplasia is a side effect of this medication. The client should avoid alcohol while taking this medication. The client should also be instructed that follow-up serum blood levels are important and that, on the day of the scheduled laboratory test, the client should avoid taking the medication before the specimen is drawn. The client should not adjust medication dosages.

The nurse in the neurological unit is monitoring a client for signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). The nurse reviews the assessment findings for the client and notes documentation of the presence of Cushing's reflex. The nurse determines that the presence of this reflex is obtained by assessing which item? 1. Blood pressure 2. Motor response 3. Pupillary response 4. Level of consciousness

1. Blood pressure Rationale: Cushing's reflex is a late sign of increased ICP and consists of a widening pulse pressure (systolic pressure rises faster than diastolic pressure) and bradycardia. Options 2, 3, and 4 are unrelated to monitoring for Cushing's reflex.

The nurse has just admitted to the nursing unit a client with a basilar skull fracture who is at risk for increased intracranial pressure. Pending specific health care provider prescriptions, the nurse should safely place the client in which positions? Select all that apply. 1. Head midline 2. Neck in neutral position 3. Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees 4. Head turned to the side when flat in bed 5. Neck and jaw flexed forward when opening the mouth

1. Head midline 2. Neck in neutral position 3. Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees Rationale: Use of proper positions promotes venous drainage from the cranium to keep intracranial pressure from elevating.The head of the client at risk for or with increased intracranial pressure should be positioned so that the head is in a neutral, midline position. The head of the bed should be raised to 30 to 45 degrees. The nurse should avoid flexing or extending the neck or turning the head from side to side.

Members of the family of an unconscious client with increased intracranial pressure are talking at the client's bedside. They are discussing the client's condition and wondering whether the client will ever recover. The nurse intervenes on the basis of which interpretation? 1. It is possible the client can hear the family. 2. The family needs immediate crisis intervention. 3. The client might have wanted a visit from the hospital chaplain. 4. The family could benefit from a conference with the health care provider.

1. It is possible the client can hear the family. Rationale: Some clients who have awakened from an unconscious state have remembered hearing specific voices and conversations. Family and staff should assume that the client's sense of hearing is intact and act accordingly. Additionally, positive outcomes are associated with coma stimulation-that is, speaking to and touching the client. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect interpretations.

The nurse has determined that a client with a neurological disorder also has difficulty breathing. Which activities would be appropriate components of the care plan for this client? Select all that apply. 1. Keep suction equipment at the bedside. 2. Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees. 3. Keep the client lying in a supine position. 4. Keep the head and neck in good alignment. 5. Administer prescribed respiratory treatments as needed

1. Keep suction equipment at the bedside. 2. Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees. 4. Keep the head and neck in good alignment. 5 Administer prescribed respiratory treatments as needed. Rationale: The nurse maintains a patent airway for the client with difficulty breathing by keeping the head and neck in good alignment and elevating the head of bed 30 degrees unless contraindicated. Suction equipment is kept at the bedside if secretions need to be cleared. The client should be kept in a side-lying position whenever possible to minimize the risk of aspiration.

The nurse is planning to institute seizure precautions for a client who is being admitted from the emergency department. Which measures should the nurse include in planning for the client's safety? Select all that apply. 1. Padding the side rails of the bed 2. Placing an airway at the bedside 3. Placing the bed in the high position 4. Putting a padded tongue blade at the head of the bed 5. Placing oxygen and suction equipment at the bedside 6. Having intravenous equipment ready for insertion of an intravenous catheter

1. Padding the side rails of the bed 2. Placing an airway at the bedside 5. Placing oxygen and suction equipment at the bedside 6. Having intravenous equipment ready for insertion of an intravenous catheter Rationale: Seizure precautions may vary from agency to agency, but they generally have some common features. Usually, an airway, oxygen, and suctioning equipment are kept available at the bedside. The side rails of the bed are padded, and the bed is kept in the lowest position. The client has an intravenous access in place to have a readily accessible route if anticonvulsant medications must be administered. The use of padded tongue blades is highly controversial, and they should not be kept at the bedside. Forcing a tongue blade into the mouth during a seizure more likely will harm the client who bites down during seizure activity. Risks include blocking the airway from improper placement, chipping the client's teeth, and subsequent risk of aspirating tooth fragments. If the client has an aura before the seizure, it may give the nurse enough time to place an oral airway before seizure activity begins.

The nurse is administering mouth care to an unconscious client. The nurse should perform which actions in the care of this person? Select all that apply. 1. Position the client on his or her side. 2. Use products that contain alcohol. 3. Brush the teeth with a small, soft toothbrush. 4. Cleanse the mucous membranes with soft sponges. 5. Use lemon glycerin swabs when performing mouth care.

1. Position the client on his or her side. 3. Brush the teeth with a small, soft toothbrush. 4. Cleanse the mucous membranes with soft sponges. Rationale: The unconscious client is positioned on the side during mouth care to prevent aspiration. The teeth are brushed at least twice daily with a small toothbrush. The gums, tongue, roof of the mouth, and oral mucous membranes are cleansed with soft sponges to avoid encrustation and infection. The lips are coated with water-soluble lubricant to prevent drying, cracking, and encrustation. The use of products with alcohol should be avoided because they have a drying effect.

The nurse is assigned to care for a client with complete right-sided hemiparesis. Which characteristics are associated with this condition? Select all that apply. 1. The client is aphasic. 2. The client has weakness in the face and tongue. 3. The client has weakness on the right side of the body. 4. The client has complete bilateral paralysis of the arms and legs. 5. The client has lost the ability to move the right arm but is able to walk independently. 6. The client has lost the ability to ambulate independently but is able to feed and bathe himself or herself without assistance.

1. The client is aphasic. 2. The client has weakness in the face and tongue. 3. The client has weakness on the right side of the body. Rationale: Hemiparesis is a weakness of one side of the body that may occur after a stroke. It involves weakness of the face and tongue, arm, and leg on one side. These clients are also aphasic: unable to discriminate words and letters. They are generally very cautious and get anxious when attempting a new task. Complete bilateral paralysis does not occur in this hemiparesis. The client with right-sided hemiparesis has weakness of the right arm and leg and needs assistance with feeding, bathing, and ambulating.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with dysphagia following a stroke (brain attack). Which should the nurse include in the plan? Select all that apply. 1. Thicken liquids. 2. Assist the client with eating. 3. Assess for the presence of a swallow reflex. 4. Place the food on the affected side of the mouth. 5. Provide ample time for the client to chew and swallow.

1. Thicken liquids. 2. Assist the client with eating. 3. Assess for the presence of a swallow reflex. 5. Provide ample time for the client to chew and swallow. Rationale: Liquids are thickened to prevent aspiration. The nurse should assist the client with eating and place food on the unaffected side of the mouth. The nurse should assess for gag and swallowing reflexes before the client with dysphagia is started on a diet. The client should be allowed ample time to chew and swallow to prevent choking.

A client has a cerebellar lesion. The nurse determines that the client is adapting successfully to this problem if the client demonstrates proper use of which item? 1. Walker 2. Slider board 3. Raised toilet seat 4. Adaptive eating utensils

1. Walker Rationale: The cerebellum is responsible for balance and coordination. A walker would provide stability for the client during ambulation. Adaptive eating utensils may be beneficial if the client has partial paralysis of the hand. A raised toilet seat is useful if the client does not have the mobility or ability to flex the hips. A slider board is used in transferring a client from a bed to a stretcher or wheelchair.

12) The nurse is caring for the client with increased intracranial pressure. The nurse would note which of the following trends in vital signs if the ICP is rising? 1. Increasing temperature, increasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing blood pressure. 2. Increasing temperature, decreasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing blood pressure. 3. Decreasing temperature, decreasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing blood pressure. 4. Decreasing temperature, increasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing blood pressure.

2 A change in vital signs may be a late sign of increased intracranial pressure. Trends include increasing temperature and blood pressure and decreasing pulse and respirations. Respiratory irregularities also may arise.

1) A client admitted to the hospital with a subarachnoid hemorrhage has complaints of severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and projectile vomiting. The nurse knows lumbar puncture (LP) would be contraindicated in this client in which of the following circumstances? 1. Vomiting continues 2. Intracranial pressure (ICP) is increased 3. The client needs mechanical ventilation 4. Blood is anticipated in the cerebralspinal fluid (CSF)

2 Sudden removal of CSF results in pressures lower in the lumbar area than the brain and favors herniation of the brain; therefore, LP is contraindicated with increased ICP. Vomiting may be caused by reasons other than increased ICP; therefore, LP isn't strictly contraindicated. An LP may be preformed on clients needing mechanical ventilation. Blood in the CSF is diagnostic for subarachnoid hemorrhage and was obtained before signs and symptoms of ICP.

The nurse is assessing a client's gait, which is characterized by unsteadiness and staggering steps. The nurse determines the presence of which type of gait? 1. Spastic 2. Ataxic 3. Festinating 4. Dystrophic or broad-based

2. Ataxic Rationale: An ataxic gait is characterized by unsteadiness and staggering. A spastic gait is characterized by stiff, short steps with the legs held together, hip and knees flexed, and toes that catch and drag. A festinating gait is best described as walking on the toes with an accelerating pace. A dystrophic or broad-based gait is seen as waddling, with the weight shifting from side to side and the legs far apart.

The nurse is trying to help the family of an unconscious client cope with the situation. Which intervention should the nurse plan to incorporate into the care routine for the client and family? 1. Discouraging the family from touching the client 2. Explaining equipment and procedures on an ongoing basis 3. Ensuring adherence to visiting hours to ensure the client's rest 4. Encouraging the family not to "give in" to their feelings of grief

2. Explaining equipment and procedures on an ongoing basis Rationale: Families often need assistance to cope with the illness of a loved one. The nurse should explain all equipment, treatments, and procedures and should supplement or reinforce information given by the health care provider. Family members should be encouraged to touch and speak to the client and to become involved in the client's care to the extent they are comfortable. The nurse should allow the family to stay with the client to the extent possible and should encourage them to eat and sleep adequately to maintain strength. The nurse can help family members of an unconscious client by assisting them to work through their feelings of grief.

The nurse assigned to the care of an unconscious client is making initial daily rounds. On entering the client's room, the nurse observes that the client is lying supine in bed, with the head of the bed elevated approximately 5 degrees. The nasogastric tube feeding is running at 70 mL/hr, as prescribed. The nurse assesses the client and auscultates adventitious breath sounds. Which judgment should the nurse formulate for the client? 1. Impaired nutritional intake 2. Increased risk for aspiration 3. Increased likelihood for injury 4. Susceptibility to fluid volume deficit

2. Increased risk for aspiration Rationale: Increased risk for aspiration is a condition in which an individual is at risk for entry of gastrointestinal (GI) secretions, oropharyngeal secretions, or solids or fluids into tracheobronchial passages. Conditions that place the client at risk for aspiration include reduced level of consciousness, depressed cough and gag reflexes, and feeding via a GI tube. There is no information in the question indicating that option 1, 3, or 4 is a concern.

The nurse in the health care clinic is providing medication instructions to a client with a seizure disorder who will be taking divalproex sodium (Depakote). The nurse should instruct the client about the importance of returning to the clinic for monitoring of which laboratory study? 1. Electrolyte panel 2. Liver function studies 3. Renal function studies 4. Blood glucose level determination

2. Liver function studies Rationale: Divalproex sodium, an anticonvulsant, can cause fatal hepatotoxicity. The nurse should instruct the client about the importance of monitoring the results of liver function studies and ammonia level determinations. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not studies that are required with the use of this medication. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the toxic effects of divalproex sodium. Recalling that divalproex sodium can lead to hepatotoxicity will direct you to the correct option.

The nurse is caring for a client who begins to experience seizure activity while in bed. Which action by the nurse is contraindicated? 1. Loosening restrictive clothing 2. Restraining the client's limbs 3. Removing the pillow and raising padded side rails 4. Positioning the client to the side, if possible, with the head flexed forward

2. Restraining the client's limbs Rationale: Nursing actions during a seizure include providing for privacy, loosening restrictive clothing, removing the pillow and raising padded side rails in the bed, and placing the client on one side with the head flexed forward, if possible, to allow the tongue to fall forward and facilitate drainage. The limbs are never restrained because the strong muscle contractions could cause the client harm. If the client is not in bed when seizure activity begins, the nurse lowers the client to the floor, if possible, protects the head from injury, and moves furniture that may injure the client.

The student nurse develops a plan of care for a client after a lumbar puncture. The nursing instructor corrects the student if the student documents which incorrect intervention in the plan? 1. Maintain the client in a flat position. 2. Restrict fluid intake for a period of 2 hours. 3. Assess the client's ability to void and move the extremities. 4. Inspect the puncture site for swelling, redness, and drainage.

2. Restrict fluid intake for a period of 2 hours. Rationale: After the lumbar puncture the client remains flat in bed for at least 2 hours, depending on the health care provider's prescriptions. A liberal fluid intake is encouraged to replace the cerebrospinal fluid removed during the procedure, unless contraindicated by the client's condition. The nurse checks the puncture site for redness and drainage and assesses the client's ability to void and move the extremities.

The nurse is caring for a child who had a seizure 15 minutes after sustaining a head injury. After assuring a patent airway, which of the following is the priority intervention? 1 Assess fluid and electrolyte status 2 Administer prescribed benzodiazepine 3 Monitor for postconcussive syndrome 4 Observe for signs of increased intracranial pressure

2. If a seizure occurs within 30 minutes of a head injury, benzodiazepine is administered intravenously to stop the seizure. If the seizure continues, phenytoin may be administered. Although the remaining interventions of assessing fluid and electrolyte status, monitoring for postconcussive syndrome, and observing for increased intracranial pressure are appropriate, the priority intervention is to stop the seizure.

During hospitalization, a child experiences a tonic-clonic seizure. To provide for the client's safety, which of the following actions should the nurse take? 1. Put a padded tongue blade between the child's teeth 2. Perform a jaw thrust and administer oxygen 3. Securely restrain the child in the bed 4. Administer a benzodiazepine intramuscularly

2. To provide for the safety of the child during a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse should perform a jaw thrust and administer oxygen. Holding the child down, restraining the child, or putting a padded tongue blade between the child's teeth may cause injury to the child. Benzodiazepine is not used to treat a tonic-clonic seizure but is used in status epilepticus.

14) A client is arousing from a coma and keeps saying, "Just stop the pain." The nurse responds based on the knowledge that the human body typically and automatically responds to pain first with attempts to: 1. Tolerate the pain 2. Decrease the perception of pain 3. Escape the source of pain 4. Divert attention from the source of pain.

3 The client's innate responses to pain are directed initially toward escaping from the source of pain. Variations in individuals' tolerance and perception of pain are apparent only in conscious clients, and only conscious clients are able to employ distraction to help relieve pain.

6) Which of the following signs and symptoms of increased ICP after head trauma would appear first? 1. Bradycardia 2. Large amounts of very dilute urine 3. Restlessness and confusion 4. Widened pulse pressure

3 The earliest symptom of elevated ICP is a change in mental status. Bradycardia, widened pulse pressure, and bradypnea occur later. The client may void large amounts of very dilute urine if there's damage to the posterior pituitary.

A patient reports a headache to the nurse. After reviewing the patient's history, the nurse finds that the patient has previously had a stroke. Which drug should be excluded from the patient's treatment regimen? 1 Fluoxetine 2 Propanolol 3Sumatriptan 4Amitriptyline

3 A stroke is a medical condition characterized by poor blood flow to the brain. Sumatriptan is a serotonin-receptor antagonist that acts by constricting the blood vessels. This drug may aggravate the patient's condition and should be excluded. Fluoxetine, propranolol, and amitriptyline do not affect blood vessels and are safe to include in the patient's treatment regimen.

Which complaint made by the patient indicates that the individual may be suffering from a cluster headache? 1"The pain is constant." 2"The pain is followed by nausea." 3"The pain disturbs my sleep at night." 4"The pain lasts for longer than eight hours.

3 Cluster headaches usually occur at night and causes sleep disturbances. Therefore, the patient's complaint about sleep-disturbing pain is a sign of a cluster headache. Constant pain is a characteristic of tension-type headaches. Migraine headaches are associated with nausea and vomiting; they usually exist for 4 to 72 hours.

2) A client with a subdural hematoma becomes restless and confused, with dilation of the ipsilateral pupil. The physician orders mannitol for which of the following reasons? 1. To reduce intraocular pressure 2. To prevent acute tubular necrosis 3. To promote osmotic diuresis to decrease ICP 4. To draw water into the vascular system to increase blood pressure

3 Mannitol promotes osmotic diuresis by increasing the pressure gradient, drawing fluid from intracellular to intravascular spaces. Although mannitol is used for all the reasons described, the reduction of ICP in this client is a concern.

A patient with a history of cluster headaches complains to the nurse that he or she does not have any pain relief even after taking analgesics. Which treatment will be beneficial for the patient? 1Lithium therapy 2 Melatonin therapy 3Deep brain stimulation 4Vagal nerve stimulation

3 Refractory cluster headaches do not subside after taking medications such as analgesics. Patients with refractory cluster headaches should be prescribed deep brain stimulation, invasive nerve block procedures, or ablative neurosurgical procedures. Lithium and melatonin therapies are used to treat nonrefractory cluster headaches. Vagal nerve stimulation is used to treat epilepsies.

8) While cooking, your client couldn't feel the temperature of a hot oven. Which lobe could be dysfunctional? 1. Frontal 2. Occipital 3. Parietal 4. Temporal

3 The parietal lobe regulates sensory function, which would include the ability to sense hot or cold objects. The frontal lobe regulates thinking, planning, and judgment, and the occipital lobe is primarily responsible for vision function. The temporal lobe regulates memory.

The home care nurse is performing an assessment on a client with a diagnosis of Bell's palsy. Which assessment question will elicit the most specific information regarding this client's disorder? 1. "Do your eyes feel dry?" 2. "Do you have any spasms in your throat?" 3. "Are you having any difficulty chewing food?" 4. "Do you have any tingling sensations around your mouth?"

3. "Are you having any difficulty chewing food?" Rationale: Bell's palsy is a one-sided facial paralysis caused by compression of the facial nerve. Manifestations include facial droop from paralysis of the facial muscles; increased lacrimation; painful sensations in the eye, face, or behind the ear; and speech or chewing difficulties

A client is somewhat nervous about undergoing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Which statement by the nurse would provide the most reassurance to the client about the procedure? 1. "The MRI machine is a long, narrow, hollow tube and may make you feel somewhat claustrophobic." 2. "You will be able to eat before the procedure unless you get nauseated easily. If so, you should eat lightly." 3. "Even though you are alone in the scanner, you will be in voice communication with the technologist at all times during the procedure." 4. "It is necessary to remove any metal or metal-containing objects before having the MRI done to avoid the metal being drawn into the magnetic field."

3. "Even though you are alone in the scanner, you will be in voice communication with the technologist at all times during the procedure." Rationale: The MRI scanner is a hollow tube that gives some clients a feeling of claustrophobia. Metal objects must be removed before the procedure so that they are not drawn into the magnetic field. The client may eat and may take all prescribed medications before the procedure. If a contrast medium is used, the client may wish to eat lightly if he or she has a tendency to become nauseated easily. The client lies supine on a padded table that moves into the imager. The client must lie still during the procedure. The imager makes tapping noises during the scanning. The client is alone in the imager, but the nurse can reassure the client that the technologist will be in voice communication with the client at all times during the procedure.

The nurse has given suggestions to a client with trigeminal neuralgia about strategies to minimize episodes of pain. The nurse determines that the client needs further education if the client makes which statement? 1. "I will wash my face with cotton pads." 2. "I'll have to start chewing on my unaffected side." 3. "I'll try to eat my food either very warm or very cold." 4. "I should rinse my mouth if toothbrushing is painful."

3. "I'll try to eat my food either very warm or very cold." Rationale: Facial pain can be minimized by using cotton pads to wash the face and using room temperature water. The client should chew on the unaffected side of the mouth, eat a soft diet, and take in foods and beverages at room temperature. If toothbrushing triggers pain, an oral rinse after meals may be helpful instead.

A client has dysfunction of the cochlear division of the vestibulocochlear nerve (cranial nerve VIII). The nurse should determine that the client is adequately adapting to this problem if he or she states a plan to obtain which item? 1. A walker 2. Eyeglasses 3. A hearing aid 4. A bath thermomet

3. A hearing aid Rationale: The cochlear division of cranial nerve VIII is responsible for hearing. Clients with hearing difficulty may benefit from the use of a hearing aid. The vestibular portion of this nerve controls equilibrium; difficulty with balance caused by dysfunction of this division could be addressed with use of a walker. Eyeglasses would correct visual problems (cranial nerve II); a bath thermometer would be of use to clients with sensory deficits of peripheral nerves, such as with diabetic neuropathy.

The nurse is conducting home visits with a head-injured client with residual cognitive deficits. The client has problems with memory, has a shortened attention span, is easily distracted, and processes information slowly. The nurse plans to talk with the primary health care provider about referring the client to which professional? 1. A psychologist 2. A social worker 3. A neuropsychologist 4. A vocational rehabilitation specialist

3. A neuropsychologist Rationale: Clients with cognitive deficits after head injury may benefit from referral to a neuropsychologist, who specializes in evaluating and treating cognitive problems. The neuropsychologist plans an individual program of therapy and initiates counseling to help the client reach maximal potential. The neuropsychologist works in collaboration with other disciplines that are involved in the client's care and rehabilitation. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect because these health care workers do not specialize in evaluating and treating cognitive problems.

A client with a neurological impairment experiences urinary incontinence. Which nursing action would be most helpful in assisting the client to adapt to this alteration? 1. Using adult diapers 2. Inserting a Foley catheter 3. Establishing a toileting schedule 4. Padding the bed with an absorbent cotton pad

3. Establishing a toileting schedule Rationale: A bladder retraining program, such as use of a toileting schedule, may be helpful to clients experiencing urinary incontinence. A Foley catheter should be used only when necessary because of the associated risk of infection. Use of diapers or pads is the least acceptable alternative because of the risk of skin breakdown

The nurse is caring for a client who has undergone a craniotomy and has a supratentorial incision. The nurse should place the client in which position postoperatively? 1. Head of bed flat, head and neck midline 2. Head of bed flat, head turned to the nonoperative side 3. Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees, head and neck midline 4. Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees, head turned to the operative side

3. Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees, head and neck midline Rationale: After supratentorial surgery, the head is kept at a 30- to 45-degree angle. The head and neck should not be angled either anteriorly or laterally, but rather should be kept in a neutral (midline) position. This promotes venous return through the jugular veins, which will help prevent a rise in intracranial pressure.

The nurse is preparing to care for a client after a lumbar puncture. The nurse should plan to place the client in which best position immediately after the procedure? 1. Prone in semi-Fowler's position 2. Supine in semi-Fowler's position 3. Prone with a small pillow under the abdomen 4. Lateral with the head slightly lower than the rest of the body

3. Prone with a small pillow under the abdomen Rationale: After the procedure, the client assumes a flat position. If the client is able, a prone position with a pillow under the abdomen is the best position. This position helps reduce cerebrospinal fluid leakage and decreases the likelihood of post-lumbar puncture headache. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.

The nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client admitted to the nursing unit with a diagnosis of a thrombotic brain attack (stroke). The nurse would expect to note that which is documented in the assessment data section of the record? 1. Sudden loss of consciousness occurred. 2. Signs and symptoms occurred suddenly. 3. The client experienced paresthesias a few days before admission to the hospital. 4. The client complained of a severe headache, which was followed by sudden onset of paralysis.

3. The client experienced paresthesias a few days before admission to the hospital. Rationale: Cerebral thrombosis does not occur suddenly. In the few hours or days preceding a thrombotic brain attack (stroke), the client may experience a transient loss of speech, hemiplegia, or paresthesias on one side of the body. Signs and symptoms of thrombotic brain attack (stroke) vary but may include dizziness, cognitive changes, or seizures. Headache is rare, but some clients with brain attack (stroke) experience signs and symptoms similar to those of cerebral embolism or intracranial hemorrhage. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the client's diagnosis, thrombotic brain attack (stroke). Note that options 1, 2, and 4 are comparable or alike and indicate a sudden occurrence. Recalling that a cerebral thrombosis does not occur suddenly will direct you to the correct option.

7) Problems with memory and learning would relate to which of the following lobes? 1. Frontal 2. Occipital 3. Parietal 4. Temporal

4 The temporal lobe functions to regulate memory and learning problems because of the integration of the hippocampus. The frontal lobe primarily functions to regulate thinking, planning, and judgment. The occipital lobe functions regulate vision. The parietal lobe primarily functions with sensory function.

A nurse is interviewing a patient who is seeking relief for frequent headaches. Which description is consistent with symptoms of a migraine headache? 1 Extreme tenseness in the area of the neck and shoulders. 2Tears flow from one eye and nasal drainage occurs with the headache. 3 The pain of the headache wakes the patient from sleep. 4The pain throbs and is synchronous with the patient's pulse.

4 A migraine headache is caused by a series of neurovascular events that result from some trigger stimulus. The pain usually is one-sided, throbbing in nature, and synchronous with the patient's pulse. Palpable tenseness in the neck and shoulders occurs with a tension headache. A cluster headache awakens the patient from sleep and involves tearing of one eye with nasal drainage on the same side.

The nurse is planning care for a client who displays confusion secondary to a neurological problem. Which approach by the nurse would be least helpful in assisting this client? 1. Providing sensory cues 2. Giving simple, clear directions 3. Providing a stable environment 4. Encouraging multiple visitors at one time

4. Encouraging multiple visitors at one time. Rationale: Clients with cognitive impairment from neurological dysfunction respond best to a stable environment that is limited in amount and type of sensory input. The nurse can provide sensory cues and give clear, simple directions in a positive manner. Confusion can be minimized by reducing environmental stimuli (such as television or multiple visitors) and by keeping familiar personal articles (such as family pictures) at the bedside.

The nurse has instructed the family of a client with stroke (brain attack) who has homonymous hemianopsia about measures to help the client overcome the deficit. Which statement suggests that the family understands the measures to use when caring for the client? 1. "We need to discourage him from wearing eyeglasses." 2. "We need to place objects in his impaired field of vision." 3. "We need to approach him from the impaired field of vision." 4. "We need to remind him to turn his head to scan the lost visual field."

4. "We need to remind him to turn his head to scan the lost visual field." Rationale: Homonymous hemianopsia is loss of half of the visual field. The client with homonymous hemianopsia should have objects placed in the intact field of vision, and the nurse also should approach the client from the intact side. The nurse instructs the client to scan the environment to overcome the visual deficit and does client teaching from within the intact field of vision. The nurse encourages the use of personal eyeglasses, if they are available.

A client recovering from a head injury is participating in care. The nurse determines that the client understands measures to prevent elevations in intracranial pressure if the nurse observes the client doing which activity? 1.Blowing the nose 2.Isometric exercises 3.Coughing vigorously 4.Exhaling during reposition

4. Exhaling during repositioning Rationale: Activities that increase intrathoracic and intraabdominal pressures cause an indirect elevation of the intracranial pressure. Some of these activities include isometric exercises, Valsalva's maneuver, coughing, sneezing, and blowing the nose. Exhaling during activities such as repositioning or pulling up in bed, opens the glottis, which prevents intrathoracic pressure from rising.

The nurse is discharging a patient admitted with a transient ischemic attack (TIA). For which medications might the nurse expect to provide discharge instructions (select all that apply)? A. Clopidogrel (Plavix) B. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) C. Dipyridamole (Persantine) D. Enteric-coated aspirin (Ecotrin) E. Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

A, C, D. Aspirin is the most frequently used antiplatelet agent. Other drugs to prevent clot formation include clopidogrel (Plavix), dipyridamole (Persantine), ticlopidine (Ticlid), combined dipyridamole and aspirin (Aggrenox), and anticoagulant drugs, such as oral warfarin (Coumadin). Tissue plasminogen activator is a fibrinolytic medication used to treat ischemic stroke not prevent TIAs or strokes.

The nurse should question the use of barbiturates for the treatment of seizure activity if prescribed for which of the following clients? A. 30-year-old pregnant female B. 24-year-old male with new diagnosis of seizures C. 55-year-old female with history of diabetes mellitus D. 45-year-old male with history of hypertension

A. 30-year-old pregnant female Objective: Use the nursing process to care for clients receiving drug therapy for epilepsy. Rationale: Barbiturates cross the placental barrier and are excreted in breast milk, and are not recommended for women who are pregnant or nursing. Folic acid absorption also is decreased, and congenital malformations can occur if barbiturates are taken during the first trimester.

The patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus with hypoglycemia is having a seizure. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to stop the seizure? A. IV dextrose solution B. IV diazepam (Valium) C. IV phenytoin (Dilantin) D. Oral carbamazepine (Tegretol)

A. IV dextrose solution This patient's seizure is caused by low blood glucose, so IV dextrose solution should be given first to stop the seizure. IV diazepam, IV phenytoin, and oral carbamazepine would be used to treat seizures from other causes such as head trauma, drugs, and infections.

The patient with diabetes mellitus has had a right-sided stroke. Which nursing intervention should the nurse plan to provide for this patient related to expected manifestations of this stroke? A. Safety measures B. Patience with communication C. Mobility assistance on the right side D. Place food in the left side of patient's mouth.

A. Safety measures A patient with a right-sided stroke has spatial-perceptual deficits, tends to minimize problems, has a short attention span, is impulsive, and may have impaired judgment. Safety is the biggest concern for this patient. Hemiplegia occurs on the left side of this patient's body. The patient with a left-sided stroke has hemiplegia on the right, is more likely to have communication problems, and needs mobility assistance on the right side with food placed on the left side if the patient needs to be fed after a swallow evaluation has taken place.

5. Which action will the nurse take when evaluating a patient who is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for adverse effects of the medication? a. Inspect the oral mucosa. b. Listen to the lung sounds. c. Auscultate the bowel tones. d. Check pupil reaction to light.

ANS: A Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, but does not affect bowel tones, lung sounds, or pupil reaction to light.

A patient found in a tonic-clonic seizure reports afterward that the seizure was preceded by numbness and tingling of the arm. The nurse knows that this finding indicates what type of seizure? a. Atonic b. Partial c. Absence d. Myoclonic

ANS: B The initial symptoms of a partial seizure involve clinical manifestations that are localized to a particular part of the body or brain. Symptoms of an absence seizure are staring and a brief loss of consciousness. In an atonic seizure, the patient loses muscle tone and (typically) falls to the ground. Myoclonic seizures are characterized by a sudden jerk of the body or extremities.

1. After teaching a patient about management of migraine headaches, the nurse determines that the teaching has been effective when the patient says, a. "I will take the (Topamax) as soon as any headaches start." b. "I should avoid taking aspirin and sumatriptan (Imitrex) at the same time." c. "I will try to lie down someplace dark and quiet when the headaches begin." d. "A glass of wine might help me relax and prevent headaches from developing."

ANS: C It is recommended that the patient with a migraine rest in a dark, quiet area. Topiramate (Topamax) is used to prevent migraines and must be taken for several months to determine effectiveness. Aspirin or other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications can be taken with the triptans. Alcohol may precipitate migraine headaches.

An elementary teacher who has just been diagnosed with epilepsy after having a generalized tonic-clonic seizure tells the nurse, "I cannot teach anymore, it will be too upsetting if I have a seizure at work." Which response by the nurse is best? a. "You may want to contact the Epilepsy Foundation for assistance." b. "You might benefit from some psychologic counseling at this time." c. "The Department of Vocational Rehabilitation can help with work retraining." d. "Most patients with epilepsy are well controlled with antiseizure medications."

ANS: D The nurse should inform the patient that most patients with seizure disorders are controlled with medication. The other information may be necessary if the patient seizures persist after treatment with antiseizure medications is implemented.

The client with a brain attack (stroke) has residual dysphagia. When a diet order is initiated, the nurse avoids doing which of the following? a. Giving the client thin liquids b. Thickening liquids to the consistency of oatmeal c. Placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth d. Allowing plenty of time for chewing and swallowing

Answer A. Before the client with dysphagia is started on a diet, the gag and swallow reflexes must have returned. The client is assisted with meals as needed and is given ample time to chew and swallow. Food is placed on the unaffected side of the mouth. Liquids are thickened to avoid aspiration.

A male client with Bell's palsy asks the nurse what has caused this problem. The nurse's response is based on an understanding that the cause is: a. Unknown, but possibly includes ischemia, viral infection, or an autoimmune problem b. Unknown, but possibly includes long-term tissue malnutrition and cellular hypoxia c. Primary genetic in origin, triggered by exposure to meningitis d. Primarily genetic in origin, triggered by exposure to neurotoxins

Answer A. Bell's palsy is a one-sided facial paralysis from compression of the facial nerve. The exact cause is unknown, but may include vascular ischemia, infection, exposure to viruses such as herpes zoster or herpes simplex, autoimmune disease, or a combination of these factors.

The nurse is assigned to care for a female client with complete right-sided hemiparesis. The nurse plans care knowing that this condition: a. The client has complete bilateral paralysis of the arms and legs. b. The client has weakness on the right side of the body, including the face and tongue. c. The client has lost the ability to move the right arm but is able to walk independently. d. The client has lost the ability to move the right arm but is able to walk independently.

Answer B. Hemiparesis is a weakness of one side of the body that may occur after a stroke. Complete hemiparesis is weakness of the face and tongue, arm, and leg on one side. Complete bilateral paralysis does not occur in this condition. The client with right-sided hemiparesis has weakness of the right arm and leg and needs assistance with feeding, bathing, and ambulating.

The nurse is assessing the motor function of an unconscious male client. The nurse would plan to use which plan to use which of the following to test the client's peripheral response to pain? a. Sternal rub b. Nail bed pressure c. Pressure on the orbital rim d. Squeezing of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

Answer B. Motor testing in the unconscious client can be done only by testing response to painful stimuli. Nail bed pressure tests a basic peripheral response. Cerebral responses to pain are tested using sternal rub, placing upward pressure on the orbital rim, or squeezing the clavicle or sternocleidomastoid muscle.

The nurse is caring for the male client who begins to experience seizure activity while in bed. Which of the following actions by the nurse would be contraindicated? a. Loosening restrictive clothing b. Restraining the client's limbs c. Removing the pillow and raising padded side rails d. Positioning the client to side, if possible, with the head flexed forward

Answer B. Nursing actions during a seizure include providing for privacy, loosening restrictive clothing, removing the pillow and raising side rails in the bed, and placing the client on one side with the head flexed forward, if possible, to allow the tongue to fall forward and facilitate drainage. The limbs are never restrained because the strong muscle contractions could cause the client harm. If the client is not in bed when seizure activity begins, the nurse lowers the client to the floor, if possible, protects the head from injury, and moves furniture that may injure the client. Other aspects of care are as described for the client who is in bed.

The nurse is positioning the female client with increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following positions would the nurse avoid? a. Head mildline b. Head turned to the side c. Neck in neutral position d. Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees

Answer B. The head of the client with increased intracranial pressure should be positioned so the head is in a neutral midline position. The nurse should avoid flexing or extending the client's neck or turning the head side to side. The head of the bed should be raised to 30 to 45 degrees. Use of proper positions promotes venous drainage from the cranium to keep intracranial pressure down.

A female client has a neurological deficit involving the limbic system. Specific to this type of deficit, the nurse would document which of the following information related to the client's behavior. a. Is disoriented to person, place, and time b. Affect is flat, with periods of emotional lability c. Cannot recall what was eaten for breakfast today d. Demonstrate inability to add and subtract; does not know who is president

Answer B. The limbic system is responsible for feelings (affect) and emotions. Calculation ability and knowledge of current events relates to function of the frontal lobe. The cerebral hemispheres, with specific regional functions, control orientation. Recall of recent events is controlled by the hippocampus.

Nurse Kristine is trying to communicate with a client with brain attack (stroke) and aphasia. Which of the following actions by the nurse would be least helpful to the client? a. Speaking to the client at a slower rate b. Allowing plenty of time for the client to respond c. Completing the sentences that the client cannot finish d. Looking directly at the client during attempts at speech

Answer C. Clients with aphasia after brain attack (stroke) often fatigue easily and have a short attention span. General guidelines when trying to communicate with the aphasic client include speaking more slowly and allowing adequate response time, listening to and watching attempts to communicate, and trying to put the client at ease with a caring and understanding manner. The nurse would avoid shouting (because the client is not deaf), appearing rushed for a response, and letting family members provide all the responses for the client.

A white female client is admitted to an acute care facility with a diagnosis of cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Her history reveals bronchial asthma, exogenous obesity, and iron deficiency anemia. Which history finding is a risk factor for CVA? a. Caucasian race b. Female sex c. Obesity d. Bronchial asthma

Answer C. Obesity is a risk factor for CVA. Other risk factors include a history of ischemic episodes, cardiovascular disease, diabetes mellitus, atherosclerosis of the cranial vessels, hypertension, polycythemia, smoking, hypercholesterolemia, oral contraceptive use, emotional stress, family history of CVA, and advancing age. The client's race, sex, and bronchial asthma aren't risk factors for CVA.

A female client admitted to the hospital with a neurological problem asks the nurse whether magnetic resonance imaging may be done. The nurse interprets that the client may be ineligible for this diagnostic procedure based on the client's history of: a. Hypertension b. Heart failure c. Prosthetic valve replacement d. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder

Answer C. The client having a magnetic resonance imaging scan has all metallic objects removed because of the magnetic field generated by the device. A careful history is obtained to determine whether any metal objects are inside the client, such as orthopedic hardware, pacemakers, artificial heart valves, aneurysm clips, or intrauterine devices. These may heat up, become dislodged, or malfunction during this procedure. The client may be ineligible if significant risk exists.

For a male client with suspected increased intracranial pressure (ICP), a most appropriate respiratory goal is to: a. prevent respiratory alkalosis. b. lower arterial pH. c. promote carbon dioxide elimination. d. maintain partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) above 80 mm Hg

Answer C. The goal of treatment is to prevent acidemia by eliminating carbon dioxide. That is because an acid environment in the brain causes cerebral vessels to dilate and therefore increases ICP. Preventing respiratory alkalosis and lowering arterial pH may bring about acidosis, an undesirable condition in this case. It isn't necessary to maintain a PaO2 as high as 80 mm Hg; 60 mm Hg will adequately oxygenate most clients.

The nurse is assessing the adaptation of the female client to changes in functional status after a brain attack (stroke). The nurse assesses that the client is adapting most successfully if the client: a. Gets angry with family if they interrupt a task b. Experiences bouts of depression and irritability c. Has difficulty with using modified feeding utensils d. Consistently uses adaptive equipment in dressing self

Answer D. Clients are evaluated as coping successfully with lifestyle changes after a brain attack (stroke) if they make appropriate lifestyle alterations, use the assistance of others, and have appropriate social interactions. Options A, B, and C are not adaptive behaviors.

A male client has an impairment of cranial nerve II. Specific to this impairment, the nurse would plan to do which of the following to ensure client safety? a. Speak loudly to the client b. Test the temperature of the shower water c. Check the temperature of the food on the delivery tray. d. Provide a clear path for ambulation without obstacles

Answer D. Cranial nerve II is the optic nerve, which governs vision. The nurse can provide safety for the visually impaired client by clearing the path of obstacles when ambulating. Testing the shower water temperature would be useful if there were an impairment of peripheral nerves. Speaking loudly may help overcome a deficit of cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear). Cranial nerve VII (facial) and IX (glossopharyngeal) control taste from the anterior two thirds and posterior third of the tongue, respectively

A female client has clear fluid leaking from the nose following a basilar skull fracture. The nurse assesses that this is cerebrospinal fluid if the fluid: a. Is clear and tests negative for glucose b. Is grossly bloody in appearance and has a pH of 6 c. Clumps together on the dressing and has a pH of 7 d. Separates into concentric rings and test positive of glucose

Answer D. Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the ears or nose may accompany basilar skull fracture. CSF can be distinguished from other body fluids because the drainage will separate into bloody and yellow concentric rings on dressing material, called a halo sign. The fluid also tests positive for glucose.

A male client is having a tonic-clonic seizures. What should the nurse do first? a. Elevate the head of the bed. b. Restrain the client's arms and legs. c. Place a tongue blade in the client's mouth. d. Take measures to prevent injury.

Answer D. Protecting the client from injury is the immediate priority during a seizure. Elevating the head of the bed would have no effect on the client's condition or safety. Restraining the client's arms and legs could cause injury. Placing a tongue blade or other object in the client's mouth could damage the teeth.

A male client is having a lumbar puncture performed. The nurse would plan to place the client in which position? a. Side-lying, with a pillow under the hip b. Prone, with a pillow under the abdomen c. Prone, in slight-Trendelenburg's position d. Side-lying, with the legs pulled up and head bent down onto chest.

Answer D. The client undergoing lumbar puncture is positioned lying on the side, with the legs pulled up to the abdomen and the head bent down onto the chest. This position helps open the spaces between the vertebrae.

A male client with a spinal cord injury is prone to experiencing automatic dysreflexia. The nurse would avoid which of the following measures to minimize the risk of recurrence? a. Strict adherence to a bowel retraining program b. Keeping the linen wrinkle-free under the client c. Preventing unnecessary pressure on the lower limbs d. Limiting bladder catheterization to once every 12 hours

Answer D. The most frequent cause of autonomic dysreflexia is a distended bladder. Straight catheterization should be done every 4 to 6 hours, and foley catheters should be checked frequently to prevent kinks in the tubing. Constipation and fecal impaction are other causes, so maintaining bowel regularity is important. Other causes include stimulation of the skin from tactile, thermal, or painful stimuli. The nurse administers care to minimize risk in these areas.

A female client with a suspected brain tumor is scheduled for computed tomography (CT). What should the nurse do when preparing the client for this test? a. Immobilize the neck before the client is moved onto a stretcher. b. Determine whether the client is allergic to iodine, contrast dyes, or shellfish. c. Place a cap over the client's head. d. Administer a sedative as ordered.

B

The nurse provides information to the caregiver of a 68-year-old man with epilepsy who has tonic-clonic seizures. Which statement, if made by the caregiver, requires further teaching? A. "It is normal for a person to be sleepy after a seizure." B. "I should call 911 if breathing stops during the seizure." C. "The jerking movements may last for 30 to 40 seconds." D. "Objects should not be placed in the mouth during a seizure."

B. "I should call 911 if breathing stops during the seizure." Caregivers do not need to call an ambulance or send a person to the hospital after a single seizure unless the seizure is prolonged, another seizure immediately follows, or extensive injury has occurred. Altered breathing is a clinical manifestation of a tonic-clonic seizure. Contact emergency medical services (or call 911) if breathing stops for more than 30 seconds. No objects (e.g., oral airway, padded tongue blade) should be placed in the mouth. Lethargy is common in the postictal phase of a seizure. Jerking of the extremities occurs during the clonic phase of a tonic-clonic seizure. The clonic phase may last 30 to 40 seconds.

The patient has been receiving scheduled doses of phenytoin (Dilantin) and begins to experience diplopia. The nurse immediately assesses the patient for which of the following? A. An aura B. Nystagmus or confusion C. Abdominal pain or cramping D. Irregular pulse or palpitations

B. Diplopia is a sign of phenytoin toxicity. The nurse should assess for other signs of toxicity, which include neurological changes such as nystagmus, ataxia, confusion, dizziness, or slurred speech.

A client receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) has been experiencing fluctuating serum blood levels of the medication. Development of which symptoms in the client should prompt the nurse to notify the primary health care provider immediately? (Select all that apply.) A. GI cramping and diarrhea B. Migraine headaches and nausea C. Dry skin and constipation D. Double vision and lethargy

B. Migraine headaches and nausea C. Double vision and lethargy Objective: Use the nursing process to care for clients receiving drug therapy for epilepsy. Rationale: Although all the symptoms should prompt further assessment by the nurse, dizziness, ataxia, diplopia, and lethargy are signs of hydantoin toxicity and should be reported.

A client receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) therapy is being treated for status epilepticus with diazepam (Valium). The nurse places priority on: A. Holding the digoxin until the seizure has subsided. B. Monitoring the client for nausea and GI cramping. C. Keeping the client in a high Fowler's position. D. Instructing the client to eat foods high in potassium.

B. Monitoring the client for nausea and GI cramping. Objective: Explain the importance of client drug compliance in the pharmacotherapy of epilepsy. Rationale: Valium is a benzodiazepine, which can potentate the action of digoxin and raise blood levels. Nausea, vomiting, GI cramping, blurred vision, and bigeminy are signs of digoxin toxicity. The digoxin should not be held unless symptoms of toxicity are seen. Positioning should protect the client from injury during the seizure-most likely recumbent and on the side, if possible. Potassium is not indicated.

The client, age 8, is prescribed valproic acid (Depokene) for treatment of a seizure disorder. The nurse should monitor the client closely for: A.Vitamin B deficiency. B. Restlessness and agitation. C. Hyperthermia. D. Respiratory distress

B. Restlessness and agitation. Objective: For each of the drug classes listed in Drugs at a Glance, know representative drug examples, and explain their mechanisms of drug action, primary actions, and important adverse effects. Rationale: Valproic acid can produce an idiosyncratic response in children, including restlessness and psychomotor agitation. Hyperthermia, vitamin B deficiency, and respiratory distress are not side effects of valproic acid. Cognitive Level: Application Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies Nursing Process: Assessment

Which characteristic of a patient's recent seizure is consistent with a focal seizure? A. The patient lost consciousness during the seizure. B. The seizure involved lip smacking and repetitive movements. C. The patient fell to the ground and became stiff for 20 seconds. D. The etiology of the seizure involved both sides of the patient's brain.

B. The seizure involved lip smacking and repetitive movements. The most common complex focal seizure involves lip smacking and automatisms (repetitive movements that may not be appropriate). Loss of consciousness, bilateral brain involvement, and a tonic phase are associated with generalized seizure activity.

A patient has been receiving scheduled doses of phenytoin (Dilantin) and begins to experience diplopia. The nurse immediately assesses the patient for A. an aura or focal seizure. B. nystagmus or confusion. C. abdominal pain or cramping. D. irregular pulse or palpitations.

B. nystagmus or confusion. Diplopia is a sign of phenytoin toxicity. The nurse should assess for other signs of toxicity, which include neurologic changes, such as nystagmus, ataxia, confusion, dizziness, or slurred speech. An aura, focal seizure, abdominal pain or cramping, irregular pulse, or palpitations are not associated with phenytoin toxicity.

The nurse completes a history and physical on a client admitted with exacerbation of a seizure disorder. What datum collected by the nurse requires intervention? A.History of asthma B. History of diabetes mellitus C. Use of herb Ginkgo biloba D. Use of aspirin daily

C. Use of herb Ginkgo biloba Objective: Use the nursing process to care for clients receiving drug therapy for epilepsy. Rationale: Ginkgo biloba decreases the effectiveness of anti-seizure medication. Cognitive Level: Application Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies Nursing Process: Analysis

The nurse in a primary care provider's office is assessing several patients today. Which patient is most at risk for a stroke? A. A 92-year-old female who takes warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation. B. A 28-year-old male who uses marijuana after chemotherapy to control nausea. C. A 42-year-old female who takes oral contraceptives and has migraine headaches. D. A 72-year-old male who has hypertension and diabetes mellitus and smokes tobacco.

D. A 72-year-old male who has hypertension and diabetes mellitus and smokes tobacco. Stroke risk increases after 65 years of age. Strokes are more common in men. Hypertension is the single most important modifiable risk factor for stroke. Diabetes mellitus is a significant stroke risk factor; and smoking nearly doubles the risk of a stroke. Other risk factors include drug abuse (especially cocaine), high-dose oral contraception use, migraine headaches, and untreated heart disease such as atrial fibrillation.

The nurse giving discharge teaching for a client receiving carbamazepine (Tegretol) should include: A. Monitor blood glucose, and report decreased levels. B. Expect a discoloration of the contact lenses. C. Expect an orange discoloration of urine. D. Report unusual bleeding or bruises to the health care provider immediately.

D. Report unusual bleeding or bruises to the health care provider immediately. Objective: Use the nursing process to care for clients receiving drug therapy for epilepsy. Rationale: Carbamazepine affects vitamin K metabolism and can lead to blood dyscraisias and bleeding. It does not significantly lower blood sugar or change the color of body fluids. Cognitive Level: Application Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies Nursing Process: Implementation

The female patient has been brought to the ED with a sudden onset of a severe headache that is different from any other headache she has had previously. When considering the possibility of a stroke, which type of stroke should the nurse know is most likely occurring? A. TIA B. Embolic stroke C. Thrombotic stroke D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage Headache is common in a patient who has a subarachnoid hemorrhage or an intracerebral hemorrhage. A TIA is a transient loss of neurologic function usually without a headache. A headache may occur with an ischemic embolic stroke, but severe neurologic deficits are the initial symptoms. The ischemic thrombotic stroke manifestations progress in the first 72 hours as infarction and cerebral edema increase.

A patient has been taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for control of generalized seizures, tonic-clonic type. The patient is admitted to the medical unit with symptoms of nystagmus, confusion, & ataxia. What change in the phenytoin dosage does the RN anticipate will be made based on these symptoms?

The dosage will be decreased

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with dysphagia following a stroke (brain attack). Which should the nurse include in the plan? Select all that apply. 1. Thicken liquids. 2. Assist the client with eating. 3. Assess for the presence of a swallow reflex. 4. Place the food on the affected side of the mouth. 5. Provide ample time for the client to chew and swallow.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client with a diagnosis of thrombotic brain attack (stroke). Which assessment question would elicit data specific to this type of stroke? 1. "Have you had any headaches in the past few days?" 2. "Have you recently been having difficulty with seeing at nighttime?" 3. "Have you had any sudden episodes of passing out in the past few days?" 4. "Have you had any numbness or tingling or paralysis-type feelings in any of your extremities recently?" 4. "Have you had any numbness or tingling or paralysis-type feelings in any of your extremities recently?" Rationale: Cerebral thrombosis (thrombotic stroke) does not occur suddenly. In the few days or hours preceding the thrombotic stroke, the client may experience a transient loss of speech, hemiparesis, or paresthesias on one side of the body. Signs and symptoms of this type of stroke vary but may also include dizziness, cognitive changes, or seizures. Headache is rare, but some clients with stroke experience signs and symptoms similar to those of cerebral embolism or intracranial hemorrhage. The client does not complain of difficulty with night vision as part of this clinical problem. In addition, most clients do not have repeated episodes of loss of consciousness. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the signs and symptoms of a thrombotic stroke. It is necessary to know that cerebral thrombosis does not occur suddenly, and in the few days or hours preceding the thrombotic stroke, the client may experience a transient loss of speech, hemiparesis, or paresthesias on one side of the body.

The nurse is caring for a client with a head injury. The client has clear drainage from the nose and ears. How can the nurse determine if the drainage is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? a. Measure the pH of the fluid. b. Measure the specific gravity of the fluid. c. Test the fluid for glucose. d. Test the fluid for chloride.

c. CSF is positive for glucose; thus the drainage should be tested for the presence of glucose. Choice a is incorrect. Testing the fluid's pH will not confirm CSF. Choices b and d are incorrect. The fluid should be tested for glucose. Category: physiological Integrity: physiological Adaptation

A nurse is caring for a client who is ordered for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). The nurse should advise the client that which of the following actions would pose a threat to the client during the MRI? a. the client asking questions during the scan b. the client lying still during the scan c. the client hearing a thumping sound during the scan d. the client wearing a ring and bracelet during the scan

d. During an MRI, the client should wear no metal objects, such as jewelry, because the strong magnetic field can pull on them, causing injury to the client and, if the objects fly off, causing injury to others. Choice a is incorrect. The client is permitted to ask questions during the scan. The MRI scanner is equipped with a microphone. Choice b is incorrect. The client must lie still during the scan. Choice c is incorrect. The client will hear thumping sounds during the scan, which are caused by changes in the magnetic field created by the MRI machine. Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control Subcategory: Adult: Miscellaneous