NUR 210 Exam 2

During an examination, the nurse asks a patient to bend forward from the waist and notices that the patient has lateral tilting. When his leg is raised straight up, the patient complains of a pain going down his buttock into his leg. The nurse suspects: a. Scoliosis. b. Meniscus tear. c. Herniated nucleus pulposus. d. Spasm of paravertebral muscles.

C

The articulation of the mandible and the temporal bone is known as the: a. Intervertebral foramen. b. Condyle of the mandible. c. Temporomandibular joint. d. Zygomatic arch of the temporal bone.

C

The nurse is teaching a class on preventing osteoporosis to a group of perimenopausal women. Which of these actions is the best way to prevent or delay bone loss in this group? a. Taking calcium and vitamin D supplements b. Taking medications to prevent osteoporosis c. Performing physical activity, such as fast walking d. Assessing bone density annually

C

The nurse suspects that a patient has carpal tunnel syndrome and wants to perform the Phalen test. To perform this test, the nurse should instruct the patient to: a. Dorsiflex the foot. b. Plantarflex the foot. c. Hold both hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees for 60 seconds. d. Hyperextend the wrists with the palmar surface of both hands touching, and wait for 60 seconds.

C

A patient has been shown to have a sensorineural hearing loss. During the assessment, it would be important for the nurse to: a. Speak loudly so the patient can hear the questions. b. Assess for middle ear infection as a possible cause. c. Ask the patient what medications he is currently taking. d. Look for the source of the obstruction in the external ear.

C. Ask the patient what medications he is currently taking. A simple increase in amplitude may not enable the person to understand spoken words. Sensorineural hearing loss may be caused by presbycusis, which is a gradual nerve degeneration that occurs with aging and by ototoxic drugs, which affect the hair cells in the

A patient with a middle ear infection asks the nurse, "What does the middle ear do?" The nurse responds by telling the patient that the middle ear functions to: a. Maintain balance. b. Interpret sounds as they enter the ear. c. Conduct vibrations of sounds to the inner ear. d. Increase amplitude of sound for the inner ear to function.

C. Conduct vibrations of sounds to the inner ear. Among its other functions, the middle ear conducts sound vibrations from the outer ear to the central hearing apparatus in the inner ear. The other responses are not functions of the middle

The nurse is performing an assessment on a 65-year-old man. He reports a crusty nodule behind the pinna. It intermittently bleeds and has not healed over the past 6 months. On physical assessment, the nurse finds an ulcerated crusted nodule with an indurated base. The preliminary analysis in this situation is that this: a. Is most likely a benign sebaceous cyst. b. Is most likely a keloid. c. Could be a potential carcinoma, and the patient should be referred for a biopsy. d. Is a tophus, which is common in the older adult and is a sign of gout.

C. Could be a potential carcinoma, and the patient should be referred for a biopsy. An ulcerated crusted nodule with an indurated base that fails to heal is characteristic of a carcinoma. These lesions fail to heal and intermittently bleed. Individuals with such symptoms should be referred for a biopsy (see Table 15-2). The other responses are not correct.

During an assessment of a 20-year-old Asian patient, the nurse notices that he has dry, flaky cerumen in his canal. What is the significance of this finding? This finding: a. Is probably the result of lesions from eczema in his ear. b. Represents poor hygiene. c. Is a normal finding, and no further follow-up is necessary. d. Could be indicative of change in cilia; the nurse should assess for hearing loss

C. Is a normal finding, and no further follow-up is necessary. Asians and Native Americans are more likely to have dry cerumen, whereas Blacks and Whites usually have wet cerumen.

A 70-year-old patient tells the nurse that he has noticed that he is having trouble hearing, especially in large groups. He says that he "can't always tell where the sound is coming from" and the words often sound "mixed up." What might the nurse suspect as the cause for this change? a. Atrophy of the apocrine glands b. Cilia becoming coarse and stiff c. Nerve degeneration in the inner ear d. Scarring of the tympanic membrane

C. Nerve degeneration in the inner ear Presbycusis is a type of hearing loss that occurs in 60% of those older than 65 years of age, even in those living in a quiet environment. This sensorineural loss is gradual and caused by nerve degeneration in the inner ear. Words sound garbled, and the ability to localize sound is also impaired. This communication dysfunction is accentuated when background noise is present.

A patient has been admitted after an accident at work. During the assessment, the patient is having trouble hearing and states, "I don't know what the matter is. All of a sudden, I can't hear you out of my left ear!" What should the nurse do next? a. Make note of this finding for the report to the next shift. b. Prepare to remove cerumen from the patient's ear. c. Notify the patient's health care provider. d. Irrigate the ear with rubbing alcohol.

C. Notify the patient's health care provider. Any sudden loss of hearing in one or both ears that is not associated with an upper respiratory infection needs to be reported at once to the patient's health care provider. Hearing loss associated with trauma is often sudden. Irrigating the ear or removing cerumen is not appropriate at this time.

The nurse is performing an otoscopic examination on an adult. Which of these actions is correct? a. Tilting the person's head forward during the examination b. Once the speculum is in the ear, releasing the traction c. Pulling the pinna up and back before inserting the speculum d. Using the smallest speculum to decrease the amount of discomfort

C. Pulling the pinna up and back before inserting the speculum The pinna is pulled up and back on an adult or older child, which helps straighten the S-shape of the canal. Traction should not be released on the ear until the examination is completed and the otoscope is removed.

The nurse is preparing to perform an otoscopic examination of a newborn infant. Which statement is true regarding this examination? a. Immobility of the drum is a normal finding. b. An injected membrane would indicate an infection. c. The normal membrane may appear thick and opaque. d. The appearance of the membrane is identical to that of an adult.

C. The normal membrane may appear thick and opaque. During the first few days after the birth, the tympanic membrane of a newborn often appears thickened and opaque. It may look injected and have a mild redness from increased vascularity. The other statements are not correct.

During an examination, the patient states he is hearing a buzzing sound and says that it is "driving me crazy!" The nurse recognizes that this symptom indicates: a. Vertigo. b. Pruritus. c. Tinnitus. d. Cholesteatoma.

C. Tinnitus. Tinnitus is a sound that comes from within a person; it can be a ringing, crackling, or buzzing sound. It accompanies some hearing or ear disorders

The nurse is reviewing the function of the cranial nerves (CNs). Which CN is responsible for conducting nerve impulses to the brain from the organ of Corti? a. I b. III c. VIII d. XI

C. VIII The nerve impulses are conducted by the auditory portion of CN VIII to the brain.

The nurse is assessing the joints of a woman who has stated, "I have a long family history of arthritis, and my joints hurt." The nurse suspects that she has osteoarthritis. Which of these are symptoms of osteoarthritis? Select all that apply. (3) a. Symmetric joint involvement b. Asymmetric joint involvement c. Pain with motion of affected joints d. Affected joints are swollen with hard, bony protuberances e. Affected joints may have heat, redness, and swelling

B, C, D

While performing the otoscopic examination of a 3-year-old boy who has been pulling on his left ear, the nurse finds that his left tympanic membrane is bright red and that the light reflex is not visible. The nurse interprets these findings to indicate a(n): a. Fungal infection. b. Acute otitis media. c. Perforation of the eardrum. d. Cholesteatoma.

B. Acute otitis media. Absent or distorted light reflex and a bright red color of the eardrum are indicative of acute otitis media. (See Table 15-5 for descriptions of the other conditions.)

A patient is visiting the clinic for an evaluation of a swollen, painful knuckle. The nurse notices that the knuckle above his ring on the left hand is swollen and that he is unable to remove his wedding ring. This joint is called the _________ joint. a. Interphalangeal b. Tarsometatarsal c. Metacarpophalangeal d. Tibiotalar

C

A patient who has had rheumatoid arthritis for years comes to the clinic to ask about changes in her fingers. The nurse will assess for signs of what problems? a. Heberden nodes b. Bouchard nodules c. Swan-neck deformities d. Dupuytren contractures

C

The nurse is checking the range of motion in a patient's knee and knows that the knee is capable of which movement(s)? a. Flexion and extension b. Supination and pronation c. Circumduction d. Inversion and eversion

A

The nurse should use which test to check for large amounts of fluid around the patella? a. Ballottement b. Tinel sign c. Phalen test d. McMurray test

A

While discussing the history of a 6-month-old infant, the mother tells the nurse that she took a significant amount of aspirin while she was pregnant. What question would the nurse want to include in the history? a. "Does your baby seem to startle with loud noises?" b. "Has your baby had any surgeries on her ears?" c. "Have you noticed any drainage from her ears?" d. "How many ear infections has your baby had since birth?

A. "Does your baby seem to startle with loud noises?" Children at risk for a hearing deficit include those exposed in utero to a variety of conditions, such as maternal rubella or to maternal ototoxic drugs.

A patient's annual physical examination reveals a lateral curvature of the thoracic and lumbar segments of his spine; however, this curvature disappears with forward bending. The nurse knows that this abnormality of the spine is called: a. Structural scoliosis. b. Functional scoliosis. c. Herniated nucleus pulposus. d. Dislocated hip.

B

3. The functional units of the musculoskeletal system are the: a. Joints. b. Bones. c. Muscles. d. Tendons.

A

A patient states, "I can hear a crunching or grating sound when I kneel." She also states that "it is very difficult to get out of bed in the morning because of stiffness and pain in my joints." The nurse should assess for signs of what problem? a. Crepitation b. Bone spur c. Loose tendon d. Fluid in the knee joint

A

A patient tells the nurse that she is having a hard time bringing her hand to her mouth when she eats or tries to brush her teeth. The nurse knows that for her to move her hand to her mouth, she must perform which movement? a. Flexion b. Abduction c. Adduction d. Extension

A

The nurse is assessing a patient who may have hearing loss. Which of these statements is true concerning air conduction? a. Air conduction is the normal pathway for hearing. b. Vibrations of the bones in the skull cause air conduction. c. Amplitude of sound determines the pitch that is heard. d. Loss of air conduction is called a conductive hearing loss.

A. Air conduction is the normal pathway for hearing. The normal pathway of hearing is air conduction, which starts when sound waves produce vibrations on the tympanic membrane. Conductive hearing loss results from a mechanical dysfunction of the external or middle ear. The other statements are not true concerning air conduction.

The nurse is performing an ear examination of an 80-year-old patient. Which of these findings would be considered normal? a. High-tone frequency loss b. Increased elasticity of the pinna c. Thin, translucent membrane d. Shiny, pink tympanic membrane

A. High-tone frequency loss A high-tone frequency hearing loss is apparent for those affected with presbycusis, the hearing loss that occurs with aging. The pinna loses elasticity, causing earlobes to be pendulous. The eardrum may be whiter in color and more opaque and duller in the older person than in the younger adult.

When performing an otoscopic examination of a 5-year-old child with a history of chronic ear infections, the nurse sees that his right tympanic membrane is amber-yellow in color and that air bubbles are visible behind the tympanic membrane. The child reports occasional hearing loss and a popping sound with swallowing. The preliminary analysis based on this information is that the child: a. Most likely has serous otitis media. b. Has an acute purulent otitis media. c. Has evidence of a resolving cholesteatoma. d. Is experiencing the early stages of perforation.

A. Most likely has serous otitis media. An amber-yellow color to the tympanic membrane suggests serum or pus in the middle ear. Air or fluid or bubbles behind the tympanic membrane are often visible. The patient may have feelings of fullness, transient hearing loss, and a popping sound with swallowing. These findings most likely suggest that the child has serous otitis media. The other responses are not correct.

During an examination, the nurse notices that the patient stumbles a little while walking, and, when she sits down, she holds on to the sides of the chair. The patient states, "It feels like the room is spinning!" The nurse notices that the patient is experiencing: a. Objective vertigo. b. Subjective vertigo. c. Tinnitus. d. Dizziness.

A. Objective vertigo. With objective vertigo, the patient feels like the room spins; with subjective vertigo, the person feels like he or she is spinning. Tinnitus is a sound that comes from within a person; it can be a ringing, crackling, or buzzing sound. It accompanies some hearing or ear disorders. Dizziness is not the same as true vertigo; the person who is dizzy may feel unsteady and lightheaded.

A 31-year-old patient tells the nurse that he has noticed a progressive loss in his hearing. He says that it does seem to help when people speak louder or if he turns up the volume of a television or radio. The most likely cause of his hearing loss is: a. Otosclerosis. b. Presbycusis. c. Trauma to the bones. d. Frequent ear infections.

A. Otosclerosis. Otosclerosis is a common cause of conductive hearing loss in young adults between the ages of 20 and 40 years. Presbycusis is a type of hearing loss that occurs with aging. Trauma and frequent ear infections are not a likely cause of his hearing loss

The nurse is preparing to do an otoscopic examination on a 2-year-old child. Which one of these reflects the correct procedure? a. Pulling the pinna down b. Pulling the pinna up and back c. Slightly tilting the child's head toward the examiner d. Instructing the child to touch his chin to his chest

A. Pulling the pinna down For an otoscopic examination on an infant or on a child under 3 years of age, the pinna is pulled down. The other responses are not part of the correct procedure.

The nurse assesses the hearing of a 7-month-old by clapping hands. What is the expected response? The infant: a. Turns his or her head to localize the sound. b. Shows no obvious response to the noise. c. Shows a startle and acoustic blink reflex. d. Stops any movement, and appears to listen for the sound.

A. Turns his or her head to localize the sound. With a loud sudden noise, the nurse should notice the infant turning his or her head to localize the sound and to respond to his or her own name. A startle reflex and acoustic blink reflex is expected in newborns; at age 3 to 4 months, the infant stops any movement and appears to listen.

The nurse needs to pull the portion of the ear that consists of movable cartilage and skin down and back when administering eardrops. This portion of the ear is called the: a. Auricle. b. Concha. c. Outer meatus. d. Mastoid process.

A. auricle The external ear is called the auricle or pinna and consists of movable cartilage and skin.

During an assessment of a 20-year-old patient with a 3-day history of nausea and vomiting, the nurse notices dry mucosa and deep vertical fissures in the tongue. These findings are reflective of: a. Dehydration. b. Irritation by gastric juices. c. A normal oral assessment. d. Side effects from nausea medication.

ANS: A Dry mouth occurs with dehydration or fever. The tongue has deep vertical fissures.

The nurse is performing an oral assessment on a 40-year-old Black patient and notices the presence of a 1 cm, nontender, grayish-white lesion on the left buccal mucosa. Which one of these statements is true? This lesion is: a. Leukoedema and is common in dark-pigmented persons. b. The result of hyperpigmentation and is normal. c. Torus palatinus and would normally be found only in smokers. d. Indicative of cancer and should be immediately tested.

ANS: A Leukoedema, a grayish-white benign lesion occurring on the buccal mucosa, is most often observed in Blacks.

The nurse is assessing a patient with a history of intravenous drug abuse. In assessing his mouth, the nurse notices a dark red confluent macule on the hard palate. This could be an early sign of: a. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). b. Measles. c. Leukemia. d. Carcinoma.

ANS: A Oral Kaposi's sarcoma is a bruiselike, dark red or violet, confluent macule that usually occurs on the hard palate. It may appear on the soft palate or gingival margin. Oral lesions may be among the earliest lesions to develop with AIDS.

A woman who has had rheumatoid arthritis for years is starting to notice that her fingers are drifting to the side. The nurse knows that this condition is commonly referred to as: a. Radial drift. b. Ulnar deviation. c. Swan-neck deformity. d. Dupuytren contracture.

B

The salivary gland that is the largest and located in the cheek in front of the ear is the _________ gland. a. Parotid b. Stensen's c. Sublingual d. Submandibular

ANS: A The mouth contains three pairs of salivary glands. The largest, the parotid gland, lies within the cheeks in front of the ear extending from the zygomatic arch down to the angle of the jaw. The Stensen's duct (not gland) drains the parotid gland onto the buccal mucosa opposite the second molar. The sublingual gland is located within the floor of the mouth under the tongue. The submandibular gland lies beneath the mandible at the angle of the jaw.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a 21-year-old patient and notices that his nasal mucosa appears pale, gray, and swollen. What would be the most appropriate question to ask the patient? a. "Are you aware of having any allergies?" b. "Do you have an elevated temperature?" c. "Have you had any symptoms of a cold?" d. "Have you been having frequent nosebleeds?"

ANS: A With chronic allergies, the mucosa looks swollen, boggy, pale, and gray. Elevated body temperature, colds, and nosebleeds do not cause these mucosal changes.

A 40-year-old patient who has just finished chemotherapy for breast cancer tells the nurse that she is concerned about her mouth. During the assessment the nurse finds areas of buccal mucosa that are raw and red with some bleeding, as well as other areas that have a white, cheesy coating. The nurse recognizes that this abnormality is: a. Aphthous ulcers. b. Candidiasis. c. Leukoplakia. d. Koplik spots.

ANS: B Candidiasis is a white, cheesy, curdlike patch on the buccal mucosa and tongue. It scrapes off, leaving a raw, red surface that easily bleeds. It also occurs after the use of antibiotics or corticosteroids and in persons who are immunosuppressed. (See Table 16-4 for descriptions of the other lesions.)

The nurse is using an otoscope to assess the nasal cavity. Which of these techniques is correct? a. Inserting the speculum at least 3 cm into the vestibule b. Avoiding touching the nasal septum with the speculum c. Gently displacing the nose to the side that is being examined d. Keeping the speculum tip medial to avoid touching the floor of the nares

ANS: B The correct technique for using an otoscope is to insert the apparatus into the nasal vestibule, avoiding pressure on the sensitive nasal septum. The tip of the nose should be lifted up before inserting the speculum.

The primary purpose of the ciliated mucous membrane in the nose is to: a. Warm the inhaled air. b. Filter out dust and bacteria. c. Filter coarse particles from inhaled air. d. Facilitate the movement of air through the nares.

ANS: B The nasal hairs filter the coarsest matter from inhaled air, whereas the mucous blanket filters out dust and bacteria. The rich blood supply of the nasal mucosa warms the inhaled air.

The nurse is palpating the sinus areas. If the findings are normal, then the patient should report which sensation? a. No sensation b. Firm pressure c. Pain during palpation d. Pain sensation behind eyes

ANS: B The person should feel firm pressure but no pain. Sinus areas are tender to palpation in persons with chronic allergies or an acute infection (sinusitis).

In assessing the tonsils of a 30 year old, the nurse notices that they are involuted, granular in appearance, and appear to have deep crypts. What is correct response to these findings? a. Refer the patient to a throat specialist. b. No response is needed; this appearance is normal for the tonsils. c. Continue with the assessment, looking for any other abnormal findings. d. Obtain a throat culture on the patient for possible streptococcal (strep) infection.

ANS: B The tonsils are the same color as the surrounding mucous membrane, although they look more granular and their surface shows deep crypts. Tonsillar tissue enlarges during childhood until puberty and then involutes.

While obtaining a health history, a patient tells the nurse that he has frequent nosebleeds and asks the best way to get them to stop. What would be the nurse's best response? a. "While sitting up, place a cold compress over your nose." b. "Sit up with your head tilted forward and pinch your nose." c. "Just allow the bleeding to stop on its own, but don't blow your nose." d. "Lie on your back with your head tilted back and pinch your nose."

ANS: B With a nosebleed, the person should sit up with the head tilted forward and pinch the nose between the thumb and forefinger for 5 to 15 minutes.

While performing an assessment of the mouth, the nurse notices that the patient has a 1-cm ulceration that is crusted with an elevated border and located on the outer third of the lower lip. What other information would be most important for the nurse to assess? a. Nutritional status b. When the patient first noticed the lesion c. Whether the patient has had a recent cold d. Whether the patient has had any recent exposure to sick animals

ANS: B With carcinoma, the initial lesion is round and indurated, but then it becomes crusted and ulcerated with an elevated border. Most cancers occur between the outer and middle thirds of the lip. Any lesion that is still unhealed after 2 weeks should be referred.

The nurse is assessing a patient in the hospital who has received numerous antibiotics and notices that his tongue appears to be black and hairy. In response to his concern, what would the nurse say? a. "We will need to get a biopsy to determine the cause." b. "This is an overgrowth of hair and will go away in a few days." c. "Black, hairy tongue is a fungal infection caused by all the antibiotics you have received." d. "This is probably caused by the same bacteria you had in your lungs."

ANS: C A black, hairy tongue is not really hair but the elongation of filiform papillae and painless overgrowth of mycelial threads of fungus infection on the tongue. It occurs after the use of antibiotics, which inhibit normal bacteria and allow a proliferation of fungus.

The nurse is assessing a 3 year old for "drainage from the nose." On assessment, a purulent drainage that has a very foul odor is noted from the left naris and no drainage is observed from the right naris. The child is afebrile with no other symptoms. What should the nurse do next? a. Refer to the physician for an antibiotic order. b. Have the mother bring the child back in 1 week. c. Perform an otoscopic examination of the left nares. d. Tell the mother that this drainage is normal for a child of this age.

ANS: C Children are prone to put an object up the nose, producing unilateral purulent drainage with a foul odor. Because some risk for aspiration exists, removal should be prompt.

An 80-year-old woman is visiting the clinic for a checkup. She states, "I can't walk as much as I used to." The nurse is observing for motor dysfunction in her hip and should ask her to: a. Internally rotate her hip while she is sitting. b. Abduct her hip while she is lying on her back. c. Adduct her hip while she is lying on her back. d. Externally rotate her hip while she is standing.

B

During an assessment of a 26 year old at the clinic for "a spot on my lip I think is cancer," the nurse notices a group of clear vesicles with an erythematous base around them located at the lip-skin border. The patient mentions that she just returned from Hawaii. What would be the most appropriate response by the nurse? a. Tell the patient she needs to see a skin specialist. b. Discuss the benefits of having a biopsy performed on any unusual lesion. c. Tell the patient that these vesicles are indicative of herpes simplex I or cold sores and that they will heal in 4 to 10 days. d. Tell the patient that these vesicles are most likely the result of a riboflavin deficiency and discuss nutrition.

ANS: C Cold sores are groups of clear vesicles with a surrounding erythematous base. These evolve into pustules or crusts and heal in 4 to 10 days. The most likely site is the lip-skin junction. Infection often recurs in the same site. Recurrent herpes infections may be precipitated by sunlight, fever, colds, or allergy.

Immediately after birth, the nurse is unable to suction the nares of a newborn. An attempt is made to pass a catheter through both nasal cavities with no success. What should the nurse do next? a. Attempt to suction again with a bulb syringe. b. Wait a few minutes, and try again once the infant stops crying. c. Recognize that this situation requires immediate intervention. d. Contact the physician to schedule an appointment for the infant at his or her next hospital visit.

ANS: C Determining the patency of the nares in the immediate newborn period is essential because most newborns are obligate nose breathers. Nares blocked with amniotic fluid are gently suctioned with a bulb syringe. If obstruction is suspected, then a small lumen (5 to 10 Fr) catheter is passed down each naris to confirm patency. The inability to pass a catheter through the nasal cavity indicates choanal atresia, which requires immediate intervention.

A 92-year-old patient has had a stroke. The right side of his face is drooping. The nurse might also suspect which of these assessment findings? a. Epistaxis b. Rhinorrhea c. Dysphagia d. Xerostomia

ANS: C Dysphagia is difficulty with swallowing and may occur with a variety of disorders, including stroke and other neurologic diseases. Rhinorrhea is a runny nose, epistaxis is a bloody nose, and xerostomia is a dry mouth.

During an oral assessment of a 30-year-old Black patient, the nurse notices bluish lips and a dark line along the gingival margin. What action would the nurse perform in response to this finding? a. Check the patient's hemoglobin for anemia. b. Assess for other signs of insufficient oxygen supply. c. Proceed with the assessment, knowing that this appearance is a normal finding. d. Ask if he has been exposed to an excessive amount of carbon monoxide.

ANS: C Some Blacks may have bluish lips and a dark line on the gingival margin; this appearance is a normal finding.

A mother is concerned because her 18-month-old toddler has 12 teeth. She is wondering if this is normal for a child of this age. The nurse's best response would be: a. "How many teeth did you have at this age?" b. "All 20 deciduous teeth are expected to erupt by age 4 years." c. "This is a normal number of teeth for an 18 month old." d. "Normally, by age 2 years, 16 deciduous teeth are expected."

ANS: C The guidelines for the number of teeth for children younger than 2 years old are as follows: the child's age in months minus the number 6 should be equal to the expected number of deciduous teeth. Normally, all 20 teeth are in by 2 years old. In this instance, the child is 18 months old, minus 6, equals 12 deciduous teeth expected.

The projections in the nasal cavity that increase the surface area are called the: a. Meatus. b. Septum. c. Turbinates. d. Kiesselbach plexus.

ANS: C The lateral walls of each nasal cavity contain three parallel bony projections: the superior, middle, and inferior turbinates. These increase the surface area, making more blood vessels and mucous membrane available to warm, humidify, and filter the inhaled air.

The nurse notices that the mother of a 2-year-old boy brings him into the clinic quite frequently for various injuries and suspects there may be some child abuse involved. During an inspection of his mouth, the nurse should look for: a. Swollen, red tonsils. b. Ulcerations on the hard palate. c. Bruising on the buccal mucosa or gums. d. Small yellow papules along the hard palate.

ANS: C The nurse should notice any bruising or laceration on the buccal mucosa or gums of an infant or young child. Trauma may indicate child abuse from a forced feeding of a bottle or spoon.

The nurse is assessing an 80-year-old patient. Which of these findings would be expected for this patient? a. Hypertrophy of the gums b. Increased production of saliva c.Decreased ability to identify odors d. Finer and less prominent nasal hair

ANS: C The sense of smell may be reduced because of a decrease in the number of olfactory nerve fibers. Nasal hairs grow coarser and stiffer with aging. The gums may recede with aging, not hypertrophy, and saliva production decreases.

A 10 year old is at the clinic for "a sore throat that has lasted 6 days." Which of these findings would be consistent with an acute infection? a. Tonsils 1+/1-4+ and pink; the same color as the oral mucosa b. Tonsils 2+/1-4+ with small plugs of white debris c. Tonsils 3+/1-4+ with large white spots d. Tonsils 3+/1-4+ with pale coloring

ANS: C With an acute infection, tonsils are bright red and swollen and may have exudate or large white spots. Tonsils are enlarged to 2+, 3+, or 4+ with an acute infection.

A mother brings her 4-month-old infant to the clinic with concerns regarding a small pad in the middle of the upper lip that has been there since 1 month of age. The infant has no health problems. On physical examination, the nurse notices a 0.5-cm, fleshy, elevated area in the middle of the upper lip. No evidence of inflammation or drainage is observed. What would the nurse tell this mother? a. "This area of irritation is caused from teething and is nothing to worry about." b. "This finding is abnormal and should be evaluated by another health care provider." c. "This area of irritation is the result of chronic drooling and should resolve within the next month or two." d. "This elevated area is a sucking tubercle caused from the friction of breastfeeding or bottle-feeding and is normal."

ANS: D A normal finding in infants is the sucking tubercle, a small pad in the middle of the upper lip from the friction of breastfeeding or bottle-feeding. This condition is not caused by irritation, teething, or excessive drooling, and evaluation by another health care provider is not warranted.

An 85-year-old patient comments during his annual physical examination that he seems to be getting shorter as he ages. The nurse should explain that decreased height occurs with aging because: a. Long bones tend to shorten with age. b. The vertebral column shortens. c. A significant loss of subcutaneous fat occurs. d. A thickening of the intervertebral disks develops.

B

A 32-year-old woman is at the clinic for "little white bumps in my mouth." During the assessment, the nurse notes that she has a 0.5 cm white, nontender papule under her tongue and one on the mucosa of her right cheek. What would the nurse tell the patient? a. "These spots i ndicate an infection such as strep throat." b. "These bumps could be indicative of a serious lesion, so I will refer you to a specialist." c. "This condition is called leukoplakia and can be caused by chronic irritation such as with smoking." d. "These bumps are Fordyce granules, which are sebaceous cysts and are not a serious condition."

ANS: D Fordyce granules are small, isolated white or yellow papules on the mucosa of the cheek, tongue, and lips. These little sebaceous cysts are painless and are not significant. Chalky, white raised patches would indicate leukoplakia. In strep throat, the examiner would see tonsils that are bright red, swollen, and may have exudates or white spots.

A pregnant woman states that she is concerned about her gums because she has noticed they are swollen and have started bleeding. What would be an appropriate response by the nurse? a. "Your condition is probably due to a vitamin C deficiency." b. "I'm not sure what causes swollen and bleeding gums, but let me know if it's not better in a few weeks." c. "You need to make an appointment with your dentist as soon as possible to have this checked." d. "Swollen and bleeding gums can be caused by the change in hormonal balance in your system during pregnancy."

ANS: D Gum margins are red and swollen and easily bleed with gingivitis. A changing hormonal balance may cause this condition to occur in pregnancy and puberty.

The nurse is obtaining a health history on a 3-month-old infant. During the interview, the mother states, "I think she is getting her first tooth because she has started drooling a lot." The nurse's best response would be: a. "You're right, drooling is usually a sign of the first tooth." b. "It would be unusual for a 3 month old to be getting her first tooth." c. "This could be the sign of a problem with the salivary glands." d. "She is just starting to salivate and hasn't learned to swallow the saliva."

ANS: D In the infant, salivation starts at 3 months. The baby will drool for a few months before learning to swallow the saliva. This drooling does not herald the eruption of the first tooth, although many parents think it does.

The nurse is reviewing the development of the newborn infant. Regarding the sinuses, which statement is true in relation to a newborn infant? a. Sphenoid sinuses are full size at birth. b. Maxillary sinuses reach full size after puberty. c. Frontal sinuses are fairly well developed at birth. d. Maxillary and ethmoid sinuses are the only sinuses present at birth.

ANS: D Only the maxillary and ethmoid sinuses are present at birth. The sphenoid sinuses are minute at birth and develop after puberty. The frontal sinuses are absent at birth, are fairly well developed at age 7 to 8 years, and reach full size after puberty.

While obtaining a health history from the mother of a 1-year-old child, the nurse notices that the baby has had a bottle in his mouth the entire time. The mother states, "It makes a great pacifier." The best response by the nurse would be: a. "You're right. Bottles make very good pacifiers." b. "Using a bottle as a pacifier is better for the teeth than thumb-sucking." c. "It's okay to use a bottle as long as it contains milk and not juice." d. "Prolonged use of a bottle can increase the risk for tooth decay and ear infections."

ANS: D Prolonged bottle use during the day or when going to sleep places the infant at risk for tooth decay and middle ear infections.

The tissue that connects the tongue to the floor of the mouth is the: a. Uvula. b. Palate. c. Papillae. d. Frenulum.

ANS: D The frenulum is a midline fold of tissue that connects the tongue to the floor of the mouth. The uvula is the free projection hanging down from the middle of the soft palate. The palate is the arching roof of the mouth. Papillae are the rough, bumpy elevations on the tongue's dorsal surface.

A 72-year-old patient has a history of hypertension and chronic lung disease. An important question for the nurse to include in the health history would be: a. "Do you use a fluoride supplement?" b. "Have you had tonsillitis in the last year?" c. "At what age did you get your first tooth?" d. "Have you noticed any dryness in your mouth?"

ANS: D Xerostomia (dry mouth) is a side effect of many drugs taken by older people, including antidepressants, anticholinergics, antispasmodics, antihypertensives, antipsychotics, and bronchodilators.

A 40-year-old man has come into the clinic with complaints of extreme pain in his toes. The nurse notices that his toes are slightly swollen, reddened, and warm to the touch. His complaints would suggest: a. Osteoporosis. b. Acute gout. c. Ankylosing spondylitis. d. Degenerative joint disease.

B

A patient has been diagnosed with osteoporosis and asks the nurse, "What is osteoporosis?" The nurse explains that osteoporosis is defined as: a. Increased bone matrix. b. Loss of bone density. c. New, weaker bone growth. d. Increased phagocytic activity.

B

A patient is able to flex his right arm forward without difficulty or pain but is unable to abduct his arm because of pain and muscle spasms. The nurse should suspect: a. Crepitation. b. Rotator cuff lesions. c. Dislocated shoulder. d. Rheumatoid arthritis.

B

A patient tells the nurse that, "All my life I've been called 'knock knees'." The nurse knows that another term for knock knees is: a. Genu varum. b. Genu valgum. c. Pes planus. d. Metatarsus adductus.

B

The nurse is assessing a 16-year-old patient who has suffered head injuries from a recent motor vehicle accident. Which of these statements indicates the most important reason for assessing for any drainage from the ear canal? a. If the drum has ruptured, then purulent drainage will result. b. Bloody or clear watery drainage can indicate a basal skull fracture. c. The auditory canal many be occluded from increased cerumen. d. Foreign bodies from the accident may cause occlusion of the canal.

B. Bloody or clear watery drainage can indicate a basal skull fracture. Frank blood or clear watery drainage (cerebrospinal leak) after a trauma suggests a basal skull fracture and warrants immediate referral. Purulent drainage indicates otitis externa or otitis media.

The nurse suspects that a patient has otitis media. Early signs of otitis media include which of these findings of the tympanic membrane? a. Red and bulging b. Hypomobility c. Retraction with landmarks clearly visible d. Flat, slightly pulled in at the center, and moves with insufflation

B. Hypomobility An early sign of otitis media is hypomobility of the tympanic membrane. As pressure increases, the tympanic membrane begins to bulge.

A 31-year-old patient tells the nurse that he has noticed pain in his left ear when people speak loudly to him. The nurse knows that this finding: a. Is normal for people of his age. b. Is a characteristic of recruitment. c. May indicate a middle ear infection. d. Indicates that the patient has a cerumen impaction.

B. Is a characteristic of recruitment. Recruitment is significant hearing loss occurring when speech is at low intensity, but sound actually becomes painful when the speaker repeats at a louder volume. The other responses are not correct.

The nurse is performing a middle ear assessment on a 15-year-old patient who has had a history of chronic ear infections. When examining the right tympanic membrane, the nurse sees the presence of dense white patches. The tympanic membrane is otherwise unremarkable. It is pearly, with the light reflex at 5 o'clock and landmarks visible. The nurse should: a. Refer the patient for the possibility of a fungal infection. b. Know that these are scars caused from frequent ear infections. c. Consider that these findings may represent the presence of blood in the middle ear. d. Be concerned about the ability to hear because of this abnormality on the tympanic membrane.

B. Know that these are scars caused from frequent ear infections. Dense white patches on the tympanic membrane are sequelae of repeated ear infections. They do not necessarily affect hearing.

When examining the ear with an otoscope, the nurse notes that the tympanic membrane should appear: a. Light pink with a slight bulge. b. Pearly gray and slightly concave. c. Pulled in at the base of the cone of light. d. Whitish with a small fleck of light in the superior portion.

B. Pearly gray and slightly concave. The tympanic membrane is a translucent membrane with a pearly gray color and a prominent cone of light in the anteroinferior quadrant, which is the reflection of the otoscope light. The tympanic membrane is oval and slightly concave, pulled in at its center by the malleus, which is one of the middle ear ossicles.

A patient in her first trimester of pregnancy is diagnosed with rubella. Which of these statements is correct regarding the significance of this in relation to the infant's hearing? a. Rubella may affect the mother's hearing but not the infant's. b. Rubella can damage the infant's organ of Corti, which will impair hearing. c. Rubella is only dangerous to the infant in the second trimester of pregnancy. d. Rubella can impair the development of CN VIII and thus affect hearing.

B. Rubella can damage the infant's organ of Corti, which will impair hearing. If maternal rubella infection occurs during the first trimester, then it can damage the organ of

A 17-year-old student is a swimmer on her high school's swim team. She has had three bouts of otitis externa this season and wants to know what to do to prevent it. The nurse instructs her to: a. Use a cotton-tipped swab to dry the ear canals thoroughly after each swim. b. Use rubbing alcohol or 2% acetic acid eardrops after every swim. c. Irrigate the ears with warm water and a bulb syringe after each swim. d. Rinse the ears with a warmed solution of mineral oil and hydrogen peroxide.

B. Use rubbing alcohol or 2% acetic acid eardrops after every swim. With otitis externa (swimmer's ear), swimming causes the external canal to become waterlogged and swell; skinfolds are set up for infection. Otitis externa can be prevented by using rubbing alcohol or 2% acetic acid eardrops after every swim.

In performing a voice test to assess hearing, which of these actions would the nurse perform? a. Shield the lips so that the sound is muffled. b. Whisper a set of random numbers and letters, and then ask the patient to repeat them. c. Ask the patient to place his finger in his ear to occlude outside noise. d. Stand approximately 4 feet away to ensure that the patient can really hear at this distance.

B. Whisper a set of random numbers and letters, and then ask the patient to repeat them. With the head 30 to 60 cm (1 to 2 feet) from the patient's ear, the examiner exhales and slowly whispers a set of random numbers and letters, such as "5, B, 6." Normally, the patient is asked to repeat each number and letter correctly after hearing the examiner say them.

The nurse is testing the hearing of a 78-year-old man and is reminded of the changes in hearing that occur with aging that include which of the following? Select all that apply. a. Hearing loss related to aging begins in the mid 40s. b. Progression of hearing loss is slow. c. The aging person has low-frequency tone loss. d. The aging person may find it harder to hear consonants than vowels. e. Sounds may be garbled and difficult to localize. f. Hearing loss reflects nerve degeneration of the middle ear.

B. progression of hearing loss is slow D. the aging person may find it harder to hear consonants than vowels E. sounds may be garbled and difficult to localize Presbycusis is a type of hearing loss that occurs with aging and is found in 60% of those older than 65 years. It is a gradual sensorineural loss caused by nerve degeneration in the inner ear or auditory nerve, and it slowly progresses after the age of 50 years. The person first notices a high-frequency tone loss; it is harder to hear consonants (high-pitched components of speech) than vowels, which makes words sound garbled. The ability to localize sound is also impaired.

A patient is being assessed for range-of-joint movement. The nurse asks him to move his arm in toward the center of his body. This movement is called: a. Flexion. b. Abduction. c. Adduction. d. Extension.

C

A patient is complaining of pain in his joints that is worse in the morning, better after he moves around for a while, and then gets worse again if he sits for long periods. The nurse should assess for other signs of what problem? a. Tendinitis b. Osteoarthritis c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Intermittent claudication

C

The nurse is examining a patient's ears and notices cerumen in the external canal. Which of these statements about cerumen is correct? a. Sticky honey-colored cerumen is a sign of infection. b. The presence of cerumen is indicative of poor hygiene. c. The purpose of cerumen is to protect and lubricate the ear. d. Cerumen is necessary for transmitting sound through the auditory canal.

C. the purpose of cerumen is to protect and lubricate the ear The ear is lined with glands that secrete cerumen, which is a yellow waxy material that lubricates and protects the ear.

A 68-year-old woman has come in for an assessment of her rheumatoid arthritis, and the nurse notices raised, firm, nontender nodules at the olecranon bursa and along the ulna. These nodules are most commonly diagnosed as: a. Epicondylitis. b. Gouty arthritis. c. Olecranon bursitis. d. Subcutaneous nodules.

D

A man who has had gout for several years comes to the clinic with a problem with his toe. On examination, the nurse notices the presence of hard, painless nodules over the great toe; one has burst open with a chalky discharge. This finding is known as: a. Callus. b. Plantar wart. c. Bunion. d. Tophi.

D

A professional tennis player comes into the clinic complaining of a sore elbow. The nurse will assess for tenderness at the: a. Olecranon bursa. b. Annular ligament. c. Base of the radius. d. Medial and lateral epicondyle.

D

Fibrous bands running directly from one bone to another that strengthen the joint and help prevent movement in undesirable directions are called: a. Bursa. b. Tendons. c. Cartilage. d. Ligaments.

D

The nurse is explaining to a patient that there are shock absorbers in his back to cushion the spine and to help it move. The nurse is referring to his: a. Vertebral column. b. Nucleus pulposus. c. Vertebral foramen. d. Intervertebral disks.

D

The nurse notices that a woman in an exercise class is unable to jump rope. The nurse is aware that to jump rope, one's shoulder has to be capable of: a. Inversion. b. Supination. c. Protraction. d. Circumduction.

D

When assessing muscle strength, the nurse observes that a patient has complete range of motion against gravity with full resistance. What grade of muscle strength should the nurse record using a 0- to 5-point scale? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

D

The mother of a 2-year-old is concerned because her son has had three ear infections in the past year. What would be an appropriate response by the nurse? a. "It is unusual for a small child to have frequent ear infections unless something else is wrong." b. "We need to check the immune system of your son to determine why he is having so many ear infections." c. "Ear infections are not uncommon in infants and toddlers because they tend to have more cerumen in the external ear." d. "Your son's eustachian tube is shorter and wider than yours because of his age, which allows for infections to develop more easily."

D. "Your son's eustachian tube is shorter and wider than yours because of his age, which allows for infections to develop more easily." The infant's eustachian tube is relatively shorter and wider than the adult's eustachian tube, and its position is more horizontal; consequently, pathogens from the nasopharynx can more easily migrate through to the middle ear. The other responses are not appropriate.

An assessment of a 23-year-old patient reveals the following: an auricle that is tender and reddish-blue in color with small vesicles. The nurse would need to know additional information that includes which of these? a. Any change in the ability to hear b. Any recent drainage from the ear c. Recent history of trauma to the ear d. Any prolonged exposure to extreme cold

D. Any prolonged exposure to extreme cold Frostbite causes reddish-blue discoloration and swelling of the auricle after exposure to extreme cold. Vesicles or bullae may develop, and the person feels pain and tenderness.

In an individual with otitis externa, which of these signs would the nurse expect to find on assessment? a. Rhinorrhea b. Periorbital edema c. Pain over the maxillary sinuses d. Enlarged superficial cervical nodes

D. Enlarged superficial cervical nodes The lymphatic drainage of the external ear flows to the parotid, mastoid, and superficial cervical nodes. The signs are severe swelling of the canal, inflammation, and tenderness. Rhinorrhea, periorbital edema, and pain over the maxillary sinuses do not occur with otitis externa.

The nurse is taking the history of a patient who may have a perforated eardrum. What would be an important question in this situation? a. "Do you ever notice ringing or crackling in your ears?" b. "When was the last time you had your hearing checked?" c. "Have you ever been told that you have any type of hearing loss?" d. Is a normal finding, and no further follow-up is necessary.

D. Is a normal finding, and no further follow-up is necessary. Typically with perforation, ear pain occurs first, stopping with a popping sensation, and then drainage occurs.

The nurse is reviewing the structures of the ear. Which of these statements concerning the eustachian tube is true? a. The eustachian tube is responsible for the production of cerumen. b. It remains open except when swallowing or yawning. c. The eustachian tube allows passage of air between the middle and outer ear. d. It helps equalize air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane.

D. It helps equalize air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane. The eustachian tube allows an equalization of air pressure on each side of the tympanic membrane so that the membrane does not rupture during, for example, altitude changes in an airplane. The tube is normally closed, but it opens with swallowing or yawning.

During an interview, the patient states he has the sensation that "everything around him is spinning." The nurse recognizes that the portion of the ear responsible for this sensation is the: a. Cochlea. b. CN VIII. c. Organ of Corti. d. Labyrinth.

D. Labyrinth. If the labyrinth ever becomes inflamed, then it feeds the wrong information to the brain, creating a staggering gait and a strong, spinning, whirling sensation called vertigo.

The nurse is conducting a child safety class for new mothers. Which factor places young children at risk for ear infections? a. Family history b. Air conditioning c. Excessive cerumen d. Passive cigarette smoke

D. Passive cigarette smoke Exposure to passive and gestational smoke is a risk factor for ear infections in infants and children.

In performing an examination of a 3-year-old child with a suspected ear infection, the nurse would: a. Omit the otoscopic examination if the child has a fever. b. Pull the ear up and back before inserting the speculum. c. Ask the mother to leave the room while examining the child. d. Perform the otoscopic examination at the end of the assessment

D. Perform the otoscopic examination at the end of the assessment In addition to its place in the complete examination, eardrum assessment is mandatory for any infant or child requiring care for an illness or fever. For the infant or young child, the timing of the otoscopic examination is best toward the end of the complete examination.

The mother of a 2-year-old toddler is concerned about the upcoming placement of tympanostomy tubes in her son's ears. The nurse would include which of these statements in the teaching plan? a. The tubes are placed in the inner ear. b. The tubes are used in children with sensorineural loss. c. The tubes are permanently inserted during a surgical procedure. d. The purpose of the tubes is to decrease the pressure and allow for drainage.

D. The purpose of the tubes is to decrease the pressure and allow for drainage. Polyethylene tubes are surgically inserted into the eardrum to relieve middle ear pressure and to promote drainage of chronic or recurrent middle ear infections. Tubes spontaneously extrude in 6 months to 1 year.

During an otoscopic examination, the nurse notices an area of black and white dots on the tympanic membrane and the ear canal wall. What does this finding suggest? a. Malignancy b. Viral infection c. Blood in the middle ear d. Yeast or fungal infection

D. Yeast or fungal infection A colony of black or white dots on the drum or canal wall suggests a yeast or fungal infection (otomycosis).