NU 424 Lab Exam PrepU

B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 23 mg/dL C. Serum osmolality of 310 mOsm/kg D. Urine specific gravity of 1.03 E. Serum sodium of 148 mEq/L

A 54-year-old male patient is admitted to the hospital with a case of severe dehydration. The nurse reviews the patient's laboratory results. Which of the following results are consistent with the diagnosis? Select all that apply. A. Hematocrit level of 48% B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 23 mg/dL C. Serum osmolality of 310 mOsm/kg D. Urine specific gravity of 1.03 E. Serum sodium of 148 mEq/L F. Serum glucose of 90 mg/dL

B. Venous thromboemboli

A mechanically ventilated client is receiving a combination of atracurium and the opioid analgesic morphine. The nurse monitors the client for which potential complication? A. Pneumothorax B. Venous thromboemboli C. Cor pulmonale D. Pulmonary hypertension

D. The kidneys excrete hydrogen ions and conserve bicarbonate ions to help restore balance.

A medical nurse educator is reviewing a client's recent episode of metabolic acidosis with members of the nursing staff. What should the educator describe about the role of the kidneys in metabolic acidosis? A. The kidneys regulate the bicarbonate level in the intracellular fluid. B. The kidneys retain hydrogen ions and excrete bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. C. The kidneys react rapidly to compensate for imbalances in the body. D. The kidneys excrete hydrogen ions and conserve bicarbonate ions to help restore balance.

A. Dyspnea C. Shoulder pain D. Cyanosis E. Tachycardia

A nurse caring for a patient who is receiving an IV solution via a central vein suspects the complication of an air embolism. Which of the following are signs and symptoms consistent with that diagnosis? Select all that apply. A. Dyspnea B. Crackles on auscultation C. Shoulder pain D. Cyanosis E. Tachycardia F. Hypertension

C. using the minimal-leak technique with cuff pressure less than 25 cm H2O.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a tracheostomy tube and who is undergoing mechanical ventilation. The nurse can help prevent tracheal dilation, a complication of tracheostomy tube placement, by: A. suctioning the tracheostomy tube frequently. B. keeping the tracheostomy tube plugged. C. using the minimal-leak technique with cuff pressure less than 25 cm H2O. D. using a cuffed tracheostomy tube.

D. Elevated U wave

A nurse reviews the results of an electrocardiogram (ECG) for a patient who is being assessed for hypokalemia. Which of the following would the nurse notice as the most significant diagnostic indicator? A. Widened QRS wave B. Flat P wave C. Peaked T wave D. Elevated U wave

A. Oliguria B. Tachypnea D. Tachycardia

A patient has been involved in a traumatic accident and is hemorrhaging from multiple sites. The nurse expects that the compensatory mechanisms associated with hypovolemia would cause what clinical manifestations? (Select all that apply.) A. Oliguria B. Tachypnea C. Bradycardia D. Tachycardia E. Hypertension

B. Reduced cardiac output

Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) therapy has which effect on the heart? A. Increased blood pressure B. Reduced cardiac output C. Bradycardia D. Tachycardia

B. Mixed acid-base disorder

The ICU nurse is caring for a client who experienced trauma in a workplace accident. The client is reporting dyspnea because of abdominal pain. An ABG reveals the following results: pH 7.28, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, HCO3- 23 mEq/L. The nurse should recognize the likelihood of what acid-base disorder? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Mixed acid-base disorder C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

B. Metabolic acidosis

The client's lab values are sodium 166 mEq/L, potassium 5.0 mEq/L, chloride 115 mEq/L, and bicarbonate 35 mEq/L. What condition is this client likely to have, judging by anion gap? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Metabolic acidosis C. Respiratory alkalosis D. Metabolic alkalosis

B. Metabolic acidosis with a compensatory respiratory alkalosis

The emergency-room nurse is caring for a trauma client who has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.26, PaCO2 28, HCO3 11 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results? A. Respiratory acidosis with no compensation B. Metabolic acidosis with a compensatory respiratory alkalosis C. Metabolic alkalosis with a compensatory alkalosis D. Metabolic acidosis with no compensation

B. CPAP allows a lower percentage of oxygen to be used with a similar effect.

The health care provider has prescribed continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) with the delivery of a client's high-flow oxygen therapy. The client asks the nurse what the benefit of CPAP is. What would be the nurse's best response? A. CPAP allows a higher percentage of oxygen to be safely used. B. CPAP allows a lower percentage of oxygen to be used with a similar effect. C. CPAP allows for the elimination of bacterial growth in oxygen delivery systems. D. CPAP allows for greater humidification of the oxygen that is given.

A. 5% DW

The health care provider ordered an IV solution for a dehydrated patient with a head injury. Select the IV solution that the nurse knows would be contraindicated. A. 5% DW B. 0.45% NS C. 0.9% NaCl D. 3% NS

C. 20 minutes

The nurse is caring for a client in the ICU who required emergent endotracheal (ET) intubation with mechanical ventilation. The nurse receives an order to obtain arterial blood gases (ABGs) after the procedure. The nurse recognizes that ABGs should be obtained how long after mechanical ventilation is initiated? A. 25 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 20 minutes D. 15 minutes

A. Lung sounds of wheezing C. Arterial blood gases reporting a PaCO2 of 48 and a PaO2 of 84 D. Nasal flaring with abdominal retractions E. Increased respiratory effort

The nurse is caring for a client who is demonstrating signs of increased respiratory distress related to laryngeal obstruction. The nurse is calling the physician to report on the client's condition. Which of the following will the nurse report? Select all that apply. A. Lung sounds of wheezing B. Administration of a corticosteroid inhaler for quick relief C. Arterial blood gases reporting a PaCO2 of 48 and a PaO2 of 84 D. Nasal flaring with abdominal retractions E. Increased respiratory effort F. A decreased respiratory rate

B. Ineffective Airway Clearance related to increased secretions C. Impaired Gas Exchange related to sh

The nurse is caring for a client with a new tracheostomy. Which of the following nursing diagnoses are priorities? Select all that apply. A. Risk for Infection related to operative incision and tracheostomy tube placement B. Ineffective Airway Clearance related to increased secretions C. Impaired Gas Exchange related to shallow breathing and anxiousness D. Disturbed Body Image E. Knowledge Deficit related to care of the tracheostomy tube and surrounding site

A. An elevated hematocrit level D. Electrolyte imbalance

The nurse is reviewing lab work on a newly admitted client. Which of the following diagnostic studies confirm the nursing diagnosis of Deficient Fluid Volume? Select all that apply. A. An elevated hematocrit level B. Low protein level in the urine C. Absence of ketones in urine D. Electrolyte imbalance E. A low urine specific gravity

C. Decreases patient anxiety D. Decreases hypoxemia E. Sustains positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP)

The nurse is using an in-line suction kit to suction a patient who is intubated and on a mechanical ventilator. What benefits does inline suction have for the patient? (Select all that apply.) apply.) A. Increases oxygen consumption B. Prevents aspiration C. Decreases patient anxiety D. Decreases hypoxemia E. Sustains positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP)

C. K+ = 7 mEq/L; peaked T waves

The nurse monitors a patient who is being evaluated for hyperkalemia. She is aware that ECG changes and serum potassium levels are diagnostic. Which of the following are the earliest changes that the nurse should report? A. K+ = 5 mEq/L; prolonged T waves B. K+ = 6 mEq/L; elevated ST segment C. K+ = 7 mEq/L; peaked T waves D. K+ = 8 mEq/L; shortened PR interval

C. 115 mEq/L

The nurse should assess the patient for signs of lethargy, increasing intracranial pressure, and seizures when the serum sodium reaches what level? A. 160 mEq/L B. 130 mEq/L C. 115 mEq/L D. 145 mEq/L

A. Gastrointestinal hemorrhage

The nurse should monitor a client receiving mechanical ventilation for which of the following complications? A. Gastrointestinal hemorrhage B. Immunosuppression C. Pulmonary emboli D. Increased cardiac output

D. Compensated respiratory alkalosis

Upon shift report, the nurse states the following laboratory values: pH, 7.44; PCO2, 30mmHg; and HCO3,21 mEq/L for a client with noted acid-base disturbances. Which acid-base imbalance do both nurses agree is the client's current state? A. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis B. Compensated metabolic alkalosis C. Compensated metabolic acidosis D. Compensated respiratory alkalosis

A. Serum creatinine

What does the nurse recognize as one of the indicators of the patient's renal function? A. Serum creatinine B. Urine osmolality C. Blood urea nitrogen D. Specific gravity

B. Increased intracranial pressure

Which condition might occur with respiratory acidosis? A. Mental alertness B. Increased intracranial pressure C. Decreased blood pressure D. Decreased pulse

D. Ventricular fibrillation

Which of the following may be the first sign of respiratory acidosis in anesthetized patients? A. Increased pulse B. Dull headache C. Mental cloudiness D. Ventricular fibrillation

A. Nonrebreather mask

A client abruptly sits up in bed, reports having difficulty breathing and has an arterial oxygen saturation of 88%. Which mode of oxygen delivery is most likely to reverse these manifestations? A. Nonrebreather mask B. Face tent C. Nasal cannula D. Simple mask

B. Hypertonic solution

A client is experiencing edema in the tissue. The nurse is correct in anticipating which tonicity of intravenous fluid? A. No intravenous solution B. Hypertonic solution C. Hypotonic solution D. Isotonic fluid

C. Pressure necrosis D. Tracheal ischemia E. Tracheal bleeding

A patient is being mechanically ventilated with an oral endotracheal tube in place. The nurse observes that the cuff pressure is 25 mm Hg. The nurse is aware of what complications that can be caused by this pressure? (Select all that apply.) A. Tracheal aspiration B. Hypoxia C. Pressure necrosis D. Tracheal ischemia E. Tracheal bleeding

B. Hyperkalemia

A physician orders regular insulin 10 units I.V. along with 50 ml of dextrose 50% for a client with acute renal failure. What electrolyte imbalance is this client most likely experiencing? A. Hypercalcemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyperglycemia D. Hypernatremia

B. Excessive thirst

Hypokalemia can cause which symptom to occur? A. Production of concentrated urine B. Excessive thirst C. Increased release of insulin D. Decreased sensitivity to digitalis

B. Monitor cuff pressure every 8 hours.

The medical nurse is creating the care plan of an adult client requiring mechanical ventilation. What nursing action is most appropriate? A. Maintain continuous bed rest. B. Monitor cuff pressure every 8 hours. C. Perform tracheostomy care at least once per day. D. Keep the client in a low Fowler's position.

A. An 82-year-old client who receives all nutrition via tube feedings and whose medications include carvedilol and torsemide.

The nurse has been assigned to care for various clients. Which client is at the highest risk for a fluid and electrolyte imbalance? A. An 82-year-old client who receives all nutrition via tube feedings and whose medications include carvedilol and torsemide. B. A 66-year-old client who had an open cholecystectomy with a T-tube placed that is draining 125 mL of bile per shift. C. A 79-year-old client admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia. D. A 45-year-old client who had a laparoscopic appendectomy 24 hours ago and is being advanced to a regular diet.

B. Guillain-Barré syndrome

The nurse in the medical ICU is caring for a client who is in respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation. What diagnosis could the client have that could cause inadequate ventilation? A. Endocarditis B. Guillain-Barré syndrome C. Overdose of amphetamines D. Multiple myeloma

A. Phlebitis B. Hematoma E. Extravasation

The nurse is assessing a client for local complications of intravenous therapy. Which are local complications? Select all that apply. A. Phlebitis B. Hematoma C. Air embolism D. Infection E. Extravasation

B. Intracellular fluid

The nurse is caring for a geriatric client in the home setting. Due to geriatric changes decreasing thirst, the nurse is likely to see a decrease in which fluid location which contains the most body water? A. Interstitial fluid B. Intracellular fluid C. Extracellular fluid D. Intravascular fluid

A. Urine specific gravity of 1.027 D. Urine osmolality of greater than 450 mOsm/kg E. Hematocrit level of greater than 47%

What laboratory findings does the nurse determine are consistent with hypovolemia in a female patient? (Select all that apply.) A. Urine specific gravity of 1.027 B. BUN: serum creatinine ratio of greater than 12.1 C. Urine positive for blood D. Urine osmolality of greater than 450 mOsm/kg E. Hematocrit level of greater than 47%

A. Start IV fluids and blood products

You notify the physician that your client is third-spacing fluid. What orders would you expect the physician to give you? A. Start IV fluids and blood products B. Increase sodium in diet C. Restrict fluids D. Administer diuretics

C. They help prevent cardiac arrhythmias.

A client in acute respiratory distress is brought to the emergency department. After endotracheal (ET) intubation and initiation of mechanical ventilation, the client is transferred to the intensive care unit. Before suctioning the ET tube, the nurse hyperventilates and hyperoxygenates the client. What is the rationale for these interventions? A. They help prevent pneumothorax. B. They help prevent pulmonary edema. C. They help prevent cardiac arrhythmias. D. They help prevent subcutaneous emphysema.

B. Assesses the client's tracheostomy and lung sounds every 15 minutes

A client in the intensive care unit has a tracheostomy with humidified oxygen being instilled through it. The client is expectorating thick yellow mucus through the tracheostomy tube frequently. The nurse A. Sets a schedule to suction the tracheostomy every hour B. Assesses the client's tracheostomy and lung sounds every 15 minutes C. Encourages the client to cough every 30 minutes and prn D. Decreases the amount of humidity set to flow through the tracheostomy tube

A. Every 2 to 4 hours

A client is receiving mechanical ventilation. How frequently should the nurse auscultate the client's lungs to check for secretions? A. Every 2 to 4 hours B. Every 30 to 60 minutes C. Every 4 to 6 hours D. Every 1 to 2 hours

A. Hypomagnesemia

A client presents with muscle weakness, tremors, slow muscle movements, and vertigo. The following are the client's laboratory values: Na+ 134 mEq/L K+ 3.2 mEq/L Cl- 111 mEq/L Mg++ 1.1 mg/dL Ca++ 8.4 mg/dL Identify which of the following alterations is consistent with the client's findings. A. Hypomagnesemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hypokalemia

A. Clammy skin, blood pressure 86/46, headache

A client presents with severe diarrhea and a history of chronic renal failure to the emergency department. Arterial blood gas results are as follows: pH 7.30 PaO2 97 PaCO2 37 HCO3 18 The nurse would expect which of the following sets of assessment findings? A. Clammy skin, blood pressure 86/46, headache B. Blood pressure 188/120, nausea, vomiting C. Headache, blood pressure 90/54, dry skin D. Confusion, respiratory rate 8 breaths/min, dry skin

D. Suction the client, withdraw residual air from the cuff, and reinflate i

A client undergoes a tracheostomy after many failed attempts at weaning him from a mechanical ventilator. Two days after tracheostomy, while the client is being weaned, the nurse detects a mild air leak in the tracheostomy tube cuff. What should the nurse do first? A. Remove the malfunctioning cuff. B. Call the physician. C. Add more air to the cuff. D. Suction the client, withdraw residual air from the cuff, and reinflate it.

D. Reddened area along the path of the vein E. Tender area around the insertion site

A client with an intravenous infusion is rubbing his arm. The nurse assesses the site and decides to discontinue the current infusion because of concern that the client has developed phlebitis. Which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse assess with phlebitis? Select all that apply. A. Cool area around the insertion site B. Ecchymosis at the insertion site C. Rapid, shallow respirations D. Reddened area along the path of the vein E. Tender area around the insertion site

A. Serum potassium level of 3 mEq/L

A client with nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps and distention is admitted to the health care facility. Which test result is most significant? A. Serum potassium level of 3 mEq/L B. Urine specific gravity of 1.025 C. Serum sodium level of 132 mEq/L D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 29 mg/dl

A. 0.5.

A client with pneumonia develops respiratory failure and has a partial pressure of arterial oxygen of 55 mm Hg. He's placed on mechanical ventilation with a fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) of 0.9. The nursing goal should be to reduce the FIO2 to no greater than: A. 0.5. B. 0.35. C. 0.21. D. 0.7.

B. Shock

A client with respiratory acidosis is admitted to the intensive care unit for close observation. The nurse should stay alert for which complication associated with respiratory acidosis? A. Stroke B. Shock C. Seizures D. Hyperglycemia

C. In hypovolemia only blood volume is low.

A fluid volume deficit can be caused by either dehydration or hypovolemia. What is the distinction between the two? A. In hypovolemia all fluid compartments have decreased volumes. B. In dehydration intracellular fluid volume is depleted. C. In hypovolemia only blood volume is low. D. In dehydration only blood volume is low.

B. Decreased excretion of potassium C. Decreased kidney mass D. Decreased renal blood flow

A gerontologic nurse is teaching students about the high incidence and prevalence of dehydration in older adults. What factors contribute to this phenomenon? Select all that apply. A. Increased conservation of sodium B. Decreased excretion of potassium C. Decreased kidney mass D. Decreased renal blood flow E. Increased total body water

C. Increased PaCO2.

A nurse caring for a patient with metabolic alkalosis knows to assess for the primary, compensatory mechanism of: A. Increased serum HCO3. B. Decreased PaCO2. C. Increased PaCO2. D. Decreased serum HCO3.

B. hyperkalemia.

A nurse is caring for a client in acute renal failure. The nurse should expect hypertonic glucose, insulin infusions, and sodium bicarbonate to be used to treat: A. hypercalcemia. B. hyperkalemia. C. hypokalemia. D. hypernatremia.

C. 2.0 mEq/L

A patient is admitted with severe vomiting for 24 hours as well as weakness and "feeling exhausted." The nurse observes flat T waves and ST-segment depression on the electrocardiogram. Which potassium level does the nurse observe when the laboratory studies are complete? A. 4.0 mEq/L B. 2.6 mEq/L C. 2.0 mEq/L D. 8.0 mEq/L

C. Prolonged PR intervals

The nurse is analyzing the electrocardiographic (ECG) rhythm tracing of a client experiencing hypercalcemia. Which ECG change is typically associated with this electrolyte imbalance? A. Peaked T waves B. Prolonged QT intervals C. Prolonged PR intervals D. Elevated ST segments

A. Hypovolemia secondary to leakage of fluid into the interstitial spaces

The nurse is caring for a client in the ICU admitted with ARDS after exposure to toxic fumes from a hazardous spill at work. The client has become hypotensive. What is the cause of this complication to the ARDS treatment? A. Hypovolemia secondary to leakage of fluid into the interstitial spaces B. Increased cardiac output from high levels of PEEP therapy C. Pulmonary hypotension due to decreased cardiac output D. Severe and progressive pulmonary hypertension

A. Cleaning the client's mouth with chlorhexidine daily

The nurse is caring for a client in the ICU who is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which nursing measure is implemented in an effort to reduce the client's risk of developing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)? A. Cleaning the client's mouth with chlorhexidine daily B. Ensuring that the client remains sedated while intubated C. Maintaining the client in a high Fowler's position D. Turning and repositioning the client every 4 hours

A. Skin assessment for edema and turgor C. Intake and output, urine volume, and color D. Blood pressure, heart rate, and rhythm

The nurse is caring for a client who was admitted with fluid volume excess (FVE). Which nursing assessments should the nurse include in the ongoing monitoring of the client? Select all that apply. A. Skin assessment for edema and turgor B. Strength testing for muscle wasting C. Intake and output, urine volume, and color D. Blood pressure, heart rate, and rhythm E. Nutritional status and diet

D. Indomethacin

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been in a motor vehicle accident. The patient has been diagnosed with pleurisy. What is the preferred treatment for pain caused by pleurisy? A. Meperidine sulfate B. Morphine sulfate C. Acetaminophen D. Indomethacin

A. Restricting tap water intake B. Monitoring neurologic status E. Assessing for symptoms of nausea and malaise

The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of hyponatremia. What nursing intervention is appropriate to include in the plan of care for this patient? (Select all that apply.) A. Restricting tap water intake B. Monitoring neurologic status C. Encouraging the intake of low-sodium liquids D. Encouraging the use of salt substitute instead of salt E. Assessing for symptoms of nausea and malaise

A. Infection D. Injury to the laryngeal nerve E. Aspiration

The nurse is mentoring a new graduate nurse. Today, the two of you are caring for a client with a new tracheostomy. The new graduate nurse asks what the complications of tracheostomy are. What would the nurse respond? Select all that apply. A. Infection B. Absence of secretions C. Penetration of the anterior tracheal wall D. Injury to the laryngeal nerve E. Aspiration

A. Using elastic stockings, especially when decreased mobility would promote venous stasis B. Assisting the patient to do leg elevations above the level of the heart D. Encouraging a liberal fluid intake E. Applying a sequential compression device

The nurse is planning the care for a patient at risk of developing pulmonary embolism. What nursing interventions should be included in the care plan? (Select all that apply.) A. Using elastic stockings, especially when decreased mobility would promote venous stasis B. Assisting the patient to do leg elevations above the level of the heart C. Instructing the patient to dangle the legs over the side of the bed for 30 minutes, four times a day D. Encouraging a liberal fluid intake E. Applying a sequential compression device The use of anti-embolism stockings or intermittent pneumatic leg compression devices reduces venous stasis. These measures compress the superficial veins and increase the velocity of blood in the deep veins by redirecting the blood through the deep veins. Elevating the leg (above the level of the heart) also increases venous flow. Legs should not be dangled or feet placed in a dependent position while the patient sits on the edge of the bed; instead, feet should rest on the floor or on a chair.

B. Assess the client's lung sounds and SaO2 via pulse oximeter.

The nurse is preparing to suction a client with an endotracheal tube. What should be the nurse's first step in the suctioning process? A. Explain the suctioning procedure to the client and reposition the client. B. Assess the client's lung sounds and SaO2 via pulse oximeter. C. Perform hand hygiene and don nonsterile gloves, goggles, gown, and mask. D. Turn on suction source at a pressure not exceeding 120 mm Hg.

A. Fat (pulmonary) embolus

The orthopedic nurse caring for a client in traction for a femur fracture knows to monitor the client for which of the following? A. Fat (pulmonary) embolus B. Pneumonia C. DVT D. Bed sores

B. Irregular heart rate

When caring for a client who has risk factors for fluid and electrolyte imbalances, which assessment finding is the highest priority for the nurse to follow up? A. Blood pressure 96/53 mm Hg B. Irregular heart rate C. Mild confusion D. Weight loss of 4 lb

B. pH: 7.55, PaCO2: 60 mm Hg, HCO3-: 28

Which arterial blood gas (ABG) result would the nurse anticipate for a client with a 3-day history of vomiting? A. pH: 7.45, PaCO2: 32 mm Hg, HCO3-: 21 B. pH: 7.55, PaCO2: 60 mm Hg, HCO3-: 28 C. pH: 7.34, PaCO2: 60 mm Hg, HCO3: 34 D. pH: 7.28, PaCO2: 25 mm Hg, HCO3: 15

A. 22 mm Hg

Which is a correct endotracheal tube cuff pressure? A. 22 mm Hg B. 13 mm Hg C. 19 mm Hg D. 16 mm Hg

D. Blood pressure increase of 20 mm Hg

Which is an adverse reaction that would require the process of weaning from a ventilator to be terminated? A. Heart rate B. Vital capacity of 12 mL/kg C. PaO2 60 mmHg with an FiO2 D. Blood pressure increase of 20 mm Hg Criteria for terminating the weaning process include heart rate increase of 20 beats/min and systolic blood pressure increase of 20 mm Hg. A normal vital capacity is 10 to 15 mL/kg.

A. Sodium Bicarbonate

Which medication does the nurse anticipate administering to antagonize the effects of potassium on the heart for a patient in severe metabolic acidosis? A. Sodium bicarbonate B. Calcium gluconate C. Furosemide (Lasix) D. Magnesium sulfate

A. PaO2 of 64 mm Hg B. Vital capacity of 13 mL/kg FiO2 45% D. Tidal volume of 8.5 mL/kg

Which of the following are indicators that a client is ready to be weaned from a ventilator? Select all that apply. A. PaO2 of 64 mm Hg B. Vital capacity of 13 mL/kg FiO2 45% C. Rapid/shallow breathing index of 112 breaths/min D. Tidal volume of 8.5 mL/kg Weaning criteria for clients are as follows: Vital capacity 10 to 15 mL/kg; Maximum inspiratory pressure at least -20 cm H2; Tidal volume: 7 to 9 mL/kg; Minute ventilation: 6 L/min; Rapid/shallow breathing index below 100 breaths/min; PaO2 > 60 mm Hg; FiO2 < 40%

A. Reduces bone resorption D. Increases deposition of calcium in bones E. Increases urinary excretion of calcium

Which of the following is a function of calcitonin? Select all that apply. A. Reduces bone resorption B. Decreases deposition of phosphorous in bones C. Decreases urinary excretion of phospate D. Increases deposition of calcium in bones E. Increases urinary excretion of calcium

A. Intermittent mandatory ventilation (IMV)

Which ventilator mode provides a combination of mechanically assisted breaths and spontaneous breaths? A. Intermittent mandatory ventilation (IMV) B. Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) C. Pressure support D. Assist control

B. Assist control

Which ventilator mode provides full ventilatory support by delivering a preset tidal volume and respiratory rate? A. SIMV B. Assist control C. Pressure support D. IMV

A. Generalized

You are caring for a new client on your unit who is third-spacing fluid. You know to assess for what type of edema? A. Generalized B. Dependent C. Brassy D. Pitting