NURS 3110 - Exam 1 Lecture Questions

A patient is prescribed an antibiotic to treat a urinary tract infection. What statement by the patient indicated a need for further teaching? A) "I can stop the medication as soon as the symptoms have disappeared" B) "I will drink more fluids to help clear up the infection" C) "I will stop the medication and contact the doctor if I develop a rash" D) "I should immediately report vaginal itching or discharge"

A) "I can stop the medication as soon as the symptoms have disappeared"

The patient is ordered daily divided doses of gentamycin. The patient received an IV dose of gentamycin at 4:00 pm. When should the nurse obtain the peak level? A) 4:30 pm B) 5:00 pm C) 5:30 pm D) 6:00 pm

A) 4:30 pm

A nurse is preparing to administer epinephrine to a patient who is having a severe allergic reaction. Which rout of administration should the nurse used to provide the fastest and most complete absorption of epinephrine? A) Intravenous B) Intramuscular C) Subcutaneous D) Oral

A) Intravenous

When preparing to administer a sustained released capsule to a patient, the nurse understands that which of the following is true for sustained0release capsules? A) They are usually more costly than pills B) They are rapidly absorbed C) They need to be crushed for appropriate absorption to take place D) They need to be taken at regular intervals throughout the day

A) They are usually more costly than pills

Which statement about allergic reactions to penicillin does the nurse identify as true? A)Anaphylactic reactions occur more frequently with penicillins than with any other drug. B) Allergy to penicillin always increases over time. C) Benadryl is the drug of choice for anaphylaxis due to penicillin allergy. D) Patients allergic to penicillin are also allergic to vancomycin

A)Anaphylactic reactions occur more frequently with penicillins than with any other drug.

The nurse delegates the cleaning of an automatic blood pressure machine to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). The nurse should instruct the UAP to use which agent to clean the equipment? A) Hexachlorophene B) A disinfectant such as glutaraldehyde [Cidex Plus 28] C) An antiseptic, such as ethanol D) Povidone-iodine

B) A disinfectant such as gluteraldehye [Cidex Plus 28]

The nurse identifies which patient as being at highest risk for slow drug metabolism A) A 2 year old boy who is prescribed an oral antibiotic B) A 14 year old girl who takes 4 prescription drugs C) A 56 year old man who has chronic hepatic disease D) A 76 year old woman who has an elevated temperature

C) A 56 year old man who has chronic hepatic disease

Which patient does the nurse identify as most likely to need treatment with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Bactrim] for a period of 6 months? A) A female patient with acute pyelonephritis B) A male patient with acute prostatitis C) A female patient with recurring acute urinary tract infections D) A male patient with acute cystitis

C) A female patient with recurring acute urinary tract infections

The CDC recommends that before entering a patient's room, the nurse should do what? A) Wash hands with antibacterial soap and water B) Wash hands with nonantibacterial soap and water C) Alcohol based hand rub D) Wash hands with chlorhexidine and water

C) Alcohol based hand rub

When teaching a patient who has a gastric ulcer about cimetidine (a histamine H2 antagonist) therapy, the nurse should include which information about antagonists? A) An antagonist causes a chemical reaction in the stomach. B) An antagonist activates receptors in the stomach lining. C) An antagonist prevents receptor activation in the stomach. D) An antagonist improves receptor sensitivity in the stomach.

C) An Antagonist prevents receptor activation in the stomach

A patient is prescribed doxycycline [Vibramycin]. If the patient complains of gastric irritation, what should the nurse do? A) Instruct the patient to take the medication with milk. B) Tell the patient to take an antacid with the medication. C) Give the patient food, such as crackers or toast, with the medication. D) Have the patient stop the medication immediately and contact the healthcare provider.

C) Give the patient food, such as crackers or toast, with the medication.

A patient is prescribed cefazolin. It is most important for the nurse to teach the patient to avoid which substance while taking cefazolin? A) Warfarin B) Milk products C) Digitalis D) Alcohol

D) Alcohol

Which statement is true about BCG vaccine does the nurse identify as true? A) BCG is a live preparation of attenuated Mycobacterium bovis. B) BCG is routinely administered in the United States. C) BCG has no effect on tuberculin skin tests. D) BCG vaccine can be used to treat carcinoma of the bladder.

D) BCG vaccine can be used to treat carcinoma of the bladder.

It is most important for the nurse to avoid administering oral ciprofloxacin to this patient with which food? A) Bananas B) Baked chicken C) Grapefruit juice D) Milk

D) Milk

Which tetracycline may be administered with meals? A) Tetracycline B) Demeclocycline C) Doxycycline D) Minocycline

D) Minocycline

Digoxin has a half-life of 36 to 48 hours. Because of the length of the half-life, the nurse expects dosing to occur how often? A) 4 times per day B) 3 times per day C) 2 times per day D) Once a day

D) Once a day

A patient is prescribed vancomycin orally for antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis. The nurse will monitor the patient for what? A) Leukopenia B) "Red man" syndrome C) Liver impairment D) Ototoxicity

D) Ototoxicity

A prescriber states that a patient will need to receive penicillin intravenously. The nurse anticipates administering which drug? A) Penicillin V B) Procaine penicillin G C) Benzathine penicillin G D) Potassium penicillin G

D) Potassium penicillin G

Which information should the nurse include when teaching a patient about rifampin therapy? A) Oral contraceptives are safe to use with rifampin therapy. B) Contact your healthcare provider immediately if the color of your body fluids changes to reddish orange. C) Rifampin is safe to use in patients who have hepatic disease. (in general nothing is "safe" for these people) D) Rifampin may be administered intravenously.

D) Rifampin may be administered intravenously.

A patient is prescribed cefixime. The nurse should teach the patient to immediately report any signs of what? A) Milk intolerance B) Skin rash, hives, or itching C) Constipation, nausea, or vomiting D) Headache, contusions, or seizures

B) Skin rash, hives, or itching

A patient is prescribed acyclovir [Zovirax] by mouth. The nurse should assess the patient for which adverse effects associated with oral acyclovir therapy? A) Stomatitis and gastritis B) Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea C) Hives, difficulty breathing, and angioedema D) Tinnitus and decreased hearing

B) Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea (Taking medication with food - can help these side effects)

A patient with a history of a severe anaphylactic reaction to penicillin has an order to receive cephalosporin. What should the nurse do? A) Administer the cephalosporin as ordered. B) Contact the healthcare provider for a different antibiotic. C) Administer a test dose of cephalosporin to determine reactivity. D) Have an epinephrine dose available when administering the cephalosporin.

B) Contact the healthcare provider for a different antibiotic.

Which patient should receive prophylactic antibiotic therapy? A) A patient who is to have his teeth cleaned B) A patient who is scheduled for a hysterectomy C) A patient with a white blood cell count of 8000 cells/mm^3 D) A patient with a high fever without an identifiable cause

B) A patient who is scheduled for a hysterectomy

Which patient would most likely need intravenous antibiotic therapy to treat a urinary tract infection? A) A patient with an uncomplicated urinary tract infection caused by Escherichia coli B) A patient with pyelonephritis with symptoms of high fever, chills, and severe flank pain C) A patient with acute cystitis who complains of dysuria, frequency, and urgency D) A patient with acute bacterial prostatitis with a mild fever, chills, and nocturia

B) A patient with pyelonephritis with symptoms of high fever, chills, and severe flank pain

Which statement about drug agonists does the nurse identify as being true? A) An agonist makes physiologic processes go faster. B) An agonist exerts effects by causing receptor activation. C) An agonist has moderate intrinsic activity. D) An agonist is a dynamic component.

B) An agonist exerts effects by causing receptor activation.

Which statement about superinfections does the nurse identify as true? A) Superinfections are more common in patients treated with narrow-spectrum drugs B) Superinfection is defined as a new infection that appears during the course of treatment for a primary infection C) Superinfections are caused by viruses D) Superinfections are easy to treat

B) Superinfection is defined as a new infection that appears during the course of treatment for a primary infection

The nurse is reviewing lab values form a patient who has been prescribed gentamicin. To prevent ototoxicity, it is most important for the nurse to monitor which value(s)? A) Serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen levels B) Trough drug levels of gentamicin C) Peak drug levels of gentamicin D) Serum alanine aminotransferase and aspartate amino transferase levels

B) Trough drug levels of gentamicin Trough levels must be sufficiently low to reduce exposure of sensitive sensory hearing cells. The risk of ototoxicity is related primarily to persistently elevated trough drug levels rather than to excessive peak levels

Which information should the nurse include when teaching a patient about isoniazid (INH) therapy? A) Tubercle bacilli cannot develop resistance to isoniazid during treatment. B) Isoniazid is administered intravenously. C) An adverse effect of isoniazid therapy is peripheral neuropathy (B Vitamins), which can be reversed with pyridoxine. D) The dose of isoniazid should be lowered if the patient is also taking phenytoin.

C) An adverse effect of isoniazid therapy is peripheral neuropathy (B Vitamins), which can be reversed with pyridoxine.

Which of the following terms best describes a higher-than-normal white blood cell count? A) Neutrophilia B) Leukopenia C) Leukocytosis D) Granulocytosis

C) Leukocytosis

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravenous gentamicin for a severe bacterial infection. Which assessment finding by the nurse indicates the patient is experiencing an adverse effect of gentamycin therapy? A) Blurred vision B) Hand tremors C) Urinary frequency D) Tinnitus

D) Tinnitus - start of hearing loss, severe ringing in the ears

Before administering erythromycin to a patient for an upper respiratory tract infection, it is most important for the nurse to determine if the patient is also prescribed which drug? A) Guaifenesin [Guiatuss] B) Hydrocodone [Vicodin] C) Nitroglycerin [Tridil] D) Verapamil [Calan]

D) Verapamil [Calan] (QT prolongation and sudden cardiac death have occurred in patients taking CYP3A4 inhibitors, such as calcium channel blockers (verapamil), azole antifungal drugs, HIV-protease inhibitors, and nefazodone.)

A healthcare worker has been exposed to B. anthracis on the hand. What is the most appropriate action by the healthcare worker? A) Apply an alcohol-based hand rub to the hands B) Start a systemic-based anti-infective drug C) Soak the hand in povidone-iodine D) Wash both hands with soap and water

D) Wash both hands with soap ad water

The patient is being discharged with continued ciprofloxacin therapy. When providing discharge teaching, the nurse should advise the patient to call the healthcare provider immediately if what develops? A) Pain in the heel of the foot B) Nausea C) Diarrhea D) Headache

A) pain in the heel of the foot

Which vaccine contains live viruses that are weakened or attenuated? A) Hep B B) MMR C) Dtap D) Hemophilus influenzae type B (HIB)

B) MMR

A patient is diagnosed with C. difficile infection. The nurse anticipates administering which medication? A) Daptomycin B) Metronidazole C) Rifampin D) Rifaximin

B) Metronidazole

Before administering gentamycin, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for a history of what? A) Hypertension B) Myasthenia gravis C) Diabetes mellitus D) Asthma

B) Myasthenia gravis - neuromuscular disorder of unknown ideology, think of it in the same way you think of a patient with a neuromuscular block for pain

A patient has been prescribed oral ciprofloxacin [Cipro] for a skin infection. When administering the medication, it is most important for the nurse to do what? A) Monitor for a decrease in the prothrombin time (PT) if the patient is also taking warfarin [Coumadin]. B) Withhold antacids and milk products for 6 hours before (in practice more like 2-4 hours) or 2 hours afterward. C) Inform the healthcare provider if the patient has a history of asthma. D) Assess the skin for Stevens-Johnson syndrome.

B) Withhold antacids and milk products for 6 hours before (in practice more like 2-4 hours) or 2 hours afterward.

A patient has been prescribed ciprofloxacin for treatment of a urinary tract infection with Escherichia coli. Before administering the drug, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for a history of what? A) Hypertension B) Diabetes mellitus C) Myasthenia gravis D) Seasonal allergies

C) Myasthenia gravis

Which drug does the nurse identify as a urinary tract antiseptic? A) Ciprofloxacin B) Ceftriaxone C) Nitrofurantoin D) Ceftazidime

C) Nitrofurantoin

Fluoroquinolones should be discontinued immediately if what happens? A) Nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea is experienced. B) Dizziness, headache, or confusion occurs. C) Tendon pain or inflammation develops. D) Theophylline is prescribed for asthma.

C) Tendon pain or inflammation develops.