Neuroanatomy Text and Atlas Questions

Ch 16 5. A fictitious patient has a disorder of brain connectivity in which the amygdala does not develop the proper connections from higher-order sensory areas. Which part of the amygdala would be primarily affected? a. Basolateral nuclei b. Central nucleus c. Extended amygdala/bed nucleus of the stria terminalis d. Corticomedial amygdala

a. Basolateral nuclei

Ch 5 10. The anterior cingulate gyrus is not important for which of the following pain functions and pain pathway connections? a. Localizing a painful stimulus b. Emotional aspects of pain c. Emotional hurt d. Receives input from the medial dorsal nucleus

a. Localizing a painful stimulus

Ch 5 3. Pain signals from caudal visceral structures ascend within which listed region of the spinal cord gray matter? a. Superficial laminae of the dorsal horn b. Deep layers of the dorsal horn c. Intermediate zone d. Ventral horn

a. Superficial laminae of the dorsal horn

Ch 5 7. The raphe nuclei are to the periaqueductal gray matter, as a. The spinoreticular tract is to the spinothalamic tract b. 5-HT is to glutamine c. Pain suppression is to pain arousal d. Burning pain is to sharp pain

b. 5-HT is to glutamine

Ch 16 6. After sustaining a small temporal lobe stroke, a patient fails to express an increase in his heart rate when he sees a threatening image. Which nuclear group of the amygdala is most likely affected by the stroke? a. Basolateral nuclei b. Central nucleus c. Extended amygdala/bed nucleus of the stria terminalis d. Corticomedial amygdala

b. Central nucleus

Ch 1 1. Which of the following analogies best describes the functional relationship between two different parts of a neuron? a. A dendrite is to an axon terminal, as presynaptic input signaling is to postsynaptic output b. A cell body is to a dendrite, as synaptic output is to synaptic integration c. A cell body is to synaptic output, as an axon is to action potential conduction d. A dendrite is to neurotransmitter release, as an axon terminal is to postsynaptic membrane neurotransmitter receptors

a. A dendrite is to an axon terminal, as presynaptic input signaling is to postsynaptic output

Ch 8 1. A person has a unilateral hearing loss. Based only on this limited amount of information, which of the following statements best indicates a likely site of lesion? a. Acoustic division of the eighth cranial nerve b. Superior olivary complex c. Lateral lemniscus d. Primary auditory cortex

a. Acoustic division of the eighth cranial nerve

Ch 9 8. Which of the following provides the best estimate of the number of glomeruli that would express the gene for a particular olfactory receptor? a. 1 b. 10 c. 100 d. 1000

a. 1

Ch 3 7. Which of the following arteries supplies part of the posterior limb of the internal capsule? a. Anterior choroidal artery b. Posterior cerebral artery c. Posterior choroidal artery d. Ophthalmic artery

a. Anterior choroidal artery

Ch 8 9. The auditory "what" and "where" pathways a. Are for sound identification and localization b. Engage temporal and parietal cortex areas, respectively c. Engage cortical areas supplied by the middle and anterior cerebral arteries, respectively d. Are preferentially localized to the arcuate and uncinate fasciculi

a. Are for sound identification and localization

Ch 2 3. A patient has Alzheimer disease, which, among other impairments, is associated with a loss of acetylcholine in the forebrain. Which of the following is a major forebrain source of acetylcholine? a. Basal nucleus b. Ventral tegmental area c. Locus ceruleus d. Raphe nuclei

a. Basal nucleus

Ch 3 2. Which of the following statements best describes the normal path blood takes from one vertebral artery to the left occipital lobe? a. Basilar artery, left posterior cerebral artery b. Basilar artery, left posterior communicating artery, left middle cerebral artery c. Basilar artery, left superior cerebellar artery, left posterior cerebral artery d. Left posterior inferior cerebellar artery, left posterior cerebral artery

a. Basilar artery, left posterior cerebral artery

Ch 11 6. Which of the following statements best describes the corticobulbar projection in the internal capsule? a. Corticobulbar axons receive an arterial supply from the posterior cerebral artery. b. Corticobulbar axons are located rostral to corticospinal axons. c. Corticobulbar axons descend in the anterior limb of the internal capsule. d. Corticobulbar axons intermingle with corticospinal axons in the posterior limb of the internal capsule

b. Corticobulbar axons are located rostral to corticospinal axons.

Ch 10 8. The genu of the internal capsule contains which of the following fibers? a. Corticospinal fibers from primary motor cortex b. Corticobulbar fibers from primary motor cortex c. Corticospinal and corticobulbar fibers from primary motor cortex d. Corticospinal and corticobulbar fibers from premotor cortical areas

b. Corticobulbar fibers from primary motor cortex

Ch 8 2. Preferential loss of perception of high-frequency sounds is best explained by which of the following conditions? a. Degeneration of hair cells at the apex of the cochlear b. Degeneration of hair cells at the base of the cochlear c. Damage to the lateral superior olivary nucleus d. Damage to the inferior colliculus

b. Degeneration of hair cells at the base of the cochlear

Ch 13 7. It is discovered at autopsy that a person with Friedreich ataxia, a progressive spinocerebellar ataxia, had extensive degeneration of Clarke's nucleus. This produced degeneration of which of the following pathways? a. Cuneocerebellar tract b. Dorsal spinocerebellar tract c. Ventral spinocerebellar tract d. Spinothalamic tract

b. Dorsal spinocerebellar tract

Ch 1 15. A brain MRI in the coronal plane would not image, on a single slice, which pair of listed brain regions? a. Frontal lobe and temporal lobe b. Frontal lobe and occipital lobe c. Parietal lobe and cerebellum d. Temporal lobe and lateral ventricle

b. Frontal lobe and occipital lobe

Ch 14 9. Which of the following is a target of deep brain stimulation for treatment of basal ganglia movement disorders? a. Globus pallidus external segment b. Globus pallidus internal segment c. Caudate nucleus d. Putamen

b. Globus pallidus internal segment

Ch 5 4. Pain signals from caudal visceral structures ascend within which spinal pathway? a. Cuneate fascicle b. Gracile fascicle c. Anterolateral column d. Ventral column

b. Gracile fascicle

Ch 3 1. Which of the following best completes the following analogy: Anterior circulation is to posterior circulation, as a. Anterior cerebral hemispheres, basal ganglia, thalamus, ventral brain stem, and ventral spinal cord are to the posterior cerebral hemispheres, cerebellum, dorsal brain stem, and dorsal spinal cord b. Internal carotid artery is to the vertebral and basilar arteries c. Vertebral and basilar arteries are to the internal carotid artery d. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery is to the posterior inferior cerebral artery

b. Internal carotid artery is to the vertebral and basilar arteries

Ch 6 8. A patient suffers from occlusion of PICA. Which of the following best describes his neurological impairment? a. Contralateral loss of facial pain; contralateral loss of limb pain b. Ipsilateral loss of facial pain; contralateral loss of limb pain c. Contralateral loss of facial pain; ipsilateral loss of facial touch d. Contralateral loss of tase; contralateral loss of facial and limb pain

b. Ipsilateral loss of facial pain; contralateral loss of limb pain

Ch 13 4. A person had a unilateral cerebellar stroke. Which of the following best explains the laterality (ie, side of body on which ataxia presents) of ataxia during reaching? a. Contralateral, because cerebellar output is not decussated and the descending motor pathways are crossed b. Ipsilateral, because cerebellar output decussates and the descending pathways cross c. Bilateral, because the cerebellar output decussates and the descending pathways cross d. Bilateral, because the descending pathways are bilateral

b. Ipsilateral, because cerebellar output decussates and the descending pathways cross

Ch 15 3. Which of the following statements best describes the median eminence? a. It contains the neurovascular contacts of magnocellular neurosecretory neurons b. It contains the neurovascular contacts of parvocellular neurosecretory neurons c. It is where descending hypothalamic pathways course d. It is where ascending serotonergic and noradrenergic systems course from the brain stem to the forebrain

b. It contains the neurovascular contacts of parvocellular neurosecretory neurons

Ch 10 4. Which of the following statements does not describe a feature of the ventral corticospinal tract? a. It descends primarily to the cervical spinal cord only b. It controls distal muscles only c. It descends in the ipsilateral ventral column d. It terminates bilaterally in the spinal cord

b. It controls distal muscles only

Ch 11 8. A person has a stroke that damages the caudal part of the nucleus ambiguus. Which function is most impaired as a result of this lesion? a. Pharyngeal muscle control b. Laryngeal muscle control c. Tongue muscle control d. Blood pressure regulation

b. Laryngeal muscle control

Ch 5 1. A 30-year-old male was driving a motorcycle when he swerved off the road and suffered a severe spinal cord injury. When he was being treated at an emergency room, on neurological examination he was noted to have lost the sense of touch on his right leg and lower chest, to the level of the umbilicus. He also had lost pain sensation. Which of the following statements best describes the side and lowest dermatomal level of remaining pain sensation? a. Left side of spinal cord at the 10th thoracic segment (T10) b. Left, L1 c. Right, L1 d. Right, T10

b. Left, L1 (pain/temp/itch preserved for ~2 levels caudal to level of injury)

Ch 5 5. Occlusion of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery results in which of the following patterns of analgesia? a. Loss of pain on the ipsilateral arms and legs b. Loss of pain on the contralateral arms and legs c. Bilateral loss of pain on the arms and legs d. There would be no change in pain

b. Loss of pain on the contralateral arms and legs

Ch 13 9. A person has a rare (fictitious, for the purpose of questioning) cerebellar degenerative disorder producing loss of connections from the dentate nucleus to the red nucleus. Which of the following would best describe the impact that this condition has on motor control? a. Loss of the principal input to rubrospinal neurons in the magnocellular red nucleus b. Loss of the principal input to rubro-olivary neurons in the parvocellular red nucleus c. Loss of mossy fibers from the red nucleus to the cerebellum d. Loss of climbing fibers from the red nucleus to the cerebellum

b. Loss of the principal input to rubro-olivary neurons in the parvocellular red nucleus

Ch 11 4. Which of the following best indicates the location of lost contralateral facial muscle control after a corticobulbar tract stroke? a. Upper facial muscles b. Lower facial muscles c. Upper and lower facial muscles d. Perioral and buccal muscles for assisting speech

b. Lower facial muscles

Ch 12 3. The vestibulospinal tracts are part of which of the following descending systems? a. Lateral b. Medial c. Ventral d. Lateral and medial

b. Medial

Ch 3 9. The course of the anterior cerebral artery is best shown with an arteriogram that provides a a. Frontal view of the brain b. Medial or lateral view of the brain c. Frontal-inferior view of the brain d. Posterior view of the brain

b. Medial or lateral view of the brain

Ch 15 10. A person has the following neurological signs: constricted pupil in left eye, decreased sweating on left side of face, and reddening of the left side of the face. Which of the following statements does not describe a site of a single lesion that produces these signs? a. Dorsolateral midbrain b. Medial pons c. Lateral spinal cord white matter d. Damage to the sympathetic postganglionic axons in the neck

b. Medial pons

Ch 1 5. A person suffers from a traumatic brain injury. There is bleeding and inflammation at the injury site. Which of the following cell types plays a phagocytic role in eliminating blood and tissue debris? a. Astrocytes b. Microglia c. Schwann cells D. Neurons

b. Microglia

Ch 2 8. Which of the following choices lists correctly the rostro-caudal order of the brain stem divisions? a. Medulla, midbrain, pons b. Midbrain, pons, medulla c. Midbrain, medulla, pons d. Pons, midbrain, medulla

b. Midbrain, pons, medulla

Ch 7 7. The inferior bank of the calcarine fissure at the occipital pole receives information, via the thalamus, from retinal ganglion cells a. Of the inferior peripheral retina b. Of the inferior central retina c. Of the superior peripheral retina d. Of the superior central retina

b. Of the inferior central retina

Ch 6 1. Which of the following choices does not list the cranial nerves in correct rostral-to-caudal order? a. Optic, trochlear, abducens, glossopharyngeal, spinal accessory b. Olfactory, oculomotor, facial, trigeminal, glossopharyngeal, vagus c. Oculomotor, facial, vagus, spinal accessory d. Trochlear, trigeminal, vestibular, glossopharyngeal, spinal accessory

b. Olfactory, oculomotor, facial, trigeminal, glossopharyngeal, vagus

Ch 14 3. Which of the following lists components of the same functional loop of the basal ganglia? a. Frontal eye fields, body of caudate nucleus, ventral pallidum, ventral lateral nucleus of the thalamus b. Orbitofrontal cortex, nucleus accumbens, ventral pallidum, medial dorsal nucleus of the thalamus c. Primary motor cortex, putamen, globus pallidus internal segment, medial dorsal nucleus of the thalamus d. Hippocampus, ventral striatum, globus pallidus internal segment, ventral lateral nucleus

b. Orbitofrontal cortex, nucleus accumbens, ventral pallidum, medial dorsal nucleus of the thalamus

Ch 4 4. A physician tests vibration sense by touching a tuning fork to the body surface. Which of the following receptors mediates vibration sense? a. Thermal receptor b. Pacinian corpuscle c. Ruffini's corpuscle d. Meissner's corpuscle

b. Pacinian corpuscle

Ch 2 10. A person is shot in the head. The bullet entered the skull above the right ear. In sequence, which of the following choices best describes the brain structures the bullet would encounter, from lateral to medial? a. Parietal cortex, insular cortex, putamen, globus pallidus, anterior limb of the internal capsule, thalamus b. Parietal cortex, insular cortex, putamen, globus pallidus, posterior limb of the internal capsule, thalamus c. Insular cortex, putamen, posterior limb of the internal capsule, globus pallidus, thalamus d. Insular cortex, putamen, globus pallidus, anterior limb of the internal capsule, thalamus

b. Parietal cortex, insular cortex, putamen, globus pallidus, posterior limb of the internal capsule, thalamus

Ch 3 8. Lenticulostriate arteries do not supply the a. Internal capsule b. Postcentral gyrus c. Globus pallidus d. Putamen

b. Postcentral gyrus

Ch 12 1. After a brain stem stroke, a person experiences vertigo. Which of the listed arteries likely produced this neurological sign? a. Superior cerebellar b. Posterior inferior cerebellar c. Vertebral d. Posterior spinal

b. Posterior inferior cerebellar

Ch 8 4. Which is not a property of the medial superior olivary nucleus? a. Important for processing low-frequency sounds b. Receives an inhibitory input from the nucleus of the trapezoid body c. Receives monosynaptic input from the ipsilateral and contralateral anteroventral nucleus d. Projects to the inferior colliculus

b. Receives an inhibitory input from the nucleus of the trapezoid body

Ch 10 10. The enlargement segments correspond to which of the following? a. Thoracic segments b. Segments innervating the limbs c. Segments innervating the trunk d. Segments with a greater number of motor neurons

b. Segments innervating the limbs

Ch 14 6. Midbrain dopaminergic neurons have major actions on neurons in which of the following structures? a. Striatal neurons only b. Striatal neurons and cortical neurons c. Striatal neurons, globus pallidus internal segment neurons, and cortical neurons d. Striatal neurons, globus pallidus internal segment neurons, globus pallidus external segment neurons, and cortical neurons

b. Striatal neurons and cortical neurons

Ch 2 1. A 72-year-old man is brought to the emergency room with left-sided weakness and impaired touch sensation on the left side of the body. Which of the following statements best describes the location of the brain damage producing these neurological signs? a. Stroke in the left cerebral cortex b. Stroke in the right cerebral cortex c. Stroke affecting the right side of the spinal cord d. Damage to the peripheral nerves on the left side of the body

b. Stroke in the right cerebral cortex

Ch 3 11. Which of the following best describes the principal source of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? a. Choroid plexus in the lateral ventricles b. Choroid plexus in the lateral and third ventricles c. Choroid plexus in the lateral, third, and fourth ventricles d. Choroid plexus in the ventricles and central canal of the spinal cord

c. Choroid plexus in the lateral, third, and fourth ventricles

Ch 10 9. Occlusion of paramedian branches of the basilar artery will most likely infarct which of the following motor system components? a. Pyramids b. Rubrospinal tract c. Corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts d. Reticulospinal tract

c. Corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts

Ch 12 5. A person has a lesion that damaged the oculomotor nerve. Which of the following best describes the position of the affected eye in this person? a. Elevated and adducted b. Elevated and abducted c. Depressed and abducted d. Depressed and adducted

c. Depressed and abducted

Ch 9 10. Which of the following statements best describes how olfactory information is projected to the orbitofrontal cortex? a. Directly from the olfactory tract b. Directly from the anterior olfactory nucleus c. Directly from the piriform cortex d. Directly from the ventral posterior medial thalamic nucleus

c. Directly from the piriform cortex

Ch 3 12. CSF exits the ventricles through the ____ and then from the subarachnoid space to the venous sinuses through the ____ a. Foramen of Luschka; foramen of Magendie b. Foramen of Magendie; foramen of Luschka c. Foramina of Luschka and Magendie; arachnoid granulations d. Arachnoid granulations; foramina of Luschka and Magendie

c. Foramina of Luschka and Magendie; arachnoid granulations

Ch 13 10. The cerebellum is thought to be a site of dysfunction in several neuropsychiatric diseases, such as schizophrenia and autism. Which of the following statements best describes how information from frontal and temporal lobe areas involved in cognition and emotion can be influenced by cerebellar processing? a. Frontotemporal association areas must transmit information first to premotor and motor areas, which project to the pontine nuclei and then the cerebellum b. Frontotemporal association areas must transmit information first to the posterior parietal association cortex, which projects to the pontine nuclei and then the cerebellum c. Frontotemporal association areas transmit information directly to the pontine nuclei and then the cerebellum d. Frontotemporal association areas project directly to the cerebellar cortex as mossy fibers

c. Frontotemporal association areas transmit information directly to the pontine nuclei and then the cerebellum

Ch 14 5. A person has a small stroke that interrupts axons of the ansa lenticularis. This stroke would produce retrograde degeneration of neurons in which of the following structures? a. Substantia nigra pars compacta b. Globus pallidus external segment c. Globus pallidus internal segment d. Subthalamic nucleus

c. Globus pallidus internal segment

Ch 1 9. Which of the following best describes sulci and gyri? a. Functional regions of the brain are located on gyri b. Sulci separate the lobes of the brain c. Gyri are the bumps and sulci are the grooves that separate the gyri d. Sulci are the bumps and gyri are the grooves that separate the sulci

c. Gyri are the bumps and sulci are the grooves that separate the gyri

Ch 1 8. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the autonomic nervous system? a. Innervation of glands b. Innervation of smooth muscle of the gut c. Innervation of somatic motor neurons that innervate limb muscles d. Innervation of smooth muscle in blood vessel walls

c. Innervation of somatic motor neurons that innervate limb muscles

Ch 9 7. Which of the following is not a primary olfactory area? a. Piriform cortex b. Entorhinal cortex c. Insular cortex d. Amygdala

c. Insular cortex

Ch 11 9. A person has a posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) stroke. Which of the following indicates a likely motor impairment in this patient? a. Ipsilateral limb muscle weakness b. Ipsilateral tongue muscle weakness c. Ipsilateral laryngeal muscle weakness d. Ipsilateral facial muscle weakness

c. Ipsilateral laryngeal muscle weakness

Ch 1 11. A patient has a tumor in the region of the insular cortex. Which of the following choices best describes the location of the tumor? a. It is buried beneath the brain surface, under the frontal lobe b. It is buried beneath the frontal and parietal lobes c. It is buried beneath the frontal, parietal, and temporal lobes d. It is buried beneath the frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital lobes

c. It is buried beneath the frontal, parietal, and temporal lobes

Ch 15 9. A person has a stroke that produces the following signs: ipsilateral mild ptosis, dry skin on the ipsilateral face, vertigo, ataxia of the left leg, and hoarse voice. A single occlusion of which artery could produce all of these signs? a. Internal carotid artery b. Anterior choroidal artery c. Superior cerebellar artery d. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

d. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

Ch 3 6. Which arterial interfaces are not locations of collateral circulation? a. Anterior cerebral artery and middle cerebral artery b. Middle cerebral artery and posterior cerebral artery c. Anterior cerebral artery and posterior cerebral artery d. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery and vertebral arteries

d. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery and vertebral arteries

Ch 10 1. A patient suddenly developed weakness of his left arm. Damage to which of the following brain regions is the most likely site of injury? a. Ventral spinal cord white matter b. Lateral spinal cord white matter c. Ventral pons d. Precentral gyrus

d. Precentral gyrus

Ch 2 6. Which of the following is a major source of serotonin (5-HT)? a. Basal nucleus b. Dorsal column nuclei c. Locus ceruleus d. Raphe nuclei

d. Raphe nuclei

Ch 9 3. The rostral solitary nucleus is to the caudal solitary nucleus, as a. Taste is to smell b. Taste is to touch c. Taste is to pain d. Taste is to visceral sensations

d. Taste is to visceral sensations

Ch 14 1. A person received a gunshot to the side of the head. Identify the structures on one side of the brain, marked by the line of dots on the myelin-stained section below, that the bullet would have damaged. Also, note the salient function or connection of the structure.

Dots correspond, from left (lateral) to right (medial): Insular cortex (sensory representations of pain, visceral sensations, and taste) Claustrum (connects with cerebral cortex; may play role in consciousness) Putamen (motor functions) External segment of globus pallidus (part of indirect path; receives striatal input and projects to subthalamic nucleus) Internal segment of globus pallidus (direct path; basal ganglia output to thalamus and brain stem) Posterior limb of the internal capsule (ascending thalamocortical axons; descending cortical projections) Thalamus (relay subcortical inputs to cortex) Thalamic adhesion in the third ventricle (point of contact of two halves of thalamus)

Ch 5 6. A soldier was injured in battle. Despite the injury, and the tissue damage that the injury caused, the soldier was able to continue to engage the enemy. Which of the following best explains why the soldier was able to continue engaging the enemy? a. Brain stem noradrenergic and serotonergic descending tracts that inhibit dorsal horn pain transmission can be activated by areas of the brain engaged in emotions b. Brain stem cholinergic and serotonergic descending tracts that inhibit dorsal horn pain transmission can be activated by areas of the brain engaged in emotions c. Spinal nociceptive circuits engage local feedback inhibitory mechanisms to limit nociceptive transmission in the dorsal horn d. Cognitive systems of the brain can directly inhibit spinal pain circuits

a. Brain stem noradrenergic and serotonergic descending tracts that inhibit dorsal horn pain transmission can be activated by areas of the brain engaged in emotions

Ch 6 9. A patient has an impaired laryngeal closure reflex. Which of the following nuclei is important in processing mechanosensory information from the mucous membranes near the larynx? a. Caudal solitary nucleus b. Cuneate nucleus c. Main trigeminal sensory nucleus d. Gracile nucleus

a. Caudal solitary nucleus

Ch 2 9. A patient has a cerebellar stroke. The major motor sign that the person presents with is termed ataxia, a characteristic incoordination after cerebellar damage. Which of the following statements accurately describes the location of the stroke in the brain? a. Caudal to the tentorium and dorsal to the pons b. Rostral to the tentorium and dorsal to the pons c. Caudal to the tentorium and ventral to the pons d. Rostral to the tentorium and ventral to the pons

a. Caudal to the tentorium and dorsal to the pons

Ch 11 2. Which of the following statements best describes the difference between innervation of skeletal muscle and smooth muscle by central nervous system neurons? a. Central nervous system neurons innervate skeletal muscle monosynaptically and innervate smooth muscle disynaptically via a synapse in peripheral ganglia b. Central nervous system neurons innervate skeletal and smooth muscle monosynaptically c. Central nervous system neurons innervate skeletal muscle disynaptically via a synapse in peripheral ganglia and innervate smooth muscle monosynaptically d. Central nervous system neurons innervate skeletal and smooth muscle disynaptically via a synapse in peripheral ganglia

a. Central nervous system neurons innervate skeletal muscle monosynaptically and innervate smooth muscle disynaptically via a synapse in peripheral ganglia

Ch 6 2. Which of the listed statements best describes development of the cranial sensory and motor nerve nuclei? a. Cranial nerve sensory nuclei develop from the alar plate, and motor nuclei, the basal plate. b. Motor nuclei are displaced dorsally as the fourth ventricle matures. c. Sensory nuclei are displaced dorsally as the fourth ventricle matures. d. Body somites determine the developmental plan of the brain stem.

a. Cranial nerve sensory nuclei develop from the alar plate, and motor nuclei, the basal plate.

Ch 11 7. A person has a developmental disorder in which some neurons fail to migrate from the ventricular surface during prenatal development. If this condition affects facial motor neurons, where would you expect to find facial motor neurons in this patient compared with a healthy person? a. Dorsal b. Ventral c. Caudal d. Lateral

a. Dorsal

Ch 7 8. Which of the following statements best describes the function of the projection of retinal ganglion cells to the midbrain? a. Eye movement control and pupillary reflexes b. Visual motion detection c. Color vision d. Form vision

a. Eye movement control and pupillary reflexes

Ch 14 4. Which of the following describes the action of dopamine on striatal neurons of the direct and indirect paths? a. Facilitates activity, suppresses activity b. Facilitates activity, no effect on activity c. Suppresses activity, facilitates activity d. No effect on activity, facilitates activity

a. Facilitates activity, suppresses activity

Ch 10 7. Occlusion of cortical branches of the anterior cerebral artery would disrupt control of which of the following muscle groups? a. Foot b. Arm c. Neck d. Face

a. Foot

Ch 12 6. Palsy of the fourth nerve does not produce ___ a. Horizontal diplopia b. Tortional diplopia c. A head tilt away from the affected eye to compensate for weakened ocular intortion d. Vertical diplopia that becomes worse when looking toward the tip of the nose

a. Horizontal diplopia

Ch 14 8. A man developed significant personality changes and clumsiness late in his fourth decade of life. His father had dementia and bilateral choreoform movements at the time of his death, which was in his early 60s. The man's mother is currently healthy. Which of the following neuropsychiatric conditions is most likely affecting the son? a. Huntington disease b. Parkinson disease c. Hemiballism d. Schizophrenia

a. Huntington disease

Ch 1 12. A pitcher was hit in the head with a baseball. The impact of the ball hitting his head caused a skull fracture over his left orbit. Which of the following brain structures is located closest to the site of fracture? a. Inferior frontal lobe b. Postcentral gyrus c. Calcarine fissure d. Anterior horn of lateral ventricle

a. Inferior frontal lobe

Ch 16 3. Which of the following best indicates a function of the orbitofrontal cortex? a. Integration of olfactory and gustatory messages important for deciding to ingest something b. Localization of stimuli in the space around us c. Identification of familiar faces d. Sensing emotional content in speech

a. Integration of olfactory and gustatory messages important for deciding to ingest something

Ch 10 5. The rubrospinal tract a. Is similar in function to the lateral corticospinal tract b. Decussates in the spinal cord c. Synapses only on motor neurons d. Descends in the medial brain stem and spinal cord

a. Is similar in function to the lateral corticospinal tract

Ch 15 8. The hypothalamus receives viscerosensory information to regulate blood pressure and fluid intake. Which of the following statements best describes how this information is transmitted to the hypothalamus? a. It is relayed by the solitary and parabrachial nuclei b. It is transmitted directly by axons in the anterolateral system c. It is relayed from the insular and primary somatic sensory cortical neurons d. It is transmitted from the orbitofrontal and cingulate cortical areas

a. It is relayed by the solitary and parabrachial nuclei

Ch 11 10. A person has a posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) stroke. Which statement below best describes the pattern of sensory loss in this patient? a. Loss of pain and temperature on the contralateral limbs and trunk and the ipsilateral face b. Loss of pain and temperature on the contralateral limbs, trunk, and face c. Loss of pain and temperature on the contralateral limbs and trunk and the ipsilateral face, and loss of facial touch ipsilaterally d. Loss of pain and temperature on the contralateral limbs and trunk and the ipsilateral face, and loss of facial touch contralaterally

a. Loss of pain and temperature on the contralateral limbs and trunk and the ipsilateral face

Ch 3 14. Which of the following best describes the most likely cause of congenital hydrocephalus? a. Most CSF is produced by the choroid plexus. With cerebral aqueduct constriction, CSF continues to be produced. This leads to enlargement of the lateral and third ventricles. b. More CSF is produced by the choroid plexus than can be released by the arachnoid granulations. c. Production of CSF that comes from nonchoroid plexus sources is increased. d. There is enlargement of the subarachnoid space, after CSF exits from the arachnoid granulations.

a. Most CSF is produced by the choroid plexus. With cerebral aqueduct constriction, CSF continues to be produced. This leads to enlargement of the lateral and third ventricles.

Ch 1 7. Which of the following is NOT part of the peripheral nervous system? a. Motor neuron cell body b. Sympathetic ganglia c. Dorsal root d. Ventral root

a. Motor neuron cell body

Ch 7 5. Which of the following best describes the retinal location of all ganglion cells that send their axon across the midline in the optic chiasm? a. Nasal hemiretina b. Temporal hemiretina c. Superior retina d. Inferior retina

a. Nasal hemiretina

Ch 7 13. A patient is capable of central vision but has impaired peripheral vision. Given this limited information, which of the following locations is the most likely site of damage? a. Optic chiasm b. Optic tract c. Lateral geniculate nucleus d. Primary visual cortex

a. Optic chiasm

Ch 7 2. Retinal ganglion cell axons leave the eye at the a. Optic disk b. Fovea c. Macula d. Optic nerve

a. Optic disk

Ch 15 6. A man has difficulty staying awake during the day. He often falls asleep during meetings and in social interactions. When he falls asleep, he usually loses all muscle tone. Which of the following neurotransmitters/neuromodulatory agents is affected in this patient? a. Orexin b. Histamine c. GABA d. 5-HT

a. Orexin

Ch 14 10. The internal segment of the globus pallidus has projections to which of the following brain stem structures? a. Pedunculopontine nucleus b. Superior colliculus c. Dorsal raphe nucleus d. Red nucleus

a. Pedunculopontine nucleus

Ch 3 3. Which of the following arteries is NOT a branch of the internal carotid artery? a. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery b. Ophthalmic artery c. Anterior choroidal artery d. Posterior communicating artery

a. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

Ch 8 7. The medial geniculate nucleus projects tonotopically to which of the following cortical areas? a. Primary auditory cortex b. Secondary auditory cortex c. Tertiary auditory cortex d. Auditory association cortex

a. Primary auditory cortex

Ch 8 6. Which of the following best completes this sentence: The inferior colliculus a. Receives convergent auditory information from all of the lower auditory brain stem nuclei b. Receives information only from the dorsal cochlear nucleus c. Receives information only from the anteroventral cochlear nucleus d. Receives convergent information from the medial and lateral superior olivary nuclei

a. Receives convergent auditory information from all of the lower auditory brain stem nuclei

Ch 4 1. A 25-year-old male was in an automobile accident and suffered a severe spinal cord injury. He had multiple somatic sensory and motor signs. Focusing only on mechanosensation, he had no sense of touch on his right leg and lower chest, to the level of the umbilicus. Which of the following statements best describes the side and level of injury? a. Right side of spinal cord at the 10th thoracic segment (T10) b. Right, T4 c. Left, T10 d. Left, T4

a. Right side of spinal cord at the 10th thoracic segment (T10)

Ch 6 7. The posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) supplies which of the following structures? a. Solitary nucleus b. Oral trigeminal nucleus c. Medial lemniscus d. Pyramid

a. Solitary nucleus

Ch 2 7. Damage to the dorsal columns and dorsal horn cord, such as what might occur after a traumatic spinal cord injury, would result in disrupting which of the following circuits? a. Somatic sensory b. Somatic motor c. Visceral motor function d. All of the above choices

a. Somatic sensory

Ch 5 9. Which of the following statements best describes how pain signals from the spinal cord reach the amygdala? a. Spinoreticular tract, to the parabrachial nucleus, to the amygdala b. Spinothalamic tract, to the thalamic reticular nucleus, to the amygdala c. Spinothalamic tract, to the ventral posterior lateral nucleus, to the amygdala d. Spinomesencephalic tract, to the superior colliculus, to the periaqueductal gray matter, to the amygdala

a. Spinoreticular tract, to the parabrachial nucleus, to the amygdala

Ch 4 10. After a traumatic head injury, a 45-year-old female develops a seizure disorder. Initially, she experiences a tingling sensation in her right leg. This is followed by tingling on her right back, then right palm, fingers, and finally the right side of the face. Which of the following best describes the location of the start and end of the seizure? a. Start: medial left postcentral gyrus; end: lateral left postcentral gyrus b. Start: medial left postcentral gyrus; end: left insular cortex c. Start: left ventral posterior medial nucleus; end: left ventral posterior lateral nucleus d. Start: left ventral posterior lateral nucleus; end: left ventral posterior medial nucleus

a. Start: medial left postcentral gyrus; end: lateral left postcentral gyrus

Ch 4 6. Large-diameter afferent fibers do not terminate within which region of the spinal cord gray matter? a. Superficial laminae of the dorsal horn b. Deep layers of the dorsal horn c. Intermediate zone d. Ventral horn

a. Superficial laminae of the dorsal horn

Ch 6 6. Which of the following statements best describes the somatotopic organization of the caudal and interpolar trigeminal nuclei? a. The interpolar nucleus represents the oral cavity, including the teeth, the rostral caudal nucleus represents the perioral face, and the caudal portion of the caudal nucleus represents the back of the face, close to the ear. b. The interpolar nucleus represents the oral cavity, including the teeth, the rostral caudal nucleus represents the back of the face, close to the ear, and the caudal portion of the caudal nucleus represents the perioral face. c. The interpolar nucleus represents the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, the rostral caudal nucleus represents the maxillary division, and the caudal portion of the caudal nucleus represents the mandibular division. d. The interpolar nucleus represents the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, the rostral caudal nucleus represents the maxillary and mandibular divisions, and the caudal portion of the caudal nucleus represents the intermediate, vagal, and glossopharyngeal nerves.

a. The interpolar nucleus represents the oral cavity, including the teeth, the rostral caudal nucleus represents the perioral face, and the caudal portion of the caudal nucleus represents the back of the face, close to the ear.

Ch 10 2. Complete the following analogy. Limb control is to trunk control, as a. The lateral corticospinal tract is to the ventral corticospinal tract b. The reticulospinal tract is to the rubrospinal tract c. The motor cortex on the medial brain surface is to the motor cortex on the lateral brain surface d. The middle cerebral artery is to the basilar artery

a. The lateral corticospinal tract is to the ventral corticospinal tract

Ch 12 9. Horizontal saccades are to smooth pursuit eye movements as a. The paramedial pontine reticular formation is to the cerebellum b. Interstitial nucleus of the MLF is to the superior colliculus c. Vestibular nuclei are to the cerebellum d. Prepositus nucleus is to the superior cerebellum

a. The paramedial pontine reticular formation is to the cerebellum

Ch 3 10. A patient has a subdural hematoma. Which of the following best describes the space within which blood accumulates? a. The space between the dura and the arachnoid b. The space between the dura and the pia c. The space between the dura and the cortex surface d. Any space within a part of the central nervous system covered by the dura

a. The space between the dura and the arachnoid

Ch 1 10. Which of the following best describes the location of major brain regions? a. The thalamus is located rostral to the midbrain b. The basal ganglia are located ventral to the cerebellum c. The midbrain is located caudal to the medulla d. The cerebellum is located ventral to the pons

a. The thalamus is located rostral to the midbrain

Ch 7 3. A patient is blind in one eye. Which of the following does not describe the patient's visual fields? a. The visual field of the sighted eye corresponds precisely to one hemifield in a normally sighted individual. b. The monocular crescent of the sighted eye is not affected by blindness in the other eye. c. There is a loss of overlap of the two visual fields. d. The visual field of the sighted eye extends beyond the midline.

a. The visual field of the sighted eye corresponds precisely to one hemifield in a normally sighted individual.

Ch 13 5. Which of the following circuits traces the connection, via the cerebellum, from the right posterior parietal cortex to the spinal cord? a. Triple crossed: right posterior parietal cortex -> right pons -> left cerebellum -> right thalamus -> right motor cortex -> left spinal cord b. Double crossed: right posterior parietal cortex -> right pons -> right cerebellum -> left thalamus -> left motor cortex -> right spinal cord c. Triple crossed: right posterior parietal cortex -> left pons -> right cerebellum -> right thalamus -> right motor cortex -> left spinal cord d. Double crossed: right posterior parietal cortex -> left pons -> left cerebellum -> left thalamus -> left motor cortex -> right spinal cord

a. Triple crossed: right posterior parietal cortex -> right pons -> left cerebellum -> right thalamus -> right motor cortex -> left spinal cord

Ch 12 2. The ascending vestibular pathway projects to the ___ nucleus of the thalamus, where ___ information is integrated with vestibular sensory messages for perception. a. Ventral posterior; proprioceptive b. Medial geniculate; auditory c. Medial dorsal; cognitive d. Ventral posterior; visceral sensory

a. Ventral posterior; proprioceptive

Ch 6 10. The insular cortex represents a. Visceral organs b. The contralateral face c. Sensory information from cranial nerves d. Sensory information from spinal nerves

a. Visceral organs

Ch 9 2. Which of the following cranial nerves does not provide any gustatory innervation of the tongue and oral cavity? a. XII b. X c. IX d. VII

a. XII

Ch 13 2. From lateral to medial, the anterior and posterior lobes of the cerebellar cortex connect with the deep nuclei in the following order: a. dentate, interposed, fastigial b. fastigial, interposed, dentate c. dentate, fastigial, vestibular d. fastigial, interposed, dentate, vestibular

a. dentate, interposed, fastigial

Ch 15 2. Complete the following analogy using the best choice: The parvocellular neurosecretory system is to the magnocellular neurosecretory system, as a. the anterior pituitary gland is to the posterior pituitary gland b. the median eminence is to the adrenal gland c. the paraventricular nucleus is to the lateral hypothalamus d. the supraoptic nucleus is to the arcuate nucleus

a. the anterior pituitary gland is to the posterior pituitary gland

Ch 9 6. A 17-year-old man received a concussion playing football, as a result of a blow to his head. He noticed greatly diminished sense of smell after the incident. Progressively, over the next year, his sense of smell improved. Which of the following is a plausible explanation for the loss and subsequent partial recovery of olfaction? a. The axons in the olfactory tracts became damaged as they traveled through the cribiform plate when the concussion displaced the brain transiently. Over the next year, these axons regenerated, thereby restoring function. b. The axons of the primary olfactory neuron became damaged as they traveled through the cribiform plate when the concussion displaced the brain transiently. During the next year, these axons regenerated, thereby restoring function. c. The concussion disrupted neurogenesis, and it takes many months for neurogenesis to return to normal. d. The concussion produced inflammation of the olfactory mucosa, thereby damaging primary olfactory neurons, which takes time to repair.

b. The axons of the primary olfactory neuron became damaged as they traveled through the cribiform plate when the concussion displaced the brain transiently. During the next year, these axons regenerated, thereby restoring function.

Ch 4 9. Complete the following analogy: The face area of the primary somatic sensory cortex is to the leg area, as a. The middle cerebral artery is to the posterior cerebral artery b. The middle cerebral artery is to the anterior cerebral artery c. The posterior cerebral artery is to the anterior cerebral artery d. The posterior cerebral artery is to the middle cerebral artery

b. The middle cerebral artery is to the anterior cerebral artery

Ch 1 4. Which of the following analogies best describes the function of Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes? a. The myelin sheath of central nervous system axons is to the myelin sheath of peripheral nervous system axons b. The myelin sheath of peripheral nervous system axons is to the myelin sheath of central nervous system axons c. Central nervous system action potential conduction is to peripheral nervous system action potential conduction d. Peripheral nervous system axon structure is to central nervous system axon structure

b. The myelin sheath of peripheral nervous system axons is to the myelin sheath of central nervous system axons

Ch 9 4. A patient with multiple sclerosis has focal demyelination in the pontine tegmentum that damages the ascending gustatory pathway. Which of the thalamic nuclei listed below would be most directly influenced by this demyelination? a. Ventral posterior lateral nucleus b. Ventral posterior medial nucleus c. Medial dorsal nucleus d. Ventral medial posterior nucleus

b. Ventral posterior medial nucleus

Ch 2 5. Many of the neurological signs of Parkinson disease are produced by a loss of brain dopamine. Which of the following is a major source of dopamine? a. Basal nucleus b. Ventral tegmental area and substantia nigra compacta c. Locus ceruleus and reticular formation d. Raphe nuclei

b. Ventral tegmental area and substantia nigra compacta

Ch 1 6. Ependymal cells are located in which of the following nervous system structures? a. Cerebral arteries b. Ventricles c. Cerebral cortex d. Sensory ganglia

b. Ventricles

Ch 16 10. Which of the following statements best indicates how hippocampal formation neurons influence the rest of the brain? a. Via the fornix b. Via the fornix and back projections to the entorhinal cortex c. Via the fornix and back projections to the entorhinal cortex and the uncinate fasciculus d. Via the fornix and back projections to the entorhinal cortex, uncinate fasciculus, and stria terminalis

b. Via the fornix and back projections to the entorhinal cortex

Ch 3 5. Which description of the brain stem arterial distributions is most accurate? a. Arterial branches supply pie-shaped wedges of tissue, beginning at dorsal midline and extending circumferentially b. Short circumferential branches supply the dorsal brain stem; long circumferential branches supply the ventral brain stem c. Arteries course on the ventral surface and send branches dorsally d. The basilar artery supplies the midline; the vertebral arteries, the next lateral territory; and the cerebellar arteries supplying most laterally

c. Arteries course on the ventral surface and send branches dorsally

Ch 1 2. Which of the following neuron components is located within a white matter tract? a. Dendrite b. Cell body c. Axon d. Axon termination

c. Axon

Ch 13 8. A person has olivopontocerebellar atrophy, with extensive degeneration of the inferior olivary nucleus and the pontine nuclei, as well as parts of the cerebellum. Which of the following connections is likely to be lost in this person? a. Between mossy fibers and Purkinje cells b. Between mossy fibers and basket cells c. Between climbing fibers and Purkinje cells d. Between climbing fibers and granule cells

c. Between climbing fibers and Purkinje cells

Ch 7 6. The lateral geniculate nucleus receives input from a. Ipsilateral ganglion cells b. Contralateral ganglion cells c. Both ipsilateral and contralateral ganglion cells, sorted into separate layers d. Both ipsilateral and contralateral ganglion cells, with convergence of both eyes into certain layers

c. Both ipsilateral and contralateral ganglion cells, sorted into separate layers

Ch 4 8. Occlusion of which artery would most likely damage the ventral posterior nucleus? a. Branches of the middle cerebral artery b. Branches of the anterior cerebral artery c. Branches of the posterior cerebral artery d. Branches of the basilar cerebral artery

c. Branches of the posterior cerebral artery

Ch 1 14. The atrium of the lateral ventricle is located within which major central nervous system division? a. Pons b. Cerebellum c. Cerebral cortex d. Diencephalon

c. Cerebral cortex

Ch 9 1. A patient with multiple sclerosis suddenly developed impaired taste sensation. An MRI revealed a lesion in the left pontine tegmentum. Which of the following statements best describes the distribution of taste loss on the tongue produced by the lesion? a. Left and right sides of tongue; anterior two thirds of each side b. Left and right sides of tongue; posterior one third of each side c. Left side of tongue, both anterior and posterior parts d. Right side of tongue, both anterior and posterior parts

c. Left side of tongue, both anterior and posterior parts

Ch 2 4. Which of the following is a major source of noradrenaline? a. Medial septal nucleus b. Substantia nigra compacta c. Locus ceruleus d. Raphe nuclei

c. Locus ceruleus

Ch 12 8. What pathway is important for transmitting vestibular information from the vestibular nuclei to the oculomotor nucleus? a. Medial lemniscus b. Dorsal longitudinal fasciculus c. Medial longitudinal fasciculus d. Solitary tract

c. Medial longitudinal fasciculus

Ch 6 5. The cell bodies of jaw muscle receptors are located in a. Dorsal root ganglia b. Trigeminal ganglion c. Mesencephalic trigeminal nucleus d. Interpolar trigeminal nucleus

c. Mesencephalic trigeminal nucleus

Ch 3 13. A baby was born with hydrocephalus. This likely was caused by constriction of the cerebral aqueduct during early development. In which part of the central nervous system would this constriction have occurred? a. Olfactory bulb b. Diencephalon c. Midbrain d. Medulla

c. Midbrain

Ch 11 1. Which statement below best describes the spatial relationship between cranial nerve motor and sensory nuclei in the medulla and pons? a. Motor nuclei are ventral to sensory nuclei b. Motor nuclei are dorsal to sensory nuclei c. Motor nuclei are medial to sensory nuclei d. Motor nuclei are lateral to sensory nuclei

c. Motor nuclei are medial to sensory nuclei

Ch 15 5. The components of the autonomic nervous system in the spinal cord are regulated by which of the following brain structures? a. Mammillary body b. Supraoptic nucleus c. Paraventricular nucleus d. Arcuate nucleus

c. Paraventricular nucleus

Ch 7 4. A person with retinitus pigmentosa has a functional impairment in which retinal layer? a. Ganglion cell layer b. Bipolar layer c. Pigment epithelium d. Layer of optic nerve fibers

c. Pigment epithelium

Ch 16 2. Limbic cortical areas do not engage in primary sensory or motor functions. Rather, they integrate information, often from several cortical regions that are interconnected with the hippocampal formation, amygdala, or both. Which of the following is not considered a limbic cortical area? a. Anterior cingulate cortex b. Orbitofrontal cortex c. Posterior insular cortex d. Temporal lobe

c. Posterior insular cortex

Ch 15 4. Which of the following statements best describes how the central nervous system innervates smooth muscle and skeletal muscle? a. Smooth muscle is innervated by autonomic preganglionic neurons, whereas skeletal muscle is innervated by somatic motor neurons b. Smooth muscle is innervated by autonomic postganglionic neurons, whereas skeletal muscle is innervated by somatic motor neurons c. Preganglionic neurons innervate postganglionic neurons, which innervate smooth muscle; skeletal muscle is innervated by somatic motor neurons d. Preganglionic neurons innervate postganglionic neurons and somatic motor neurons; postganglionic neurons innervate smooth muscle; somatic motor neurons innervate skeletal muscle

c. Preganglionic neurons innervate postganglionic neurons, which innervate smooth muscle; skeletal muscle is innervated by somatic motor neurons

Ch 14 7. Which of the following statements best matches the structure and neurons with the correct neurotransmitter? a. Substantia nigra pars compacta and GABA b. Globus pallidus external segment and glutamate c. Subthalamic nucleus and glutamate d. Caudate nucleus and dopamine

c. Subthalamic nucleus and glutamate

Ch 7 9. A patient has a scotoma, blinding a portion of the upper right visual field. Which of the following statements best describes the location of a lesion that could produce this visual field defect? a. Parietal lobe b. Occipital lobe c. Temporal lobe d. Where the fibers exit the lateral geniculate nucleus

c. Temporal lobe

Ch 7 11. Which statement best completes the following analogy? The "what" visual pathway is to the "where" pathway, as a. The middle cerebral artery is to the posterior cerebral artery b. Brodmann's area 3 is to area 17 c. Temporal lobe is to parietal lobe d. Object recognition is to object distance

c. Temporal lobe is to parietal lobe

Ch 7 1. Which of the following statements best describes how a visual image is transmitted upon the retinal surface by the lens? a. The visual image is projected onto the retina without distortion. b. The image is reversed, from right to left only. c. The image is reversed from right to left and inverted from top to bottom. d. The image is inverted, from top to bottom.

c. The image is reversed from right to left and inverted from top to bottom.

Ch 12 7. Horizontal saccadic eye movements are driven by which of the following brain stem regions? a. The cerebellum b. The interstitial nucleus of the MLF and the oculomotor nucleus c. The paramedial pontine reticular formation and the abducens nucleus d. The superior colliculus and oculomotor nuclei

c. The paramedial pontine reticular formation and the abducens nucleus

Ch 6 3. Which of the following statements best describes the spatial relationships between two cranial nerve nuclear columns? a. The branchiomeric motor column is located dorsal to the somatic motor column. b. The column for visceral sensations is located lateral to the column for somatic sensation. c. The somatic motor column is located medial to the somatic sensory column. d. The autonomic nuclei column is located ventral to the somatic sensory column.

c. The somatic motor column is located medial to the somatic sensory column.

Ch 1 13. Complete the following using the most appropriate choice: The falx cerebri separates a. The occipital lobes and the cerebellum b. The cerebellum and the medulla c. The two cerebral hemispheres d. The two halves of the diencephalon

c. The two cerebral hemispheres

Ch 8 10. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) can be used to identify brain pathways in humans noninvasively. Using this approach, which of the following best describes the arcuate fasciculus? a. This is a relatively straight path between the temporal and frontal lobes b. This is a C-shaped structure connecting the temporal and parietal lobes c. This is a C-shaped tract linking the temporal lobe with the frontal lobe d. This is a relatively straight path that connects temporal with occipital lobes

c. This is a C-shaped tract linking the temporal lobe with the frontal lobe

Ch 16 9. Which of the following choices best describes the difference between neocortex and allocortex function and organization? a. Neocortex mediates aspects of olfaction, whereas allocortex mediates vision b. Neocortex is located ventrally, on the base of the brain, and allocortex is located laterally c. Typically, neocortex has six layers and allocortex has three layers d. Allocortex, not neocortex, is susceptible to degeneration

c. Typically, neocortex has six layers and allocortex has three layers

Ch 10 3. Which of the following statements best describes why unilateral damage to the descending cortical pathway in the basis pedunculi results only in weakness/paralysis of contralateral lower facial, arm, and leg muscles? a. Upper facial and trunk muscles are not controlled by the corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts b. Upper facial and trunk muscles are controlled by the ventral corticospinal tract only c. Upper facial and trunk muscles receive bilateral corticospinal and corticobulbar tract control d. Upper facial and trunk muscles are not controlled by the corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts

c. Upper facial and trunk muscles receive bilateral corticospinal and corticobulbar tract control

Ch 15 7. Some antihistamine medications used to treat allergic reactions can cause drowsiness. This is because a. they act directly on hypothalamic centers to trigger sleep b. they shift the biological clock in the suprachiasmatic nucleus later in the day, so the brain thinks it is night time c. they can block the central action of histamine, which activates forebrain neurons d. they can block the actions of the retinal projection to the hypothalamus

c. they can block the central action of histamine, which activates forebrain neurons

Ch 4 3. The medial lemniscus - in the medulla, at the level where there is a fourth ventricle - receives its blood supply from which of the following arteries? a. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery b. Vertebral artery c. Posterior spinal artery d. Anterior spinal artery

d. Anterior spinal artery

Ch 8 3. Which of the following contributes to most of the axons in the trapezoid body? a. Inferior colliculus b. Superior olivary nucleus c. Dorsal cochlear nucleus d. Anteroventral cochlear nucleus

d. Anteroventral cochlear nucleus

Ch 13 1. A person has a tumor in the posterior fossa, on the dorsal surface of the cerebellum. Which of the following statements best describes the location of the tumor? a. Between the cerebellum and the occipital lobe b. Between the cerebellum and the medulla c. Between the cerebellum and the temporal lobe d. Between the cerebellum and the tentorium

d. Between the cerebellum and the tentorium

Ch 3 15. A 38-year-old male suspected of having Guillain-Barre syndrome will have a lumbar tap to sample protein content in CSF. Which of the following best explains why CSF sampling is by lumbar tap? a. CSF pools within the subarachnoid space located at the most inferior portion of the central nervous system b. CSF exists from the ventricular system at the caudal terminus of the vertebral column c. The lumbar cistern is the only part of the subarachnoid space in which there is sufficient CSF for sampling d. CSF collects in multiple subarachnoid cisterns. The lumbar cistern is safe to sample because it contains only nerve roots since the caudal termination of the spinal cord is rostral to the lumbar cistern.

d. CSF collects in multiple subarachnoid cisterns. The lumbar cistern is safe to sample because it contains only nerve roots since the caudal termination of the spinal cord is rostral to the lumbar cistern.

Ch 1 3. Which of the following best lists the parts of neurons that are located in a nucleus? a. Cell bodies only b. Cell bodies and dendrites c. Cell bodies, axons, and dendrites d. Cell bodies, dendrites, axons, and axon terminals

d. Cell bodies, dendrites, axons, and axon terminals

Ch 11 3. After an internal capsule stroke, a person can loose some cranial nerve motor function. Typically, the lost function is expressed only on the contralateral side. Which statement below best explains this contralateral pattern? a. All corticobulbar projections are contralateral. Thus, a unilateral lesion will produce contralateral deficits. b. All corticobulbar projections are bilateral, but the contralateral projections are the strongest. When these strong connections are eliminated after a unilateral lesion, contralateral deficits occur. c. Some cranial nerve motor nuclei receive contralateral corticobulbar projections, whereas others receive a bilateral projection. Nevertheless, the contralateral projections are the strongest, and when they are eliminated after a unilateral lesion, contralateral deficits occur. d. Cranial nerve motor nuclei that receive bilateral corticobulbar projections are protected from gross impairment after unilateral corticobulbar lesions, whereas those receiving only a contralateral corticobulbar projection are not.

d. Cranial nerve motor nuclei that receive bilateral corticobulbar projections are protected from gross impairment after unilateral corticobulbar lesions, whereas those receiving only a contralateral corticobulbar projection are not.

Ch 16 4. Which part of the hippocampal formation is noted for receiving its input? a. Parahippocampal gyrus b. Subiculum c. Hippocampus d. Dentate gyrus

d. Dentate gyrus

Ch 4 5. Which of the following statements best describes the organization of dermatomes associated with adjacent dorsal roots? a. Dermatomes are adjacent, with minimal overlap, so that loss of one dorsal root gives rise to a loss of somatic sensation within the dermatome boundary as shown in the dermatome maps b. Dermatomes overlap partially, but loss of one dorsal root does not give rise to a noticeable loss of sensation c. Dermatomes overlap partially, so that loss of one dorsal root typically gives rise to a noticeable loss of sensation within the dermatomal boundaries d. Dermatomes overlap nearly completely, so that loss of one dorsal root typically does not give rise to a noticeable loss of sensation

d. Dermatomes overlap nearly completely, so that loss of one dorsal root typically does not give rise to a noticeable loss of sensation

Ch 16 7. The ventral tegmental area is thought to be important in reward. Which of the following choices lists the correct neurotransmitter used by the ventral tegmental area and the brain region that is the key site of action? a. 5-HT; orbitofrontal cortex b. Dopamine; locus ceruleus c. Norepinephrine; thalamus d. Dopamine; ventral striatum

d. Dopamine; ventral striatum

Ch 14 2. The output nuclei of the basal ganglia send projections to the diencephalon and brain stem. Which of the following lists two output nuclei of the basal ganglia? a. Globus pallidus internal, globus pallidus external b. Caudate nucleus, nucleus accumbens c. Substantia nigra pars reticulata, substantia nigra pars compacta d. Globus pallidus internal, substantia nigra pars reticulata

d. Globus pallidus internal, substantia nigra pars reticulata

Ch 12 4. Ocular depression is produced by contraction of which of the following extraocular muscles? a. Inferior rectus b. Inferior rectus and medial rectus c. Inferior rectus and inferior oblique d. Inferior rectus and superior oblique

d. Inferior rectus and superior oblique

Ch 9 5. A patient has a seizure disorder and has gustatory hallucinations. Which of the following brain regions is most likely to be directly involved in these hallucinations? a. Parietal lobe b. Occipital lobe c. Frontal lobe d. Insular cortex

d. Insular cortex

Ch 4 2. From which of the listed body regions does the gracile nucleus receive mechanoreceptive input? a. Contralateral arm b. Contralateral leg c. Ipsilateral arm d. Ipsilateral leg

d. Ipsilateral leg

Ch 4 7. A patient has a small thalamic stroke that affects mechanosensation on the contralateral foot. Which nucleus is most likely affected? a. Medial division of the ipsilateral ventral posterior nucleus b. Medial division of the contralateral ventral posterior nucleus c. Lateral division of the ipsilateral ventral posterior nucleus d. Lateral division of the contralateral ventral posterior nucleus

d. Lateral division of the contralateral ventral posterior nucleus

Ch 5 8. Which thalamic nucleus does not play a key role in pain and thermal sensations? a. Ventral posterior nucleus b. Ventral medial posterior nucleus c. Medial dorsal nucleus d. Lateral geniculate nucleus

d. Lateral geniculate nucleus

Ch 12 10. On looking to the right, a person experiences diplopia. The right eye is normally abducted, but the left eye does not adduct. Vergence is normal. Lesion of which of the following structures likely produces this sign? a. Right abducens nucleus b. Left abducens nucleus c. Right MLF d. Left MLF

d. Left MLF

Ch 11 5. A stroke affecting the corticobulbar tract will produce which of the following trigeminal motor impairments? a. Weakness or paralysis of contralateral muscles of mastication b. Weakness or paralysis of ipsilateral muscles of mastication c. Weakness or paralysis of muscles of mastication, bilaterally d. Minimal weakness because the trigeminal motor nucleus receives a bilateral corticobulbar tract innervation

d. Minimal weakness because the trigeminal motor nucleus receives a bilateral corticobulbar tract innervation

Ch 7 12. Which of the following is not a major visual cortex column type? a. Orientation b. Ocular dominance c. Color d. Movement direction

d. Movement direction

Ch 9 9. Which of the listed components of the olfactory system is the target of migrating newborn neurons from the lateral ventricle wall? a. Olfactory cortical areas b. Anterior olfactory nucleus c. Olfactory tracts d. Olfactory bulb

d. Olfactory bulb

Ch 15 1. A person has a pituitary gland tumor. Which of the following brain structures is most likely to become affected as the tumor enlarges? a. Oculomotor nerve b. Medial orbitofrontal cortex c. Mammillary body d. Optic chiasm

d. Optic chiasm

Ch 6 4. The caudal nucleus of the spinal trigeminal nucleus is to the parabrachial nucleus, as a. Mechanosensation is to visceral sensation b. Visceral sensation is to thermal sensation c. Visceral sensation is to pain d. Pain is to visceral sensation

d. Pain is to visceral sensation

Ch 8 8. Which of the following best describes the location of the various cortical auditory areas? a. The areas are organized in strips from primary cortex rostrally, to higher-order areas caudally b. The areas are organized in strips from primary cortex caudally, to higher-order areas rostrally c. The areas are largely organized in a concentric scheme, with the primary area peripheral and the higher-order area central d. The areas are largely organized in a concentric scheme, with the primary area central and the higher-order area peripheral

d. The areas are largely organized in a concentric scheme, with the primary area central and the higher-order area peripheral

Ch 8 5. Which of the following statements best describes the connections/functions of the brachia of the two colliculi? a. The brachia of the two colliculi are both afferent structures because they carry sensory information b. The brachia of the two colliculi are both efferent structures because they carry information from each of the colliculi to other brain structures c. The brachium of the inferior colliculus is an afferent structure because it transmits auditory information, and the brachium of the superior colliculus is an efferent structure because it transmits information about eye movement control d. The brachium of the inferior colliculus is an efferent structure because it transmits information away from the inferior colliculus, and the brachium of the superior colliculus is an afferent structure because it brings information into the superior colliculus

d. The brachium of the inferior colliculus is an efferent structure because it transmits information away from the inferior colliculus, and the brachium of the superior colliculus is an afferent structure because it brings information into the superior colliculus

Ch 2 2. A person was in a car accident and injured the lateral white matter of the spinal cord and became partly paralyzed. Which of the following choices best explains why the person became paralyzed as a consequence of the injury? a. The injury produced extensive damage to the neuronal cell bodies within the white matter b. The injury produced extensive damage to the astrocytes in the white matter c. The injury destroyed the component of the ventricular system that is located in the spinal cord d. The injury extensively damaged axons within the white matter

d. The injury extensively damaged axons within the white matter

Ch 3 4. Which of the following best completes the analogy about cerebral arterial distributions: The middle cerebral artery is to the anterior cerebral artery, as a. The basal ganglia is to the thalamus b. The inferior frontal lobule is to the occipital pole c. The cingulate gyrus is to the superior temporal gyrus d. The lateral postcentral gyrus is to the medial postcentral gyrus

d. The lateral postcentral gyrus is to the medial postcentral gyrus

Ch 10 6. Which of the following statements best describes a key feature of the reticulospinal tracts? a. They are components of the lateral descending pathways b. They descend to the cervical spinal cord only c. They originate from the medulla d. They regulate relatively automatic behaviors

d. They regulate relatively automatic behaviors

Ch 16 1. A patient with a rare memory disorder has an MRI. The neuroradiologist notes that the only significant change is that the hippocampal formation is degenerated. Which of the following statements best describes the most likely effect this wound have on the image of the ventricular system? a. There would be no change to the ventricular system because the degeneration is localized to the hippocampal formation b. This would be accompanied by shrinkage of the lateral ventricle c. This would be accompanied by enlargement of the lateral ventricle d. This would be accompanied by enlargement of the ventral, or temporal, horn of the lateral ventricle system

d. This would be accompanied by enlargement of the ventral, or temporal, horn of the lateral ventricle system

Ch 5 2. Which of the following best describes a nociceptor? a. Pacinian corpuscle b. Ruffini's corpuscle c. Meissner's corpuscle d. Unencapsulated receptor

d. Unencapsulated receptor

Ch 13 3. Which of the following is the principal synaptic target of Purkinje cells of the nodulus? a. Dentate nuclei b. Interposed nuclei c. Fastigial nuclei d. Vestibular nuclei

d. Vestibular nuclei

Ch 7 10. Which statement best completes the following analogy? The magnocellular visual pathway is to the parvocellular pathway, as a. Color vision is to achromatic vision b. Daylight vision is to night vision c. Form and color vision is to visual motion d. Visual motion is to form and color vision

d. Visual motion is to form and color vision

Ch 16 8. The ___ is the principal output tract of the cortico-medial amygdala a. uncinate fasciculus b. fornix c. ventral amygdalofugal pathway d. stria terminalis

d. stria terminalis

Ch 13 6. The principal output nuclei of the vestibulocerebellum are a. dentate nuclei b. interposted nuclei c. fastigial nuclei d. vestibular nuclei

d. vestibular nuclei