Nutrition Mastery Quiz RNSG 1324, Nutrition Final Exam

Which of the following statements is most often true regarding protein?

"protein builds muscle bulk and strength"

Henry enjoys eating only some vegetables -- potatoes, corn and peas. Which of the following vegetables would add variety to Henry's vegetable choices?

(all) -carrots -pinto beans -broccoli -cabbage

Which of the following are recommended to help reduce hypertension (high blood pressure)?

*all are correct* consume low fat dairy foods reduce sodium intake eat more fruits and vegetables

Which of the following is a possible advantage of a vegetarian diet?

*all are correct* greater fiber intake generally less fat, especially saturated fat greater phytochemical intake

Which of the following foods provides good amounts of antioxidants?

*all are correct* seeds citrus fruits dark green, leafy vegetable

The Poverty - Obesity Paradox (or the fact that a lack of resources and obesity are often experienced together) may be due to which of the following?

*all are correct* the existence of "food deserts" in low-income communities food insecurity can lead to overeating when food is available many cheaper foods taste good, are widely available and are lower in nutrient density

Blood calcium is critical for:

*all are correct* transmission of nerve impulses. muscle contraction. maintenance of blood pressure.

You can take to prevent foodborne illess by:

*all are correct* use hot water (140 degrees) to clean equipment refrigerate cooked foods promptly cooking foods thoroughly

Which of the following will help to reduce your intake of pesticide residues?

*all are correct* wash fresh produce avoid consuming animal fats eat a variety of foods

In the USDA Food Patterns (MyPlate), one ounce of meat is equal to which of the following?

*all are correct* -1/4 cup cooked black beans -1 oz. cooked fish -1 egg

Where might you find proteins in the body?

*all are correct* -as hormones -as enzymes -as antibodies

Which of the following are good food sources of calcium?

*all are correct* -broccoli -tofu -legumes

When researching nutrition or health information on the internet, what clues let you know the source is reliable?

*all are correct* -it is a ".gov" or ".edu" site -the site gives links to similar sites -the information is updated often

When does the body "waste" amino acids?

*all are correct* -when there is too much of a single amino acid -when energy intake is low -when protein intake is excessive

What plant food groups provide good amounts of protein?

*all are correct* grains nuts and seeds legumes

Which of the following food may carry food poisoning?

*all are correct* hamburger/fresh melon/eggs

Which of the following can result from alcohol abuse

*all of the above* -liver disease -nutritional deficiencies -oral cancer

Which of the following are high in sodium (over 500 mg)?

*all of the above* -medium french fries -tomato soup -soy sauce

Which of the following are good food sources of potassium?

*all of the above* -oranges -bananas -legumes -potatoes

Which of the following is a source of phytochemicals?

*all of the above* chili/grape juice/berries and seeds

Sugars (simple carbohydrates) are found in which of the following?

*all of the following* -milk and yogurt -fruit juice -soda

Which food group supplies fiber in the diet? (Select all that are correct!)

*all of them* -fruit -protein -grain -vegetable

A person who is starving is losing:

*all of them* -glycogen -body protein -body fat

Reseach suggests that your risk of developing Type II Diabetes can be dramatically reduced by:

*all of these are correct* -consuming a diet high in vegetables, fruits, whole grains, fish and poultry. -regular physical activity. -a healthy body weight

Which foods should not be given to an infant under 12 months of age?

*all of these are correct* honey cow's milk foods with added salt or sugars

Which of the following are chemicals?

*all of these are correct* -water -carbohydrate -iron -protein

Which of the following is a source of phytochemicals? (pg 91)

*all of these sources* -Berries and seeds -purple grape juice -chili peppers

What is/are the role(s) of protein in the body?

*all of these* regulates body processes provides structure provides energy

Which of the following are associate with the metabolic syndrome?

*all the answers* central obesity high blood pressure increased risk of diabetes type 2 insulin resistance

Which of the following is NOT one of the leading causes of death that is related to nutrition?

*alzheimer's disease* -diabetes -heart disease -cancer

What steps can healthy people take to prevent type II diabetes?

*avoid gaining excess weight*

Which of the following is/are NOT a rich source of carbohydrate?

*eggs* -apples -yogurt -jelly beans

From the reading in the text, you learned about global trends that may threaten our food supply, which include all of the following EXCEPT

*increased animal protein demand* fresh water shortage loss of farm land (topsoil) increased population growth

Well-established benefits of fish or fish oil (sources of EPA and DHA types of omega-3 fatty acids) include

*normal brain and vision development in infants*

All of the following are rich sources of polyunsaturated fatty acids EXCEPT:

*palm oil* -soybean oil -fish oil -safflower oil

Which of the following is a characteristic of cholesterol?

*precursor for bile and vitamin D synthesis*

Dietary sources of carbohydrate include which of the following?

*starch* *cellulose* *glycogen* -not sucrose

Which food group supplies fiber in the diet? (Select all that are correct!)

*vegetables* *grains* *fruits* *grains*

Match the vitamin on the left with the list of good food sources on the right.

*vitamin E: beets, seeds, enriched grains* (book: Polyunsaturated plant oils (margarine, salad dressings, shortenings), green and leafy vegetables, wheat germ, whole-grain products, nuts, seeds) *niacin: eggs, milk, nuts* *folate: beets, seeds, enriched grains* *vitamin C: Citrus fruits, cabbage-type vegetables, dark green vegetables, cantaloupe, strawberries, peppers, lettuce, tomatoes, potatoes, papayas, mangoes*

Based on the current scientific understanding of phytochemicals, which is the best consumer approach?

-Consume a variety of plant foods--legumes, nuts, fruits, vegetables and whole grains

Which of the following is true about visceral fat?

-It is the fat surrounding organs and helps to protect the body from cold temperatures.

Which of the following would be effective at reducing calorie intake as part of a weight loss plan?

-Measure portions and reduce portion size of foods lower in nutrient density. -Select fewer calorie-dense foods.

Which of the following are good sources of absorbable calcium? (pg 258)

-broccoli -almonds -tofu *NOT SPINACH*

Which of the following should be avoided during pregnancy?

-caffeinated beverages -seafood -raw dairy products

Which of the following are good behavior modification tips for weight loss? (pg 397)

-eat in only one place in the house -grocery shop only when not hungry

Which of the following are characteristics of vitamin D? (pg 296)

-excessive intake may lead to mineral deposits in kidneys. -fortified milk is the major dietary source in the U.S. -deficient intake may lead to altered bone composition.

Hydrogenation results in which of the following?

-formation of trans-fatty acids -a more saturated fat -a fat that will not spoil as quickly

Which of the following are characteristics of vitamin D?

-fortified milk is the major dietary source in the U.S. population. -deficient intake may lead to altered bone composition. -excessive intake may lead to mineral deposits in the kidneys.

A person seeking good sources of vitamin A would select which of the following?

-liver -apricots (textbook pg 296)

Which of the following oils is/are a good source of monounsaturated fatty acids?

-olive oil -canola oil

Statements that are *TRUE* about type 2 diabetes

-people with the disease often have central obesity rather than lower-body obesity. -an obese person is 3 times more likely to develop the disease than is a nonobese individual. -a weight gain of 10 pounds after the age 18 doubles the risk of developing diabetes.

Which of the following are known to risk factors for osteoporosis?

-small frame or being underweight -alcohol abuse -caucasian, asian, or hispanic heritage -high protein intake

*True* Associations between environment and food intake:

-small portions of food on large plates lead people to underestimate the amount of food eaten. -the greater the number of foods at a meal, the more likely people will overeat -the mere sight or smell of food prompts people to commence eating even if they are not hungry.

The bioavailability of iron is high in which of the following foods?

-spinach -chicken -brown rice

Women will typically have higher blood alcohol levels than men after consuming the same number of drinks. This is because . . .

-women typically have less muscle (lean tissue) which helps to dilute alcohol. -women have less of an enzyme (ADH) that breaks down alcohol.

Approximately what percentage of the body's calcium is found in the blood?

1

For people who have high blood pressure and are overweight, even losing _____ pounds can help to lower blood pressure.

10

Assuming a normal diet and moderate environment, the recommend fluid intake for a man is about ___ cups and for a woman is about ___ cups.

13;9

One cup of cooked oatmeal or rice is consider a ____ ounce serving of grains.

2

For maximum benefits, cardiorespiratory endurance episodes should be sustained for at least

20 minutes

A normal-weight woman should gain approximately ________ during pregnancy.

25 to 35 lbs

The nurse is teaching the mother of a preschool-aged child with celiac disease about a gluten-free diet. The nurse determines that the mother understands the diet if she tells the nurse she will prepare: 1. oatmeal and skim milk 2. wheat toast and grape jelly 3. eggs and orange juice 4. rye toast and peanut butter

3. eggs and orange juic Children with celiac disease cannot digest the protein in common grains such as wheat, rye, and oats. Eggs and orange juice would be appropriate foods.

Sometime around the age of ________ the skeleton no longer adds significantly to bone density

30

At what age does the normal infant first develop the ability to swallow solid food?

4 to 6 months

Water makes up about _____% of an adult's body weight.

60

What is colostrum?

A milk-like substance secreted right after delivery

What are the fat soluble vitamins? (table 7-2 on page 262)

A, D, E, K -stored in liver and fatty tissues -do not need to be eaten every day

Which of the following ethnic groups has the lowest risk for osteoporosis?

Africans

Which of the following is a feature of the body's response to engaging in physical activity

After an intense and vigorous workout, metabolism remains elevated for several hours.

Why are supplements of vitamin D and calcium recommend for elderly individuals?

All of the above are reasons that the elderly need to increase their intake of vitamin D and calcium. -Absorption of calcium and vitamin D is reduced as we age. -Elderly individuals may limit their dairy intake due to lactose intolerance. -Elderly frequently use sun blockers which inhibits the synthesis of vitamin D.

An elderly woman has had difficulty with digesting her foods because of reduced stomach acid, has had progressively worse nerve pain in her legs, and is now having difficulty walking. Her physician suspects she may have a deficiency of which vitamin?

B12

Which of the following is characteristic of the eating pattern of people with bulimia nervosa?

Binge eating typically occurs after a period of strict dieting

Which of the following are true of the nutrient composition of breast milk?

Breast milk provides both types of essential fatty acids (omega-3 and -6).

Which of the following explains why B vitamin deficiencies lead to lack of energy?

Coenzymes needed for energy metabolism are produced in insufficient amounts.

A child with bowed legs is likely deficient in vitamin

D

What is the fate of ingested enzyme supplements?

Digested by gastrointestinal proteases

What is the rationale for the fat cell theory of obesity?

Fat cell number increases most readily in late childhood and early puberty

Which of the following describes how fat is used a fuel during physical activity?

Fat represents the major fuel source during sustained, moderate activity like jogging, hiking, biking, lap swimming

Which of the following describes fat utilization during physical activity?

Fat represents the major fuel source during sustained, moderate activity.

Match the nutrient to the number of calories/gram it provides.

Fats: 9 Protein: 4 Carbohydrate: 4

Which of the following statements about the "Core Four" practices for sanitation is accurate?

Foods should be kept out of the food danger zone of 40-140F

Which of the following is true about potassium?

Good intakes of potassium can help to prevent (and correct) hypertension.

Which of the following is most susceptible to bacterial contamination?

Hamburger (ground meat)

Which of the following best describes the GRAS List?

It lists additives that can be used by manufacturers without further safety testing.

What is an explanation for the difference in basal metabolic rates between males and females assuming body weight is the same?

Males have a higher percentage of lean body mass

Which of the following are found in the diet of a lactovegetarian?

Milk products and plant foods only

Which of the following is true "spot reducing" exercise?

No exercise can target fat removal from any specific area of the body

Which of the following is true about protein supplements?

No well-controlled studies on protein supplements exists.

Match the name of the nutrient on the left with the recommended healthy range of intake on the right.

Protein: 10 to 35 percent Fat: 20 to 35 percent Carbohydrate: 45 to 65 percent

What is the primary factor that differentiates bulimia nervosa from binge eating?

Purging is rarely practiced in binge-eating disorder

Because they have enough research evidence and reliable observations, the bedrock of all Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) are the ________.

RDA

Because they have enough research evidence and reliable observations, the bedrock of all Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) are the ________. (Type the letters of name of this type of DRI value.)

RDA

What is the best approach to weight loss?

Reduce daily energy intake and increase energy expenditure.

Which of the following describes an association between protein intake and kidney function?

Restricting protein intake may slow the progression of kidney disease

Which of the following people would NOT be covered by the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs)?

Robert, a 20 year old with diabetes

What is meant by the bioavailability of a vitamin in food?

The amount absorbed and subsequently used by the body.

Characteristics of hydrogenated oils include all of the following EXCEPT

These oils contain more calories per gram than other types of oils. (oils have the same amt of calories no matter what type of fat)

One value of the DRIs is Adequate Intakes (AI). Which of the following is TRUE of the Adequate Intakes?

They are based on less scientific evidence than RDAs.

Which of the following is true about the serving sizes used by the MyPlate Food Guide?

They are equal to a recommended portion for an adult.

Which of the following is a result of common U.S. agriculture practices?

They tend to support the use of pesticides and fertilizers.

What is the intrinsic factor?

a compound that helps in the absorption of B12

Which of the following is true about saturated fats?

a diet high in saturated fats may increase blood cholesterol levels

Monosodium glutamate, high fructose corn syrup, and calcium added to orange juice are all examples of:

additives

What groups of people may be at risk for Vitamin D insufficiency?

adolescents, people with dark skin, women, housebound elderly people, and many overweight and obese people *overweight and obese people* *adults over 70* *children with dark skin*

If carbohydrate intake is too low to meet the body's needs for glucose, which of the following can be converted to glucose

amino acids

If carbohydrate intake is too low to meet the body's needs for glucose, which of the following can be converted to glucose?

amino acids

After consuming a very large meal, the desire to eat a slice of chocolate cake is an example of:

appetite

On a food label, the word "organic" means which of the following?

at least 95% of the ingredients are organic

Which of the following methods of thawing meat or poultry increases the risk of foodborne illness?

at room temperature

When the RDA Committee sets the RDA for a nutrient, it first learns the range of need for that nutrient for a large group of people which looks like the image below. Then the RDA is set where on this curve?

at the green bar, very high on the curve, at about the 97% mark

What are water-soluble vitamins?

b-vitamins, vitamin C

Which two foods of the following foods provide complementary proteins?

beans and rice

Carrots, spinach and apricots are a source of ______________, the plant form of vitamin A.

beta-carotene

Which of the following food substances can be converted to vitamin A in the body?

beta-carotene

What substance emulsifies fat in the small intestine?

bile

The increase in the concentration of contaminants in the tissues of animals high on the food chain is termed

bioaccumulation

Which list of foods provides complementary proteins?

black beans, rice and salsa??

Which of the following is an early sign of vitamin C deficiency?

bleeding gums

Which of the following is used to supply most of the glucose needed by red blood cells and brain and nerve cells brain after the body has been fasting for a few days?

body fat (ketone bodies)

A healthy adult's protein need is based upon what personal statistic?

body weight

The components of fitness include all of the following EXCEPT:

bone fragility (the components are cardiovascular endurance, flexibility, and strength)

Which of the following are related to low birthweight in new born babies?

brain impairments higher risk of obesity in adulthood higher risk of death before age 1 year

The USDA Food Patterns (MyPlate) includes a recommendation for Oils. Which of following is NOT a source of Oils?

butter

How are the ingredients listed on food labels?

by weight, from the heaviest to the lightest

The most prevalent mineral in the body is _____________

calcium

The most prevalent mineral in the body is _____________.

calcium

________________ is the most abundant mineral in the body.

calcium

Chronic hunger causes many deaths worldwide, especially among:

children

Which of the following can NOT be found in plants?

cholesterol

After a meal, most of the fat that eventually empties into the blood is in the form of particles known as

chylomicrons

Oil that is partially hydrogenated sometimes changes one or more of its double bond configurations from

cis to trans

Which of the following is known as a tropical oil?

cocoa butter

The feeling of satiety from weight-loss diets is best achieved by diets rich in:

complex carbohydrates like fiber

Which of the following is not considered to be a source of high-quality protein in human nutrition?

corn

Someone suffering from lactose intolerance has problems digesting ________________.

cow's milk

Which of the following is NOT one of the common signs of pellagra?

dehydration

Abnormally high blood glucose levels may be a symptom of ___________________.

diabetes

All of the following are associations between the environment and food intake EXCEPT:

distractions generally appear to reduce food intake

Lipids differ in their degree of saturation or unsaturation due to their number of--

double bonds

The most common symptoms of foodborne illness include all of the following EXCEPT

double vision (diarrhea, fever, cramps)

At what point during pregnancy is adequate folate the MOST important?

during the first four weeks after conception

According to the information on proteins in the text, to gain muscle size and strength:

eat food to get adequate energy and protein.

Sam often eats roasted chicken or spaghetti with meatballs for dinner. He's taking a nutrition course and learned about variety. He started practicing variety by:

eating beans and rice for dinner sometimes.

Diet recommendations for people with bulimia nervosa include all of the following EXCEPT:

eating cold foods to stimulate satiety

Which of the following food proteins has the best assortment of essential amino acids for the human body?

egg

Which of the following is a high-quality protein?

eggs

When the body experiences stress, what hormone is released to quickly stimulate an increase in blood glucose levels?

epinephrine (and norepinephrine)

A major cause of insulin resistance is related to

excess body fat

Alcohol falls into which of the MyPlate Food Groups?

extra calories

A person diagnosed with a milk allergy would be sensitive to the lactose in milk.

false

All types of fish are good sources of omega-3 fatty acids.

false

For normal-weight women, the ideal pattern of weight gain during the first trimester of pregnancy is one pound per week.

false

For vegetarian diets, cheese is a good nutritional substituted for meat and chicken.

false

Most adults absorb about 30 to 50 percent of the calcium they ingest.

false

Research has demonstrated that a deficiency of Vitamin D leads to health problems such as cancer, multiple sclerosis and respiratory infections.

false

The weight that pregnant women put on is nearly all fat tissue.

false

What is the predominant fuel used by muscle cells during low- or moderate-intensity activity?

fat

Which of the following nutrients may be stored as body fat when consumed in excess?

fat, carbohydrate and protein

What nutrient is used to form ketones or ketone bodies?

fats (fatty acids)

Lipids that are solid at room temperature are known as ________ while lipids that are liquid at room temperature are known as __________.

fats; oils

A triglyceride always contains three—

fatty acids

Triglycerides are made up of a glycerol and three _________ _________.

fatty acids

Which of the following CANNOT be used to make body proteins?

fatty acids

What is a good food source of omega-3 fatty acids?

fatty fish

Researchers and doctors recommend pregnant women avoid alcohol because of the health risks to the fetus. This collection of potential problems (such as brain damage, growth restriction, vision problems and more) are known as _____________________.

fetal alcohol syndrome

Which of the following foods provide(s) essential fatty acids?

fish, beef and plants

Which of the following provides good amounts of omega-3 fatty acids?

flaxseed oil

As a means to reduce the risk of neural tube defects in newborn infants, grain products are fortified with what nutrient?

folate

Inadequate intakes of ________ during pregnancy are associated with neural tube defects in the fetus.

folate

The appearance of vitamin B12 deficiency symptoms may be delayed due to high intake of supplements of

folate

Which two B vitamins work together to make red blood cells and a lack of which will result in similar types of anemia?

folate and b12

Which of the following causes the loss of a third of food produced worldwide?

food waste

The nutrient standard, the Daily Values are:

found on food labels

The nutrient standard, the Daily Values are:

found on food labels.

Another name for the digestive tract is the

gastrointestinal tract

All carbohydrates which are digested are eventually converted into __________ (blood sugar).

glucose

When a marathon runner experiences the phenomenon known as "hitting the wall," what nutrient is most likely depleted?

glucose

Which of the following monosaccharide is part of all three dietary disaccharides?

glucose

Plants store glucose as starch; humans (animals) store glucose as ____________.

glycogen

Several hours after eating a chilled three-bean salad containing home-canned green beans, family members have difficulty breathing and swallowing, double vision, and muscle weakness. What should they do?

go to the hospital immediately because they may have botulism

Which of the following may result from iodine deficiency?

goiter

A major cause of rancidity of lipids in foods is exposure to

heat and oxygen

Which of the following diets is most likely to lead to beriberi?

high intakes of refined or polished rice

Another term for high blood pressure is _____________.

hypertension

The DASH diet plan was devised to prevent _________________

hypertension

Diet recommendations for people with bulimia nervosa

include fiber-rich foods. avoid skipping meals. avoid "finger" foods to minimize overeating.

What is the most reliable indicator of an infant's future health status?

infant's birthweight

What mineral is added to table salt to help prevent goiter?

iodine

All of the following are classified as major minerals EXCEPT:

iron

The DRI for ________ decreases with age.

iron

The most common nutrient deficiency in young children is caused by inadequate ________ consumption.

iron

Refined grains are enriched with which nutrients?

iron and several vitamins (thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, folate, iron)

________ is a process that uses gamma rays to destroy harmful bacteria in meat and poultry.

irradiation

To avoid cross-contamination of foods:

it is good practice to keep a separate cutting board just for raw meats

An example of a behavior modification technique for weight control is to

keep a record of your eating habits

Sally is on a very low-carbohydrate diet. After several days her body begins to us fat as a replacement for the glucose needed by the brain and nerve cells. Sally is experiencing a condition called ____________.

ketosis

Which of the following contains the LEAST cholesterol?

lean steak?

Jim is fasting for personal reasons. He plans to take in only water. A good estimate of how long his supply of glycogen will last is about _____________.

less than 1 day

Which of the following lipids is an essential nutrient?

linoleic acid

Which of the following are essential fatty acids?

linoleic and linolenic fatty acids

In order to transport fats in the blood, some fats are packaged in particles called—

lipoproteins

What is the primary organ that converts fructose to glucose following absorption?

liver

What tissue contains special receptors for removing low-density lipoproteins from the circulation?

liver

Which of the following organs makes almost all of the body's alcohol-processing machinery?

liver

Which organ breaks down most of the alcohol consumed?

liver

What is the main function(s) of vitamin D?

maintain blood calcium levels

Which of the following population groups is the LEAST susceptible to iron-deficiency anemia?

men 20-45 years of age

In which phase of the life cycle is bone loss the greatest?

menopause

The absorptive surface of the small intestine is increased by the presence of

microvilli.

Of the following commonly eaten foods, which makes the greatest contribution to riboflavin intake in the US?

milk

Of the following foods, which would be the only source of vitamin B12?

milk

Reliable food sources of Vitamin D include:

milk

What is another name for lactose?

milk sugar

Which of the following describes a fatty acid that has one double bond?

monounsaturated

According to the lecture from Module 1, Food & Health, you learned that the average American consumes ________ grain servings daily.

more than the target number of

Which of the following is true of vitamin E in foods?

most convenience foods are poor sources of vitamin E

The digestive tract begins at the _________ and ends at the _______.

mouth; anus

Glycogen is stored mainly in which of the following tissues?

muscle and liver

A low-protein diet in which corn is a principal food has been found to cause a deficiency of what vitamin?

niacin

The first detectable sign of vitamin A deficiency is usually

night blindness

Which of the following additives gives ham, hot dogs, and bologna their pink color?

nitrites

In comparison to the composition of carbohydrates and fats, which element found in proteins makes then unique?

nitrogen

What atom is found in all amino acids but not in carbohydrates or fats?

nitrogen

A diet planning tool like the USDA (MyPlate) Food Guide groups foods by their ___________________ . In this way, if you consume the recommended amount from each food group you will consume the recommended nutrients as well.

nutrient content

A major feature of the Mediterranean diet is liberal intake of

nuts, seeds and olive oil

An estimated 85% of children with type 2 diabetes are:

obese

Regarding type 2 diabetes and body fat, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT:

overweight people with the disease who lose weight show no improvement in glucose tolerance and insulin resistance.

What is the first organ to respond to an increase in blood glucose concentration?

pancreas

The two major minerals which make up of bone are calcium and __________________.

phosphorus

What is the major cause of iron deficiency?

poor nutrition

What would be the usual state of nitrogen balance for healthy infants, children, and pregnant women?

positive

What is the primary cause of hunger in the U.S.?

poverty

Protein in the urine and hypertension (high blood pressure) during pregnancy are symptoms of a potentially dangerous medical condition know as ___________________________.

preeclampsia

Which of the following is the most satiating nutrient?

protein

If the diet is lacking an essential amino acid, what will be the course of action?

protein synthesis will be limited

Which of the following is an advantage of breastfeeding compared with formula feeding?

provides immunological protection

The "R" in RDA stands for—

recommended

A young woman wanting to build maximum bone density should do all of the following EXCEPT:

reduce her intake of protein

Which of the following is generally not associated with a regular program of physical fitness?

reduced bone density

Nutrients are used by the body for growth, maintenance and _________.

repair of tissues

Which of the following sources would yield the softest lipids at room temperature?

safflower

Below is an image of a fatty acid. You can tell it is a ________________ fatty acid because there are no double bonds in the carbon chain. (The part inside the green box).

saturated

Which of the following is NOT a maternal benefit of breastfeeding?

shortens the intervals between pregnancies

The primary site of nutrient absorption is the

small intestine

Major minerals:

sodium, magnesium, sulfur

When stored at room temperature in loosely capped containers, which of the following dietary lipids would become rancid (that is, spoil) in the shortest time? HINT: The more unsaturated a fatty acid, the most vulnerable it is to oxygen which leads to spoilage.

soybean oil

Which of the following are primarily made up of polyunsaturated fatty acids?

soybean oil & fish oils

Among the following, which does NOT contain the MFP factor?

spinach

In what organ is pepsin active?

stomach

Which of the following defines central obesity?

storage of excess fat around the trunk of the body

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the fat-soluble vitamins?

stored permanently in the blood

According to the American Academy of Pediatrics and the Canadian Pediatric Society, breastfeeding of full-term infants is

strongly recommended

Which of the following is correct concerning fruits that have been irradiated?

they ripen and decay more slowly

Which of the following recommendations for pregnant women and alcohol intake has been issued by the U.S. Surgeon General?

they should drink absolutely no alcohol

Beriberi results from a deficiency of

thiamin

In which of the following individuals would vitamin A toxicity be most likely to occur?

those taking vit A supplements

What is the primary function of insulin?

to lower blood glucose levels

Which of the following would you consume with a food source of iron in order to facilitate iron absorption?

tomato with tuna or chicken

Which of the following helps to increase iron absorption from the diet?

tomatoes

General characteristics of the water-soluble vitamins include all of the following EXCEPT

toxic levels in the body are rarely found

In order to gain muscle size and strength, it is necessary to

train intensely with adequate rest periods in between

Over 95% of the lipids in foods and in the human body are in the form of:

triglycerides

Carbohydrates are an essential nutrient.

true

During pregnancy calcium absorption doubles and iron may be absorb at up to three times the non-pregnant rate.

true

Flaxseeds and walnuts are good sources of omega-3. However, plant sources of omega-3 are not as potent as animal sources of omega-3, known as EPA and DHA.

true

It takes about 12 units of beta-carotene to create one unit of retinol in the body.

true

Malnutrition may mean overeating calories or nutrients as well as under-eating calories or nutrients.

true

Studies have shown that in overweight adults with type 2 diabetes, activity and weight loss often leads a decrease in insulin resistance and a reduction in the need for medication.

true

Vitamin E deficiency and toxicity are rare.

true

Vitamins are noncaloric.

true

Breast milk as the sole source of nutrition, up to the first 6 months in healthy infants, is satisfactory for all nutrients except

vitamin D

Worldwide, the nutrients most common micronutrient deficiencies include all of the following EXCEPT

vitamin D (the most common micronutrient deficiencies are

Older people suffer more from deficiencies of ________ than young people do.

vitamin D and B12

What is/are the most common preservative(s) used in our food?

vitamin E and C

Which of the following can be used to estimate the amount abdominal fat of an adult?

waist circumference

The bacteria which cause foodborne illness thrive under which conditions?

warm, moist, and nutrient rich

What nutrients in foods are most vulnerable to losses during food handling and preparation?

water-soluble vitamins

To calculate a healthy adult's protein need, you need to know a person's ______________.

weight

From the lecture "Food & Health" you learned that the most consumed type of grain in the US is:

wheat

Which of the following are encouraged by the MyPlate Food Guide?

whole grains

Which of the following is NOT a common dietary source of trans fats?

whole milk

Which of the following types of bread has the highest fiber content?

whole-grain

From the list below, select those [diseases] which are related to your nutritional choices.

-heart disease -strokes -cancers

A nurse should encourage a client with a wound to consume foods high in vitamin C because this vitamin: 1. enhances protein synthesis. 2. restores the inflammatory response. 3. enhances oxygen transport to tissues. 4. reduces edema.

1. enhances protein synthesis. The client should be encouraged to consume foods high in vitamin C because vitamin C is essential for protein synthesis, an important part of wound healing. Hemostasis is responsible for the inflammatory response and reducing edema. Hemoglobin is responsible for oxygen transport.

What is recommended fat intake as a percentage of total calories?

20-35

Which of these types of Dietary Reference Intakes provides the most scientifically supported recommendation? That is, sufficient scientific evidence exists to set these recommendations?

Estimated Average Requirements

The pancreas plays a large role in digesting the food we eat. Which of the jobs below most closely matches the role of the pancreas in digestion?

a chemist who uses solutions to break down a substance

According to the USDA Food Patterns (MyPlate), all of the following foods counts as a source of empty calories EXCEPT:

mayonnaise

Olives, canola oil, mayonnaise, soft margarine belong to which of the following?

oils

Match the vegetable on the left with the Vegetable Subgroup name on the right.

spinach: dark green kidney beans: beans and peas green peas: starchy vegetables cucumber: other tomato: red and orange

Besides the six classes of nutrients, foods also provide other non-nutrient compounds such as:

-fiber -phytochemicals

According to the USDA Food Patterns (MyPlate) how much pasta equals a one ounce serving from the Grain Group?

1/2 cup

One cup of cooked pasta or rice is consider a ____ ounce serving of grains.

2 (a serving of rice/pasta is 1/2 cup)

A nurse is conducting a nutrition class for a group of teenagers. Which of the following food choices would a nurse encourage this group to consume to increase their dietary fiber content? 1. Baked French fries with ketchup 2. Sandwiches on whole wheat bread 3. Chicken legs with gravy 4. Grape-flavored juice

2. Sandwiches on whole wheat bread The nurse would know that, of the choices provided, the sandwiches on whole wheat bread are the best source of fiber. The other options do not reflect good sources of fiber.

What type of diet should the nurse teach the parents to give an older infant with cystic fibrosis (CF)? 1. low-protein diet 2. high-fat diet 3. low-carbohydrate diet 4. high-calorie diet

4. high-calorie diet CF affects the exocrine glands. Mucus is thick and tenacious, sticking to the walls of the pancreatic and bile ducts and eventually causing obstruction. Because of the difficulty with digestion and absorption, a high-calorie, high-protein, high-carbohydrate, moderate-fat diet is indicated.

A client with schizophrenia is mute, can't perform activities of daily living, and stares out the window for hours. What is the nurse's first priority? 1. Reassure the client that he is safe. 2. Assist the client with feeding. 3. Encourage the client to socialize with his peers. 4. Assist the client with showering.

2. Assist the client with feeding. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, the need for food is among the most important. Other needs, in order of decreasing importance, include hygiene, safety, and a sense of belonging.

A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution. The nurse should assess a client's ability to metabolize the TPN solution adequately by monitoring the client for which sign? 1. tachycardia 2. hyperglycemia 3. hypertension 4. elevated blood urea nitrogen concentration

2. hyperglycemia During TPN administration, the client should be monitored regularly for hyperglycemia. The client may require small amounts of insulin to improve glucose metabolism. The client should also be observed for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia, which may occur if the body overproduces insulin in response to a high glucose intake or if too much insulin is administered to help improve glucose metabolism. Tachycardia or hypertension is not indicative of the client's ability to metabolize the solution. An elevated blood urea nitrogen concentration is indicative of renal status and fluid balance.

A child is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). During TPN therapy, the most important nursing action is: 1. assessing vital signs every 30 minutes. 2. elevating the head of the bed 60 degrees. 3. monitoring the blood glucose level closely. 4. providing a daily bath.

3. monitoring the blood glucose level closely. Most TPN solutions contain a high glucose content, placing the client at risk for hyperglycemia. Therefore, the most important nursing action is to monitor the child's blood glucose level closely. A child receiving TPN isn't likely to require vital sign assessment every 30 minutes or elevation of the head of the bed. A daily bath isn't a priority.

How many of the ten leading causes of death in the US have dietary risk factors? (That is, a person's diet choices are related to these causes of death.)

4

How much energy (as measured in calories) is found in a gram of carbohydrate or one gram of protein?

4

Because of religious beliefs, a client, who is an Orthodox Jew, refuses to eat hospital food. Hospital policy discourages food from outside the hospital. The nurse should next: 1. explain alternatives to food such as intravenous fluids that can provide nutrition during hospitalization. 2. teach the client that it is important to eat the food served. 3. encourage the client's family to bring food for the client because of the special circumstances. 4. discuss the situation and possible courses of action with the dietitian and the client.

4. discuss the situation and possible courses of action with the dietitian and the client. The best course of action when a client is not able to eat food that is contrary to religious beliefs is to discuss the situation with the client and the dietitian. Health team members may need to confer about this client's needs. Telling the client that it is important to eat what is served is unlikely to help; the client has already refused the food, and this approach does not address the client's concerns. Encouraging the family to bring suitable food to the hospital may be acceptable. However, the family should not bear sole responsibility for meeting the client's nutritional needs. Health care team members need to seek ways the hospital can address the client's concerns. Suggesting that foods may be replaced with intravenous fluids may be perceived as a threat and is not a realistic solution.

The nurse administers fat emulsion solution during TPN as prescribed based on the understanding that this type of solution: 1. promotes effective metabolism of glucose. 2. provides extra carbohydrates. 3. maintains a normal body weight. 4. provides essential fatty acids.

4. provides essential fatty acids. The administration of fat emulsion solution provides additional calories and essential fatty acids to meet the body's energy needs. Fatty acids are lipids, not carbohydrates. Fatty acids do not aid in the metabolism of glucose. Although they are necessary for meeting the complete nutritional needs of the client, fatty acids do not necessarily help a client maintain normal body weight.

The nurse teaches a client who has recently been diagnosed with hypertension about following a low-calorie, low-fat, low-sodium diet. Which menu selection would best meet the client's needs? 1. baked chicken, an apple, and a slice of white bread 2. ham sandwich on rye bread and an orange 3. mixed green salad with blue cheese dressing, crackers, and cold cuts 4. hot dogs, baked beans, and celery and carrot sticks

1. baked chicken, an apple, and a slice of white bread Processed and cured meat products, such as cold cuts, ham, and hot dogs, are all high in both fat and sodium and should be avoided on a low-calorie, low-fat, low-salt diet. Dietary restrictions of all types are complex and difficult to implement with clients who are basically asymptomatic.

The percentages of the Daily Values on food packages are given in terms of a person requiring ______ calories each day.

2,000 or 2,500

In evaluating a client's response to nutrition therapy, which laboratory test would be of highest priority to examine? 1. CBC differential 2. Albumin level 3. Lymphocyte count 4. Serum potassium level

2. Albumin level Protein and vitamin C help build and repair injured tissue. Albumin is a major plasma protein; therefore, a client's albumin level helps gauge his nutritional status. Potassium levels indicate fluid and electrolyte status. Lymphocyte count and differential count help assess for infection.

The client with Cushing's disease needs to modify dietary intake to control symptoms. In addition to increasing protein, which strategy would be most appropriate? 1. Restrict potassium. 2. Reduce fat to 10%. 3. Restrict sodium. 4. Increase calories.

3. Restrict sodium. A primary dietary intervention is to restrict sodium, thereby reducing fluid retention. Increased protein catabolism results in loss of muscle mass and necessitates supplemental protein intake. The client may be asked to restrict total calories to reduce weight. The client should be encouraged to eat potassium-rich foods because serum levels are typically depleted. Although reducing fat intake as part of an overall plan to restrict calories is appropriate, fat intake of less than 20% of total calories is not recommended.

A client is admitted with multiple pressure ulcers. When developing the client's diet plan, the nurse should include: 1. fresh orange slices. 2. ice cream. 3. ground beef patties. 4. steamed broccoli.

3. ground beef patties. Meat is an excellent source of complete protein, which this client needs to repair the tissue breakdown caused by pressure ulcers. Oranges and broccoli supply vitamin C but not protein. Ice cream supplies only some incomplete protein, making it less helpful in tissue repai

One month following a subtotal gastrectomy for cancer, the nurse is evaluating the nursing care goal related to nutrition. What indicates that the client has attained the goal? The client has: 1. resumed normal dietary intake of three meals a day. 2. regained weight loss. 3. controlled nausea and vomiting through regular use of antiemetics. 4. achieved adequate nutritional status through oral or parenteral feedings.

4. achieved adequate nutritional status through oral or parenteral feedings. An appropriate expected outcome is for the client to achieve optimal nutritional status through the use of oral feedings or total parenteral nutrition (TPN). TPN may be used to supplement oral intake, or it may be used alone if the client cannot tolerate oral feedings. The client would not be expected to regain lost weight within 1 month after surgery or to tolerate a normal dietary intake of three meals a day. Nausea and vomiting would not be considered an expected outcome of gastric surgery, and regular use of antiemetics would not be anticipated.

Parents of a child with cystic fibrosis ask the nurse why their child must receive supplemental pancreatic enzymes. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? 1. "Pancreatic enzymes promote absorption of nutrients and fat." 2. "Pancreatic enzymes prevent intestinal mucus accumulation." 3. "Pancreatic enzymes promote adequate rest." 4. "Pancreatic enzymes help prevent meconium ileus."

1. "Pancreatic enzymes promote absorption of nutrients and fat." Pancreatic enzymes are given to a child with cystic fibrosis to aid fat and protein digestion. They don't promote rest or prevent mucus accumulation or meconium ileus.

Which adverse effects occur when there is too rapid an infusion of TPN solution? 1. hypokalemia 2. hypoglycemia 3. negative nitrogen balance 4. circulatory overload

4. circulatory overload Too rapid infusion of a TPN solution can lead to circulatory overload. The client should be assessed carefully for indications of excessive fluid volume. A negative nitrogen balance occurs in nutritionally depleted individuals, not when TPN fluids are administered in excess. When TPN is administered too rapidly, the client is at risk for receiving an excess of dextrose and electrolytes. Therefore, the client is at risk for hyperglycemia and hyperkalemia.

Characteristics of scientific research include—

*none of the these are characteristics of good science* -testimonials from people who found the experimental treatment beneficial. -findings published in a newsletter, magazine or book. -advertising the results on television.

According to the MyPlate Food Guide, which of the following foods counts as a source of empty calories?

-soft drinks -butter (solid fat) -bacon

For the Fruit Group of the Food Group Plan (known as MyPlate or USDA Food Patterns), a serving size is _________ for all items except dried fruit.

1 cup

The breastfeeding mother of a 1-month-old diagnosed with cow's milk sensitivity asks the nurse what she should do about feeding her infant. Which recommendation would be most appropriate? 1. Limit breastfeeding to once per day, and begin feeding an iron-fortified formula. 2. Continue to breastfeed, but eliminate all milk products from your own diet. 3. Change to a soy-based formula exclusively, and begin solid foods. 4. Discontinue breastfeeding, and start using a predigested formula.

2. Continue to breastfeed, but eliminate all milk products from your own diet. Mothers of infants with a cow's milk allergy can continue to breastfeed if they eliminate cow's milk from their diet. It is important to encourage mothers to continue to breastfeed because breast milk is usually the least allergenic and most easily digested food for an infant. In addition, the infant is able to obtain protein through the mother's milk. If the mother stops breastfeeding, then a predigested protein hydrolysate formula would be the first choice. An iron-fortified formula is a cow's milk-based formula. A soy-based formula is not used because approximately 20% of infants with cow's milk sensitivity are also sensitive to soy. Solid foods are not introduced until the infant is 4 to 6 months of age.

The client with a major burn injury receives total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The expected outcome is to: 1. correct water and electrolyte imbalances. 2. ensure adequate caloric and protein intake. 3. provide supplemental vitamins and minerals. 4. allow the gastrointestinal tract to rest.

2. ensure adequate caloric and protein intake. Nutritional support with sufficient calories and protein is extremely important for a client with severe burns because of the loss of plasma protein through injured capillaries and an increased metabolic rate. Gastric dilation and paralytic ileus commonly occur in clients with severe burns, making oral fluids and foods contraindicated. Water and electrolyte imbalances can be corrected by administration of IV fluids with electrolyte additives, although TPN typically includes all necessary electrolytes. Resting the gastrointestinal tract may help prevent paralytic ileus, and TPN provides vitamins and minerals; however, the primary reason for starting TPN is to provide the protein necessary for tissue healing.

A bottle-fed infant, age 3 months, is brought to the pediatrician's office for a well-child visit. During the previous visit, the nurse taught the mother about infant nutritional needs. Which statement by the mother during the current visit indicates effective teaching? 1. "I started putting cereal in the bottle with formula because the baby kept spitting it out." 2. "I'm giving the baby skim milk because he was getting so chubby." 3. "I started the baby on cereals and fruits because he wasn't sleeping through the night." 4. "I'm giving the baby iron-fortified formula and a fluoride supplement because our water isn't fluoridated."

4. "I'm giving the baby iron-fortified formula and a fluoride supplement because our water isn't fluoridated." Iron-fortified formula supplies all the nutrients an infant needs during the first 6 months; however, fluoride supplementation is necessary if the local water supply isn't fluoridated. Before age 6 months, solid foods such as cereals aren't recommended because the GI tract tolerates them poorly. Also, a strong extrusion reflex causes the infant to push food out of the mouth. Mixing solid foods in a bottle with liquids deprives the infant of experiencing new tastes and textures and may interfere with development of proper chewing. Skim milk doesn't provide sufficient fat for an infant's growth.

The nurse is teaching an adolescent with celiac disease about dietary changes that will help maintain a healthy lifestyle. Which of the following foods can the nurse safely recommend as part of the adolescent's diet? Select all that apply. 1. Apples 2. Corn 3. Pizza 4. Bagels 5. Potatoes

1. Apples 2. Corn 5. Potatoes Celiac disease is an intolerance to the gluten factor of protein found in grains. Specific grains to be removed from the diet include wheat, rye, oats, and barley. Clients with a diagnosis of celiac disease can tolerate corn, fruits, and vegetables.

Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care to ensure adequate nutrition for a very active, talkative, and easily distractible client who is unable to sit through meals? 1. Direct the client to the room to eat. 2. Offer the client nutritious finger foods. 3. Ask the client about food preferences. 4. Ask the client's family to bring the client's favorite foods from home.

2. Offer the client nutritious finger foods. For the client who is unable to sit through meals to maintain adequate nutrition, the nurse should offer the client nutritious finger foods and fluids that he can consume while "on the run." Foods high in protein and carbohydrates, such as half of a peanut butter sandwich, will help to maintain nutritional needs. Adequate fluid intake is necessary, especially if the client has been started on lithium therapy. Directing the client to his room to eat is not helpful because the client will not stay in his room long enough to eat. Asking the client's family to bring his favorite foods or asking the client about his food preferences is not helpful in ensuring adequate nutrition for the hyperactive client who is unable to sit and eat.

A primiparous client is on a regular diet 24 hours postpartum. She is from Guatemala and speaks only Spanish. The client's mother asks the nurse if she can bring her daughter some "special foods from home." The nurse responds, based on the understanding about which principle? 1. The client's health care provider (HCP) needs to give permission for the foods. 2. The mother can bring the daughter any foods that she desires. 3. This is permissible as long as the foods are nutritious and high in iron. 4. Foods from home are generally discouraged on the postpartum unit.

2. The mother can bring the daughter any foods that she desires. On most postpartum units, clients on regular diets are allowed to eat whatever kinds of food they desire. Generally, foods from home are not discouraged. The nurse does not need to obtain the HCP's permission. Although it is preferred, the foods do not necessarily have to be high in iron. In some cultures, there is a belief in the "hot-cold" theory of disease; certain foods (hot) are preferred during the postpartum period, and other foods (cold) are avoided. Therefore, the nurse should allow the mother to bring her daughter "special foods from home." Doing so demonstrates cultural sensitivity and aids in developing a trusting relationship.

The nurse observes that the client's total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution is infusing too slowly. The nurse calculates that the client has received 300 mL less than was prescribed for the day. The nurse should: 1. maintain the flow rate at the current rate and document any discrepancy in the chart. 2. assess the infusion system, note the client's condition, and notify the health care provider. 3. discontinue the solution and administer dextrose in 5% water until the infusion problem is resolved. 4. increase the flow rate to infuse an additional 300 mL over the next hour.

2. assess the infusion system, note the client's condition, and notify the health care provider. The nurse's most appropriate action is to assess the infusion system to determine the cause of the inaccurate flow rate and to note the client's response to the decreased infusion, especially signs of hypoglycemia. The health care provider should be notified of the infusion discrepancy. The flow should never be increased without a prescription, nor should large volumes of TPN ever be infused over a short period of time. Too rapid administration of TPN can cause hyperglycemia, electrolyte imbalances, and dangerous fluid shifts. Maintaining the flow rate without notifying the health care provider delays a definitive intervention and does not meet the client's needs. There is no clinical reason to remove the TPN, and TPN should never be discontinued abruptly. If there is a need to temporarily discontinue the TPN, such as when a client is going to surgery or the next bag is unavailable, a 10% dextrose solution should be infused. This prevents a rebound hypoglycemia.

An obese 36-year-old multigravid client at 12 weeks' gestation has a history of chronic hypertension. She was treated with methyldopa before becoming pregnant. When counseling the client about diet during pregnancy, the nurse realizes that the client needs additional instruction when she makes which statement? 1. "I should eat more frequent meals if I get heartburn." 2. "I need to consume more fluids and fiber each day." 3. "I need to reduce my caloric intake to 1,200 calories a day." 4. "A regular diet is recommended during pregnancy."

3. "I need to reduce my caloric intake to 1,200 calories a day." Pregnancy is not the time for clients to begin a diet. Clients with chronic hypertension need to consume adequate calories to support fetal growth and development. They also need an adequate protein intake. Meat and beans are good sources of protein. Most pregnant women report that eating more frequent, smaller meals decreases heartburn resulting from the reflux of acidic secretions into the lower esophagus. Pregnant women need adequate hydration (fluids) and fiber to prevent constipation.

A client is asking about dietary modifications to counteract the long-term effects of prednisone. What is the most appropriate information for the nurse to give the client? 1. "Increase your intake of complex carbohydrates." 2. "Increase your intake of polyunsaturated fats." 3. "Increase your intake of calcium and vitamin D." 4. "Increase your intake of dietary sodium."

3. "Increase your intake of calcium and vitamin D." Problems associated with long-term corticosteroid therapy include sodium retention, osteoporosis, and hyperglycemia. An increase in calcium and vitamin D is needed to help prevent bone deterioration. Dietary modifications need to reduce sodium, maintain high protein levels for tissue repair, and reduce carbohydrates, as there is a tendency toward hyperglycemia. Increased intake of complex carbohydrates is not indicated because of hyperglycemia. There should be decreased fat intake because there is a tendency for central fat deposition.

A student with type 1 diabetes tells the nurse she is feeling light-headed. The student's blood sugar is 60 mg/dL (3.3 mmol/L). Using the 15-15 rule, the nurse should give: 1. 15 g of carbohydrate and 15 g of protein. 2. 15 oz of juice and retest in 15 minutes 3. 15 g of carbohydrate and retest the blood sugar in 15 minutes. 4. 15 mL of juice and give another 15 mL in 15 minutes.

3. 15 g of carbohydrate and retest the blood sugar in 15 minutes. The 15-15 rule is a general guideline for treating hypoglycemia where the client consumes 15 g of carbohydrate and repeats testing the blood sugar in 15 minutes. Fifteen grams of carbohydrate equals 60 calories and is roughly equal to ½ cup (120 mL) of juice or soda, six to eight lifesavers, or a tablespoon of honey or sugar. The general recommendation is if the blood sugar is still low, the client may repeat the sequence. Fifteen milliliters of juice would only provide 8 calories. This would not be sufficient carbohydrates to treat the hypoglycemia. Protein does not treat insulin-related hypoglycemia; however, a protein-starch snack may be offered after the blood glucose improves. Fifteen ounces of juice would be approximately 440 mL—almost four times the recommended 4 oz (120 mL) of juice.

A nurse consulting with a nutrition specialist knows it's important to consider a special diet for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which diet is appropriate for this client? 1. Low-fat 2. Full-liquid 3. High-protein 4. 1,800-calorie ADA

3. High-protein Breathing is more difficult for clients with COPD, and increased metabolic demand puts them at risk for nutritional deficiencies. These clients must have a high intake of protein for increased calorie consumption. Full liquids, 1,800-calorie ADA, and low-fat diets aren't appropriate for a client with COPD.

The nurse is planning care for a client who has been experiencing a manic episode for 6 days and is unable to sit still long enough to eat meals. Which choice will best meet the client's nutritional needs at this time? 1. Offer a bowl of vegetable soup. 2. Offer a green salad topped with chicken pieces. 3. Offer a peanut butter sandwich. 4. Offer to have the family bring in favorite foods.

3. Offer a peanut butter sandwich. Giving the client finger foods that have protein, carbohydrates, and calories supplies energy and allows the client to eat while on the move. A salad or soup is very difficult for the client to eat while moving and may not supply the nutrients needed. Favorite foods from home may or may not be appropriate to eat while walking.

The nurse is caring for an infant diagnosed with nonorganic failure to thrive. Which action should be included in the plan of care for the infant? 1. Requiring the parents to attend a community support group prior to discharge 2. Reporting the parents to social services for suspected abuse 3. Weighing the unclothed infant at the same time every day 4. Suggesting to the infant's mother to continue to try to feed the infant even when the infant is crying

3. Weighing the unclothed infant at the same time every day Daily weights are an appropriate intervention for an infant with failure to thrive. It would be inappropriate for the nurse to encourage the mother to continue to try to feed the infant when crying because the infant may develop further aversion to eating. It is also inappropriate to assume that abuse has taken place; there is no information in the stem to suggest this. The parents would benefit from a community support group; however, the nurse cannot require the parents to attend a community support group prior to discharge.

Which meal would be most appropriate for a 15-year-old with glomerulonephritis with severe hypertension? 1. egg noodles, hamburger, canned peas, milk 2. baked ham, baked potato, pear, canned carrots, milk 3. baked chicken, rice, beans, orange juice 4. hot dog on a bun, corn chips, pickle, cookie, milk

3. baked chicken, rice, beans, orange juice The best selection of food would include no added salt or salty food. Because sodium cannot be excreted due to the oliguria and to avoid increasing the hypertension, a low-salt diet is recommended. Most canned foods have sodium added as a preservative. Ham, hot dogs, canned peas, canned carrots, corn chips, pickles, and milk are high in sodium.

A client has been taking prescribed aspirin in large doses and reports having stomach irritation, sometimes with vomiting. Which food or beverage noted from the client's diet history should the nurse suggest the client avoid? 1. scrambled eggs 2. sweetened tea 3. glass of wine 4. dry toast

3. glass of wine Gastrointestinal irritation is a common side effect of aspirin, especially when taken in large doses. Such signs and symptoms as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and constipation are also common. The combination of aspirin and alcohol is especially likely to cause gastrointestinal irritation, sometimes to the point of doing direct damage to gastric mucosa. Dry toast, eggs, and sweetened tea are not gastrointestinal irritants

The nurse is instructing the client with chronic renal failure to maintain adequate nutritional intake. Which diet would be most appropriate? 1. low-protein, high-potassium 2. high-carbohydrate, high-protein 3. low-protein, low-sodium, low-potassium 4. high-calcium, high-potassium, high-protein

3. low-protein, low-sodium, low-potassium Dietary management for clients with chronic renal failure is usually designed to restrict protein, sodium, and potassium intake. Protein intake is reduced because the kidney can no longer excrete the byproducts of protein metabolism. The degree of dietary restriction depends on the degree of renal impairment. The client should also receive a high-carbohydrate diet along with appropriate vitamin and mineral supplements. Calcium requirements remain 1,000 to 2,000 mg/day.

A nurse is administering total parenteral nutrition (TPN) to a client hospitalized with severe anorexia nervosa. Which laboratory finding would alert the nurse to a potential problem? 1. Elevated phosphate level 2. Elevated glucose levels 3. Decreased CD4 cell counts 4. Decreased magnesium level

4. Decreased magnesium level A decreased magnesium level indicates continued malnutrition problems; the prescribing physician or an advanced practice nurse would have to adjust the chemical composition of the TPN. Elevated glucose levels are expected in a client receiving TPN because of the high concentration of glucose being administered. A client with anorexia nervosa is at risk for a decreased, not elevated, phosphate level. A decreased CD4 cell count is a laboratory value associated with a diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, not with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa.

A nurse is teaching the parents of a child with cystic fibrosis about proper nutrition. Which instruction should the nurse include? 1. Encourage foods high in vitamin B. 2. Restrict fluids to 1,500 ml per day. 3. Limit salt intake to 2 g per day. 4. Encourage a high-calorie, high-protein diet.

4. Encourage a high-calorie, high-protein diet. The child should be encouraged to eat a high-calorie, high-protein diet. In cystic fibrosis, the pancreatic enzymes (lipase, trypsin, and amylase) become so thick that they plug the ducts. In the absence of these enzymes, the duodenum can't digest fat, protein, and some sugars; therefore, the child can become malnourished. A child with cystic fibrosis needs to drink plenty of fluid and take salt supplements, especially on warm days or when exercising, to help maintain hydration and adequate sodium levels. Water-soluble forms of the fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K) are essential.

Nutrients which the body cannot make (or cannot make fast enough) and must be obtained through food are called _________________ nutrients.

*essential*

According to the USDA Food Patterns (MyPlate), all of the following foods are part of the Protein Group (formerly known as the Meat & Bean Group) EXCEPT:

*green beans and green peas* -eggs -black beans -almonds

All of the following nutrients are organic except:

*minerals.* -carbohydrates -vitamins -fats

You are planning to conduct a scientific experiment on different types of fats and weight gain. You want to make sure the design of your experiment is very good. Your design will include:

*none are correct* - ask each subject which group they wish to belong: butter, olive oil, "fake" fat -a small sample size of no more than 10 subjects per group -labels on the fat samples for all subjects

After teaching the parents of a child with lactose intolerance about the disorder, the nurse determines that the teaching was effective when the mother used which statement to describe the condition? 1. "The lack of an enzyme to break down lactose." 2. "Inability to digest fats completely." 3. "An allergy to lactose found in milk." 4. "Inability to digest proteins completely."

1. "The lack of an enzyme to break down lactose." Lactose intolerance is not an allergy. Rather, it is caused by the lack of the digestive enzyme lactase. This enzyme, found in the intestines, is necessary for the digestion of lactose, the primary carbohydrate in cow's milk. Protein and fat digestion are not affected.

A client with diabetes who takes insulin has a blood glucose level of 40 mg/dL (2.22 mmol/L). What should the nurse offer the client to begin to raise the blood glucose level? Select all that apply. 1 one tablespoon (15 mL) of peanut butter 2. one-quarter cup (60 mL) of tuna 3. one-half cup (120 mL) of orange juice 4. one cup (240 mL) of milk 5. one-half cup (120 mL) of regular soda 6. one slice of bread

3. one-half cup (120 mL) of orange juice 4. one cup (240 mL) of milk 5. one-half cup (120 mL) of regular soda 6. one slice of bread To treat a low blood glucose level, the nurse should provide the client with approximately 15 g of carbohydrate and monitor the blood glucose level within 15 minutes. The orange juice, milk, bread, or soda would provide approximately 15 g of carbohydrate. Meat or fish, such as tuna, do not contain carbohydrate. Processed peanut butter may contain small amounts of carbohydrate, but it is also high in fat and protein. Peanut butter is not a good option to raise a blood glucose level in a timely manner.

At the end of a research study, Dr. Ubersmart writes her conclusions. You are in charge of reviewing her work for publication. Which conclusion is appropriate?

Subjects with the highest fructose consumption also had the greatest weight gains.

Calories are:

a unit for measuring energy

Which of the following describes the sum of all chemical reactions that go on in living cells?

metabolism

According to the MyPlate Food Guide information in the text and lecture, which of the following may be counted as either a serving of Protein or Vegetable serving.

pinto beans

The energy-yielding nutrients include all of the following EXCEPT—

*vitamins* -carbohydrate -fat -protein

From the lecture, you learned that in nutrition the word essential means

a nutrient that the body can not make for itself (or cannot make fast enough).

Which of these Dietary Recommended Intake values are especially useful to set goals for individuals? (More than one answer may be correct!)

-RDA (recommended dietary allowances) -AI (Adequate Intakes)

A nurse is providing nutritional teaching for a client with a family history of colon cancer. Which food choice by the client demonstrates an understanding of the correct diet to follow? 1. Egg salad on rye bread 2. Spaghetti and meat sauce 3. Hot dogs and sauerkraut 4. Vegetarian chili

4. Vegetarian chil A high-fiber, low-fat food, such as vegetarian chili, increases gastric motility and decreases the chance of constipation, helping to reduce the risk of colon cancer. The other choices are not representative of a high-fiber, low-fat diet.

Match the description on the left with the name of the diet characteristic on the right.

a diet which provides many different types of foods, some rich one set of nutrients, others rich in another set of nutrients: *balance* a diet which provides enough of each essential nutrient: *adequacy* a wide selection of foods *variety* limited intake of foods high in added sugars and saturated fats *moderation*

What recommendation should the nurse give a family about appropriate beverages for children? 1. Sugary drinks, including juice, should be avoided. 2. Give children whole milk until 5 years of age. 3. It is better to give your child bottled water rather than tap water. 4. Offering sports drinks is the ideal way to provide hydration during physical activity.

1. Sugary drinks, including juice, should be avoided Sugary drinks contain empty calories and considered to be a major factor in the childhood obesity epidemic. Juice should be limited to no more than 120 to 180 mL per day. Water from community sources is more likely to contain fluoride that promotes dental health than bottled water. Sports drinks are considered sugary drinks. Unless a child has had excessive fluid loss, water is all that is needed to stay hydrated during physical activity

A client with chronic renal failure is undergoing hemodialysis. Postdialysis, the client weighs 59 kg. The nurse should teach the client to: 1. control the amount of protein intake to 59 to 70 g/day. 2. increase fluid intake to 3,000 mL each day. 3. increase sodium in the diet to 4 g/day. 4. limit total calories consumed each day to 1,000.

1. control the amount of protein intake to 59 to 70 g/day. Hemodialysis clients have their protein requirements individually tailored according to their postdialysis weight. The protein requirement is 1.0 to 1.2 g/kg body weight per day. Hence, for a 59-kg weight, the amount of protein will be 59 to 70 g/day. Sodium should be restricted to 3 g/day. The client should obtain sufficient calories; if calories are not supplied in adequate amount, the body will use tissue protein for energy, which will lead to a negative nitrogen balance and malnutrition. Fluid intake needs to be restricted. The fluid amount is restricted to 500 to 700 mL plus the urine output.

TPN is ordered for a client with Crohn's disease. The TPN solution is having an intended outcome when: 1. the client's nutritional needs are met. 2. the client does not have metabolic acidosis. 3. the client is in a negative nitrogen balance. 4. the client is hydrated.

1. the client's nutritional needs are met. The goal of TPN is to meet the client's nutritional needs. TPN is not used to treat metabolic acidosis; ketoacidosis can actually develop as a result of administering TPN. TPN is a hypertonic solution containing carbohydrates, amino acids, electrolytes, trace elements, and vitamins. It is not used to meet the hydration needs of clients. TPN is administered to provide a positive nitrogen balance.

TPN is ordered for a client with Crohn's disease. The TPN solution is having an intended outcome when: 1. the client's nutritional needs are met. 2. the client is in a negative nitrogen balance. 3. the client is hydrated. 4. the client does not have metabolic acidosis.

1. the client's nutritional needs are met. The goal of TPN is to meet the client's nutritional needs. TPN is not used to treat metabolic acidosis; ketoacidosis can actually develop as a result of administering TPN. TPN is a hypertonic solution containing carbohydrates, amino acids, electrolytes, trace elements, and vitamins. It is not used to meet the hydration needs of clients. TPN is administered to provide a positive nitrogen balance.

A client tells the nurse during a postpartum parenting class that she has switched her 6-month infant from formula to cow's milk to save money on the cost of formula. Which one of the following statements made by the nurse would be the best? 1. "Cow's milk has higher amounts of iron, which could interfere with blood volume." 2. "Cow's milk can be safely given to an infant older than one year of age." 3. "Powdered formula can be blended with cow's milk to supplement." 4. "Cow's milk has as lower amounts of protein. The infant will need additional amounts of milk to meet the infant's needs."

2. "Cow's milk can be safely given to an infant older than one year of age." The quality and quantity of nutrients in cow's milk differs greatly from those of human milk, and cow's milk does not contain many of the various growth and immunological factors found in human milk. With regard to nutrient content, cow's milk contains great amounts of protein and minerals and smaller amounts of essential fatty acids than human milk. Cow's milk has low iron content, and the iron is poorly absorbed. To lower the risk of iron-deficiency anemia, cow's milk is not recommended before 12 months of age.

During a prenatal visit, a pregnant client with cardiac disease and slight functional limitations reports increased fatigue. The nurse knows that the client understands the management of the disorder when the client says which of the following? 1. "I will eat my evening meal an hour before bedtime so that digestion can occur while I am resting." 2. "I will eat five or six small meals each day and have some protein with each meal." 3. "I will eat five or six small, nutritious meals each day but with mostly carbohydrates for more energy." 4. "I will eat three meals each day, but will avoid all simple carbohydrates in my diet."

2. "I will eat five or six small meals each day and have some protein with each meal." Digestion of a large meal shunts blood to the gastrointestinal tract, increasing fatigue levels. Clients with this disorder should ingest small, frequent, and nutritious meals five or six times per day. It is not necessary to completely avoid simple carbohydrates. Eating immediately before bedtime can disturb sleep patterns. A pregnant woman with cardiac issues benefits from sound sleep.

After teaching the client about bottle-feeding, which client statement indicates the need for additional teaching? 1. "Bottle-fed babies up to 6 months of age may gain as much as 1 ounce (30 g)/day." 2. "Iron-fortified formulas are usually recommended for newborns." 3. "Whole milk is an acceptable alternative to formula once the baby is 4 months old." 4. "Bottle-fed babies will usually regain their birth weight by 10 to 14 days of age."

3. "Whole milk is an acceptable alternative to formula once the baby is 4 months old." Neither unmodified cow's milk nor whole milk is an acceptable alternative for newborn nutrition. The American Academy of Pediatrics and Canadian Pediatric Society recommend that infants be given breast milk or formula until 1 year of age. However, the American Academy of Pediatrics Committee on Nutrition has decreed that cow's milk could be substituted in the second 6 months of life, but only if the amount of milk calories does not exceed 65% of total calories and iron is replaced through solid foods. The protein content in cow's milk is too high, is poorly digested, and may cause gastrointestinal tract bleeding. Bottle-fed infants may gain as much as 1 oz (30 g)/day up to age 6 months. Iron-fortified formulas are recommended. Bottle-fed neonates may regain their birth weight by 10 to 14 days of age.

A client is recovering from a gastric resection for peptic ulcer disease. Which outcome indicates that the goal of adequate nutritional intake is being achieved 3 weeks following surgery? The client: 1. drinks 2,000 mL/day of water. 2. experiences occasional episodes of nausea and vomiting. 3. experiences a rapid weight gain within 1 week. 4. increases food intake and tolerance gradually.

4. increases food intake and tolerance gradually. Weight gain will be slow and gradual because less food can be eaten at one time due to the decreased stomach size. More food and fluid will be tolerated as edema at the suture line decreases and healing progresses. The remaining stomach may stretch over time to accommodate more food. Nausea and vomiting can interfere with nutritional intake. Water provides hydration, but not calories and nutrients. Rapid weight gain may be due to fluid retention and would not reflect adequate nutrition.

The client attends two sessions with the dietitian to learn about diet modifications to minimize gastroesophageal reflux. The teaching would be considered successful if the client decreases the intake of which foods? 1. fats 2. high-calcium foods 3. high-sodium foods 4. carbohydrates

1. fats Fats are associated with decreased esophageal sphincter tone, which increases reflux. Obesity contributes to the development of hiatal hernia, and a low-fat diet might also aid in weight loss. Carbohydrates and foods high in sodium or calcium do not affect gastroesophageal reflux.

A client with alcohol dependency is prescribed a B-complex vitamin. The client states, "Why do I need a vitamin? My appetite is just fine." Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate? 1. "The amount of vitamins in the alcohol you drink is very low." 2. "Your doctor wants you to take it for at least 4 months." 3. "You've been drinking alcohol and eating very little." 4. "The vitamin is a nutritional supplement important to your health."

4. "The vitamin is a nutritional supplement important to your health." Stating that the vitamin is a nutritional supplement important to the client's health is the best response. The client is nutritionally depleted, and the B-complex vitamins produce a calming effect on the irritated central nervous system and prevent anemia, peripheral neuropathy, and Wernicke's encephalopathy. Although the statements about drinking alcohol and eating very little and that there is a low amount of vitamins in the alcohol consumed may be true, they fail to address the client's concerns directly and fail to provide the necessary information, as does telling the client that the doctor wants the client to take the vitamin for 4 months.

A client has an order for a clear liquid diet. The nurse is assisting the client to complete a menu. Which of the following would be appropriate for the client to order? 1. Pudding 2. Broth 3. Tea 4. Apple juice 5. Cream soup

2. Broth 3. Tea 4. Apple juice A clear liquid diet includes foods that are clear (that you can see through) and are liquid at room temperature. Apple juice, broth, and tea are clear. Pudding and cream soup would not meet the criteria of clear liquids.

A client's nutritional status has been severely compromised through prolonged episodes of nausea and vomiting. Which nutritional therapy will be the most effective in correcting nutritional deficits before surgery? 1. high-protein between-meal nourishment four times a day 2. total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for several days 3. IV infusion of normal saline solution at 125 mL/hour 4. continuous enteral feedings at 200 mL/hour

2. total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for several days TPN bypasses the enteral route and provides total nutrition: protein, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, minerals, and trace elements. The client is not able to tolerate oral feedings. Enteral feedings would enter the stomach and could increase feelings of fullness, nausea, and vomiting that the client may have had. IV isotonic saline, which contains only water, sodium, and chloride, provides incomplete nutrition.