NUR 303 - Chapter 44: Assessment of Digestive and Gastrointestinal Function

An adult patient is scheduled for an upper GI series that will use a barium swallow. What teaching should the nurse include when the patient has completed the test?

Fluids must be increased to facilitate the evacuation of the stool. Postprocedural patient education includes information about increasing fluid intake, evaluating bowel movements for evacuation of barium, and noting increased number of bowel movements. This is done because barium, due to its high osmolarity, may draw fluid into the bowel, thus increasing the intraluminal contents and resulting in greater output. The barium series does not analyze gastric secretions.

When examining the abdomen of a client with complaints of nausea and vomiting, which of the following would the nurse do first?

Inspection When assessing the abdomen, the nurse would first inspect or observe the abdomen. This would be followed by auscultation, percussion, and lastly, palpation.

A client is diagnosed with megaloblastic anemia caused by vitamin B12 deficiency. The physician begins the client on cyanocobalamin (Betalin-12), 100 mcg I.M. daily. Which substance influences vitamin B12 absorption?

Intrinsic factor Vitamin B12 absorption depends on intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach. The vitamin binds with intrinsic factor and is absorbed in the ileum. Hydrochloric acid, histamine, and liver enzymes don't influence vitamin B12 absorption.

The nurse is providing community education at the mall. The nurse is instructing on the muscular tube that connects the mouth to the stomach. The nurse outlines this structure on a drawing and labels it with which of the following?

Esophagus The esophagus begins at the base of the pharynx and ends at the opening of the stomach. Layers of muscular tissue surround the esophagus. The pharynx is part of the throat situated immediately inferior to the mouth and nasal cavity. The pylorus is the region of the stomach that connects to the duodenum. The ileum is a portion of the small intestine.

The nurse is assisting the physician with a gastric acid stimulation test for a patient. What medication should the nurse prepare to administer subcutaneously to stimulate gastric secretions?

Pentagastrin The gastric acid stimulation test usually is performed in conjunction with gastric analysis. Histamine or pentagastrin is administered subcutaneously to stimulate gastric secretions.

Which diagnostic produces images of the body by detecting the radiation emitted from radioactive substances?

Positron emission tomography (PET) PET produces images of the body by detecting the radiation emitted from radioactive substances. CT provides cross-sectional images of abdominal organs and structures. MRI uses magnetic fields and radio waves to produce an image of the area being studied. Fibroscopy of the upper GI tract allows direct visualization of the esophageal, gastric, and duodenal mucosa through a lighted endoscope.

The nurse is scheduling gastrointestinal (GI) diagnostic testing for a client. Which GI test should be scheduled first?

Radiography of the gallbladder Radiography of the gallbladder should be performed before other GI exams in which barium is used because residual barium tends to obscure the images of the gallbladder and its duct.

Which response is a parasympathetic response in the GI tract?

increased peristalsis Increased peristalsis is a parasympathetic response in the GI tract. Decreased gastric secretion, blood vessel constriction, and decreased motility are sympathetic responses in the GI tract.

The nurse recognizes which change of the GI system is an age-related change?

weakened gag reflex A weakened gag reflex is an age-related change of the GI system. There is decreased motility, atrophy of the small intestine, and decreased mucus secretion.

The nurse is caring for a man who has experienced a spinal cord injury. Throughout his recovery, the client expects to gain control of his bowels. The nurse's best response to this client would be which of the following?

"Having a bowel movement is a spinal reflex requiring intact nerve fibers. Yours are not intact." The act of defecation is a spinal reflex involving the parasympathetic nerve fibers. Normally, the external anal sphincter is maintained in a state of tonic contraction. With a spinal cord injury, the client no longer has this nervous system control and is often incontinent.

When preparing a client for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the abdomen, which statement would indicate the need to notify the physician?

"I really don't like to be in small, enclosed spaces." An MRI scanner is a narrow, tunnel-like machine that will enclose the client during the test. Clients who are claustrophobic (fear enclosed spaces) may need sedation because it is imperative that they lie still and not panic during the test. Therefore, the nurse should notify the physician about the client's statement. Typically, the client is NPO for 6 to 8 hours before the test, and he or she must remove any metal objects, credit cards, jewelry, and watch before the test. Visualization will assist the client in relaxing during the procedure.

The nurse is providing instructions to a patient scheduled for a gastroscopy. What should the nurse be sure to include in the instructions? (Select all that apply.)

- The patient must fast for 8 hours before the examination. - The throat will be sprayed with a local anesthetic. - After gastroscopy, the patient cannot eat or drink until the gag reflex returns (1 to 2 hours). The patient should be NPO for 8 hours prior to the examination. Before the introduction of the endoscope, the patient is given a local anesthetic gargle or spray. Midazolam (Versed), a sedative that provides moderate sedation with loss of the gag reflex and relieves anxiety during the procedure, is administered. Temporary loss of the gag reflex is expected; after the patient's gag reflex has returned, lozenges, saline gargle, and oral analgesic agents may be offered to relieve minor throat discomfort.

Which of the following should the nurse complete prior to assessing the abdomen of a 35-year-old man?

Ask the client to empty his bladder. The physical examination of the gastrointestinal system includes assessment of the mouth, abdomen, and rectum. It requires good light, full exposure of the abdomen, warm hands with short nails, and a relaxed client with an empty bladder. A full bladder will interfere with inspection and may elicit discomfort with palpation and percussion, thereby altering results.

The nurse is to obtain a stool specimen from a client who reported that he is taking iron supplements. The nurse would expect the stool to be which color?

Black Ingestion of iron can cause the stool to turn black. Meat protein causes stool to appear dark brown. Ingestion of large amounts of spinach may turn stool green while ingestion of carrots and beets may cause stool to turn red.

A patient is scheduled for a fiberoptic colonoscopy. What does the nurse know that fiberoptic colonoscopy is most frequently used to diagnose?

Cancer This procedure is used commonly as a diagnostic aid and screening device. It is most frequently used for cancer screening and for surveillance in patients with previous colon cancer or polyps. In addition, tissue biopsies can be obtained as needed, and polyps can be removed and evaluated. Other uses of colonoscopy include the evaluation of patients with diarrhea of unknown cause, occult bleeding, or anemia; further study of abnormalities detected on barium enema; and diagnosis, clarification, and determination of the extent of inflammatory or other bowel disease.

The nurse auscultates the abdomen to assess bowel sounds. She documents five to six sounds heard in less than 30 seconds. How does the nurse document the bowel sounds?

Hyperactive Bowel sounds are assessed using the diaphragm of the stethoscope for high-pitched and gurgling sounds (Gu, Lim, & Moser, 2010). The frequency and character of the sounds are usually heard as clicks and gurgles that occur irregularly and range from 5 to 35 per minute. The terms normal (sounds heard about every 5 to 20 seconds), hypoactive (one or two sounds in 2 minutes), hyperactive (5 to 6 sounds heard in less than 30 seconds), or absent (no sounds in 3 to 5 minutes) are frequently used in documentation, but these assessments are highly subjective (Li, Wang, & Ma, 2012).

A nurse is assessing a client who complains of abdominal pain, nausea, and diarrhea. When examining the client's abdomen, which sequence should the nurse use?

Inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation The correct sequence for abdominal examination is inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation. This sequence differs from that used for other body regions (inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation) because palpation and percussion increase intestinal activity, altering bowel sounds. Therefore, the nurse shouldn't palpate or percuss the abdomen before auscultating. Assessment of any body system or region starts with inspection; therefore, auscultating or palpating the abdomen first would be incorrect.

A client with a recent history of rectal bleeding is being prepared for a colonoscopy. Initially, how should the nurse position the client for this test?

Lying on the left side with knees bent For a colonoscopy, the nurse initially should position the client on the left side with knees bent. Placing the client on the right side with legs straight, prone with the torso elevated, or bent over with hands touching the floor wouldn't allow proper visualization of the large intestine.

Which of the following would be most important to ensure that a client does not retain any barium after a barium swallow?

Monitoring the stool passage and its color. Monitoring stool passage and its color will ensure that the client remains barium free following a barium swallow test. The white or clay color of the stool would indicate barium retention. The stool should be placed in a special preservative if the client undergoes a stool analysis. Observing the color and volume of urine will not ensure that the client is barium free because barium is not eliminated through urine but through stool.

A client undergoing a diagnostic examination for gastrointestinal disorder was given polyethylene glycol/electrolyte solution as a part of the test preparation. Which of the following measures should the nurse take once the solution is administered?

Permit the client to drink only clear liquids. After polyethylene glycol/electrolyte solution is administered, the client should have clear liquids as this ensures watery stools, which are necessary for procedures like a barium enema. Allowing the client to ingest a fat-free meal is used in preparation for oral cholecystography. Instructing the client to have low-residue meals is a pretest procedure for barium enema. A client is offered saline gargles after esophagogastroduodenoscopy.

The nurse is instructing the client who was newly diagnosed with peptic ulcers. Which of the following diagnostic studies would the nurse anticipate reviewing with the client?

Serum antibodies for H. pylori Helicobacter pylori, a bacterium, is believed to be responsible for the majority of peptic ulcers. Blood tests are used to determine whether there are antibodies to H. pylori in the blood. A complete blood count with differential can indicate bleeding and infection associated with a bleeding ulcer. A sigmoidoscopy assesses the lower gastrointestinal tract. Gastric analysis is more common in analyzing gastric fluid in determining problems with the secretory activity of the gastric mucosa.

The nurse is preparing to examine the abdomen of a client complaining of a change in his bowel pattern. The nurse would place the client in which position?

Supine with knees flexed When examining the abdomen, the client lies supine with his knees flexed. This position assists in relaxing the abdominal muscles. The lithotomy position commonly is used for a female pelvic examination and to examine the rectum. The knee-chest position can be used for a variety of examinations, most commonly the anus and rectum. The left Sim's lateral position may be used to assess the rectum or vagina and to administer an enema.

When describing the role of the pancreas to a client with a pancreatic dysfunction, the nurse would identify which substance as being acted on by pancreatic lipase?

Triglycerides Pancreatic lipase acts on lipids, especially triglycerides. Salivary amylase and pancreatic amylase act on starch. Pepsin and hydrochloric acid in the stomach and trypsin from the pancreas act on proteins. Insulin acts on glucose.

Which of the following is an age-related change in the esophagus?

Weakened gag reflex Age-related changes that are associated with the esophagus include a weakened gag reflex, decreased motility and emptying, decreased muscle tone, and weakness in the lower esophageal sphincter.

A physician plans to send a client home with supplies to complete a hemoccult test on all stools for 3 days. During the client education, the nurse informs the client to avoid which of the following medications while collecting stool for the test?

ibuprofen (Advil) Fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) is one of the most commonly performed stool tests. FOBT can be done at the bedside, in the physician's office, or at home. The client is taught to avoid aspirin, red meats, nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents, and horseradish for 72 hours prior to the examination. Advil is an anti-inflammatory drug and should be avoided with FOBT.

The nurse prepares to administer the lavage solution to a client having a colostomy completed. The nurse stops and notifies the physician when noting that the client has which condition?

inflammatory bowel disease The nurse stops administering the lavage solution and notifies the physician when the nurse notes that the client has inflammatory bowel disease. Another contraindication for use of lavage solution is intestinal obstruction. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), congestive heart failure, and pulmonary hypertension are not contraindications to administration of lavage solution in preparation for a colonoscopy.

Which term describes a gastric secretion that combines with vitamin B12 so that it can be absorbed?

intrinsic factor Intrinsic factor, secreted by the gastric mucosa, combines with dietary vitamin B12 so that the vitamin can be absorbed in the ileum. In the absence of intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed and pernicious anemia results. Amylase is an enzyme that aids in the digestion of starch. Pepsin, an important enzyme for protein digestion, is the end product of the conversion of pepsinogen from the chief cells. Digestive enzymes secreted by the pancreas include trypsin, which aids in digesting protein.

Lisa Bentley, a 32-year-old teacher, presents to the gastroenterology office where you work. She is known to have a history of Crohn's disease, and you have met with her several times to discuss the various health concerns that she has related to her diagnosis. When talking with the client, the nurse explains that having a GI disorder doesn't mean her problems are limited to the one area that is diseased but might also involve all of the following except ________.

metabolism The client with a GI disorder may experience a wide variety of health problems that involve disturbances of ingestion, digestion, absorption, and elimination. The client with a GI disorder may experience health problems that involve disturbances of ingestion, digestion, absorption, and elimination.

A client asks the nurse why the physician ordered the blood test carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA). The nurse answers:

"It indicates if a cancer is present." The carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) blood test detects the presence of cancer by identifying the presence of a protein not normally detected in the blood of a healthy person. However, it does not indicate what type of cancer is present nor does it detect the functionality of the liver.

Upon hearing that his small intestine lining has thinned, an elderly client asks, "What can this lead to?" The nurse would most likely respond with which of the following comments?

"You may frequently experience constipation." As a person ages, the epithelial cells and villi thin in the small intestine. Implications of this consequence include decreased intestinal motility and transit time, which can lead to constipation. This would lead the nurse to discuss and advise the client on ways to prevent constipation.

During a nursing assessment, the nurse knows that the most common symptom in patients with GI dysfunction is which of the following?

Dyspepsia Dyspepsia is a condition that usually involves a combination of symptoms: abdominal pain, bloating, distention, nausea, and belching. Dyspepsia refers to altered digestion that is not associated with a pathologic condition.

Gastrin has which of the following effects on gastrointestinal (GI) motility?

Increased motility of the stomach Gastrin has the following effects on GI motility: increased motility of the stomach, excitation of the colon, relaxation of ileocecal sphincter, and contraction of the gastroesophageal sphincter.

A client with diabetes begins to have digestive problems and is told by the physician that they are a complication of the diabetes. Which of the following explanations from the nurse is most accurate?

The pancreas secretes digestive enzymes. While the pancreas has the well-known function of secreting insulin, it also secretes digestive enzymes. These enzymes include trypsin, amylase, and lipase. If the secretion of these enzymes are affected by a diseased pancreas as foundi with diabetes, the digestive functioning may be impaired.

Cystic fibrosis, a genetic disorder characterized by pulmonary and pancreatic dysfunction, usually appears in young children but can also affect adults. If the pancreas was functioning correctly, where would the bile and pancreatic enzymes enter the GI system?

duodenum The duodenum, which is approximately 10 inches long, is the first region of the small intestine and the site where bile and pancreatic enzymes enter.

The major carbohydrate that tissue cells use as fuel is

glucose. Glucose is the major carbohydrate that tissue cells use as fuel. Proteins are a source of energy after they are broken down into amino acids and peptides. Chyme stays in the small intestine for 3 to 6 hours, allowing for continued breakdown and absorption of nutrients. Ingested fats become monoglycerides and fatty acids by the process of emulsification.

The nurse assesses bowel sounds and hears one to two bowel sounds in 2 minutes. How should the nurse document the bowel sounds?

hypoactive Hypoactive bowel sound is the description given to auscultation of one to two bowel sounds in 2 minutes. Normal bowel sounds are heard every 5 to 20 seconds. Hyperactive bowel sounds occur when five or six sounds are heard in less than 30 seconds. The nurse records that bowel sounds are absent when no sound is heard in 3 to 5 minutes.

The client describes a test previously completed to detect a small bowel obstruction prior to admission to the hospital. The client states that the test involved insertion of a tube through the nose and lasted over 6 hours. The nurse determines which test name should be documented?

upper GI enteroclysis Enteroclysis is a double contrast study where a duodenal tube is inserted and 500 to 1000 mL of thin barium sulfate suspension and then methylcellulose is infused. Fluoroscopy is used to visualize the filling of the intestinal loops over a period of up to 6 hours. The test is used for detection of small bowel obstruction and diverticuli. Abdominal ultrasound, magnetic resonance imaging, and positron emission tomography do not involve insertion of a duodenal tube.

After 20 seconds of auscultating for bowel sounds on a client recovering from abdominal surgery, the nurse hears nothing. Which of the following should the nurse do based on the assessment findings?

Listen longer for the sounds. Auscultation is used to determine the character, location, and frequency of bowel sounds. The frequency and character of sounds are usually heard as clicks and gurgles that occur irregularly and range from 5 to 35 per minutes. Normal sounds are heard about every 5 to 20 seconds, whereas hypoactive sounds can be one or two sounds in 2 minutes. Postoperatively, it is common for sounds to be reduced; therefore, the nurse needs to listen at least 3 to 5 minutes to verify absent or no bowel sounds.

A client is scheduled for bowel resection with anastomosis involving the large intestine. Because of the surgical site, the nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement, the nurse should add which "related-to" phrase?

Related to the presence of bacteria at the surgical site The nurse should add "Related to the presence of bacteria at the surgical site" to the diagnosis of Risk for infection. The large intestine normally contains bacteria because its alkaline environment permits growth of organisms that putrefy and break down remaining proteins and indigestible residue. These organisms include Escherichia coli, Aerobacter aerogenes, Clostridium perfringens, and Lactobacillus. Although bowel resection with anastomosis is considered major surgery, it poses no greater risk of infection than any other type of major surgery. Malnutrition seldom follows bowel resection with anastomosis because nutritional absorption (except for some water, sodium, and chloride) is completed in the small intestine. An NG tube is placed through a natural opening, not a wound, and therefore doesn't increase the client's risk of infection.

It is important for a nurse to have an understanding of the major digestive enzymes and their actions. Choose the gastric mucosa secretion that plays an important role in the digestion of triglycerides.

Steapsin Ptyalin and amylase work to digest starch; trypsin works on proteins and polypeptides. Triglycerides are digested by steapsin, and pharyngeal and pancreatic lipase.

A nurse is caring for a newly admitted patient with a suspected gastrointestinal (GI) bleed. The nurse assesses the patient's stool after a bowel movement and notes it to be a tarry-black color. The nurse recognizes that the bleeding is likely occurring where?

The upper GI tract Blood shed in sufficient quantities in the upper GI tract will produce a tarry-black color (melena). Blood entering the lower portion of the GI tract or passing rapidly through it will appear bright or dark red. Lower rectal or anal bleeding is suspected if there is streaking of blood on the surface of the stool or if blood is noted on toilet tissue.

Which procedure is performed to examine and visualize the lumen of the small bowel?

small bowel enteroscopy Small bowel enteroscopy is the endoscopic examination and visualization of the lumen of the small bowel. Colonoscopy is the examination of the entire large intestine with a flexible fiberoptic colonoscope. Panendoscopy is the examination of both the upper and lower GI tracts. Peritoneoscopy is the examination of GI structures through an endoscope inserted percutaneously through a small incision in the abdominal wall.

A focused GI assessment begins with a complete history and physical examination. Identify the quadrant of the abdomen to be palpated or percussed for a patient with pancreatitis.

Left upper The pancreas, which is about 6 inches long, is located behind the stomach in the upper left side of the body.

The nurse asks a client to point to where she feels pain. The client asks why this is important. The nurse's best response would be which of the following?

"Often the area of pain is referred from another area." Pain can be a major symptom of disease. The location and distribution of pain can be referred from a different area. If a client points to an area of pain and has other symptoms associated with a certain disease, this is valuable information for treatment.

A client presented with gastrointestinal bleeding 2 days ago and continues to have problems. The physician has ordered a visualization of the small intestine via a capsule endoscopy. Which of the following will the nurse include in the client education about this procedure?

"You will need to swallow a capsule." A capsule endoscopy allows for noninvasive visualization of the small intestinal mucosa. The technique consists of the client swallowing a capsule that is embedded with a wireless miniature camera, which is propelled through the intestine by peristalsis. The capsule passes from the rectum in 1 to 2 days.

An examiner is performing the physical assessment of the rectum, perianal region, and anus. While this examination can be uncomfortable for many clients, health care providers must approach it in a prepared, confident manner. Which of the following considerations will help this examination flow smoothly and efficiently for both provider and client? Select all that apply.

- Position the client on the right side with the knees up to the chest. - Ask the client to bear down for visual inspection. While examination of the rectum, perineum, and anus may be uncomfortable for the client, it is necessary for a thorough examination. The examiner will position the client on the right side with the knees up. He or she will use a gloved finger lubricated with a water-soluble lubricant for ease of insertion. The health care provider will encourage deep breathing during the procedure and ask the client to bear down while inspecting the anal area. The examination requires appropriate lighting for thorough inspection.

A client, age 82, is admitted to an acute care facility for treatment of an acute flare-up of a chronic GI condition. In addition to assessing the client for complications of the current illness, the nurse monitors for age-related changes in the GI tract. Which age-related change increases the risk of anemia?

Atrophy of the gastric mucosa Atrophy of the gastric mucosa reduces hydrochloric acid secretion; this, in turn, impairs absorption of iron and vitamin B12, increasing the risk of anemia as a person ages. A decrease in hydrochloric acid increases, not decreases, intestinal flora; as a result, the client is at increased risk for infection, not anemia. A reduction, not increase, in bile secretion may lead to malabsorption of fats and fat-soluble vitamins. Dulling of nerve impulses associated with aging increases the risk of constipation, not anemia.

A client receives a local anesthetic to suppress the gag reflex for a diagnostic procedure of the upper GI tract. Which nursing intervention is advised for this client?

Do not give any food and fluids until the gag reflex returns. For a client receiving a local anesthetic that suppresses the gag reflex, the nurse is advised to withhold food and fluids until the reflex returns. The client is monitored for other symptoms specifically related to the procedure, but may not be monitored for cramping or abdominal distention or breathing-related discomforts unless reporting these symptoms. It is also not essential to monitor the client's fluid output for 24 hours, because the client is advised to avoid fluid or food intake until the reflex returns. However, the client may be monitored for any dehydration related to not consuming any fluids or food before the procedure.

The nurse is performing an assessment of a patient. During the assessment the patient informs the nurse of some recent "stomach trouble." What does the nurse know is the most common symptom of patients with GI dysfunction?

Dyspepsia Dyspepsia, upper abdominal discomfort associated with eating (commonly called indigestion), is the most common symptom of patients with GI dysfunction. Indigestion is an imprecise term that refers to a host of upper abdominal or epigastric symptoms such as pain, discomfort, fullness, bloating, early satiety, belching, heartburn, or regurgitation; it occurs in approximately 25% of the adult population (Harmon & Peura, 2010).

A nurse is preparing a client with Crohn's disease for a barium enema. What should the nurse do the day before the test?

Encourage plenty of fluids. The nurse should encourage plenty of fluids because adequate fluid intake is necessary to avoid dehydration that may be caused by the bowel preparation and to prevent fecal impaction after the procedure. The client may be placed on a low-residue diet 1 to 2 days before the procedure to reduce the contents in the GI tract. Fiber intake is limited in a low-residue diet. Because dairy products leave a residue, they aren't allowed the evening before the test. Clear liquids only are allowed the evening before the test.

The nurse teaches a client scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which instruction should be included as part of the preparation for the procedure?

Follow the dietary and fluid restrictions and bowel preparation procedures. For a client due to have a colonoscopy, it is essential that the client follow the dietary and fluid restrictions and bowel preparation procedures. For the client having an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD), it is necessary for the client to spray or gargle with a local anesthetic. The client is not advised to consume 3 quarts of water nor to void before the test. These interventions may be essential for tests that involve ultrasonographic procedures.

The nurse is working on a general medical unit. A client is scheduled for an upper gastrointestinal series. Upon return to the nursing unit, what does the nurse identify as the client goal?

Increase the amount of fluids The client, returning from an upper gastrointestinal series, needs to increase fluids in an effort to eliminate the barium from the body through a bowel movement. General anesthesia is not used. The client typically does not have nausea and vomiting following the procedure. If the client is able to ambulate independently prior to the procedure, the client will be able to ambulate independently following.

While palpating a client's right upper quadrant (RUQ), the nurse would expect to find which structure?

Liver The RUQ contains the liver, gallbladder, duodenum, head of the pancreas, hepatic flexure of the colon, portions of the ascending and transverse colon, and a portion of the right kidney. The sigmoid colon is located in the left lower quadrant; the appendix, in the right lower quadrant; and the spleen, in the left upper quadrant.

When bowel sounds are heard about every 15 seconds, the nurse would record that the bowel sounds are

normal. Normal bowel sounds are heard every 5 to 20 seconds. Hypoactive bowel sound is the description given to auscultation of one to two bowel sounds in 2 minutes. Sluggish is not a term a nurse would use to accurately describe bowel sounds. The nurse records that bowel sounds are absent when no sound is heard in 3 to 5 minutes.

An enzyme that begins the digestion of starches is

ptyalin. Ptyalin, or salivary amylase, is an enzyme that begins digestion of starches. Pepsin, an important enzyme for protein digestion, is the end product of the conversion of pepsinogen from the chief cells. Digestive enzymes secreted by the pancreas include trypsin, which aids in digesting protein. Bile is an enzyme secreted by the liver and gallbladder.

A client tells the nurse that the stool was colored yellow. The nurse assesses the client for

recent foods ingested. The nurse should assess for recent foods that the client ingested, as ingestion of senna can cause the stool to turn yellow. Ingestion of bismuth can turn the stool black and, when occult blood is present, the stool can appear to be tarry black.

A client receives a local anesthetic to suppress the gag reflex for a diagnostic procedure of the upper GI tract. Which nursing intervention is advised for this patient?

The client should not be given any food and fluids until the gag reflex returns. For a client receiving a local anesthetic that suppresses the gag reflex, the nurse is advised to withhold food and fluids until the reflex returns.

A client receives a local anesthetic to suppress the gag reflex for a diagnostic procedure of the upper GI tract. The nurse determines which nursing intervention is advised for this client?

do not give any food and fluids until the gag reflex returns For a client receiving a local anesthetic that suppresses the gag reflex, the nurse is advised to withhold food and fluids until the reflex returns. The client is monitored for other symptoms specifically related to the procedure but may not be monitored for cramping or abdominal distention or breathing related discomforts unless reporting these symptoms. It is also not essential to monitor the client's fluid output for 24 hours, since the client is advised to avoid fluid or food intake until the reflex returns. However, the client may be monitored for any dehydration related to not consuming any fluids or food before the procedure.

The nurse determines one or two bowel sounds in 2 minutes should be documented as

hypoactive. Hypoactive bowel sound is the description given to auscultation of one to two bowel sounds in 2 minutes. Normal bowel sounds are heard every 5 to 20 seconds. Hyperactive bowel sounds occur when 5 or 6 sounds are heard in less than 30 seconds. The nurse records that bowel sounds are absent when no sound is heard in 3 to 5 minutes.

Following ingestion of carrots or beets, the nurse would expect which alteration in stool color?

Red Carrots or beets will tend to change the stool color to red. Black stools are associated with iron, licorice, and charcoal. Senna is associated with yellow stools. A milky white stool is associated with administration of barium.