NURS 300 exam 5 practice questions
A nurse is preparing a continuous IV infusion of erythromycin lactobionate for a client who has a Bordetella pertussis infection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to minimize the risk of thrombophlebitis? A. Infuse the medication slowly B. Administer half the dosage C. Avoid diluting the solution D. Initiate intermittent dosing
A. Infuse the medication slowly The nurse should infuse erythromycin slowly to minimize the risk of thrombophlebitis, which is an inflammatory process resulting from the formation of a blood clot in a vein. These blood clots usually form in the legs.
Anurse is caring for a client who was recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse should expect the provider to prescribe methotrexate at which of the following times? A. Within 3 months of the initial diagnosis B. When NSAIDs have not provided pain relief C. During an exacerbation of symptoms D. Once bone degeneration progresses
A. Within 3 months of the initial diagnosis The nurse should identify that current guidelines recommend starting a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) such as methotrexate within 3 months of a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis to prevent or delay joint degeneration.
A nurse is administering a client's first dose of sucralfate. Which of the following explanations should the nurse provide about the action of sucralfate? A. "Sucralfate decreases gastric acid secretions." B. "Sucralfate forms a gel-like substance that protects ulcers." C. "Sucralfate inactivates Helicobacter pylori." D. "Sucralfate inhibits the production of gastric acid."
B. "Sucralfate forms a gel-like substance that protects ulcers." The primary action of sucralfate is the formation of a gel-like protectant that adheres to the ulcer surface. This protective mechanism lasts for 6 hours and allows the ulcer to heal.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a bacterial infection about adverse effects of imipenem to report to the provider. Which of the following pieces of information should the nurse include? A. "Seizures can occur with this this medication." B. " You should observe for manifestations of bleeding." C. " Check your hands and feet for dysfunction." D. " this medication can increase the risk of ototoxicity"
A. "Seizures can occur with this this medication." the nurse should tell the client that seizures can occur when receiving imipenem. The
A nurse is caring for a child who received penicillin IM 15 minutes ago. The child is now irritable and restless. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. Administer diphenhydramine B. assess for laryngeal edema C. initiate hourly urine output monitoring D. give epinephrine IV push
B. assess for laryngeal edema The greatest risk to this child is bronchoconstriction due to an anaphylactic reaction to penicillin. Therefore, the first action the nurse should take is to assess the child for laryngeal edema and implement interventions to maintain a patent airway
A nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for doxycycline for the treatment of a Helicobacter pylori infection. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? A. "Take this medication with meals to decrease gastrointestinal upset." B. "Continue this medication if you become pregnant." C. "Wear protective clothing while in the sun." D. "Expect to have severe diarrhea while taking this medication."
C. "Wear protective clothing while in the sun." The nurse should include in the teaching that all tetracycline medications increase the sensitivity of the skin to ultraviolet light and sunlight. Therefore, clients are encouraged to avoid prolonged exposure to the sun and to wear protective clothing while outside and exposed to the sun.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has tuberculosis (TB) and a prescription for isoniazid. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. "You'll need to take this medication for the rest of your life to prevent recurrence." B. "Your provider will monitor your thyroid function while you are taking this medication." C. "You should take this medication on an empty stomach." D. "You should take this medication with an antacid."
C. "You should take this medication on an empty stomach." The nurse should instruct the client to take isoniazid on an empty stomach to improve absorption of the medication. To ensure the stomach is empty, the client should take the medication either 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal.
A nurse is assessing a client with rheumatoid arthritis who has been taking high doses of prescribed hydroxychloroquine. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of hydroxychloroquine? A. "I have developed sores in my mouth." B. "I often feel like the room is spinning." C. "I noticed that the whites of my eyes look yellow." D. "I have had a change in my vision recently."
D. "I have had a change in my vision recently." The nurse should identify that hydroxychloroquine is an antimalarial medication used to treat rheumatoid arthritis. Clients who take hydroxychloroquine in high doses are at risk for developing retinopathy, which can be irreversible and cause blindness.
A nurse is teaching a client about the adverse effects of omeprazole. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "If I experience severe diarrhea, I will call my doctor." B. "Pneumonia is associated with long-term use of this medication." C. "I will need to take this medication with food." D. "I should take vitamin B12 while using this medication."
A. "If I experience severe diarrhea, I will call my doctor."
A nurse is educating a client with urethritis who has a new prescription for oral erythromycin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? A. "Report persistent diarrhea to the provider." B. "Take this medication with a full glass of milk." C. "Some people who take erythromycin experience vision loss." D. "Antacids will reduce the extent of absorption of this medication."
A. "Report persistent diarrhea to the provider." Although gastrointestinal disturbances are the most common adverse effects of erythromycin, clients should report persistent or severe gastrointestinal reactions to the provider. Erythromycin can cause superinfection of the bowel because it destroys some sensitive flora in the gastrointestinal system
A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving gentamicin IM and has a new prescription to obtain gentamicin peak and trough levels. At which of the following times should the nurse plan to obtain a blood sample to evaluate the gentamicin peak? A. 1 hour after administering the IM injection B. Just before administering the IM injection C. 12 hours after the last IM injection D. 30 minutes after administering the IM injection
A. 1 hour after administering the IM injection Timing is important when drawing blood samples for aminoglycoside levels. The nurse should obtain blood samples for peak levels 1 hour after administering an IM injection or 30 minutes after completing an IV infusion.
A nurse is teaching a client who has chemotherapy-induced anemia and a prescription for epoetin alfa. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings as an adverse effect of epoetin alpha? A. Hypertension B. Leukocytosis C. Bone pain D. Neutropenia
A. Hypertension The nurse should instruct the client to report hypertension, which is an adverse effect of epoetin alfa. Other adverse effects can include headaches, seizures, heart failure, and thromboembolic events related to increased hemoglobin levels.
A nurse is assessing a child who has acute lymphocytic leukemia and is receiving vincristine sulfate. Which of the following findings is the nurse's priority? A. Paresthesia B. Alopecia C. Stomatitis D. Constipation
A. Paresthesia The greatest risk to this client is neurotoxicity. Vincristine, a cell-cycle specific chemotherapy agent, interrupts cellular reproduction at mitosis and can cause neurotoxicity. An early finding with neurotoxicity is paresthesia (numbing) of the peripheral extremities.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for doxycycline. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects? A. Photosensitivity B. Constipation C. Ototoxicity D. Blurred vision
A. Photosensitivity An adverse effect of doxycycline, a tetracycline antibiotic, is photosensitivity. This makes skin react abnormally to light, especially ultraviolet radiation or sunlight. Prevention involves avoiding direct exposure to sunlight and ultraviolet light, wearing protective clothing outdoors, and using sunscreen.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who had a kidney transplant and has a prescription for oral cyclosporine. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I will be able to stop taking this medication within 6 months after my surgery." B. "I am likely to develop higher blood pressure while taking this medication." C. "I am likely to lose my hair while taking this medication." D. "I am taking this medication to boost my immune system."
B. "I am likely to develop higher blood pressure while taking this medication." Half the clients who take cyclosporine develop a 10% to 15% increase in blood pressure and might need to start antihypertensive therapy.
A nurse is teaching a client about taking tetracycline PO. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? A. "Take this medication on a full stomach." B. "Limit your consumption of dairy products while taking this medicine." C. "Take the medication with your regular iron supplement." D. "Take antacids if you have an upset stomach from using tetracycline."
B. "Limit your consumption of dairy products while taking this medicine." The nurse should tell the client to avoid or limit the consumption of dairy products while taking tetracycline. An interval of at least 2 hours should separate tetracycline ingestion and the ingestion of products that can chelate this medication such as milk or calcium.
A nurse is caring for a client who has trichomoniasis and a prescription for metronidazole. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the client about the treatment plan? A. "Your partner needs to be cultured and be treated with metronidazole only if his cultures are positive." B. "You and your partner need to take the medication and use a condom during intercourse until cultures are negative." C. "If both you and your partner are treated simultaneously, you may continue to engage in sexual intercourse." D. "Only you will need to take the metronidazole, but you should not have intercourse until your culture is negative."
B. "You and your partner need to take the medication and use a condom during intercourse until cultures are negative." Trichomoniasis can be treated easily with metronidazole. However, for the treatment to work, it is important to make sure both sexual partners receive treatment to prevent reinfection. Instruct the client to use condoms during sexual intercourse while being treated.
A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of herpes zoster. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications? A. Zoster vaccine B. Acyclovir C. Amoxicillin D. Infliximab
B. Acyclovir The nurse should anticipate a prescription for acyclovir, an antiviral medication that inhibits replication of the virus that causes herpes zoster.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a positive tuberculin skin test and is beginning a prescription for isoniazid. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored while the client is taking isoniazid? A. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone level (TSH) B. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) C. Potassium D. Sodium
B. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) Isoniazid can be toxic to the liver. Therefore, it is important to monitor liver enzymes such as AST during therapy with isoniazid. In addition, the nurse should instruct the client to notify the provider of jaundice, nausea, dark-colored urine, or other findings indicating hepatitis.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV famotidine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse report to the provider immediately? A. Nausea B. Bloody stools C. Drowsiness D. Headache
B. Bloody stools the nurse should determine that the priority finding is bloody stools because adverse effects of treatment with famotidine might include blood dyscrasias (e.g. thrombocytopenia), which can lead to bleeding. This finding should be reported to the provider immediately.
A nurse is assessing a client who has AIDS and is taking zidovudine. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider? A. Nausea and vomiting B. Decreased hemoglobin C. Decreased appetite D. Anxiety
B. Decreased hemoglobin Zidovudine can cause severe anemia and neutropenia from bone marrow suppression, resulting in hematologic toxicity.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of oral candidiasis after taking tetracycline for 7 days. The nurse should recognize that candidiasis is a manifestation of which of the following adverse effects? A. Allergic response B. Superinfection C. Renal toxicity D. Hepatotoxicity
B. Superinfection A superinfection can develop from fungal overgrowth due to the antibacterial effect of tetracycline. The nurse should monitor the client for manifestations of a superinfection such as soreness of the mouth and a swollen tongue.
A nurse is teaching a client who has tuberculosis about a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I should take this medication with food." B. "I need to take a B-complex vitamin while using this medication." C. "I can expect this medication to turn my skin orange." D. "I can expect this medication to make my vision blurry."
C. "I can expect this medication to turn my skin orange." The nurse should instruct the client to expect the skin and urine to turn a reddish-orange color while taking rifampin.
A nurse is monitoring a client who received diphenoxylate-atropine. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate to the nurse that the medication has been effective? A. "I feel a little drowsy with this medication." B. "I am now drinking much more water." C. "I have not had a bowel movement today." D. "I no longer feel chest tightness."
C. "I have not had a bowel movement today." The nurse should identify that diphenoxylate-atropine is an opioid used to treat diarrhea. The therapeutic response of this medication is a decrease in the frequency of watery stools due to reduced motility of the intestinal lining.
A nurse is teaching a client who is in the third trimester of pregnancy and has herpes genitalis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. "Clean the lesions twice a day with hydrogen peroxide." B. "Apply a hot compress to the affected areas." C. "Talk with your doctor about a prescription for acyclovir to treat your symptoms." D. "Expect to receive penicillin prior to delivery."
C. "Talk with your doctor about a prescription for acyclovir to treat your symptoms." Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that helps reduce the manifestations of a genital herpes simplex infection. However, topical acyclovir is a pregnancy risk category C medication, so the provider and the client should weigh the risks and benefits of this therapy
A nurse is caring for a 4-month-old child who has acute otitis media and a fever of 38.3°C (101°F). Which of the following medications should the nurse administer? A. Diphenhydramine B. Furosemide C. Amoxicillin D. Ibuprofen
C. Amoxicillin A child who has acute otitis media should take an antibiotic to help alleviate the infection.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has anemia and a new prescription for epoetin alfa. Which of the following pieces of information should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Hospitalization is required when administering each treatment. B. The maximum effect of the medication will occur in 6 months. C. Hypertension is a common adverse effect of this medication. D. Blood transfusions are needed with each treatment.
C. Hypertension is a common adverse effect of this medication. A common adverse effect of epoetin alfa is hypertension because of the rise in the production of erythrocytes and other blood cell types. Epoetin alfa is a synthetic version of human erythropoietin. Epoetin alfa is used to treat anemia associated with kidney disease or medication therapy. It increases and maintains the red blood cell level.
A nurse is monitoring a client with pneumonia who has received penicillin G intramuscularly (IM). Which of the following findings should the nurse plan to evaluate first? A. Pain at the injection site B. Prolonged motor dysfunction C. Laryngeal edema D. Temperature 37.6°C (99.7°F)
C. Laryngeal edema When using the urgent vs nonurgent approach to client care, the nurse should determine that the priority finding is laryngeal edema, which can indicate the client is experiencing an allergic reaction to penicillin G. The nurse should also consider that the client is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction, which can be life-threatening. Anaphylaxis is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction that requires the primary treatment of epinephrine in addition to respiratory support.
A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about contraindications to ceftriaxone. A severe allergy to which of the following medications is a contraindication to ceftriaxone? A. Gentamicin B. Clindamycin C. Piperacillin D. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim
C. Piperacillin Clients who have a severe allergy to piperacillin, which is a penicillin, can have a cross-sensitivity reaction to ceftriaxone, a third-generation cephalosporin. Ceftriaxone is contraindicated for a client who has an allergy to cephalosporins or a severe allergy to penicillin.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney failure with an AV fistula for hemodialysis and a new prescription for epoetin alfa. Which of the following therapeutic effects of epoetin alfa should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Reduces blood pressure B. Inhibits clotting of fistula C. Promotes RBC production D. Stimulates growth of neutrophils
C. Promotes RBC production Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis in the bone marrow to increase RBC production and reduce anemia. Anemia is common in clients who have chronic kidney failure since erythropoietin is produced by the kidney.
A nurse is reviewing laboratory reports for a client who has Clostridium difficile infection and is receiving vancomycin. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider before administering the next dose? A. Hematocrit 46% B. Serum glucose 110 mg/dL C. Serum creatinine 2.5 mg/dL D. Serum potassium 4.8 mEq/L
C. Serum creatinine 2.5 mg/dL Vancomycin is nephrotoxic and can result in renal failure, which is indicated by elevated levels of creatinine above the expected reference range of 0.5 to 1.3 mg/dL. The nurse should report this laboratory value to the provider prior to administering any further doses of the medication.
A nurse is administering ciprofloxacin and phenazopyridine to a client who has a severe urinary tract infection (UTI). The client asks why both medications are needed. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? A. "Phenazopyridine decreases the adverse effects of ciprofloxacin hydrochloride." B. "Combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin hydrochloride shortens the course of therapy." C. "The use of phenazopyridine allows the doctor to prescribe a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin hydrochloride." D. "Ciprofloxacin hydrochloride treats the infection, and phenazopyridine treats pain."
D. "Ciprofloxacin hydrochloride treats the infection, and phenazopyridine treats pain."
A nurse is teaching a client who is at 12 weeks gestation and has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? A. "Breastfeed your newborn to provide passive immunity." B. "Abstain from sexual intercourse throughout the pregnancy." C. "You will be in isolation after delivery." D. "You should continue to take zidovudine throughout the pregnancy."
D. "You should continue to take zidovudine throughout the pregnancy." The nurse should inform the client that taking prescription antiviral medication every day decreases the risk of transmitting HIV to her newborn.
A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving lactulose for cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory values related to this medication should indicate to the nurse that the treatment is effective? A. Increased aspartate aminotransferase (AST) B. Decreased alanine aminotransferase (ALT) C. Increased prothrombin time (PT) D. Decreased serum ammonia
D. Decreased serum ammonia The nurse should identify that lactulose is a laxative that can be used for chronic liver disorders such as cirrhosis. Lactulose improves the client's condition by decreasing ammonia levels through enhancing intestinal secretion of ammonia so that it can be eliminated from the body.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for amphotericin B. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypertension C. Constipation D. Nephrotoxicity
D. Nephrotoxicity Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication used to treat severe fungal infections; however, it can cause nephrotoxicity. The nurse should monitor the client's creatinine every 3 to 4 days and increase fluid intake. The dosage of amphotericin B should be reduced if the client's creatinine is 3.5 mg/dL or greater.ƒ
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has cirrhosis and a new prescription for lactulose. The nurse should instruct the client that lactulose has which of the following therapeutic effects? A. Increases blood pressure B. Prevents esophageal bleeding C. Decreases heart rate D. Reduces ammonia levels
D. Reduces ammonia levels Lactulose is a laxative that promotes the excretion of ammonia in a client who has hepatic encephalopathy from cirrhosis of the liver
A nurse is preparing to administer cisplatin IV to a client who has lung cancer. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings is an adverse effect of this medication? A. Hallucinations B. Pruritus C. Hand and foot syndrome D. Tinnitus
D. Tinnitus An adverse effect of cisplatin is ototoxicity, which can cause tinnitus.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I will need to take methotrexate, even if I'm in remission." B. "I'm thankful that this type of lupus only affects the skin." C. "Each day, I should apply a sunblock with a sun protection factor of 15." D. "A mild fever is common with SLE and usually does not require medical intervention."
A. "I will need to take methotrexate, even if I'm in remission." The nurse should inform the client that SLE is an autoimmune disorder characterized by exacerbations and remissions. It affects the skin, joints, organs, and any structure in the body that contains connective tissue. Methotrexate is an immunosuppressive medication given during remission to help prevent exacerbation. The medication is also given when exacerbations occur to reduce the severity of manifestations.
A nurse is planning to administer epoetin alfa to a client who has chronic kidney failure. Which of the following should the nurse plan to review prior to administering this medication? A. Blood pressure B. Temperature C. Blood glucose levels D. Total protein level
A. Blood pressure Epoetin alfa often causes hypertension, which can lead to stroke or other cardiovascular complications. The nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure and notify the provider about increases. A client who receives epoetin alfa frequently requires concurrent use of an antihypertensive medication.
A nurse in a community health clinic is assessing a new client who has prescriptions for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following disorders should the nurse expect the client to have? A. Tuberculosis B. Hypertension C. Diabetes D. Cirrhosis
A. Tuberculosis Isoniazid and rifampin are first-line antitubercular medications used to treat active tuberculosis. The medications are used in combination therapy.
A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking isoniazid and rifampin for 3 weeks for the treatment of active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). The client reports his urine is an orange color. Which of the following statements should the nurse make? A. "Stop taking the isoniazid for 3 days, and the discoloration should go away." B. "Rifampin can turn body fluids orange." C. "I'll make an appointment for you to see the provider this afternoon." D. "Isoniazid can cause bladder irritation."
B. "Rifampin can turn body fluids orange." Rifampin can cause body fluids, such as tears, sweat, saliva, and urine, to turn a reddish-orange color. The nurse should inform the client that this effect does not cause harm.
A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has received a liver transplant and has a prescription to transition from cyclosporine to tacrolimus. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? A. "Take both medications together for 72 hr and then stop taking the cyclosporine." B. "Stop taking the cyclosporine for 24 hr and then begin taking the tacrolimus." C. "Alternate taking the medications for 48 hr and then take only the tacrolimus." D. "If adverse reactions to the tacrolimus occur, stop taking it and restart the cyclosporine."
B. "Stop taking the cyclosporine for 24 hr and then begin taking the tacrolimus." The nurse should instruct the client that these medications should not be taken concurrently due to the increased risk of developing nephrotoxicity. The client should stop cyclosporine for 24 hours prior to beginning the tacrolimus prescription.
A nurse is teaching a client who had kidney transplant surgery about immunosuppressive medications. Which of the following adverse effects of these medications should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Increased urinary output B. Increased susceptibility to infection C. Increased hair loss D. Increased risk of autoimmune disorders
B. Increased susceptibility to infection Immunosuppressive medications such as cyclosporine increase the risk of infection. As the medication classification indicates, these medications impair immunity and adversely affect the client's ability to resist and fight infection.
A nurse is monitoring the laboratory values of a male client who has leukemia and is receiving weekly chemotherapy with methotrexate via IV infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider? A. BUN 18 mg/dL B. Platelets 78,000/mm^3 C. Hemoglobin 14.2 g/dL D. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 35 units/L
B. Platelets 78,000/mm^3 The nurse should monitor the platelet count of a client who is taking methotrexate because the medication can cause thrombocytopenia. This client's platelet count is very low and puts the client at risk of severe bleeding. The nurse should report this finding promptly to the provider.
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving IV gentamicin 3 times daily. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this medication? A. Hypoglycemia B. Proteinuria C. Nasal congestion D. Visual disturbances
B. Proteinuria Proteinuria is a manifestation of nephrotoxicity, an adverse effect of gentamicin. The nurse should monitor for oliguria and hematuria.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for sucralfate for a duodenal ulcer. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I should take this medication with my meals and at bedtime." B. "I should only have to take this medication for about 2 weeks." C. "I should wait at least 30 minutes before taking this medication after I take an antacid." D. "I should swallow these tablets whole."
C. "I should wait at least 30 minutes before taking this medication after I take an antacid." The nurse should recognize that antacids can raise the gastric pH above 4, which can interfere with the effects of sucralfate. To minimize these interactions, sucralfate should be taken at least 30 minutes apart from antacids.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a prescription for ciprofloxacin following exposure to anthrax. Which of the following statements by the client indicates that further teaching is required? A. "I will limit my intake of coffee, tea, and carbonated beverages." B. "I will wear a large-brim hat and long sleeves if I am out in the sun." C. "I will take the ciprofloxacin with an antacid if I get an upset stomach." D. "I will avoid taking ciprofloxacin along with dairy products."
C. "I will take the ciprofloxacin with an antacid if I get an upset stomach." Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic prescribed for a wide range of serious skin infections and is also effective against inhalation anthrax. Taking ciprofloxacin with antacids can impair the absorption of the medication, reducing its effectiveness.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic constipation and a new prescription for psyllium. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide? A. "This medication is for short-term use only." B. "You should eat a low-residual diet while taking this medication." C. "Mix this medication with water and follow with an additional glass of liquid." D. "The medication's adverse effects of stomach cramps and nausea will go away in time."
C. "Mix this medication with water and follow with an additional glass of liquid." The nurse should direct the client to administer the medication mixed in a full glass of water or juice followed by an additional glass of liquid. The client should also be instructed to increase intake of fluids to help decrease constipation.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a prescription for famotidine to treat a gastric ulcer. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? A. "This medication is more effective when taken on an empty stomach." B. "You should take this medication with an antacid for pain control." C. "This medication is less effective for people who smoke." D. "You should expect to experience dizziness when taking this medication."
C. "This medication is less effective for people who smoke." The nurse should instruct the client that smoking interferes with the effectiveness of famotidine. If a client taking famotidine smokes, the nurse should encourage the client to quit smoking or, if unable quit, to avoid smoking after the last dose of the day.
A nurse is teaching a client who has been taking an NSAID to treat rheumatoid arthritis. During the client's first month checkup, the provider prescribed methotrexate to be added to the medication regimen. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching about the purpose of this change in the client's medication? A. "Your current medication was not strong enough to manage this condition." B. "Once your blood levels of methotrexate are within the therapeutic range, the NSAID will be discontinued." C. "This medication was added to delay the disease progression." D. "Treating this disease with 2 medications will help protect you from becoming treatment-resistant."
C. "This medication was added to delay the disease progression." The nurse should inform the client that the provider prescribed methotrexate to be added to the medication regimen along with an NSAID to delay the progression of the disease and to delay joint damage or deformity that can result from the disease.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who had a bleeding duodenal ulcer and has been prescribed omeprazole. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? A. "You will need to take this medication for the next 6 months." B. "Taking this medication will decrease your risk of acquiring pneumonia." C. "You should take this medication before breakfast every day." D. "Watch for the serious adverse effects of tachycardia and heart palpitations while taking this medication."
C. "You should take this medication before breakfast every day." Clients who have active duodenal ulcer or gastric reflux disease should take omeprazole once daily before a meal (usually breakfast) because the medication is less effective when taken with food.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of pernicious anemia. The nurse should expect the client's provider to prescribe which of the following medications for this client? A. Ferrous sulfate B. Epoetin alfa C. Vitamin B12 D. Folic acid
C. Vitamin B12 The nurse should expect the client's provider to prescribe vitamin B12 for pernicious anemia.
A nurse is providing preoperative teaching to a client who is scheduled for arthroplasty in the next month and may require a blood transfusion. The client expresses concern about the risk of acquiring an infection from the blood transfusion. Which of the following statements should the nurse share with the client? A. "Ask your provider to prescribe epoetin before the surgery." B. "You should ask your provider about taking iron supplements prior to the surgery." C. "Ask a family member to donate blood for you." D. "Donate autologous blood before the surgery."
D. "Donate autologous blood before the surgery." Autologous blood transfusion is the collection and reinfusion of the client's blood. With preoperative autologous blood donation, the blood is drawn from the client 3 to 5 weeks before an elective surgical procedure and stored for transfusion at the time of the surgery. Autologous blood is the safest form of blood transfusion because exclusive use of a client's own blood eliminates exposure to a transfusion-transmitted infection.
