OB
An US was performed on a pregnant patient who complained of vaginal bleeding. Sonographically, a crescent shaped anechoic area is noted adjacent to the gestational sac. The gestational sac contained a 6 week single live IUP. What is the most likely diagnosis? A- Ectopic pregnancy B- Molar pregnancy C- Subchorionic hemorrhage D- Anembryonic gestation
C
During a first trimester US, you note a round, cystic structure within the fetal head. This most likely represents the: A- Prosencephalon B- Mesencephalon C- Rhombencephalon D- Proencephalon
C
Enlargement of the frontal horns and narrowing of the occipital horns is termed: A- Holoprosencephaly B- DWM C- Colpocephaly D- Apert syndrome
C
In the TPAL designation, the "L" refers to: A- Living children B- Lethal anomalies C- Live births D- Lost pregnancies
C
During a 12 week US, bilateral echogenic structures are noted within the lateral ventricles of the fetal cranium. These structures most likley represent: A- Cerebral tumors B- Cerebral hemorrhage C- Anencephalic remnants D- Choroid plexus
D
The choroid plexus cyst should be associated with an increase risk of: A- Trisomy 13 B- Trisomy 4 C- Arnold- Chiari II malformation D- Trisomy 18
D
The double fold of dura mater that divides the cerebral hemispheres is the: A- Cerebellum B- CSP C- Corpus callosum D- Falx cerebri
D
The most common location of an ectopic pregnancy is the: A- Ovary B- Interstitial portion of the uterine tube C- Cornual portion of the uterine tube D- Ampullary portion of the uterine tube
D
What is often used to medically treat an ectopic pregnancy? A- Dilation and curettage B- Dilation and evacuation C- Open surgery D- Methotrexate
D
Which of the following artifacts is produced when the sound beam is barely attenuated through a fluid or fluid containing structure? A- Reverberation artifact B- Comet tail artifact C- Posterior shadowing D- Acoustic enhancement
D
Which of the following is a genetic disorder that includes craniosynostosis, midline facial hypoplasia, and syndactyly? A- Lobar holoprosencephaly B- Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome C- Arnold-Chiari II malformation D- Apert syndrome
D
Which of the following is also referred to as trisomy 13? A- Down syndrome B- Edwards syndrome C- Turner syndrome D- Patau syndrome
D
The most severe form of holoprosencephaly is: A- Lobar B- Alobar C- Semilobar D- Lobular
B
What is described as the number of pregnancies in which the patient has given birth to a fetus beyond 20 wks gestational age or an infant weighing more than 500g? A- Gravidity B- Parity C- Primigravida D- Primiparous
B
The anechoic space along the posterior aspect of the fetal neck is the: A- Nuchal fold B- Nuchal cord C- Nuchal translucency D- Rhombencephalon
C
What is defined as the area located posterior to the broad ligaments and adjacent to the uterus, which contains the ovaries and fallopian tubes? A- Adnexa B- Paraovarian C- Pouch of Douglas D- Space of Retzius
A
Which of the following will also typically be absent with agenesis of the corpus calosum? A- Cerebellar vermis B- CSP C- Third ventricle D- Fourth ventricle
B
Something that is idiopathic is said to be: A- Caused by a functional abnormality B- Related to fetal development C- From an unknown cause D- Found incidentally
C
What structure lies within the extraembryonic coelom? A- Gestational sac B- Embryo C- Yolk sac D- Amnion
C
The interthalamic adhesion (massa intermedia) passes through the: A- Third ventricle B- Fourth ventricle C- Cisterna magna D- CSP
A
A myelomeningocele is associated with: A- Down syndrome B- Spina bifida C- Edwards syndrome D- Patau syndrome
B
Fertilization typically occurs within ___ after ovulation. A- 40 hours B- 12 hours C- 24 hours D- 56 hours
C
The anechoic midline brain structure located between the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles is the: A- CSP B- Cavum vergae C- Corpus callosum D- Fourth ventricle
A
The clinical manifestations of supine hypotensive syndrome include all of the following except: A- Proteinuria B- Tachycardia C- Nausea D- Pallor
A
The structure created by the union of sperm and egg is the: A- Blastocyst B- Zygote C- Morula D- Ampulla
B
What is the term for the fetal presentation that is head down? A- Breech B- Crown C- Cephalic D- Vertical
C
Which of the following locations for an ectopic pregnancy would be least likely? A- Isthmus of the tube B- Ampulla of the tube C- Ovary D- Interstitial of the tube
C
The structure located between the two lobes of the cerebellum is the: A- Cerebellar vermis B- Cerebellar tonsils C- Falx cerebri D- Corpus callosum
A
Typically, with a miscarriage, the serum hCG value will be: A- Elevated B- Decreased C- This laboratory finding is not helpful D- Unchanged
B
What hormone, produced by the corpus luteum, maintains the thickened endometrium? A- Estrogen B- Progesterone C- hCG D- Luteinizing hormone
B
All of the following are sonographic findings consistent with ectopic pregnancy except: A- Decidual thickening B- Complex, free fluid within the pelvis C- Bilateral, multiloculated ovarian cysts D- Complex adnexal mass separate from the ipsilateral ovary
C
All of the following may be visualized at the correct level of the head circumference except: A- Third ventricle B- Thalamus C- Cavum septum pellucidum D- Falx cerebelli
D
A malignant form of GTD is: A- Choriocarcinoma B- Hydatiform mole C- Anembryonic D- Hydropic villi
A
For the normal biophysical profile, the amniotic fluid pocket should measure: A- Greater than 4 cm in two perpendicular planes B- At least 1 cm in two perpendicular planes C- Greater than 5 cm in two perpendicular planes D- At least 3 cm in two perpendicular planes
B
The premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before the birth of the fetus describes: A- Placenta previa B- Placental abruption C- Ectopic cordis D- Subchorionic hamartoma
B
The second trimester typically refers to weeks: A- 12 through 26 B- 13 through 26 C- 10 through 28 D- 26 through 42
B
What chromosomal aberration is most often associated with holoprosencephaly? A- Anophthalmia B- Trisomy 21 C- Trisomy 13 D- Trisomy 18
C
Which of the following artifacts is caused by attenuation of the sound beam? A- Reverberation artifact B- Comet tail artifact C- Posterior shadowing D- Posterior enhancement
C
With a normal pregnancy, the first structure noted within the decidualized endometrium is the: A- yolk sac B- Chorionic sac C- Amniotic cavity D- Embryo
B
Which of the following best describes the optimal instance to take the femur length measurement? A- When the epiphyseal plates are clearly identified and the shaft is parallel to the sound beam B- When the diaphysis of the femur is parallel to the sound beam C- When the long axis of the femoral shaft is perpendicular to the sound beam D- When the femoral shaft is parallel to the sound beam
C
All of the following may be sonographic findings in the presence of an ectopic pregnancy except: A- Pseudogestational sac B- Corpus luteum cyst C- Adnexal ring D- Low beta hCG
D
Biophysical profile scoring is conducted: A- Until the fetus cooperates B- For 10 minutes C- For 45 minutes D- For 30 minutes
D
Fetal presentation is determined by identifying the fetal part that is closest to the: A- Placenta B- External os of the cervix C- Maternal umbilicus D- Internal os of the cervix
D
The abdominal circumference should include all of the following except: A- The fetal stomach B- The fetal thoracic spine C- The umbilical vein D- The kidneys
D
Which of the following would not be decreased in the presence of Edward's syndrome? A- Estriol B- hCG C- Alpha-Fetoprotein D- All would be decreased
D
The migration of the embryologic bowel into the base of the umbilical cord at 9 weeks is referred to as: A- Physiological bowel herniation B- Pseudo-omphalocele C- Omphalocele D- Gastroschisis
A
The protein that is produced by the yolk sac, the fetal gastrointestinal tract, and the fetal liver is: A- Alpha-fetoprotein B- hCG C- PAPP-A D- Inhibin A
A
All of the following would be associated with a lower than normal hCG level except: A- Ectopic pregnancy B- Molar pregnancy C- Blighted ovum D- Spontaneous abortion
B
Compared with a normal IUP, the ectopic pregnancy will have a: A- High hCG B- low hCG C- Markedly elevated hCG D- High AFP
B
All of the following are clinical features of an ectopic pregnancy except: A- Pain B- Vaginal bleeding C- Shoulder pain D- Adnexal ring
D
All of the following are clinical findings consistent with a complete molar pregnancy except: A- vaginal bleeding B- Hypertension C- Uterine enlargement D- Small for dates
D
All of the following are consistent with a complete hydatiform mole except: A- Heterogeneous mass within the endometrium B- Bilateral thecal lutein cysts C- Hyperemesis gravidarum D- Low hCG
D
All of the following are contributing factors for an ectopic pregnancy except: A- Pelvic inflammatory disease B- Assisted reproductive therapy C- IUCD D- Advanced paternal age
D
All of the following are observed during a biophysical profile except: A- Fetal tone B- Thoracic movement C- Fetal breathing D- Fetal circulation
D
Which of the following is the most likely metastatic location for GTD? A- Rectum B- Pancreas C- Spleen D- Lungs
D
A cloverleaf shaped skull is related to: A- Trisomy 18 B- Meckel-Gruber syndrome C- Trisomy 13 D- Thanatophoric dysplasia
D
The absence of the eyes is termed: A- Agyria B- Epignathus C- Hypotelorism D- Anophthalmia
D
All of the following are associated with an abnormal NT except: A- Trisomy 21 B- Trisomy 16 C- Trisomy 18 D- Turner syndrome
B
The number of pregnancies is defined as: A- Gravidity B- Parity C- Primigravida D- Primiparous
A
A cystic hygroma is the result of: A- Alcohol consumption in the 1st trimester B- An abnormal development of the roof of the fourth ventricle C- Occlusion of the internal carotid arteries D- An abnormal accumulation of lymphatic fluid within the soft tissue
D
A group of abnormalities associated with the entrapment of fetal parts and fetal amputations is: A- Cystic hygroma B- Edwards syndrome C- Ethmocephaly D- Amniotic band syndrome
D
All of the following are sonographic features of holoprosencephaly except: A- Cystic hygroma B- Proboscis with cyclopia C- Fused thalamus D- Monoventricle
A
What is the most common form of GTD? A- Complete molar pregnancy B- Partial molar pregnancy C- Invasive mole D- Choriocarcinoma
A
What is the name of the dominant follicle prior to ovulation? A- Graafian B- Corpus luteum C- Morula D- Corpus albicans
A
What is the stage of the conceptus that implants within the decidualized endometrium? A- Blastocyst B- Morula C- Zygote D- Ovum
A
What structure connects the embryo to the yolk sac? A- Vitelline duct B- Yolk stakl C- Amnion D- Chorionic stalk
A
Which of the following forms of fetal presentation is the most common? A- Cephalic B- Complete breech C- Frank breech D- Transverse
A
Which of the following is not part of the biophysical profile? A- Fetal swallowing B- Flexion of the limb C- Amniotic fluid D- Fetal breathing
A
A large, mostly cystic mass containing a thick, midline septation is noted in the cervical spine region of a fetus. This most likely represents a(n): A- Sacrococcygeal teratoma B- Cystic hygroma C- Cephalocele D- Anophthalmia
B
A lemon shaped skull is related to: A- Trisomy 2 B- Arnold- Chiari II malformation C- Thanatophoric dysplasia D- Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
B
An abnormal division in the lip is referred to as: A- Micrognathia B- Cleft lip C- Anophthalmia D- Cebocephaly
B
An increase distance between the orbits is referred to as: A- Hypotelorism B- Hypertelorism C- Anophthalmia D- Micrognathia
B
An increased nuchal fold is most likely associated with: A- Dandy-Walker syndrome B- Trisomy 21 C- Trisomy 3 D- Nuchal cord
B
An oral teratoma is referred to as: A- Macroglossia B- Epignathus C- Micrognathia D- Ethmocephaly
B
The most common location of a cystic hygroma is within the: A- Axilla B- Neck C- Chest D- Groin
B
The sonographic finding of a fluid filled cranium with absence of cerebral tissue is consistent with: A- Hydrocephalus B- Hydranencephaly C- Holoprosencephaly D- Schizencephaly
B
The thickness of the nuchal fold in the second trimester should not exceed: A- 3 mm B- 6 mm C- 10 mm D- 12 mm
B
All of the following are sonographic features of alobar holoprosencephaly except: A- Cyclopia B- Monoventricle C- Dorsal cyst D- Fused thalamus
C
Fusion of the orbits is termed: A- Microglossia B- Cebocephaly C- Cyclopia D- Ethmocephaly
C
Macroglossia is most commonly found with: A- Anencephaly B- Holoprosencephaly C- Beckwith-Weidmemann syndrome D- Cystic hygroma
C
Nuchal thickening is most commonly associated with? A- Patau syndrome B- Hydranencephaly C- Down syndrome D- Cebocephaly
C
What is the term for a smaller than normal ear? A- Microphthalmia B- Micronatia C- Microtia D- Micrognathia
C
A reduction in the distance between the orbits is referred to as: A- Anophthalmia B- Micrognathia C- Hypertelorism D- Hypotelorism
D
All of the following are sonographic findings of Arnold-Chiari II malformation except: A- Enlarged massa intermedia B- Hydrocephalus C- Obliteration of the cisterna magna D- Strawberry sign
D
An unusual protuberance of the tongue is termed: A- Epignathus B- Macrognathia C- Pharyngoglossia D- Macroglossia
D
Micrognathia is a condition found in: A- Dandy-Walker complex B- Hydranencephaly C- Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome D- Trisomy 18
D
The trophoblastic cells produce: A- Estrogen B- Progesterone C- Follicle-stimulating hormone D- hCG
D
What cerebral abnormalities are atypical facial features most commonly associated with? A- DWM B- Schizencephaly C- Lissencephaly D- Holoprosencephaly
D
What cerebral malformation is as a result of agenesis or hypoplasia of the cerebellar vermis? A- Arnold-Chiari II malformation B- Schizencephaly C- Mega cisterna magna D- DWM
D
What fetal suture is located within the frontal bone along the midline of the forehead? A- Squamosal suture B- Sagittal suture C- Lambdoidal suture D- Metopic suture
D
What hormone maintains the corpus luteum during pregnancy? A- Estrogen B- Progesterone C- Follicle-stimulating hormone D- hCG
D
Which of the following conditions does not affect the orbits? A- Cebocephaly B- Cyclopia C- Ethmocephaly D- Epignathus
D
Which of the following is also referred to as Patau syndrome? A- Trisomy 18 B- Trisomy 21 C- Trisomy 12 D- Trisomy 13
D
Which of the following is also referred to as trisomy 21? A- Edward syndrome B- Patau syndrome C- Meckel-Gruber syndrome D- Down syndrome
D
Which of the following may also be referred to as Turner syndrome? A- Down syndrome B- Trisomy 15 C- Trisomy 13 D- Monosomy X
D
A cisterna magna that measure 15 mm and a normal appearing cerebellum is most likely: A- Arnold-Chiari II malformation B- Schizencephaly C- Mega cisterna magna D- DWM
C
A small mandible is termed: A- Macroglossia B- Epignathus C- Micrognathia D- Ethmocephaly
C
A strawberry-shaped skull is commonly associated with: A- Trisomy 21 B- Trisomy 15 C- Trisomy 18 D- Trisomy 13
C
Following an intracranial hemorrhage, a cyst is noted within the cerebrum that communicates with the lateral ventricle. This is referred to as: A- Schizencephaly B- Lissencephaly C- Holoprosencephaly D- Porencephaly
D
The cisterna magna should not exceed _______ in the transcerebellar plane. A- 4 mm B- 2 mm C- 8 mm D- 10 mm
D
The normal gestational sac will grow: A- 2 mm per day B- 3 mm per day C- 1 cm per day D- 1 mm per day
D
At what level is the nuchal fold measurement obtained? A- CSP B- Occipital horns of the LV C- Brain stem D- Foramen magna
A
Close-set eyes and a nose with a single nostril is termed: A- Cebocephaly B- Cyclopia C- Ethmocephaly D- Epignathus
A
Dangling choroid sign is associated with: A- Ventriculomegaly B- Hydranencephaly C- Lissencephaly D- Meckel-Gruber syndrome
A
Facial anomalies, when discovered, should prompt the sonographer to analyze the brain closely for signs of: A- Holoprocenephaly B- Dandy-Walker malformation C- Schizencephaly D- Hydranencephaly
A
In the early gestation, where is the secondary yolk sac located? A- Chorionic cavity B- Base of the umbilical cord C- Embryonic cranium D- Amniotic cavity
A
In the first trimester, normal hCG levels will: A- Double every 48 hours B- Triple every 24 hours C- Double every 24 hours C- Double every 12 hours
A
Absence of the skull is: A- Hydranencephaly B- Schizencephaly C- Acrania D- Ventriculomegaly
C
The physiologic ovarian cyst that develops after ovulation has occurred is the: A- Theca internal cyst B- Graafian cyst C- Corpus luteum cyst D- Cystic teratoma
C
The reduction in blood return to the maternal heart caused by the gravid uterus compressing the maternal IVC describes: A- Edwards syndrome B- Pulmonary obstructive syndrome C- Supine hypotensive syndrome D- Recumbent hypotensive syndrome
C
The third ventricle is located: A- Anterior to the thalamus B- Anterior to the cerebellar vermis C- Between the two lobes of the thalamus D- Superior to the corpus callosum
C
There is a definite link between microtia and what syndrome? A- Rays syndrome B- VACTERL syndrome C- Down syndrome D- Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
C
Which of the following would be the least likely indication of a first-trimester sonogram? A- Evaluate pelvic pain B- Define the cause of vaginal bleeding C- Gender identification D- diagnosis of multiple gestations
C
The growth disorder syndrome synonymous with organ, skull, and tongue enlargement is: A- Klinefelter syndrome B- Apert syndrome C- Meckel-Gruber syndrome D- Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
D
The fourth ventricle is located: A- Posterior to the CSP B- Between the frontal horns of the lateral ventricle C- Anterior to the cerebellar vermis D- Medial to the third ventricle
C
An absent or hypoplastic nasal bone is most likely associated with: A- Trisomy 21 B- Trisomy 15 C- Trisomy 18 D- Turner syndrome
A
The condition in which there is no nose and a proboscis separating two close set orbits is: A- Ethmocephaly B- Epignathus C- Micrognathia D- Cebocephaly
A
The isolated enlargement of the fetal thyroid is referred to as: A- Fetal goiter B- Cystic hygroma C- Lymphangioma D- Cervical teratoma
A
Another name for the chorionic sac is the: A- Chorionic cavity B- Extraembryonic coelom C- Amniotic sac D- Gestational sac
D
The fetal lip typically closes by: A- 18 weeks B- 8 weeks C- 13 weeks D- 6 weeks
B
The lack of sulci within the fetal cerebrum is a reliable indicator of: A- Agenesis of the corpus callosum B- Lissencephaly C- Schizencephaly D- Porencephaly
B
The condition in which the frontal horns are small and the occipital horns are enlarged is referred to as: A- Ethmocephaly B- Hydrocephalus C- Colpocephaly D- Encephalitis
C
The development of fluid filled cleft within the cerebrum is consistent with: A- Holoprosencephaly B- Lissencephaly C- Schizencephaly D- Hydranencephaly
C
The first sonographically identifiable sign of pregnancy is the: A- Amnion B- Yolk sac C- Decidual reaction D- Chorionic cavity
C
The most common cause of hypertelorism is: A- Dandy-Walker malformation B- Anencephaly C- Anterior cephalocele D- Holoprocencephaly
C
The nuchal fold measurement is typically obtained: A- Before 12 weeks 6 days B- Between 11 weeks and 13 weeks 6 days C- Between 15 weeks and 21 weeks D- After 24 weeks
C
The optimal scan plane to visualize micrognathia is: A- Transverse B- Axial C- Sagittal D- Coronal
C
Which of the following is located on both sides of the midline? A- Interhemispheric fissures B- Third and fourth ventricles C- Lateral ventricles D- Third ventricle and cerebral aqueduct
C
Which of the following would be most difficult to detect sonographically? A- Cleft lip and cleft palate B- Isolated cleft lip C- Isolated cleft palate D- Isolated median cleft
C
The most common pelvic mass associated with pregnancy is the: A- Uterine leiomyoma B- Dermoid cyst C- Theca luteum cyst D- Corpus luteum cyst
D
Which of the following would be the most likely fetal cranial findings with TORCH infections? A- Intracranial calcificiations B- Cerebral atrophy C- Porencephaly D- Scaphocephaly
A
With what structure does the posterior fossa cyst associated with DWM communicate? A- Fourth ventricle B- Third ventricle C- Cerebellar vermis D- Cerebral aqueduct
A
The "sunburst" of the cerebral sulci is a sonographic finding of: A- DWM B- Agenesis of the corpus callosum C- Colpocephaly D- Hydranencephaly
B
The most common cause of pelvic pain with pregnancy is: A- Ectopic pregnancy B- Heterotopic pregnancy C- Missed abortion D- Molar pregnancy
A
Typically, with gastroschisis, the MSAFP value will be: A- Elevated B- Decreased C- This laboratory finding is not helpful D- Unchanged
A
The most common site of fertilization is within the: A- Isthmus of the uterine tube B- Uterine fundus C- Cornu of the uterine tube D- Ampulla of the uterine tube
D
Sonographically, a normal-appearing 7-week IUP is identified. Within the adnexa, an ovarian cystic structure with a thick, hyperechoic rim is also discovered. What does this ovarian mass most likely represent? A- Theca lutein cyst B- Corpus luteum cyst C- Corpus albicans D- Ectopic pregnancy
B
The band of tissue that allows communication between the right and left cerebral hemispheres is the: A- Falx cerebri B- Corpus callosum C- Cerebellar vermis D- CSP
B
The dilation of the renal collecting system secondary to the obstruction of normal urine flow defines: A- Nephrocalcinosis B- Hydronephrosis C- Renal calculi D- Urinary stasis
B
The measurement obtained between the lateral walls of the orbits is referred to as the: A- Interocular diameter B- Binocular diameter C- Ocular diameter D- Biparietal diameter
B
The most accurate measurement for estimating gestational age is: A- BPD B- HC C- Transcerebellar measurement D- Lateral ventricle
B
Which of the following is a benign congenital neck cyst found most often near the angle of the mandible? A- Epignathus B- Brachial cleft cyst C- Thyroglossal duct cyst D- Fetal goiter
B
Which of the following should not be included in the correct level for an HC measurement? A- Falx cerebri B- Fourth ventricle C- Thalamus D- CSP
B
Which of the following would not be normally located within the midline of the fetal brain? A- CSP B- Lobes of the thalamus C- Third ventricle D- Falx cerebri
B
Which of the following would most likely involve the development of a cystic hygroma? A- Beckwith-Weidemann syndrome B- Hydranencephaly C- Turner syndrome D- Klinefelter syndrome
C
The most common cause of hydrocephalus in utero is: A- Cerebral hemorrhage B- Holoprosencephaly C- Brain tumors D- Aqueductal stenosis
D
The most frequently encountered chromosomal abnormality associated with holoprosencephaly is: A- Triploidy B- Trisomy 21 C- Trisomy 18 D- Trisomy 13
D
The quadruple screen includes an analysis of all of the following except: A- hCG B- Alpha-fetoprotein C- Inhibin A D- PAPP-A
D
The third ventricle communicates with the fourth ventricle at the: A- Foramen of Magendie B- Foramen of Lushka C- Foramen of Monro D- Aqueduct of Sylvuis
D
The triple screen typically includes an analysis of: A- hCG, alpha-fetoprotein, and estriol B- Fetal NT, alpha-fetoprotein, and inhibin A C- hCG, alpha-fetoprotein, and inhibin A D- hCG, alpha-fetoprotein, and PAPP-A
A
A normal shaped skull is termed: A- Dolichocephaly B- Brachycephaly C- Mesocephaly D- Scaphocephaly
C
The first structure noted within the gestational sac is the: A- Yolk sac B- Embryo C- Decidual reaction D- Chorionic sac
A
What is the fetal presentation when the fetal buttocks are closest to the cervix? A- Footling breech B- Frank breech C- Complete breech D- Transverse
B
NT measures are typically obtained between: A- 1 and 5 weeks B- 5 and 8 weeks C- 8 and 11 weeks D- 11 and 14 weeks
D
Painless second trimester vaginal bleeding is most often associated with: A- Placental abruption B- Ectopic pregnancy C- Miscarriage D- Placenta previa
D
All of the following are produced by the placenta except: A- Alpha-Fetoprotein B- hCG C- PAPP-A D- Inhibin A
A
All of the following would be an indication for a third-trimester sonogram except: A- Evaluate NT B- Evaluate fetal position C- Evaluate fetal growth D- Evaluate gestational age
A
Typically, with anencephaly, the MSAFP value will be: A- Elevated B- Decreased C- This laboratory finding is not helpful D- Unchanged
A
Which of the following would be least likely associated with an elevation of MSAFP? A- Anencephaly B- Turner syndrome C- Spina bifida D- Myelomeningocele
B
Which of the following would not typically produce an elevation in hCG? A- Down syndrome B- Anembryonic pregnancy C- Triploidy D- Molar pregnancy
B
