Nursing Care & Management of Burns Ch. 46, 47, 33

Silver sulfadiazine is prescribed for a client with a burn injury. Which laboratory finding requires the need for follow-up by the nurse? 1. Glucose level of 99 mg/dL (5.65 mmol/L) 2. Magnesium level of 1.5 mEq/L (0.75 mmol/L) 3. Platelet level of 300,000 mm3 (300 × 109/L) 4. White blood cell count of 3000 mm3 (3.0 × 109/L)

Rationale: Silver sulfadiazine is used for the treatment of burn injuries. Adverse effects of this medication include rash and itching, blue-green or gray skin discoloration, leukopenia, and interstitial nephritis. The nurse should monitor a complete blood count, particularly the white blood cells, frequently for the client taking this medication. If leukopenia develops, the health care provider is notified and the medication is usually discontinued. The white blood cell count noted in option 4 is indicative of leukopenia. The other laboratory values are not specific to this medication, and are also within normal limits.

The mother of a 3-year-old child arrives at a clinic and tells the nurse that the child has been scratching the skin continuously and has developed a rash. The nurse assesses the child and suspects the presence of scabies. The nurse bases this suspicion on which finding noted on assessment of the child's skin? 1. Fine grayish red lines 2. Purple-colored lesions 3. Thick, honey-colored crusts 4. Clusters of fluid-filled vesicles

1. Fine grayish red lines Rationale: Scabies is a parasitic skin disorder caused by an infestation of Sarcoptes scabiei (itch mite). Scabies appears as burrows or fine, grayish red, threadlike lines. They may be difficult to see if they are obscured by excoriation and inflammation. Purple-colored lesions may indicate various disorders, including systemic conditions. Thick, honey-colored crusts are characteristic of impetigo or secondary infection in eczema. Clusters of fluid-filled vesicles are seen in herpesvirus infection.

The nurse is applying a topical corticosteroid to a client with eczema. The nurse should apply the medication to which body area? Select all that apply. 1. Back 2. Axilla 3. Eyelids 4. Soles of the feet 5. Palms of the hands

1. Back 4. Soles of the feet 5. Palms of the hands Rationale: Topical corticosteroids can be absorbed into the systemic circulation. Absorption is higher from regions where the skin is especially permeable (scalp, axilla, face, eyelids, neck, perineum, genitalia), and lower from regions where permeability is poor (back, palms, soles). The nurse should avoid areas of higher absorption to prevent systemic absorption.

A burn client is receiving treatments of topical mafenide acetate to the site of injury. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which finding indicates that a systemic effect has occurred? 1. Hyperventilation 2. Elevated blood pressure 3. Local rash at the burn site 4. Local pain at the burn site

1. Hyperventilation Rationale: Mafenide acetate is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and can suppress renal excretion of acid, thereby causing acidosis. Clients receiving this treatment should be monitored for signs of an acid-base imbalance hyperventilation). If this occurs, the medication will probably be discontinued for 1 to 2 days. Options 3 and 4 describe local rather than systemic effects. An elevated blood pressure may be expected from the pain that occurs with a burn injury.

The clinic nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client and notes that the client is taking azelaic acid. The nurse determines that which client complaint may be associated with use of this medication? 1. Itching 2. Euphoria 3. Drowsiness 4. Frequent urination

1. Itching Rationale: Azelaic acid is a topical medication used to treat mild to moderate acne. Adverse effects include burning, itching, stinging, redness of the skin, and hypopigmentation of the skin in clients with a dark complexion. The effects noted in the other options are not specifically associated with this medication.

The nurse is preparing to care for a burn client scheduled for an escharotomy procedure being performed for a third-degree circumferential arm burn. The nurse understands that which finding is the anticipated therapeutic outcome of the escharotomy? 1. Return of distal pulses 2. Brisk bleeding from the site 3. Decreasing edema formation 4. Formation of granulation tissue

1. Return of distal pulses Rationale: Escharotomies are performed to relieve the compartment syndrome that can occur when edema forms under nondistensible eschar in a circumferential third-degree burn. The escharotomy releases the tourniquet-like compression around the arm. Escharotomies are performed through avascular eschar to subcutaneous fat. Although bleeding may occur from the site, it is considered a complication rather than an anticipated therapeutic outcome. Usually, direct pressure with a bulky dressing and elevation control the bleeding, but occasionally an artery is damaged and may require ligation. Escharotomy does not affect the formation of edema. Formation of granulation tissue is not the intent of an escharotomy.

The nurse caring for a child who sustained a burn injury plans care based on which pediatric considerations associated with this injury? Select all that apply. 1. Scarring is less severe in a child than in an adult. 2. A delay in growth may occur after a burn injury. 3. An immature immune system presents an increased risk of infection for infants and young children. 4. Fluid resuscitation is unnecessary unless the burned area is more than 25% of the total body surface area. 5. The lower proportion of body fluid to body mass in a child increases the risk of cardiovascular problems. 6. Infants and young children are at increased risk for protein and calorie deficiency because they have smaller muscle mass and less body fat than adults.

1. Scarring is less severe in a child than in an adult. 2. A delay in growth may occur after a burn injury. 3. An immature immune system presents an increased risk of infection for infants and young children. 6. Infants and young children are at increased risk for protein and calorie deficiency because they have smaller muscle mass and less body fat than adults. Rationale: Pediatric considerations in the care of a burn victim include the following: Scarring is more severe in a child than in an adult. A delay in growth may occur after a burn injury. An immature immune system presents an increased risk of infection for infants and young children. The higher proportion of body fluid to body mass in a child increases the risk of cardiovascular problems. Burns involving more than 10% of total body surface area require some form of fluid resuscitation. Infants and young children are at increased risk for protein and calorie deficiencies because they have smaller muscle mass and less body fat than adults.

The clinic nurse is reviewing the health care provider 's prescription for a child who has been diagnosed with scabies. Lindane has been prescribed for the child. The nurse questions the prescription if which is noted in the child's record? 1. The child is 18 months old. 2. The child is being bottle-fed. 3. A sibling is using lindane for the treatment of scabies. 4. The child has a history of frequent respiratory infections.

1. The child is 18 months old. Rationale: Lindane is a pediculicide product that may be prescribed to treat scabies. It is contraindicated for children younger than 2 years because they have more permeable skin, and high systemic absorption may occur, placing the children at risk for central nervous system toxicity and seizures. Lindane also is used with caution in children between the ages of 2 and 10 years. Siblings and other household members should be treated simultaneously. Options 2 and 4 are unrelated to the use of lindane. Lindane is not recommended for use by a breastfeeding woman because the medication is secreted into breast milk.

Salicylic acid is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of psoriasis. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which finding indicates the presence of systemic toxicity from this medication? 1. Tinnitus 2. Diarrhea 3. Constipation 4. Decreased respirations

1. Tinnitus Rationale: Salicylic acid is absorbed readily through the skin, and systemic toxicity (salicylism) can result. Symptoms include tinnitus, dizziness, hyperpnea, and psychological disturbances. Constipation and diarrhea are not associated with salicylism.

A client is being admitted to the hospital for treatment of acute cellulitis of the lower left leg. During the admission assessment, the nurse expects to note which finding? 1. An inflammation of the epidermis only 2. A skin infection of the dermis and underlying hypodermis 3. An acute superficial infection of the dermis and lymphatics 4. An epidermal and lymphatic infection caused by Staphylococcus

2. A skin infection of the dermis and underlying hypodermis Rationale: Cellulitis is an infection of the dermis and underlying hypodermis that results in a deep red erythema without sharp borders and spreads widely throughout tissue spaces. The skin is erythematous, edematous, tender, and sometimes nodular. Erysipelas is an acute, superficial, rapidly spreading inflammation of the dermis and lymphatics. The infection is not superficial and extends deeper than the epidermis.

A client is brought to the emergency department with partial-thickness burns to his face, neck, arms, and chest after trying to put out a car fire. The nurse should implement which nursing actions for this client? Select all that apply. 1. Restrict fluids. 2. Assess for airway patency. 3. Administer oxygen as prescribed. 4. Place a cooling blanket on the client. 5. Elevate extremities if no fractures are present. 6. Prepare to give oral pain medication as prescribed.

2. Assess for airway patency. 3. Administer oxygen as prescribed. 5. Elevate extremities if no fractures are present. The primary goal for a burn injury is to maintain a patent airway, administer intravenous (IV) fluids to prevent hypovolemic shock, and preserve vital organ functioning. Therefore, the priority actions are to assess for airway patency and maintain a patent airway. The nurse then prepares to administer oxygen. Oxygen is necessary to perfuse vital tissues and organs. An IV line should be obtained and fluid resuscitation started. The extremities are elevated to assist in preventing shock and decrease fluid moving to the extremities, especially in the burn-injured upper extremities. The client is kept warm since the loss of skin integrity causes heat loss. The client is placed on NPO (nothing by mouth) status because of the altered gastrointestinal function that occurs as a result of a burn injury.

The nurse is caring for a client who suffered an inhalation injury from a wood stove. The carbon monoxide blood report reveals a level of 12%. Based on this level, the nurse would anticipate noting which sign in the client? 1. Coma 2. Flushing 3. Dizziness 4. Tachycardia

2. Flushing Rationale: Carbon monoxide levels between 11% and 20% result in flushing, headache, decreased visual activity, decreased cerebral functioning, and slight breathlessness; levels of 21% to 40% result in nausea, vomiting, dizziness, tinnitus, vertigo, confusion, drowsiness, pale to reddish-purple skin, and tachycardia; levels of 41% to 60% result in seizure and coma; and levels higher than 60% result in death.

A client returns to the clinic for follow-up treatment following a skin biopsy of a suspicious lesion performed 1 week ago. The biopsy report indicates that the lesion is a melanoma. The nurse understands that melanoma has which characteristics? Select all that apply. 1. Lesion is painful to touch. 2. Lesion is highly metastatic. 3. Lesion is a nevus that has changes in color. 4. Skin under the lesion is reddened and warm to touch. 5. Lesion occurs in body area exposed to outdoor sunlight.

2. Lesion is highly metastatic. 3. Lesion is a nevus that has changes in color. Rationale: Melanomas are pigmented malignant lesions originating in the melanin-producing cells of the epidermis. Melanomas cause changes in a nevus (mole), including color and borders. This skin cancer is highly metastatic, and a person's survival depends on early diagnosis and treatment. Melanomas are not painful or accompanied by sign of inflammation. Although sun exposure increases the risk of melanoma, lesions are most commonly found on the upper back and legs and on the soles and palms of persons with dark skin.

The clinic nurse notes that the health care provider has documented a diagnosis of herpes zoster (shingles) in the client's chart. Based on an understanding of the cause of this disorder, the nurse determines that this definitive diagnosis was made by which diagnostic test? 1. Positive patch test 2. Positive culture results 3. Abnormal biopsy results 4. Wood's light examination indicative of infection

2. Positive culture results Rationale: With the classic presentation of herpes zoster, the clinical examination is diagnostic. However, a viral culture of the lesion provides the definitive diagnosis. Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by a reactivation of the varicellazoster virus, the virus that causes chickenpox. A patch test is a skin test that involves the administration of an allergen to the surface of the skin to identify specific allergies. A biopsy would provide a cytological examination of tissue. In a Wood's light examination, the skin is viewed under ultraviolet light to identify superficial infections of the skin.

Isotretinoin is prescribed for a client with severe acne. Before the administration of this medication, the nurse anticipates that which laboratory test will be prescribed? 1. Potassium level 2. Triglyceride level 3. Hemoglobin A1C 4. Total cholesterol level

2. Triglyceride level Rationale: Isotretinoin can elevate triglyceride levels. Blood triglyceride levels should be measured before treatment and periodically thereafter until the effect on the triglycerides has been evaluated. There is no indication that isotretinoin affects potassium, hemoglobin A1C, or total cholesterol levels.

The nurse is administering fluids intravenously as prescribed to a client who sustained superficial partial-thickness burn injuries of the back and legs. In evaluating the adequacy of fluid resuscitation, the nurse understands that which assessment would provide the most reliable indicator for determining the adequacy? 1. Vital signs 2. Urine output 3. Mental status 4. Peripheral pulses

2. Urine output Rationale: Successful or adequate fluid resuscitation in the client is signaled by stable vital signs, adequate urine output, palpable peripheral pulses, and clear sensorium. However, the most reliable indicator for determining adequacy of fluid resuscitation, especially in a client with burns, is the urine output. For an adult, the hourly urine volume should be 30 to 50 mL.

The health education nurse provides instructions to a group of clients regarding measures that will assist in preventing skin cancer. Which instructions should the nurse provide? Select all that apply. 1. Sunscreen should be applied every 8 hours. 2. Use sunscreen when participating in outdoor activities. 3. Wear a hat, opaque clothing, and sunglasses when in the sun. 4. Avoid sun exposure in the late afternoon and early evening hours. 5. Examine your body monthly for any lesions that may be suspicious.

2. Use sunscreen when participating in outdoor activities. 3. Wear a hat, opaque clothing, and sunglasses when in the sun. 5. Examine your body monthly for any lesions that may be suspicious. Rationale: The client should be instructed to avoid sun exposure between the hours of brightest sunlight: 10 a.m. and 4 p.m. Sunscreen, a hat, opaque clothing, and sunglasses should be worn for outdoor activities. The client should be instructed to examine the body monthly for the appearance of any cancerous or any precancerous lesions. Sunscreen should be reapplied every 2 to 3 hours and after swimming or sweating; otherwise, the duration of protection is reduced.

The school nurse has provided an instructional session about impetigo to parents of the children attending the school. Which statement, if made by a parent, indicates a need for further instruction? 1. "It is extremely contagious." 2. "It is most common in humid weather." 3. "Lesions most often are located on the arms and chest." 4. "It might show up in an area of broken skin, such as an insect bite."

3. "Lesions most often are located on the arms and chest." Rationale: Impetigo is a contagious bacterial infection of the skin caused by β-hemolytic streptococci or staphylococci, or both. Impetigo is most common during hot, humid summer months. Impetigo may begin in an area of broken skin, such as an insect bite or atopic dermatitis. Impetigo is extremely contagious. Lesions usually are located around the mouth and nose, but may be present on the hands and extremities.

A client calls the emergency department and tells the nurse that he came directly into contact with poison ivy shrubs. The client tells the nurse that he cannot see anything on the skin and asks the nurse what to do. The nurse should make which response? 1. "Come to the emergency department." 2. "Apply calamine lotion immediately to the exposed skin areas." 3. "Take a shower immediately, lathering and rinsing several times." 4. "It is not necessary to do anything if you cannot see anything on your skin."

3. "Take a shower immediately, lathering and rinsing several times."

Silver sulfadiazine is prescribed for a client with a partial-thickness burn and the nurse provides teaching about the medication. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching about the treatments? 1. "The medication is an antibacterial." 2. "The medication will help heal the burn." 3. "The medication is likely to cause stinging every time it is applied." 4. "The medication should be applied directly to the wound."

3. "The medication is likely to cause stinging every time it is applied." Rationale: Silver sulfadiazine is an antibacterial that has a broad spectrum of activity against gram-negative bacteria, gram-positive bacteria, and yeast. It is applied directly to the wound to assist in healing. It does not cause stinging when applied.

An adult client was burned in an explosion. The burn initially affected the client's entire face (anterior half of the head) and the upper half of the anterior torso, and there were circumferential burns to the lower half of both arms. The client's clothes caught on fire, and the client ran, causing subsequent burn injuries to the posterior surface of the head and the upper half of the posterior torso. Using the rule of nines, what would be the extent of the burn injury? 1. 18% 2. 24% 3. 36% 4. 48%

3. 36% Rationale: According to the rule of nines, with the initial burn, the anterior half of the head equals 4.5%, the upper half of the anterior torso equals 9%, and the lower half of both arms equals 9%. The subsequent burn included the posterior half of the head, equaling 4.5%, and the upper half of posterior torso, equaling 9%. This totals 36%.

The nurse is monitoring a child with burns during treatment for burn shock. Which assessment provides the most accurate guide to determine the adequacy of fluid resuscitation? 1. Skin turgor 2. Level of edema at burn site 3. Adequacy of capillary filling 4. Amount of fluid tolerated in 24 hours

3. Adequacy of capillary filling Rationale: Parameters such as vital signs (especially heart rate), urinary output volume, adequacy of capillary filling, and state of sensorium determine adequacy of fluid resuscitation. Although options 1, 2, and 4 may provide some information related to fluid volume, in a burn injury, and from the options provided, adequacy of capillary filling is most accurate.

The nurse is caring for a client following an autograft and grafting to a burn wound on the right knee. What would the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for the client? 1. Out-of-bed activities 2. Bathroom privileges 3. Immobilization of the affected leg 4. Placing the affected leg in a dependent position

3. Immobilization of the affected leg Rationale: Autografts placed over joints or on the lower extremities after surgery often are elevated and immobilized for 3 to 7 days. This period of immobilization allows the autograft time to adhere to the wound bed. Getting out of bed, going to the bathroom, and placing the grafted leg dependent would put stress on the grafted wound.

A client is undergoing fluid replacement after being burned on 20% of her body 12 hours ago. The nursing assessment reveals a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 110 beats/minute, and a urine output of 20 mL over the past hour. The nurse reports the findings to the health care provider (HCP) and anticipates which prescription? 1. Transfusing 1 unit of packed red blood cells 2. Administering a diuretic to increase urine output 3. Increasing the amount of intravenous (IV) lactated Ringer 's solution administered per hour 4. Changing the IV lactated Ringer 's solution to one that contains 5% dextrose in water

3. Increasing the amount of intravenous (IV) lactated Ringer 's solution administered per hour Rationale: Fluid management during the first 24 hours following a burn injury generally includes the infusion of (usually) lactated Ringer 's solution. Lactated Ringer 's solution is an isotonic solution that contains electrolytes that will maintain fluid volume in the circulation. Fluid resuscitation is determined by urine output and hourly urine output should be at least 30 mL/hour. The client's urine output is indicative of insufficient fluid resuscitation, which places the client at risk for inadequate perfusion of the brain, heart, kidneys, and other body organs. Therefore, the HCP would prescribe an increase in the amount of IV lactated Ringer 's solution administered per hour. There is nothing in the situation that calls for blood replacement, which is not used for fluid therapy for burn injuries. Administering a diuretic would not correct the problem because fluid replacement is needed. Diuretics promote the removal of the circulating volume, thereby further compromising the inadequate tissue perfusion. Intravenous 5% dextrose solution is isotonic before administered but is hypotonic once the dextrose is metabolized. Hypotonic solutions are not appropriate for fluid resuscitation of a client with significant burn injuries.

The nurse manager is planning the clinical assignments for the day. Which staff members cannot be assigned to care for a client with herpes zoster? Select all that apply. 1. The nurse who never had roseola 2. The nurse who never had mumps 3. The nurse who never had chickenpox 4. The nurse who never had German measles 5. The nurse who never received the varicella-zoster vaccine

3. The nurse who never had chickenpox 5. The nurse who never received the varicella-zoster vaccine Rationale: The nurses who have not had chickenpox or did not receive the varicella-zoster vaccine are susceptible to the herpes zoster virus and should not be assigned to care for the client with herpes zoster. Nurses who have not contracted roseola, mumps, or rubella are not necessarily susceptible to herpes zoster. Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by a reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the causative virus of chickenpox. Individuals who have not been exposed to the varicella-zoster virus or who did not receive the varicella-zoster vaccine are susceptible to chickenpox. Health care workers who are unsure of their immune status should have varicella titers done before exposure to a person with herpes zoster.

A client with severe acne is seen in the clinic and the health care provider (HCP) prescribes isotretinoin. The nurse reviews the client's medication record and would contact the HCP if the client is also taking which medication? 1. Digoxin 2. Phenytoin 3. Vitamin A 4. Furosemide

3. Vitamin A Rationale: Isotretinoin is a metabolite of vitamin A and can produce generalized intensification of isotretinoin toxicity. Because of the potential for increased toxicity, vitamin A supplements should be discontinued before isotretinoin therapy. There are no contraindications associated with digoxin, phenytoin, or furosemide.

The nurse manager is observing a new nursing graduate caring for a burn client in protective isolation. The nurse manager intervenes if the new nursing graduate planned to implement which unsafe component of protective isolation technique? 1. Using sterile sheets and linens 2. Performing strict hand-washing technique 3. Wearing gloves and a gown only when giving direct care to the client 4. Wearing protective garb, including a mask, gloves, cap, shoe covers, gowns, and plastic apron

3. Wearing gloves and a gown only when giving direct care to the client Rationale: In protective isolation, the nurse needs to protect the client at all times from any potential infectious contact. Thorough hand washing should be done before and after each contact with the burn-injured client. Sterile sheets and linens are used because of the client's high risk for infection. Protective garb, including gloves, cap, masks, shoe covers, gowns, and plastic apron, need to be worn when in the client's room and when directly caring for the client.

A client arrives at the emergency department following a burn injury that occurred in the basement at home, and an inhalation injury is suspected. What would the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for the client? 1. 100% oxygen via an aerosol mask 2. Oxygen via nasal cannula at 6 L/minute 3. Oxygen via nasal cannula at 15 L/minute 4. 100% oxygen via a tight-fitting, nonrebreather face mask

4. 100% oxygen via a tight-fitting, nonrebreather face mask Rationale: If an inhalation injury is suspected, administration of 100% oxygen via a tight-fitting nonrebreather face mask is prescribed until arboxyhemoglobin levels fall (usually below 15%). In inhalation injuries, the oropharynx is inspected for evidence of erythema, blisters, or ulcerations. The need for endotracheal intubation also is assessed. Administration of oxygen by aerosol mask and cannula are incorrect and would not provide the necessary oxygen supply needed for adequate tissue perfusion for the client with a likely inhalation injury.

Permethrin is prescribed for a child with a diagnosis of scabies. The nurse should give which instruction to the parents regarding the use of this treatment? 1. Apply the lotion to areas of the rash only. 2. Apply the lotion and leave it on for 6 hours. 3. Avoid putting clothes on the child over the lotion. 4. Apply the lotion to cool, dry skin at least 30 minutes after bathing.

4. Apply the lotion to cool, dry skin at least 30 minutes after bathing. Rationale: Permethrin is massaged thoroughly and gently into all skin surfaces (not just the areas that have the rash) from the head to the soles of the feet. Care should be taken to avoid contact with the eyes. The lotion should not be applied until at least 30 minutes after bathing and should be applied only to cool, dry skin. The lotion should be kept on for 8 to 14 hours, and then the child should be given a bath. The child should be clothed during the 8 to 14 hours of treatment contact time.

When assessing a lesion diagnosed as basal cell carcinoma, the nurse most likely expects to note which findings? Select all that apply. 1. An irregularly shaped lesion 2. A small papule with a dry, rough scale 3. A firm, nodular lesion topped with crust 4. A pearly papule with a central crater and a waxy border 5. Location in the bald spot atop the head that is exposed to outdoor sunlight

4. A pearly papule with a central crater and a waxy border 5. Location in the bald spot atop the head that is exposed to outdoor sunlight Rationale: Basal cell carcinoma appears as a pearly papule with a central crater and rolled waxy border. Exposure to ultraviolet sunlight is a major risk factor. A melanoma is an irregularly shaped pigmented papule or plaque with a red-, white-, or blue-toned color. Actinic keratosis, a premalignant lesion, appears as a small macule or papule with a dry, rough, adherent yellow or brown scale. Squamous cell carcinoma is a firm, nodular lesion topped with a crust or a central area of ulceration.

A client arriving at the emergency department has experienced frostbite to the right hand. Which finding would the nurse note on assessment of the client's hand? 1. A pink, edematous hand 2. Fiery red skin with edema in the nail beds 3. Black fingertips surrounded by an erythematous rash 4. A white color to the skin, which is insensitive to touch

4. A white color to the skin, which is insensitive to touch Rationale: Assessment findings in frostbite include a white or blue color; the skin will be hard, cold, and insensitive to touch. As thawing occurs, flushing of the skin, the development of blisters or blebs, or issue edema appears. Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect.

A topical corticosteroid is prescribed by the health care provider for a child with atopic dermatitis (eczema). Which instruction should the nurse give the parent about applying the cream? 1. Apply the cream over the entire body. 2. Apply a thick layer of cream to affected areas only. 3. Avoid cleansing the area before application of the cream. 4. Apply a thin layer of cream and rub it into the area thoroughly.

4. Apply a thin layer of cream and rub it into the area thoroughly. Rationale: Atopic dermatitis is a superficial inflammatory process involving primarily the epidermis. A topical corticosteroid may be prescribed and should be applied sparingly (thin layer) and rubbed into the area thoroughly. The affected area should be cleaned gently before application. A topical corticosteroid should not be applied over extensive areas. Systemic absorption is more likely to occur with extensive application.

The camp nurse asks the children preparing to swim in the lake if they have applied sunscreen. The nurse reminds the children that chemical sunscreens are most effective when applied at which times? 1. Immediately before swimming 2. 5 minutes before exposure to the sun 3. Immediately before exposure to the sun 4. At least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun

4. At least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun Rationale: Sunscreens are most effective when applied at least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun so that they can penetrate the skin. All sunscreens should be reapplied after swimming or sweating.

The nurse is caring for a client who sustained superficial partial-thickness burns on the anterior lower legs and anterior thorax. Which finding does the nurse expect to note during the resuscitation/emergent phase of the burn injury? 1. Decreased heart rate 2. Increased urinary output 3. Increased blood pressure 4. Elevated hematocrit levels

4. Elevated hematocrit levels Rationale: The resuscitation/emergent phase begins at the time of injury and ends with the restoration of capillary permeability, usually at 48 to 72 hours following the injury. During the resuscitation/emergent phase, the hematocrit level increases to above normal because of hemoconcentration from the large fluid shifts. Hematocrit levels of 50% to 55% (0.50 to 0.55) are expected during the first 24 hours after injury, with return to normal by 36 hours after injury. Initially, blood is shunted away from the kidneys and renal perfusion and glomerular filtration are decreased, resulting in low urine output. The burn client is prone to hypovolemia and the body attempts to compensate by increased pulse rate and lowered blood pressure. Pulse rates are typically higher than normal, and the blood pressure is decreased as a result of the large fluid shifts.

The nurse is conducting a session about the principles of first aid and is discussing the interventions for a snakebite to an extremity. The nurse should inform those attending the session that the first priority intervention in the event of this occurrence is which action? 1. Immobilize the affected extremity. 2. Remove jewelry and constricting clothing from the victim. 3. Place the extremity in a position so that it is below the level of the heart. 4. Move the victim to a safe area away from the snake and encourage the victim to rest.

4. Move the victim to a safe area away from the snake and encourage the victim to rest.

The evening nurse reviews the nursing documentation in a client's chart and notes that the day nurse has documented that the client has a stage II pressure ulcer in the sacral area. Which finding would the nurse expect to note on assessment of the client's sacral area? 1. Intact skin 2. Full-thickness skin loss 3. Exposed bone, tendon, or muscle 4. Partial-thickness skin loss of the dermis

4. Partial-thickness skin loss of the dermis Rationale: In a stage II pressure ulcer, the skin is not intact. Partial-thickness skin loss of the dermis has occurred. It presents as a shallow open ulcer with a redpink wound bed, without slough. It may also present as an intact or pen/ruptured serum-filled blister. The skin is intact in stage I. Full-thickness skin loss occurs in stage III. Exposed bone, tendon, or muscle is present in stage IV.

The clinic nurse assesses the skin of a client with psoriasis after the client has used a new topical treatment for 2 months. The nurse identifies which characteristics as improvement in the manifestations of psoriasis? Select all that apply. 1. Presence of striae 2. Palpable radial pulses 3. Absence of any ecchymosis on the extremities 4. Thinner and decrease in number of reddish papules 5. Scarce amount of silvery-white scaly patches on the arms

4. Thinner and decrease in number of reddish papules 5. Scarce amount of silvery-white scaly patches on the arms Rationale: Psoriasis skin lesions include thick reddened papules or plaques covered by silvery-white patches. A decrease in the severity of these skin lesions is noted as an improvement. The presence of striae (stretch marks), palpable pulses, or lack of ecchymosis is not related to psoriasis.

The school nurse is performing pediculosis capitis (head lice) assessments. Which assessment finding indicates that a child has a "positive" head check? 1. Maculopapular lesions behind the ears 2. Lesions in the scalp that extend to the hairline or neck 3. White flaky particles throughout the entire scalp region 4. White sacs attached to the hair shafts in the occipital area

4. White sacs attached to the hair shafts in the occipital area Rationale: Pediculosis capitis is an infestation of the hair and scalp with lice. The nits are visible and attached firmly to the hair shaft near the scalp. The occiput is an area in which nits can be seen. Maculopapular lesions behind the ears or lesions that extend to the hairline or neck are indicative of an infectious process, not pediculosis. White flaky particles are indicative of dandruff.