NSG110 Nutrition Questions

The nurse is instructing a client with hyperkalemia on the importance of choosing foods low in potassium. The nurse should teach the client to limit which of the following foods? A. Grapes. B. Carrot. C. Green beans. D. Lettuce.

B. Carrot. Carrots has 320 mg of potassium per 100 mg serving; green beans give 209 mg of potassium, 194 mg for lettuce, and 191 mg for grapes all in 100 mg serving. Other foods that are low in potassium include: applesauce, blueberries, pineapple, and cabbage.

A patient is suffering from a broken jaw. Which foods would be most beneficial for this patient? A) Tacos, peanuts, and fresh broccoli B) Carrots, fried chicken, and cereal C) Soup, pudding, and ice cream D) Rice, watermelon, and smoked fish

C) Soup, pudding, and ice cream A patient with a broken jaw needs foods that require no chewing. Soup, pudding, and ice cream meet these qualifications.

A nurse is caring for a client with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. The physician asks the nurse to teach the client to consume thiamine-rich food. The nurse instruct the client to increase the intake of which food items? A. Chicken. B. Milk. C. Beef. D. Brocolli.

C. Beef. Food sources of thiamin include beef, liver, nuts, oats, oranges, pork, eggs, seeds, legumes, peas and yeast. Option A: Poultry contains niacin. Option B: Milk contains vitamins A, D, and B2. Option D: Broccoli contains folic acid, vitamins C, E, and K.

A patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis. The nurse understands that the vitamin most commonly associated with weak bones is: 1. D 2. K 3. B 4. E

1. D 1. Vitamin D (also regarded as a hormone) promotes bone mineralization by producing transport proteins that bind calcium and phosphorus, which increases intestinal absorption, stimulates the kidneys to return calcium to the bloodstream, and stimulates bone cells to use calcium and phosphorus to build and maintain bone tissue. 2. Vitamin K promotes blood clotting by increasing the synthesis of prothrombin by the liver; it does not promote strong bones. 3. The B-complex vitamins are related to protein synthesis and cross-linking of collagen fi bers, which are essential for integrity of the integumentary system, not to strong bones. 4. Vitamin E prevents the oxidation of unsaturated fatty acids and thereby prevents cell damage; it does not promote strong bones.

The nurse understands that which situation results in ketosis in a healthy person? 1. Inadequate intake of carbohydrates 2. Increased intake of protein 3. Excessive intake of starch 4. Decreased intake of fiber

1. Inadequate intake of carbohydrates 1. When the amount of carbohydrates ingested does not meet the energy requirements of an individual, the body will break down stored fat to meet its energy needs. Ketone bodies are produced during the oxidation of fatty acids. 2. An increased intake of protein helps meet energy demands because when the energy from carbohydrates is depleted, the body converts protein and fatty acids to glucose (gluconeogenesis). 3. Starch is the major source of carbohydrates in the diet and it yields simple sugars on digestion. 4. Fiber is unrelated to ketosis.

A patient is scheduled for surgery and the nurse is teaching the patient about the importance of vitamin C in wound healing. Which source of vitamin C should the nurse include in the teaching plan? 1. Potatoes 2. Yogurt 3. Beans 4. Milk

1. Potatoes 1. Potatoes are an excellent source of vitamin C (ascorbic acid). One ½-pound potato contains approximately 26 mg of vitamin C. 2. Eight ounces of yogurt contains only 1 mg of vitamin C. 3. Dry beans (legumes) contain no vitamin C. One cup of green beans contains only 12 mg of vitamin C. 4. One cup of milk contains only 2 mg of vitamin C.

A patient with a Latino heritage is to eat a low-fat diet. The patient tells the nurse, "I am going to have a hard time giving up my favorite family recipes." Which food should the nurse recommend that is low in fat and generally is included in the Latino culture? 1. Salsa 2. Pasta 3. Steamed fi sh 4. Refried beans

1. Salsa 1. Salsa predominantly contains the vegetables: tomatoes, onions, and peppers, all which are low in fat. 2. Pasta contains predominantly carbohydrates, not fat. In addition, in the Latino culture, rice and beans are preferred over pasta. Pasta is associated with the Italian culture. 3. Although steamed fi sh is low in fat, foods in the Latino culture are generally stewed or fried. Vegetables, legumes, and meat usually are preferred over fi sh. 4. Refried beans are a fried food that should be avoided on a low-fat diet. Frying involves cooking food with a saturated or unsaturated fat solution, which is composed mostly of fatty acids. Fatty acids combine with glycerol to form triglycerides.

The nurse teaches a patient that fat in the diet is unnecessary to absorb: 1. Vitamin C 2. Vitamin A 3. Vitamin E 4. Vitamin D

1. Vitamin C 1. Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) is a watersoluble vitamin. The presence of fat or bile salts are unnecessary for its absorption. 2. Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin that requires fat and bile salts to be absorbed. 3. Vitamin E is a fat-soluble vitamin that requires fat and bile salts to be absorbed. 4. Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin that requires fat and bile salts to be absorbed.

An older adult is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of congestive heart failure, malnutrition, and macrocytic anemia. In addition to other medications, the physician orders folic acid 0.8 mg p.o. once daily. A strip of unit dose tablets of 0.4 mg/tablet is sent to the unit from the hospital pharmacy. How many tablets should the nurse administer?

2 tablets

The nurse is assessing a patient who is admitted to the hospital with withdrawal from alcohol. The nurse knows that excessive alcohol intake directly contributes to health problems because it: 1. Lengthens passage time of stool through the intestinal tract 2. Decreases the absorption of many important nutrients 3. Accelerates the absorption of medications 4. Interferes with the absorption of glucose

2. Decreases the absorption of many important nutrients 1. Alcohol increases intestinal motility so that it decreases, not increases, the length of time it takes intestinal contents to pass through the body. 2. Alcohol interferes with vitamin intake, absorption, metabolism, and excretion. It specifi cally interferes with the absorption of vitamins A, D, K, thiamin, folic acid, pyridoxine, and B12. 3. The damaging effects of alcohol decrease, not increase, the effi ciency of the process of absorption of medications in the stomach and intestines. However, alcohol can potentiate the action of drugs, such as central nervous system depressants. 4. Alcohol interferes with the absorption of thiamin, which is essential to oxidize, not absorb, glucose.

The nurse understands that a human response commonly resulting from a fluoride deficiency is: 1. Stomatitis 2. Dental caries 3. Bleeding gums 4. Mottling of the teeth

2. Dental caries 1. Stomatitis, infl ammation of the mucous membranes of the mouth, is most often caused by infectious sources (herpes simplex virus, Candida albicans, and hemolytic streptococci) or chemotherapy, not fl uoride defi ciency. 2. Fluroide strengthens the ability of the tooth structure to withstand the erosive effects of bacterial acids on the teeth. The recommended daily intake of fl uoride for adults is 1.5 to 4.0 mg. 3. Bleeding gums is caused by infl ammation of the gums (gingivitis), not fl uoride defi ciency. 4. This is not specifi cally caused by fl uoride defi ciency. Yellow, brown, or black discoloration may indicate problems, such as staining, a partial or total nonviable nerve, or tetracycline administration during the prenatal period or early childhood.

The nurse is caring for patients with a variety of nutrition-related problems. Which problem eventually may require the patient to have a nasogastric feeding tube inserted? 1. Malabsorption syndrome 2. Difficulty swallowing 3. Nausea and vomiting 4. Stomatitis

2. Difficulty swallowing 1. This is not an appropriate therapy for a patient with malabsorption syndrome. A gastrostomy tube permits a formula to be instilled into the stomach, which then progresses to the small intestine where absorption takes place. Depending on the etiology, it can cause gastrointestinal irritation, increased intestinal motility, diarrhea, and dehydration. 2. Diffi culty swallowing (dysphagia) that does not respond to dysphagia diets (mechanical soft, soft, blended or pureed liquids) may need the insertion of a gastrostomy tube so that formula feedings can be administered to meet nutritional needs and minimize the risk of aspiration. 3. Gastric tube feedings are contraindicated in the presence of vomiting because of the potential for aspiration. The cause of the nausea and vomiting should be identifi ed and treated. 4. This is a drastic measure for stomatitis. Stomatitis, an infl ammation of the mouth, usually is a temporary problem that responds to pharmacologic therapy and frequent, appropriate oral hygiene.

A patient is diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse understands that the major cause of iron deficiency is: 1. Metabolic problems 2. Inadequate diets 3. Malabsorption 4. Hemorrhage

2. Inadequate diets 1. Although the inability to form hemoglobin in the absence of other necessary factors, such as vitamin B12 (pernicious anemia), can result in iron defi ciency, it is not the major cause of iron defi ciency. 2. The most common nutrient defi ciency in the United States is iron defi ciency caused by an inadequate supply of dietary iron. The major condition indicating iron defi ciency is anemia. 3. Malabsorption of iron is not the major cause of iron defi ciency, although a lack of gastric hydrochloric acid necessary to help liberate iron for absorption and the presence of phosphate or phytate, inhibitors of iron absorption, all can precipitate malabsorption of iron. 4. Although hemorrhage can precipitate iron defi ciency, it is not the major etiologic factor.

The nurse teaches a postoperative patient about foods high in protein that will promote wound healing. The nurse identifies that the teaching is successful when from a list of foods the patient selects: 1. Milk 2. Meat 3. Bread 4. Vegetables

2. Meat 1. One cup of milk contains only 8 grams of protein. 2. Food from animal sources (meat, poultry, fi sh, eggs, and cheese) provides complete proteins and, therefore, are the best sources of protein. Three ounces of meat or poultry contain approximately 19 to 25 grams of protein depending on the type of meat or poultry. 3. Although a serving of a grain product contains approximately 2 grams of protein, it primarily provides carbohydrates and fi ber. 4. The majority of vegetables provide only 1 to 3 grams of protein.

A patient is diagnosed with a vitamin A deficiency. Which food should the nurse encourage the patient to ingest? 1. Blueberry pie 2. Pumpkin pie 3. Cherry pie 4. Pecan pie

2. Pumpkin pie 1. One piece of blueberry pie contains only 14 μgRE (Retinol Equivalents) of vitamin A. 2. Pumpkin is an excellent source of vitamin A. One piece (1/6 of a 9-inch diameter pie) contains 3750 μgRE (Retinol Equivalents) of vitamin A. 3. One piece of cherry pie contains only 70 μgRE of vitamin A. 4. One piece of pecan pie contains only 115 μgRE of vitamin A.

A patient is to have a test with contrast that contains iodine. To prevent erroneous results, the nurse teaches the patient to avoid which food? 1. Grapefruit 2. Salmon 3. Grains 4. Beans

2. Salmon 1. Grapefruit does not contain iodine. Grapefruit is a source of vitamin C (ascorbic acid) and potassium. 2. Foods naturally high in iodine include saltwater fi sh, shellfi sh, and seaweed because they are derived from seawater. 3. Although some grains contain iodine because of iodated dough conditioners, they are not a rich source. Grains provide carbohydrates and fi ber. 4. The iodine in plant sources, such as beans, depends on the mineral content of the soil in which they are grown, and are not rich sources of iodine.

A patient is confused and disoriented. An excellent food for the nurse to select for this patient is chicken: 1. Soup 2. Salad 3. Fingers 4. Casserole

3. Fingers 1. A confused patient may not know how to manipulate the spoon to eat the soup. This may result in spillage and frustration. 2. Eating chicken salad requires the use of a utensil that may be beyond the patient's cognitive ability. 3. This is a single food item that usually is familiar to most people in the United States. A single familiar food is an easier symbol to decode cognitively than food mixed together on a plate or in a casserole. In addition, the fi ngers, rather than a utensil, can handle a piece of chicken. 4. Eating a casserole requires the use of a utensil that may be beyond the patient's ability. In addition, food mixed together is more confusing than food that is presented individually.

A patient is anorexic because of stomatitis related to chemotherapy. When planning care for this patient, the nurse should be most concerned about: 1. Aspiration 2. Dehydration 3. Malnutrition 4. Constipation

3. Malnutrition 1. Although in some patients stomatitis may cause diffi culty with swallowing (dysphagia), which may contribute to aspiration, a bland diet soft in consistency will help to minimize dysphagia. 2. Fluids promote a softer stool and activity increases peristalsis. Ingesting adequate amounts of fl uid generally is not a problem as long as acidic fl uids are avoided because they irritate the lesions of the mucous membranes. 3. Stomatitis, infl ammation of the mucous membranes of the oral cavity, can be painful. Patients with stomatitis frequently avoid eating to limit discomfort, which can lead to inadequate nutritional intake and malnutrition. 4. Although a loss of appetite may contribute to constipation, an increase in fl uid intake and activity can help prevent constipation.

A nurse is teaching a client with pancreatitis about following a low-fat diet. The nurse develops a list of high-fat foods to avoid and includes which food on the item list? A. Chocolate milk. B. Broccoli. C. Apple. D. Salmon.

A. Chocolate milk. Chocolate milk is a high-fat food. Options B and C: Fruits and vegetables are low in fat because they do not come from animal sources. Option D: Salmon is naturally lower in fat.

A patient with gout should follow what type of diet? A) Potassium-modified diet B) Renal Diet C) High-calcium diet D) Low-purine diet

D) Low-purine diet Patients with gout suffer from elevated uric acid levels which can cause a gout attack. Therefore, they need to restrict from eating foods high in purine. These foods usually include: anchovies, herring, mackerel, sardines, scallops, glandular meats, wild game, goose, and sweetbreads.

A client who is recovering from a surgery has been ordered a change from a clear liquid diet to a full liquid diet. The nurse would offer which full liquid item to the client? A. Popsicle. B. Carbonated beverages. C. Gelatin. D. Pudding.

D. Pudding. Full liquid food items include items such as plain ice cream, sherbet, breakfast drinks, milk, pudding, and custard, soups that are strained, refined cooked cereals, and strained vegetable juices. Options A, B, and C are clear liquid diet.

A client is recovering from debridement of the right leg. A nurse encourages the client to eat which food item that is naturally high in vitamin C to promote wound healing? A. Milk. B. Chicken. C. Banana. D. Strawberries.

D. Strawberries. Citrus fruits and juices are especially high in vitamin C. Options A and B: Meats such as chicken and dairy products such as milk are high in vitamin B. Option C: Banana is rich in potassium.

Fruits, vegetables and cereals are potent sources of: a. Antioxidants b. Unsaturated fat c. Saturated fat d. Free radicals

a. Antioxidants In addition to the above-mentioned foods, legumes (including broad beans, pinto beans, and soybeans) are good sources of antioxidant vitamins and a variety of phytonutrients that often act as antioxidants, protecting the cells of the body from the damaging effect of free radicals. Some of the best sources of antioxidants are berries, ginger, pomegranate, sunflower seeds, and walnuts.

Good source of vitamin D include all except: a. blueberries b. Sunlight c. Salmon, tuna sardines and mackerel d. Fortified milk and other dairy products

a. blueberries Humans obtain vitamin D from two natural sources: sunlight and consumed food. Solar UVB radiation penetrates the skin and converts 7-dehydrocholesterol to previtamin D3, which is rapidly converted to vitamin D3. Along with the above-mentioned foods, cod liver oil is a potent source of vitamin D and some orange juice, soy, and rice beverages are fortified with vitamin D.

When collecting data about a patient, which nursing assessment best reflects a healthy behavior? 1. Eating foods low in fat 2. Visiting a physician when ill 3. Displaying no signs of illness 4. Wanting to lose twenty pounds

1. Eating foods low in fat 1. Eating foods low in fat is a healthy behavior because it is an action that promotes a healthy lifestyle. Implementing health-promotion behaviors is based on the perceived benefi ts of the actions. 2. This is a behavior, but it is in response to an illness, not associated with the promotion of health and the prevention of illness. 3. This is one aspect of a person's health status. 4. This refl ects cognition, not behavior.

The most common independent nursing intervention to help hospitalized older adults maintain body weight is: 1. Making meal time a social activity 2. Taking a thorough nutritional history 3. Providing assistance with the intake of meals 4. Encouraging dietary supplements between meals

3. Providing assistance with the intake of meals 1. Although this is desirable, it may be impractical or impossible in an acute-care facility. Patient rooms may be private or semiprivate, which limits exposure to other patients, and patients often are too sick to socialize. 2. Although this can be done, the information will not necessarily improve intake. 3. Sick older adults often are debilitated, lack energy, and do not feel well. Assistance with meals conserves the patient's energy and demonstrates a caring concern, which may increase the intake of food. 4. This is a dependent function of the nurse and requires a practitioner's order.

The practitioner orders a clear liquid diet for a patient. Which food should the nurse teach the patient to avoid when following this diet? 1. Strawberry Jell-O 2. Decaffeinated tea 3. Strong coffee 4. Ice cream

4. Ice cream 1. Jell-O is a clear liquid that is a solid when refrigerated and a liquid at room temperature. It is permitted in either form on a clear liquid diet. 2. Caffeinated or decaffeinated tea is permitted on a clear liquid diet. 3. Weak or strong and caffeinated or decaffeinated coffee is permitted on a clear liquid diet. 4. Milk and milk products are not included on a clear liquid diet. Ice cream contains a high-solute load, including fat and proteins, which stimulates the digestive process.

The nurse understands that the balance of calcium in the body is unrelated to: 1. Osteoporosis 2. Vitamin D 3. Tetany 4. Iron

4. Iron 1. Osteoporosis is a disease characterized by a decrease in total bone mass and deterioration of bone tissue that leads to bone fragility and the risk of fractures. Adequate calcium is necessary for building and strengthening bones and preventing osteoporosis. 2. Vitamin D promotes bone mineralization by producing transport proteins that bind calcium and phosphorus. This increases intestinal absorption, stimulates the kidneys to return calcium to the bloodstream, and stimulates bone cells to use calcium and phosphorus to build and maintain bone tissue. 3. A decrease in calcium in the blood (hypocalcemia) can eventually lead to tetany, which is characterized by muscle spasms, paresthesias, and convulsions. 4. Iron is unrelated to calcium balance. Iron is essential for hemoglobin formation.

A patient is on a lacto-ovo vegetarian diet. What type of foods can the patient eat? A) Boiled eggs and chocolate milk B) Oysters, yogurt, and turkey C) Fish, milk, and poached eggs D) Chicken, cheese, and grilled eggplant

A) Boiled eggs and chocolate milk Patients on a lacto-ovo vegetarian diet eat eggs and dairy products but avoid meat, poultry, and seafood.

A patient has a stage 4 pressure ulcer on their sacral area. What type of foods would the patient most benefit from? A) Dried beans, eggs, meats B) Liver, spinach, corn C) Peanuts, tomatoes, and cabbage D) Oats, fruits, and vegetables

A) Dried beans, eggs, meats A patient with a stage 4 pressure ulcer needs a high protein diet to promote wound healing. Dried beans, eggs, and meats are the highest protein foods of the selection.

The patient is on a low potassium diet that includes food such as applesauce, green beans, cabbage, lettuce, grapes, and raspberries. What type of patient would you expect to be on this type of diet? A) A patient with osteoporosis B) A patient with Addison's disease C) A patient with heart disease D) A patient who recently had gastric bypass surgery

B) A patient with Addison's disease Patient's with Addison disease secrete too much potassium so they need to be on a low potassium diet.

A patient just had a Wound Vac ® placed on her abdomen from abdominal surgery. Which foods would help promote wound healing? A) Corn, poultry, and grains B) Citrus fruit and tomatoes C) Liver, beef, and fish D) Peanuts, beans, and pork

B) Citrus fruit and tomatoes Foods high in vitamin C help promote the production of collagen which is vital for wound healing. Citrus fruits and tomatoes are high in vitamin C.

You have a patient who just had a stroke and has garbled speech. What type of diet do you expect the patient to be prescribed after a speech evaluation? A) Mechanically altered diet with thin liquids B) Mechanically altered diet with nectar thick liquids C) Full liquid diet D) Soft diet

B) Mechanically altered diet with nectar thick liquids When a patient has a stroke they are at risk for aspiration due to the decrease ability to swallow. Many times a stroke with affect speech as well the patient's ability to utilize the swallowing muscles. Generally, when garbled speech is noted in a stroke victim this is a sign there is a problem with the patient's ability to use their swallowing muscles. A mechanically altered diet with nectar thick liquid will usually be prescribed. However, a speech evaluation will determine what is needed.

A patient is admitted for diverticulitis. The patient has been on a full liquid diet and has been tolerating it well. Now the MD has ordered the patient a new diet. You would expect to find what type of food on the patient's lunch tray? A) French fries, chicken salad, and apple pie B) Piece of white bread, skinless white potatoes, and white rice. C) Peanut butter sandwich, glass of milk, and strawberries D) Glass of whole milk, broccoli, and cabbage

B) Piece of white bread, skinless white potatoes, and white rice. Patients with diverticulitis should be started on a low-residue diet after full liquids have been tolerated. A piece of white bread, skinless white potatoes, and white rice are considered low-residue foods.

A patient is post-opt from gallbladder surgery and is ordered a clear liquid diet. Which of the selection can the patient have? A) Creamy Chicken Soup B) Vanilla Custard C) Apple Juice D) Fudge Popsicle

C) Apple Juice Clear liquids are foods that are transparent to light and are liquid at body temperature. Apple juice meets these requirements.

A patient is started on the diuretic Spironolactone. Which foods should the patient be careful to avoid eating too much of? A) Hot Dogs B) Eggs C) Bananas D) Green leafy vegetables

C) Bananas Spironolactone is known as a potassium-sparing diuretic medication (meaning it keeps potassium) therefore a patient would need to watch how much potassium they eat. Bananas are high in potassium.

A patient receiving dialysis should avoid what type of foods? A) Fresh fruits and vegetable, poultry, and beans B) Steamed broccoli, broiled mackerel, and artificial sweeteners C) Canned soups, cold cut sandwiches, and Chinese take-out D) Microwaved sweet potatoes, boiled cabbage, and artichokes

C) Canned soups, cold cut sandwiches, and Chinese take-out Patients who are receiving dialysis have renal disease and therefore should follow a sodium restricted diet. Canned soups, cold cut sandwiches, and Chinese take-out are all high in sodium.

A patient who has a colostomy is complaining about having excess gas. You ask the patient to tell you what he has ate in the past 48 hours. Which food would you suspect is causing the patient excessive gas? A) Caraway seeds, tomato soup, and eggs B) Chicken, grapes, and raspberries C) Squash, Spinach, and Pickles D) Cherries, Radishes, and Watermelon

D) Cherries, Radishes, and Watermelon Cherries, Radishes, and Watermelon are gas causing foods and should be decreased in consummation if a patient is experiencing excess gas.

A patient asks you what vitamin is best for eye sight. Your response is: A) Vitamin B12 B) Vitamin B6 C) Vitamin C D) Vitamin A

D) Vitamin A Vitamin A maintains eye sight. Foods rich in vitamin A are liver, egg yolks, green/orange vegetables & fruits.

One of the fat-soluble vitamins involved in coagulation is: a. Vitamin K b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin E

a. Vitamin K Vitamin K1 is a cofactor needed for the synthesis of some of the substances that help blood to clot. In adults, low dietary intake of vitamin K may be the result of chronic illness, malnutrition, alcoholism, multiple abdominal surgeries, long-term parenteral nutrition, malabsorption, gallbladder disease, liver disease, cystic fibrosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and long-term use of drugs such as antibiotics and cholestyramine, which binds to bile acids, preventing fat-soluble vitamin absorption.

A deficiency of thiamine (vitamin B1) in the diet causes: a. Osteopenia b Beri-beri c. Protein malnutrition d. Scurvy

b Beri-beri Beri-beri is rarely seen in the United States because many foods are fortified with thiamine. Persons at risk of developing beri-beri include those who abuse alcohol, persons on dialysis, and those taking high doses of diuretics as well as infants breastfed by mothers who lack sufficient thiamine.

The USDA Dietary Guidelines for Americans advise: a. Limiting carbohydrates to 10 percent of daily calories b. Limiting total fat intake to 20 to 35 percent of calories c. Limiting protein to 10 percent of daily calories d. Limiting intake of fats and oils to 10 percent of daily calories

b. Limiting total fat intake to 20 to 35 percent of calories The USDA Dietary Guidelines suggest that most dietary fats should be obtained from sources of polyunsaturated and monounsaturated fatty acids, such as fish, nuts, and vegetable oils. The Guidelines also advise limiting intake of fats and oils high in saturated and/or trans fatty acids.

Products that contain live microorganisms in sufficient numbers to alter intestinal microflora and promote intestinal microbial balance are known as: a. Antibiotics b. Probiotics c. Fruits and vegetables d. Digestive enzymes

b. Probiotics Probiotics protect against harmful bacteria in the following ways: by penetrating and binding to the surfaces of harmful organisms; by stimulating the lining of the digestive tract to prevent penetration by pathogens; and by modifying immunoregulation. Probiotics have been shown to relieve temporary abdominal bloating and to reduce intestinal gas.

The leading source of antioxidants in the U.S. diet is: a. Citrus fruits b. Spinach c. Coffee d. Egg yolks

c. Coffee Because most Americans do not consume the recommended number of servings of fruits and vegetables each day, coffee is the leading source of antioxidants in Americans' diets. It is not because coffee is especially high in antioxidants, but because Americans drink so much of it. Their morning coffee gives Americans nearly 1,300 mg daily of antioxidants in the form of polyphenols.

Nondigestible food ingredients that stimulate the growth and activity of certain bacteria in the colon are called: a. Insoluble fiber b. Probiotics c. Prebiotics d. Cellulose

c. Prebiotics Prebiotics are primarily oligosaccharides-short chains of sugar molecules that can only partially be digested. Most naturally occurring oligosaccharides are found in plants. Prebiotics are often called bifidogenic factors because they primarily stimulate growth of bifidobacteria. Prebiotics work in concert with probiotics and have been found to produce many of the same health benefits.

Characteristics of successful dieters include all of the following except: a. Maintaining a daily food journal b. Counting calories c. Adhering to a strict eating plan d. Eliminating all carbohydrates from their diets

d. Eliminating all carbohydrates from their diets Along with the above-mentioned characteristics, successful dieters monitor their weight, practice portion control, increase physical activity, and aim for healthy realistic weight loss ranging from 10% to 20% of initial bodyweight in a year. Successful dieters maintain their motivation by celebrating the achievement of weight-loss milestones.

The only fat-soluble antioxidant synthesized in the body is? a. Vitamin D b. Thiamine c. Ascorbic acid d. CoQ10

d. CoQ10 Coenzyme Q10 (CoQ10) is a fat-soluble quinone, a vitamin-like compound that is vital for activities related to energy metabolism. CoQ10 is the coenzyme for at least three mitochondrial enzymes as well as enzymes in other parts of the cell and is involved in the key biochemical reactions that produce energy in cells. It also is a free radical scavenger and is metabolized to ubiquinol, which prolongs the antioxidant effect of vitamin E. The highest amounts of it are found in the mitochondria of cells of organs with high-energy requirements such as the heart muscle, liver, kidneys, and pancreas.

All of the following may be associated with scurvy except: a. Loss of appetite and irritability b. Diarrhea and fever c. Tenderness and swelling in legs d. First symptom is altered mental status

d. First symptom is altered mental status Scurvy is caused by insufficient consumption of vitamin C. Although it is rare, older adults, persons who abuse alcohol, and those who eat a diet that does not contain fresh fruit and vegetables may be at risk of developing scurvy. Along with the above-mentioned symptoms, persons with scurvy may suffer bleeding gums, petechial hemorrhage of the skin and mucous membranes, bleeding in the eye, hyperkeratosis, and sicca syndrome.

Consuming fewer than 130 grams of carbohydrate per day may lead to: a. Hypoglycemia b. Kwashiorkor c. Marasmus d. Ketosis

d. Ketosis Low carbohydrate diets promote ketosis, the process of breaking down fat as opposed to carbohydrate to generate energy. Ketones are acidic chemicals, which can build up in the blood and urine. Diet-induced ketosis may be intentional as a treatment for some people with epilepsy, however, for some people, long-term adherence to a very low carbohydrate diet may produce damage to the liver and kidneys.

Iron supplements are frequently recommended for all of the following except: a. Women who are pregnant b. Infants and toddlers c. Teenage girls d. Post-menopausal women

d. Post-menopausal women In addition to the above-mentioned populations, supplemental iron may be given to treat anemia that occurs during pregnancy or as a result of heavy menstrual periods, kidney disease, or chemotherapy. Supplemental iron also may be recommended for vegetarians and women who are lactating. Iron requirements decrease for post-menopausal women.

A patient has a low magnesium level. Which food of the selection below is the highest in magnesium? A) Liver B) Rhubarb C) Avocado D) Mushrooms

C) Avocado Out of the selection Avocado is the only item highest in magnesium.

A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of alcoholism. The physician orders thiamine hydrochloride (vitamin B1) 50 mg IM t.i.d. The drug is supplied 100 mg/mL. How much solution should the nurse administer?

0.5 mL

It is most significant for the nurse to t each a low-cholesterol diet to an adult female whose total cholesterol level is: 1. 200 milligrams per deciliter 2. 190 milligrams per deciliter 3. 150 milligrams per deciliter 4. 100 milligrams per deciliter

1. 200 milligrams per deciliter 1. A total cholesterol level of 200 mg/dL in a woman is on the high side of the acceptable range. A total cholesterol level should be ≤ 200 mg/dL. Patients should be taught the foods to avoid that are high in cholesterol to prevent excessive cholesterol levels. 2. 190 mg/dL is an acceptable level of cholesterol for an adult woman. 3. 150 mg/dL is an acceptable level of cholesterol for an adult woman. 4. 100 mg/dL is an acceptable level of cholesterol for an adult woman.

The school nurse is preparing a health class about vitamins. Which information about vitamins that is based on a scientific principle should the nurse include? 1. Eating a variety of foods prevents the need for supplements 2. Megadoses of vitamins have proven to be most effective in preventing illness 3. Taking a prescribed vitamin supplement is the best way to ensure adequate intake 4. Vitamins from more expensive manufacturers are more pure than those from cheaper companies

1. Eating a variety of foods prevents the need for supplements 1. A balanced diet with choices in moderation from a variety of foods will provide the recommended daily allowances of essential nutrients without the need for supplements. 2. Megadoses of vitamins no longer operate as nutritional agents and excesses are detrimental to the body, particularly to the liver and brain. 3. Vitamins by themselves will not ensure an adequate intake. Their action contributes to chemical reactions (i.e., they act as catalysts), and they must have their substrate material to work on, which are carbohydrates, protein, and fats and their metabolites. 4. This may or may not be true.

The patient has a high-serum cholesterol level. What food should the nurse teach the patient to avoid? 1. Egg yolks 2. Skim milk 3. Turkey burger 4. Sliced bologna

1. Egg yolks 1. Egg yolks are high in cholesterol and should be avoided by people with high cholesterol. One egg yolk contains 272 mg of cholesterol. 2. One cup of skim milk contains only 18 mg of cholesterol. 3. Three ounces of turkey contain only 45 mg of cholesterol. 4. Two slices of bologna contain only 31 mg of cholesterol.

A patient is admitted to the hospital with a history of liver dysfunction associated with hepatitis. The nurse understands that this patient may have problems with: 1. Emulsifying fats 2. Digesting carbohydrates 3. Manufacturing red blood cells 4. Reabsorbing water in the intestines

1. Emulsifying fats 1. Bile is produced and concentrated in the liver and stored in the gallbladder. As fat enters the duodenum, it precipitates the release of cholecystokinin, which stimulates the gallbladder to release bile. Bile, an emulsifi er, enlarges the surface area of fat particles so that enzymes can digest the fat. 2. The liver is not involved with carbohydrate digestion. Ptyalin (secreted by the parotid glands), amylase (secreted by the pancreas), and sucrase, lactase, and maltase (secreted by the walls of the small intestine) digest carbohydrates. 3. The liver is not involved with red blood cell production. People who are defi cient in iron and protein have diffi culty with red blood cell production. 4. The large intestine, not the liver, is involved with reabsorbing water. The majority of the water in chyme is reabsorbed in the fi rst half of the colon, leaving the remainder (approximately 100 mL) to form and eliminate feces.

The physician orders a low-residue diet. Which food should the nurse teach the patient to include in the diet? 1. Scrambled eggs 2. Orange juice 3. Green beans 4. Rye bread

1. Scrambled eggs 1. All eggs, except fried, are permitted on a low-residue diet. A low-residue diet is easily digested and absorbed and limits bulk in the intestines after digestion. 2. Orange and grapefruit juice contain pulp, a soluble fi ber, which is not permitted on a low-residue diet. 3. Green beans contain polysaccharides that provide structure to plants and result in a residual after digestion that is not permitted on a low-residue diet. One cup of green beans contains 4.19 grams of dietary fi ber. 4. Whole-grain breads, breads with seeds or nuts, and bread made with bran consist of insoluble fi bers that are not permitted on a low-residue diet.

When the nurse evaluates the effectiveness of a nutritional program, which is the best short-term indicator of an improved nutritional status? 1. Weight gain of two pounds daily 2. Increasing transferrin level 3. Decreasing serum albumin 4. Appropriate skin turgor

2. Increasing transferrin level 1. A rapid weight gain indicates fl uid retention, not nutritional status. One liter of fl uid weighs 2.2 pounds. 2. Serum transferrin is a marker for protein status. Because its half-life is 8 days compared with albumin, which is 20 days, serum transferrin levels will provide earlier objective information concerning a person's increasing or decreasing nutritional status. 3. A decreasing serum albumin indicates a deteriorating, not improving, nutritional status. A serum albumin level should range between 3.5 and 5.0 g/dL. Mild depletion values range between 2.8 and 3.4 g/dL. Moderate depletion values range between 2.1 and 2.7 g/dL. In severe depletion, values are less than 2.1 g/dL. 4. Appropriate skin turgor, fullness, and elasticity that allow the skin to spring back to its previous state after being pinched refl ect an adequate fl uid, not nutritional, balance.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory findings of a patient to assess the patient's nutritional status. The nurse understands that the laboratory finding that is the best indicator of inadequate protein intake is a: 1. High hemoglobin 2. Low serum albumin 3. Low specific gravity 4. High blood urea nitrogen

2. Low serum albumin 1. Hemoglobin concentration of the blood correlates closely with the red blood cell count. Elevated hemoglobin suggests hemoconcentration from increased numbers of red blood cells (polycythemia) or dehydration. 2. Serum proteins, particularly albumin, refl ect a person's skeletal muscle and visceral protein status. An expected serum albumin level ranges between 3.5 and 5.0 g/dL. Mild depletion ranges between 2.8 and 3.4 g/dL. Moderate depletion ranges between 2.1 and 2.7 g/dL. Severe depletion is less than 2.1 g/dL. 3. Specifi c gravity is a urine test that measures the kidney's ability to concentrate urine. A low specifi c gravity refl ects dilute urine that suggests a high urine volume, diabetes insipidus, kidney infections, or severe renal damage with disturbances in concentrating and diluting abilities. 4. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) measures the nitrogen fraction of urea, a product of protein metabolism. An elevated BUN suggests renal disease, reduced renal perfusion, urinary tract obstruction, and increased protein metabolism.

An older adult is admitted to the hospital for multiple health problems. Assessment reveals that the patient has no teeth and is having difficulty eating. The nurse should encourage the physician to order which diet for this patient? 1. Liquid supplements 2. Mechanical soft 3. Pureed 4. Soft

2. Mechanical soft 1. A person with few, or no teeth, should be able to meet all daily nutrient requirements without liquid supplements. 2. A mechanical soft diet is modifi ed only in texture. It includes moist foods that require minimal chewing and eliminates most raw fruits and vegetables and foods containing seeds, nuts, and dried fruit. 3. A person with few, or no teeth, can handle a more substantial diet than pureed foods. A pureed diet is a soft diet processed to a semisolid consistency. 4. A person with few, or no teeth, can handle a more substantial diet than a soft diet. A soft diet is moderately low in fi ber and lightly seasoned. A soft diet usually is ordered for patients who are unable to tolerate a regular diet after surgery as a transition between liquids and a regular diet.

A patient has multiple fractures from a skiing accident. To best facilitate bone growth the nurse should encourage the patient to eat more foods high in calcium. The nurse identifi es that the patient understands the teaching when from a list of foods the patient selects: 1. Orange juice 2. Peanut butter 3. Cottage cheese 4. Baked fl ounder

3. Cottage cheese 1. One cup of orange juice contains only 27 mg of calcium. 2. One tablespoon of peanut butter contains only 5 mg of calcium. 3. Cottage cheese has the highest amount of calcium of all the options and is an excellent source of calcium, which is essential for bone growth. One cup of cottage cheese contains 155 mg of calcium. The NIH Consensus Conference— Optimal Calcium Intake recommends an average intake of 1000 to 1500 mg of calcium daily for an adult depending on various factors. 4. Three ounces of baked fl ounder contains only 13 mg of calcium.

Which nutrient should the nurse encourage a patient to include in the diet to provide vitamin D? 1. Green leafy vegetables 2. Vegetable oils 3. Fortified milk 4. Organ meats

3. Fortified milk 1. Green leafy vegetables are an excellent source of vitamin K, not D. 2. Vegetable oils are an excellent source of vitamin E, not D. 3. Not many foods contain vitamin D; therefore, it should be supplemented with fortifi ed food, such as milk. One quart of fortifi ed milk contains the Recommended Daily Allowance (RDA) of vitamin D for children. 4. Liver is an excellent source of vitamin K, not D.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is expending energy that is greater than the caloric intake. Which human response most likely will occur? 1. Fever 2. Anorexia 3. Malnutrition 4. Hypertension

3. Malnutrition 1. During the states of malnutrition and starvation, the basal metabolic rate (BMR) decreases because the lean body mass decreases. Fever is associated with an increased, not decreased, BMR. 2. When energy expended is greater than the caloric intake an individual will experience hunger, not anorexia. Hunger is a dull or acute pain felt around the epigastric area caused by a lack of food. Anorexia is the loss or lack of appetite. 3. When energy expenditure exceeds caloric intake, eventually body fat and muscle mass breaks down to supply the fuel needed for metabolism. Malnutrition results when the body's cells have a defi ciency or excess of one or more nutrients. 4. When a person is malnourished, eventually the serum protein will be low, which may result in a decreased colloid osmotic pressure and then to the movement of fl uid from the intravascular compartment into the peritoneal cavity. When the circulating blood volume decreases, the blood pressure decreases, not increases.

The patient has a decreased hemoglobin because of a low intake of dietary iron. The nurse should teach the patient that the food that is the best source of iron is: 1. Eggs 2. Fruit 3. Meat 4. Bread

3. Meat 1. One egg contains only 1.0 mg of iron. 2. One serving of fruit contains less than 1.0 mg of iron. 3. Meat, especially liver, is an excellent source of iron. Three ounces of meat contains approximately 1.6 to 5.3 mg of iron depending on the type of meat and whether it is a regular or lean cut. 4. One slice of bread contains approximately 0.7 to 1.4 mg of iron depending on the type of bread.

The nurse identifi es that a vegetarian understands the importance of eating kidney beans when the patient says, "Kidney beans are essential because they are a great source of: 1. Carbohydrates." 2. Minerals." 3. Protein." 4. Fats."

3. Protein." 1. Although kidney beans are an excellent source of carbohydrates, a vegetarian diet has many other foods that can be selected to provide this nutrient. 2. Although kidney beans are an excellent source of minerals, especially sodium, potassium, and phosphorus, a vegetarian diet has many other foods that can be selected to provide this nutrient. 3. Kidney beans are high in protein. One cup of kidney beans contains 15 grams of protein. Complete proteins come from animal sources, such as meat, poultry, and fi sh, but they are not included on a vegetarian diet. Kidney beans combined with a grain are a substitute for a complete protein. 4. One cup of kidney beans contains only 1 gram of fat.

An older adult tends to bruise easily and the physician recommends that the patient eat foods high in vitamin K. In addition to teaching the patient about foods sources of vitamin K, the nurse teaches the patient that the nutrient that must be ingested for vitamin K to be absorbed is: 1. Carbohydrates 2. Starches 3. Proteins 4. Fats

3. Proteins 1. Carbohydrates are not necessary for the absorption of vitamin K. 2. Starch is not necessary for the absorption of vitamin K. 3. Proteins are not necessary for the absorption of vitamin K. 4. Vitamin K is one of the fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K) that are absorbed with fat in chylomicrons, which enter the lymphatic system before circulating in the bloodstream. Vitamin K plays an essential role in the production of the clotting factors II (prothrombin), VII, IX, and X.

The nurse teaches a patient about the prescribed low-fat diet. The nurse evaluates that the teaching is understood when the patient selects from a list which food low in fat? 1. Eggs 2. Liver 3. Cheese 4. Chicken

4. Chicken 1. Eggs should be avoided on a low-fat diet. One egg contains 1.7 grams of saturated fat. 2. Liver should be avoided on a low-fat diet. Three ounces of liver contain 2.5 grams of saturated fat. 3. Cheese should be avoided on a low-fat diet. Depending on the cheese, one ounce contains approximately 4.4 to 6.2 grams of saturated fat. 4. Chicken is permitted on a low-fat diet. Three ounces of chicken contains 0.9 gram of saturated fat. A low-fat food should contain less than 1 gram of saturated fat per serving.

The nurse is teaching a patient about the importance of balancing protein, carbohydrates, and fats in the diet. The nurse identifies that the teaching about carbohydrates is understood when the patient states, "Carbohydrates are best known for providing: 1. Electrolytes." 2. Vitamins." 3. Minerals." 4. Energy."

4. Energy." 1. An electrolyte is a chemical substance that, in solution, dissociates into electrically charged particles. Electrolytes maintain the chemical balance between cations and anions in the body, which is essential for acid-base balance. 2. Vitamins are organic compounds that do not provide energy, but are needed for the metabolism of energy. 3. Minerals are inorganic elements or compounds essential for regulating body functions. The major minerals of the body are calcium, phosphorus, sodium, potassium, magnesium, chloride, and sulfur. 4. Carbohydrates, a group of organic compounds, such as saccharides, starch, cellulose, and gum, are the main fuel sources for energy. Athletes competing in endurance events often adhere to a diet that increases carbohydrates to 70% of the diet for the last three days before a race (carbohydrate loading) to maximize muscle glycogen storage.

An occupational nurse is facilitating a weight reduction group discussion. The nurse understands that the most common contributing factor of obesity is a(n): 1. Sedentary lifestyle 2. Low metabolic rate 3. Hormonal imbalance 4. Excessive caloric intake

4. Excessive caloric intake 1. This is only one theory associated with the cause of obesity. 2. This is only one theory associated with the cause of obesity. 3. This is only one theory associated with the cause of obesity. 4. This is the basis of all weight gain regardless of the etiology. Excess ingested nutrients are stored in adipose tissue (fat) and muscle, which increases body weight. Obesity is body weight 20% or greater than ideal body weight. Glucose is stored as glycogen in the liver and muscle with surplus amounts being converted to fat. Glycerol and fatty acids are stored as triglycerides in adipose tissue. Excess amino acids are used for glucose formation or are stored as fat.

A patient has been blind in one eye for several years because of the complications associated with diabetes mellitus. The patient is admitted to the hospital with a detached retina and resulting loss of sight in the other eye. What should the nurse do to assist this patient with meals? 1. Feed the patient 2. Order finger foods that are permitted on the patient's diet 3. Encourage eating one food at a time according to the preference of the patient 4. Explain to the patient where items are located on the plate according to the hours of a clock

4. Explain to the patient where items are located on the plate according to the hours of a clock 1. This does not promote independence and may precipitate feelings of low self-esteem. 2. This is unnecessary and limits the patient's food choices. 3. This is unnecessary and may decrease the patient's appetite. 4. The clock system, which identifi es where certain foods are on a plate in relation to where numbers are located on a clock, allows the patient to be independent when eating. Independence with activities of daily living supports self-esteem.

A patient of Asian heritage is recommended to follow a low-fat diet to lose weight. The nurse understands that a food low in fat that generally is consumed by members of an Asian population is: 1. Egg rolls 2. Spareribs 3. Crispy noodles 4. Hot and sour soup

4. Hot and sour soup 1. Egg rolls are a fried food. Frying involves cooking food in a solution consisting of saturated or unsaturated fat, which is composed mostly of fatty acids. Fatty acids combine with glycerol to form triglycerides. 2. Spareribs are high in saturated fat and cooked with sauces that are high in saturated or unsaturated fat. 3. Crispy noodles are a fried food that should be avoided. Frying involves cooking food with a saturated or unsaturated fat solution, which is composed mostly of fatty acids. Fatty foods on a low-fat diet should be eaten raw or cooked by broiling, baking, or boiling. 4. Hot and sour soup contains less fat than the other food choices listed.

An obese resident of a nursing home who is receiving a 1500-calorie weight reduction diet has not lost weight in the past 2 weeks. The nurse should: 1. Inform the primary care physician of the patient's lack of progress 2. Instruct the patient to limit intake to 1000 calories per day 3. Schedule a multidisciplinary team conference 4. Keep a log of the oral intake for 3 days

4. Keep a log of the oral intake for 3 days 1. This is premature. The nurse is abdicating the responsibility to help the patient. 256 FUNDAMENTALS SUCCESS: A COURSE REVIEW APPLYING CRITICAL THINKING TO TEST TAKING, SECOND EDITION 2. A change in diet requires a practitioner's order. Generally, calories should not be restricted below 1200 cal/day for women or 1500 cal/day for men so that there are adequate amounts of essential nutrients. 3. This may eventually be done, but it is premature at this time. 4. When the expected outcome of an intervention is not attained, the situation must be reassessed to determine the problem and the plan changed appropriately. A record of a dietary intake provides complete objective information about the amounts and types of food consumed. This information provides data about nutrient defi ciencies or excesses, eating patterns, behaviors associated with eating, and potential problems and needs.

A patient is to be started on enteral feedings. What important step should the nurse take before the patient is started on enteral feedings? A) Assess patient allergies to lactose B) Evaluate the families perception of the enteral feedings C) Assess the patient's understanding about enteral feedings D) Make sure the patient stays nothing by mouth while enteral feedings are being administered

A) Assess patient allergies to lactose The most important step in this question is for the nurse to make sure the patient is not allergic or intolerant to lactose. The nutritionist will evaluate the patient and determine what type of enteral feedings will be started. However, as the patient's nurse it is your responsibility to make sure the patient doesn't receive something they are allergic or intolerant to (especially since you will be the one administering the enteral feeding). Lactose is a major ingredient of enteral feedings. If the patient is allergic to lactose, another ingredient can be substituted in its place.

A patient is diagnosed with Congestive Heart Failure and must follow a specific diet. Which spices are okay for the patient to use daily? A) Ginger & Bay Leaves B) Garlic Sodium & Nutmeg C) Sea Salt & Pepper D) Onion Salt & Garlic Powder

A) Ginger & Bay Leaves Patients with CHF should avoid excessive sodium. All of the options expect one contain at least one sodium spice, therefore, Ginger & Bay Leaves are okay to use.

A patient with anemia would benefit from which diet? A) Legumes, organ meat, and dark green leafy vegetables B) Vegetables, fish, and pasta C) Nuts and seeds, fruits, and soy products D) Grains, berries, and organic vegetables

A) Legumes, organ meat, and dark green leafy vegetables A patient with anemia needs food high in iron, therefore, legumes, organ meat, and dark green leafy vegetables are the best choice.

You are taking care of a patient with severe COPD. What type of diet would best suit this patient's needs? A) Pureed sweet potatoes, ground turkey & gravy with mash potatoes B) Green beans, boiled carrots, and steamed fish C) Cut apples, fresh broccoli, and grilled chicken D) Fried chicken, French fries, and pudding

A) Pureed sweet potatoes, ground turkey & gravy with mash potatoes A patient who has COPD will have difficulty breathing and the slightest activities can cause shortness of breath. Therefore, the patient would need something that is very easy to eat and requires minimal chewing. The best option here is pureed sweet potatoes, ground turkey & gravy with mash potatoes.

A patient's potassium level is 6.0. Which food should the patient avoid? A) Raisins B) Rice C) Egg yolks D) 6.0 is a normal potassium level so the patient can eat whatever they want without an effect

A) Raisins Normal potassium levels are 3.5-5.0. Therefore a potassium level of 6.0 is considered high so the patient should avoid foods high in potassium. In this case, raisins are the highest in potassium.

The nurse instructs a client with renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis about dietary modifications. The nurse determines that the client understands these dietary modifications if the client selects which items from the dietary menu? A. Mushroom and blueberry. B. Beans and banana. C. Fish and tomato juice. D. Potato and spinach.

A. Mushroom and blueberry. A renal diet is one that is low in sodium, phosphorous, potassium and protein. Options B, C, and D are high in sodium, phosphorus, and potassium.

The nurse is teaching a client who has iron deficiency anemia about foods she should include in her diet. The nurse determines that the client understands the dietary instructions if she selects which of the following from her menu? A. Nuts and fish. B. Oranges and dark green leafy vegetables. C. Butter and margarine. D. Sugar and candy.

B. Oranges and dark green leafy vegetables. Dark green leafy vegetables are rich in iron while oranges are a good source of vitamin C, which enhances iron absorption.

The nurse is giving dietary instructions on a client who is on a vegan diet. The nurse provides dietary teaching focus on foods high in which vitamin that may be lacking in a vegan diet? A. Vitamin A. B. Vitamin D. C. Vitamin E. D. Vitamin C.

B. Vitamin D. Deficiencies in vegetarian diets include vitamin B12 which are found in animal products and vitamin D (if limited exposure to sunlight). Vitamins A, C, and E are found in fruits and vegetables, which are eaten by a vegetarian.

A patient was recently admitted for a Deep Vein Thrombosis and was started on Coumadin. During your education with the patient you would instruct the patient to avoid what food? A) Processed meats B) Bananas C) Spinach D) Lettuce

C) Spinach Coumadin prevents clotting of the blood. Due to the high amount of vitamin k (vitamin k plays a role in clotting) in green leafy vegetable, these foods should be limited.

A postoperative client has been placed on a clear-liquid diet. The nurse provides the client with which items that are allowed to be consumed on this diet? A. Vegetable juices. B. Custard. C. Sherbet. D. Bouillon.

D. Bouillon. A clear liquid diet consists of foods that are relatively transparent to light and liquid at room and body temperature. Foods allowed on the clear liquid diet (bouillon, popsicles, plain gelatin, ice chips, sweetened tea or coffee (no creamer), carbonated beverages, and water) Options A, B, and C are full liquid diet.

A client with heart failure has been told to maintain a low sodium diet. A nurse who is teaching this client about foods that are allowed includes which food item in a list provided to the client? A. Pretzels. B. Whole wheat bread. C. Tomato juice canned. D. Dried apricot.

D. Dried apricot. Foods that are lower in sodium includes fruits and vegetables like dried apricot.