NSG 211 Test 3 Review
1. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The client reports fatigue, joint tenderness, swelling, and difficulty urinating. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse anticipate? (Select all that apply.) A. Positive ANA titer B. Increased hemoglobin C. 2+ urine protein D. Increased serum C3 and C4 E. Elevated BUN
1. A. CORRECT: A positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) titer is an expected finding in a client who has SLE. The ANA test identifies the presence of antibodies produced against the client's own DNA. B. Pancytopenia, rather than an elevated hemoglobin, is an expected finding in a client who has SLE. C. CORRECT: Increased urine protein is an expected finding due to kidney injury as a result of SLE. D. The client who has SLE is expected to have a decreased level of serum C3 and C4. E. CORRECT: Elevated BUN is an expected finding due to kidney injury in a client who has SLE.
Fistulas are most common with which of the following bowel disorders? A. Crohn's disease B. Diverticulitis C. Diverticulosis D. Ulcerative colitis
A. Crohn's disease The lesions of Crohn's disease are transmural; that is, they involve all thickness of the bowel. These lesions may perforate the bowel wall, forming fistulas with adjacent structures. Fistulas don't develop in diverticulitis or diverticulosis. The ulcers that occur in the submucosal and mucosal layers of the intestine in ulcerative colitis usually don't progress to fistula formation as in Crohn's disease.
Side effects of loperamide (Imodium) include all of the following except? A. Diarrhea B. Epigastric pain C. Dry mouth D. Anorexia
A. Diarrhea Side effects associated with loperamide include CNS fatigue and dizziness, epigastric pain, abdominal cramps, nausea, dry mouth, vomiting, and anorexia. Diarrhea is an indication, not a side effect.
Which goal for the client's care should take priority during the first days of hospitalization for an exacerbation of ulcerative colitis? 1. Promoting self-care and independence. 2. Managing diarrhea. 3. Maintaining adequate nutrition. 4. Promoting rest and comfort.
2. Managing diarrhea. Diarrhea is the primary symptom in an exacerbation of ulcerative colitis, and decreasing the frequency of stools is the first goal of treatment. The other goals are ongoing and will be best achieved by halting the exacerbation. The client may receive antidiarrheal agents, antispasmodic agents, bulk hydrophilic agents, or anti-inflammatory drugs.
The client is diagnosed with and acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis. Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Provide a low residue diet 2. Rest the clients bowel 3. Assess vital signs daily 4. Administer antacids orally
2. Rest the clients bowel Whenever a client has an acute exacerbation of gastrointestinal disorder, the first intervention is to place the bowel on rest. The client should be NPO with intravenous fluids to prevent dehydration.
A diagnosis of AIDS is made when an HIV-infected patient hasa. a CD4+ T cell count below 200/µL. b. a high level of HIV in the blood and saliva. c. lipodystrophy with metabolic abnormalities. d. oral hairy leukoplakia, an infection caused by Epstein-Barr virus.
Correct answer: a Rationale: AIDS is diagnosed when an individual with HIV infection meets one of several criteria; one criterion is a CD4+ T cell count below 200 cells/L.
The client diagnosed with Crohn's disease is crying and tells the nurse, I can't take it anymore. I never know when I will get sick and end up here in the hospital. Which statement is the nurses best response? 1. I understand how frustrating this must be for you. 2. You must keep thinking about the good things in your life. 3. I can see you are very upset. I'll sit down and we can talk 4. Are you thinking about doing anything lie committing suicide?
3. I can see you are very upset. I'll sit down and we can talk The client is crying and is expressing feelings of powerlessness; therefore, the nurse should allow the client to talk.
The client diagnosed with ulcerative colitis is prescribed a low residue diet. Which meal selection indicates the client understands the diet teaching? 1. Grilled hamburger on a wheat bun and fried potatoes 2. A chicken salad sandwich and lettuce and tomato salad 3. Roast pork, white rice, and plain custard 4. Fried fish, whole grain pasta, and fruit salad
3. Roast pork, white rice, and plain custard A low residue diet is a low fiber diet. Products made of refined flour or finely milled grains, along with roasted, baked, or broiled meats, are recommended.
Screening for HIV infection generally involves a. laboratory analysis of blood to detect HIV antigen. b. electrophoretic analysis for HIV antigen in plasma. c. laboratory analysis of blood to detect HIV antibodies. d. analysis of lymph tissues for the presence of HIV RNA.
Correct answer: c Rationale: The most useful screening tests for HIV detect HIV-specific antibodies
A patient diagnosed with ulcerative colitis is prescribed the aminosalicylate sulfasalazine. When teaching the patient about this medication, which of the following statements is a priority for the healthcare provider include? A. "Avoid exposure to sunlight while taking this medication." B. "You may crush the enteric-coated tablet and mix it with applesauce." C. Call our office immediately if your urine turns an orangish color." D. "Be sure to limit your intake of fluids during therapy."
A. "Avoid exposure to sunlight while taking this medication." Because the medication may cause photosensitivity, the patient should be counseled to use a sunscreen or avoid exposure to ultraviolet light. B.The enteric coating protects the stomach from drug-induced irritation and should not be crushed. C. The patient should be told to expect a harmless discoloration of urine. D. Crystalluria and stone formation can be prevented by the intake of adequate fluids.
The healthcare provider is teaching a patient who has been diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) about the need for multi-drug therapy. Which of the following best explains the rationale for using more than one antiretroviral medication to treat AIDS? A. "This is intended to keep the virus from developing resistance to the medications." B. "You will experience less side effects when you take a combination of medications." C. "You will not be able to transmit the disease while you take this medication combination." D. "This combination of medications will eliminate the AIDS virus from your body."
A. "This is intended to keep the virus from developing resistance to the medications." The HIV virus mutates rapidly so resistance to medications is a concern. Emergence of resistance is related to viral load (e.g. the higher the viral load, the more probable it is that a virus will become resistant). By giving a combination of medications, viral load is reduced along with the likelihood of resistance.
A 68-year-old client suffers from rheumatoid arthritis in the joints of her arms, legs, and hands. The doctor has prescribed oral corticosteroid treatment for the client's condition. Which information should the nurse include about how this medication works to treat arthritis? A. Corticosteroids decrease prostaglandin levels that affect inflammation B. Corticosteroids counteract many neurotransmitters secreted by the brain C. Corticosteroids stimulate opioid receptors to increase pain control D. Corticosteroids prevent the body from releasing the stress hormone cortisol
A. Corticosteroids decrease prostaglandin levels that affect inflammation
The client being seen in a physician's office has just been scheduled for a barium swallow the next day. The nurse writes down which of the following instructions for the client to follow before the test? A. Fast for 8 hours before the test B. Eat a regular supper and breakfast C. Continue to take all oral medications as scheduled D. Monitor own bowel movement pattern for constipation
A. Fast for 8 hours before the test A barium swallow is an x-ray study that uses a substance called barium for contrast to highlight abnormalities in the GI tract. The client should fast for 8 to 12 hours before the test, depending on the physician instructions. Most oral medications also are withheld before the test. After the procedure the nurse must monitor for constipation, which can occur as a result of the presence of barium in the GI tract.
The nurse is caring for a client who has ulcerative colitis. The nurse knows to monitor for which of the following abnormal lab work? Select all that apply. A. Folic acid B.Urine C.Potassium D. Complete blood count E. Calcium
A. Folic acid If this lab value is abnormal it is not related to UC. B.Urine If this lab value is abnormal it is not related to UC. C.Potassium Clients with ulcerative colitis are likely to have blood in their stool, decreased amounts of electrolytes due to decreased absorption, and frequent stools leading to elimination of electrolytes before they are absorbed. D. Complete blood count A CBC is checked for signs of infection and anemia. E. Calcium Calcium is an electrolyte that may be low due to altered elimination in the client with ulcerative colitis.
Monocytes move from the systemic circulatory system into general connective tissues, where they differentiate into what phagocytic cell type? A. Macrophage B. T cell C. B cell D. Neutrophil
A. Macrophage Monocytes move from the systemic circulatory system into tissues, where they differentiate into macrophages.
Adalimumab (Humira) is given to a client for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following side effect is associated with the medication? A. Numbness B. Diarrhea. C. Urinary retention. D. Weight gain.
A. Numbness. Adalimumab (Humira) has been associated with neurological side effects such as numbness, tingling, dizziness, visual disturbances, and weakness in the legs). B, C, D: Options B, C, and D are not associated with the use of medication.
A patient has been admitted to the medical unit after several days of watery diarrhea related to Crohn's disease. The healthcare provider recognizes which of the following symptoms as most concerning? A. Palpitations B. Right upper quadrant pain C. Elevated leukocytes D. Elevated hematocrit
A. Palpitations Hypokalemia may cause cardiac arrhythmias, which may be experienced by the patient as palpitations.
A client with lupus has been using corticosteroids. Which of the following must the nurse consider if this client must undergo surgery? Select all that apply. A. The client is at risk of adrenal suppression B. The client may develop a spike in blood glucose levels C. The client has an increased susceptibility to infection D. The client may develop low blood pressure E. The client will most likely experience more pain
A. The client is at risk of adrenal suppression This type of medication cause adrenal atrophy with prolonged use. B. The client may develop a spike in blood glucose levels Corticosteroids are medications used for the management of various conditions as prescribed by the provider, including reducing inflammation in the client with lupus. If the client taking corticosteroids is undergoing surgery, the nurse must keep in mind potential complications. Corticosteroids reduce the body's ability to withstand stress due to adrenal atrophy. They also affect blood glucose levels and reduce the body's immune response to infection. C. The client has an increased susceptibility to infection Corticosteroids affect a client's immune system, increasing their susceptibility to infection. D. The client may develop low blood pressure Corticosteroid use does not cause hypotension. E. The client will most likely experience more pain A client's pain experience is not affected by corticosteroids.
A patient with lupus needs to take corticosteroids for control of symptoms but has developed an electrolyte deficit as a side effect of the drug. Which nutrition strategy should the nurse recommend for the patient that would help combat this side effect? A. Try to include one protein source a day B. Decrease calcium intake to prevent kidney stones C. Chew food slowly and sip fluid between bites D. Increase potassium intake by eating bananas and potatoes
A. Try to include one protein source per day A corticosteroid use does not result in a protein deficiency. B. Decrease calcium intake to prevent kidney stones Rather than decrease calcium, the nurse wants to encourage calcium intake, because corticosteroid use decreases calcium levels. C. Chew food slowly and sip fluid between bites The effect of corticosteroids on the body is a lack of regulation by the kidneys. Eating food more slowly will not help this problem, but increasing the intake of electrolytes will help. D. Increase potassium intake by eating bananas and potatoes Nutrient deficiency often develops as a side effect of the medication. Common deficiencies include potassium, calcium, and sodium, electrolytes whose excretion is altered by the kidneys in long term use of corticosteroids.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has SLE. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Weight loss B. Petechiae on thighs C. Systolic murmur D. Alopecia
A. Weight gain can occur in a client who has SLE due to being treated with corticosteroids. This is an adverse effect of this medication. B. A butterfly rash on the face is a finding in a client who has lupus. C. A cardiac friction rub is an expected finding of SLE. D. CORRECT: Alopecia (hair loss) is an expected finding in a client who has SLE.
To evaluate the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy (ART), which laboratory test result will the nurse review? a. Viral load testing b. Enzyme immunoassay c. Rapid HIV antibody testing d. Immunofluorescence assay
ANS: A The effectiveness of ART is measured by the decrease in the amount of virus detectable in the blood. The other tests are used to detect HIV antibodies, which remain positive even with effective ART.
1) The client enters the outpatient clinic and states to the triage nurse, "I think I have the flu. I'm so tired, I have no appetite, and everything hurts." The triage nurse assesses the client and finds a butterfly rash over the bridge of nose and on the cheeks. Which diagnosis does the nurse expect? A) Systemic lupus erythematosus B) Fibromyalgia C) Lyme disease D) Gout
Answer: A Explanation: A) The rash over the nose and cheeks is sometimes called a butterfly rash and is classic for the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), although not every client diagnosed with this disorder will have this rash. While fibromyalgia, Lyme's disease, and gout share some symptoms of SLE, they do not cause a rash over the nose and cheeks.
5) A client with SLE is being treated with immunosuppressant drugs and corticosteroids. Which precautions should the nurse provide this client?Select all that apply. A) Avoid large crowds. B) Don't get a flu shot. C) Use contraception to prevent pregnancy D) Refrain from taking aspirin or ibuprofen. E) Report signs of infection to the physician.
Answer: A, C, D, E Explanation: A) Crowds may increase exposure to infection. Annual influenza vaccination is recommended but clients with significant immunosuppression should not receive live vaccines. Immunosuppressive drugs may increase the risk of birth defects. Aspirin or ibuprofen may increase the risk of bleeding. Chills, fever, sore throat, fatigue, or malaise should be reported.
10) A nurse is caring for a client with systemic lupus erythematous (SLE) who is taking hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil). The nurse understands that the primary concern with this drug is: A) Pulmonary fibrosis B) Cushing syndrome C) Retinal toxicity D) Renal toxicity
Answer: C Explanation: A) Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) is an antimalarial drug used in SLE to reduce the frequency of acute episodes of SLE. The primary concern with Plaquenil is retinal toxicity and possible irreversible blindness. Cushingoid effects are a concern with corticosteroid therapy. Pulmonary fibrosis is a potential adverse effect of cyclophosphamide, not Plaquenil. Renal toxicity is not the primary concern with Plaquenil.
2) A female client asks the nurse if there are any conditions that can exacerbate systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which is the best nurse response? A) "Conditions that cause hypotension can often exacerbate SLE." B) "GI upset is often associated with SLE exacerbation." C) "Pregnancy is often associated with an SLE exacerbation." D) "Fever is a known trigger for an SLE exacerbation."
Answer: C Explanation: A) Pregnancy can be associated with an exacerbation of SLE due to the rise of estrogen levels. Hypotension, fever, and GI upset are not factors that risk exacerbation of SLE.
A patient diagnosed with ulcerative colitis is admitted to the medical unit. When assessing the patient, which of these findings would be of the most concern? A Oral temperature of 99.0 F (37.2 C) B Rebound tenderness C Bloody diarrhea D Borborygmi
B Rebound tenderness Bloody diarrhea is a common finding because of bleeding lesions and anal excoriation. A temperature of 99.0 F (37.2 C) is within normal range, and chronic inflammation may keep temperatures within the high normal range or above. Rebound tenderness is a sign of peritonitis that could be the result of rupture of the colon.
The nurse is caring for a patient newly diagnosed with HIV. The patient asks what would determine the actual development of AIDS. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that what is a diagnostic criterion for AIDS? A. Presence of HIV antibodie B. CD4+ T cell count below 200/µL C. Presence of oral hairy leukoplakia D. White blood cell count below 5000/µl
B. CD4+ T cell count below 200/µL Diagnostic criteria for AIDS include a CD4+ T cell count below 200/µL and/or the development of specified opportunistic infections, cancers, wasting syndrome, or dementia. The other options may be found in patients with HIV disease but do not define the advancement of HIV infection to AIDS.
A client takes medication for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse reviews the client's list of medications and knows that which of the following medications is used to treat and manage rheumatoid arthritis?' A. Immodium B. Indomethacin C. Inderal D. Imdur
B. Indomethacin
The classic signs and symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis include which of the following? A. Pain on weight-bearing, rash and low-grade fever. B. Joint swelling, joint stiffness in the morning and bilateral joint movement. C. Crepitus, development of Heberden's nodes and anemia. D. Fatigue, leucopenia and joint pain
B. Joint swelling, joint stiffness in the morning and bilateral joint movement. Joint swelling, joint stiffness in the morning and bilateral joint movement are the classic signs of rheumatoid arthritis. A, C, D: The other symptoms are not found on a patient with rheumatoid arthritis.
A client just got the news that antibodies were detected for HIV in her recent EIA test. What should the nurse tell the patient? A. Don't worry, this doesn't always mean you have HIV B.These results must be confirmed with a Western Blot test C.We need to test your viral load immediately D. Because you have antibodies, this means you are immune to HIV and AIDS
B. These results must be confirmed with a Western Blot test
The primary chemical mediators produced by the body to coordinate the inflammatory response include: A.Neutrophils B.Histamine C.Prostaglandins D All of the above
B. histamine & C. prostoglandins
The healthcare provider is teaching a patient diagnosed with Crohn's disease who is recovering from a bowel resection. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates the teaching has been effective? A. "Now that the bowel has been removed, the disease is cured." B. "Now I can discontinue taking my multivitamin supplements." C. "The disease might reappear in another part of the bowel." D. "I might develop ulcerative colitis because some of my bowel is missing."
C. "The disease might reappear in another part of the bowel." Resection of the diseased part of the bowel can be helpful in improving problems such as bleeding, strictures, and obstructions, but surgery does not cure the disease.
Following a kidney transplant, a client is started on medication to prevent organ rejection. Which category of medications would the nurse expect to be ordered? A. H2 Blockers B. Immunomodulators C. Immunosuppressant D. Corticosteroids
C. Immunosuppressant prevents the formation of antibodies against the new organ?
A client who has ulcerative colitis has persistent diarrhea. He is thin and has lost 12 pounds since the exacerbation of his ulcerative colitis. The nurse should anticipate that the physician will order which of the following treatment approaches to help the client meet his nutritional needs? A. Initiate continuous enteral feedings B. Encourage a high protein, high-calorie diet C. Implement total parenteral nutrition D. Provide six small meals a day
C. Implement total parenteral nutrition Food will be withheld from the client with severe symptoms of ulcerative colitis to rest the bowel. To maintain the client's nutritional status, the client will be started on TPN. Enteral feedings or dividing the diet into 6 small meals does not allow the bowel to rest. A high-calorie, high-protein diet will worsen the client's symptoms.
Which of the following associated disorders may the client with Crohn's disease exhibit? A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Colon cancer C. Malabsorption D Lactase deficiency
C. Malabsorption Because of the transmural nature of Crohn's disease lesions, malaborption may occur with Crohn's disease. Ankylosing spondylitis and colon cancer are more commonly associated with ulcerative colitis. Lactase deficiency is caused by a congenital defect in which an enzyme isn't present.
A patient who has tested positive for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) arrives at the clinic with a report of fever, nonproductive cough, and fatigue. The patient's CD4 count is 184 cells/mcL. How should the healthcare provider interpret these findings? A. These findings provide evidence that the patient has seroconverted. B. The patient is now in the latent stages of HIV infection C. The patient is diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). D. This is an expected finding because the patient has tested positive for HIV.
C. The patient is diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). AIDS is diagnosed when a patient has a CD4 count of less than 200 cells/mcL. The patient's symptoms are consistent with Pneumocystis jirovecii, an infection that can develop in HIV-infected patients as the CD4 count decreases.
Which nonpharmacologic interventions should a nurse include in a care plan for a client who has moderate rheumatoid arthritis? Select ALL that apply: a. massaging inflamed joints b. avoiding ROM exercise c. applying splints to inflamed joints d. using assistive devices at all times e. selecting clothing that has Velcro fasteners f. applying moist heat to joints
C. applying splints to inflamed joints E. selecting clothing that has Velcro fasteners F. applying moist heat to joint
A patient unable to tolerate oral medications may be prescribed which of the following proton pump inhibitors to be administered intravenously? A. lansoprazole (Prevacid) B. omeprazole (Prilosec) C. pantoprazole (Protonix) D. esomeprazole (Nexium)
C. pantoprazole (Protonix) Pantoprazole is the only proton pump inhibitor that is available for intravenous administration. The other medications in this category may only be administered orally.
The nurse is caring for a client who has been admitted with an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis (UC). Which of the following orders would the nurse question? A. High protein diet B. B. 0.9 % normal saline continuous at 75 ml/hr C. Hemoccult stools D. Labs: CMP, magnesium, phosphorus serum levels
CORRECT A. High protein diet A client experiencing an acute exacerbation of UC should be NPO while receiving IV fluids and electrolytes (if needed). Initiating a high-protein diet during this phase would be inappropriate. Once the client is out of the acute phase, this diet is appropriate. B. 0.9 % normal saline continuous at 75 ml/hr This is an appropriate order for the client with an exacerbation of UC. C. Hemoccult stools This is not an inappropriate order for a client with exacerbated UC. D. Labs: CMP, magnesium, phosphorus serum levels These are expected labs to check on the client with UC.
During the HIV infection... a. the virus replicates mainly in B-cells before spreading to CD4+ T cells. b. infection of monocytes may occur, but antibodies quickly destroy these cells. c. the immune system is impaired predominantly by the eventual widespread destruction of CD4+ T cells. d. a long period of dormancy develops during which HIV cannot be found in the blood and there is little viral replication
Correct answer: C Rationale: Immune dysfunction in HIV disease is caused predominantly by damage to and destruction of CD4+ T cells (i.e., T helper cells or CD4+ T lymphocytes).
Surgical management of ulcerative colitis may be performed to treat which of the following complications? A. Gastritis B. Bowel herniation C. Bowel outpouching D. Bowel perforation
D. Bowel perforation Perforation, obstruction, hemorrhage, and toxic megacolon are common complications of ulcerative colitis that may require surgery. Herniation and gastritis aren't associated with irritable bowel diseases, and outpouching of the bowel is diverticulosis.
Which area of the alimentary canal is the most common location for Crohn's disease? A. Ascending colon B. Descending colon C. Sigmoid colon D. Terminal ileum
D. Terminal ileum Studies have shown that the terminal ileum is the most common site for recurrence in clients with Crohn's disease. The other areas may be involved but aren't as common.
Crohn's disease can be described as a chronic relapsing disease. Which of the following areas in the GI system may be involved with this disease? A. The entire length of the large colon B. Only the sigmoid area C. The entire large colon through the layers of mucosa and submucosa D. The small intestine and colon; affecting the entire thickness of the bowel
D. The small intestine and colon; affecting the entire thickness of the bowel Crohn's disease can involve any segment of the small intestine, the colon, or both, affecting the entire thickness of the bowel. Answers 1 and 3 describe ulcerative colitis, answer 2 is too specific and therefore, not likely.
Which of the following associated disorders may a client with ulcerative colitis exhibit? A. Gallstones B. Hydronephrosis C. Nephrolithiasis D. Toxic megacolon
D. Toxic megacolon Toxic megacolon is extreme dilation of a segment of the diseased colon caused by paralysis of the colon, resulting in complete obstruction. This disorder is associated with both Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis. The other disorders are more commonly associated with Crohn's disease.
Which of the following symptoms may be exhibited by a client with Crohn's disease? A. Bloody diarrhea B. Narrow stools C. N/V D.. Steatorrhea
D.. Steatorrhea Steatorrhea from malabsorption can occur with Crohn's disease. N/V, and bloody diarrhea are symptoms of ulcerative colitis. Narrow stools are associated with diverticular disease.
Why is the inflammatory response alone insufficient to provide complete protection against infection? a. It only responds to tissue injury and not to invasion by microorganisms. b. It is nonspecific and no long-lasting immunity is generated by inflammation alone. c. When the inflammatory response is prolonged, it can cause serious tissue damage. d. The body is not capable of synthesizing antibodies at the same time that inflammatory processes are active. e. None of above
b. It is nonspecific and no long-lasting immunity is generated by inflammation alone. The cells that provide the protection of inflammation, the neutrophils and the macrophages, have no "memory" to aid them in mounting a faster or stronger response to an invading microorganism upon repeated or subsequent exposure. Without antibody-mediated immunity and cell-mediated immunity to augment the inflammatory response, humans remain susceptible to reinfection by the same microorganism over and over again.
Vasodilation resulting in redness at the site of injury is primarily due to the bodies: a. Cellular response to cell injury b. Vascular response to cell injury c. Humeral immunity d. Cell mediated immunity
b. Vascular response to cell injury Stage 1 of stages of inflammation
Which of the following phrases BEST describes the inflammatory process? a. The body's response to an infectious process. b. An abnormal event that accompanies selected disease processes. c. A normal body response to cell and tissue injury and death. d. A disease process that is accompanied by fever.
c. A normal body response to cell and tissue injury and death.
Which statement is true about pathologic conditions of the immune system? a. Allergies result when the immune system loses its ability to react to antigens. b. In immunodeficiency, the body's immune system overreacts to foreign antigens. c. In autoimmune diseases such as Lupus or Rheumatoid Arthritis, the body's immune system treats some of the body's own tissues as foreign invaders. d. None of the above.
c. In autoimmune diseases such as Lupus or Rheumatoid Arthritis, the body's immune system treats some of the body's own tissues as foreign invaders.
The nurse is monitoring the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy (ART) for a 56-year-old man with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). What laboratory study result indicates the medications have been effective? a. Increased viral load b. Decreased neutrophil count c. Increased CD4+ T cell count d. Decreased white blood cell count
c. Increased CD4+ T cell count Antiretroviral therapy is effective if there are decreased viral loads and increased CD4+ T cell counts.