OB Complications

Meconium peritonitis (calcifcations are a common finding with this condition)

A calcification within the fetal liver is commonly associated with which of the following conditions? a. Ambiguous genitalia b. Meconium peritonitis c. Renal calculi d. Umbilical vein thrombosis

Trisomy 21 and brachycephaly

A cephalic index of 90% in a 28 week fetus can indicate which of the following? a. Trisomy 21, only b. Dolichocephaly, only c. Trisomy 21 and dolichocephaly d. Trisomy 21 and brachycephaly

Cerebellar agenesis and Dandy Walker malformation

A cisterna magna that measures greater than 10mm is a common finding with these conditions: a. Renal agenesis and omphalocele b. Cerebellar agenesis and Dandy Walker malformation c. Spina bifida and anencephaly d. Acrania and anencephaly

Thanatrophoric dysplasia (this is also the most common lethal form of skeletal dysplasia)

A clover-leaf skull is commonly associated with which skeletal dysplasia? a. Achondrogenesis b. Spina bifida c. Thanatrophoric dysplasia d. Club foot

46XY intersex (hermaphroditism is also known as intersex)

A fetus with female genitalia and testes would be described as: a. 46XX intersex b. 45XO c. 46XY intersex d. ambiguous genitalia

46xx intersex (hermaphroditism is also known as intersex)

A fetus with male genitalia and ovaries would be described as: a. 46XX intersex b. 45XO c. 46XY intersex d. ambiguous genitalia

35 yrs

A maternal age of greater than ___ is considered a geriatric pregnancy, or advanced maternal age. a. 40 yrs b. 33 yrs c. 42 yrs d. 35 yrs

Holoprosencephaly

A midline facial cleft is most commonly associated with what intracranial abnormality? a. Dandy-Walker malformation b. Holoprosencephaly c. Hydrocephalus d. Hydranencephaly

Transverse axial view of the fetal head with the beam perpendicular to the parietal bones (agenesis of the corpus callosum is ruled out by demonstrating a normal CSP in the same view a BPD would be measured)

A patient presents for a 20-week anatomy scan with a history of a prior pregnancy with ACC. What is the best way to evaluate for this fetal abnormality? a. Transverse axial view of the fetal head with the beam perpendicular to the parietal bones b. Transverse axial view of the cerebellum, thalamus & 3rd ventricle c. Transverse axial view of the fetus at the level of the cervical spine d. Coronal view of the posterior fossa

Gastroschisis (this is a ventral wall defect; not neuro)

All of the following are caused by neurulation during fetal development, except: a. Anencephaly b. Rachischisis c. Gastroschisis d. Myelomeningocele

Cullen sign (A=superficial edema/bruising around umbilicus, B=air in circulatory system, C=suture overlap on skull, D=scalp edema)

All of the following are sonographic signs of fetal demise of a week or more ago, except: a. Cullen sign b. Robert's sign c. Spalding's sign d. Deuel's sign

A duplicated duodenum is commonly identified as the double bubble sign in these patients (duodenal atresia is the double bubble sign)

All of the following correctly describe T21, except? a. A two vessel cord is rarely identified b. A duplicated duodenum is commonly identified as the double bubble sign in these patients c. Down syndrome is another name for T21 d. Frontal bossing and hypertelorism are common associations

Similar to Turner Syndrome, but has normal facial features (low-set ears and hypertelorism are included in abnormal findings with Noonan Syndrome)

All of the following refer to Noonan Syndrome, except: a. Associated with congenital heart defects b. Similar to Turner Syndrome, but has normal facial features c. Referred to as the male version of Turner Syndrome d. Type of dwarfism

Gastroschisis

An abdominal wall abnormality that occurs with abdominal contents herniating through the abdominal wall layers outside the fetus is called a ___. a. Cloacal exstrophy b. Allantoic cyst c. Gastroschisis d. Omphalocele

Both genes are defective in the pair (recessive means picked last; for a child to have a recessive gene, both parents must be carriers)

An autosomal recessive disorder will be present in a child when: a. There is a single extra chromosome present b. There is a duplicate copy of all chromosomes c. There is one defective gene present in the pair d. Both genes are defective in the pair

normal, decreased (AFP levels decline in fetuses with T21 or Turner syndrome)

An isolated case of cystic hygroma will present with ___ levels of AFP, but if cystic hygroma is present in a fetus with Turner syndrome, then AFP levels will ___. a. normal, decreased b. increased, decreased c. decreased, increased d. normal, increased

A normal variant (a prominent posterior continuation of the CSP may simulate the appearance of an arachnoid cyst or dilated 3rd ventricle)

An isolated finding of cavum vergae is considered: a. A hard marker for T21 b. A normal variant c. A soft marker for T21 d. A sign of potential mental deficit in the fetus

involves shunting of arterial blood flow from the abdomen to the brain (this is the fetal response to diminished inflow; rerouted to the brain to spare its growth)

Asymmetric IUGR usually: a. presents early in the 2nd trimester b. demonstrates an HC more than 2 SD less than the AC c. involves shunting of arterial blood flow from the abdomen to the brain d. causes decreased resistance to flow in the ductus venosus and umbilical arteries

Open spina bifida (Chiari II malformation includes obliterated CM, lemon sign & banana sign)

Chiari II malformation is strongly associated with which of the following: a. Megacisterna magna b. Open spina bifida c. Closed spina bifida d. Clover leaf skull

16 weeks (the amnion and chorion start to fuse by week 12 and should be done by week 14; if still not fused by 16 weeks, there is a 60% chance of chromosomal abnormalities)

Chromosomal defects may be present in a pregnancy where the amnion and chorion have not completely fused by this gestational week: a. 8 weeks b. 12 weeks c. 16 weeks d. 20 weeks

Clavicular aplasia and hypoplasia (also called Cleidocranial dysostosis (CCD); cranium may appear less ossified as well)

Cleidocranial dysplasia is an autosomal dominant condition characterized by: a. Lack of formation of the long bones b. Lack of formation of the ribs and vertebral processes c. Clavicular aplasia and hypoplasia d. Cloverleaf skull and cleft palate

Agenesis of the corpus callosum

Dilated 3rd ventricle, colpocephaly, and the sunburst sign in cerebral tissue are all findings most consistent with what? a. Dandy-Walker cyst b. Schizencephaly c. Agenesis of the cerebellar vermis d. Agenesis of the corpus callosum

Hydrocephalus (due to increased levels of CSF in the ventricles)

Drooping or dangling choroid plexus is commonly seen with which of the following cranial abnormalities? a. Meningomyocele b. Schizencephaly c. Hydrocephalus d. Encephalocele

18

Esophageal atresia is a significant indication for which of the following trisomies: a. 13 b. 16 c. 18 d. 21

Skeletal dysplasia (this technique more accurately predicts pulmonary hypoplasia, which is a common lethal condition associated with skeletal dysplasia)

Fetal lung volumetry performed with 3D sonography is useful in diagnosing: a. Fetal asphyxia b. Fetal respiratory failure c. Diaphragmatic hernia d. Skeletal dysplasia

ICA that leads to cerebral tissue destruction

Hydranencephaly is caused by an obstruction of the: a. ICA that leads to cerebral tissue destruction b. Umbilical arteries that leads to a backlog of fetal blood in the brain c. Extra-uterine pressure causing fetal head trauma d. Umbilical vein that leads to a backlog of fetal blood in the brain

Fetal blood transfusion (Percutaneous umbilical cord blood sampling (PUBS) is performed when fetal anemia is suspected due to an Rh incompatability; to diagnose and transfuse fetal circulation)

If a PUBS procedure is performed and erythroblastosis fetalis is identified in the fetus, what is the most likeley next step in the patient's care? a. Termination of the pregnancy b. Administration of Rhogam c. Fetal blood transfusion d. Maternal blood transfusion

Hypotelorism

If arhinia is noted, the fetus should be evaluated for this commonly associated anomaly: a. Club foot b. Rocker bottom foot c. Hypotelorism d. AVSD

BPD and HC are 2 or more standard deviations above the average for the gestational age

Macrocephaly is identified when: a. BPD and HC are 3 or more standard deviations above the average for the gestational age b. Cranial volume greater than 90th percentile c. Cranial volume greater than 95th percentile d. BPD and HC are 2 or more standard deviations above the average for the gestational age

to cause involution of an early ectopic pregnancy and preserve fertility

Methotrexate is used: a. to prevent ectopic pregnancy b. to cause involution of an early ectopic pregnancy and preserve fertility c. to accelerate fetal lung development in pregnancies at a high risk of early delivery d. to prevent premature rupture of membranes in the 3rd trimester

Meconium peritonitis

Multiple echogenic foci seen in the fetal liver, bowel and peritoneum are accompanied by polyhydramnios and fetal ascites. These findings most likely indicate: a. Fetal demise b. Meconium peritonitis c. Cystomegaloviral infection d. Trisomy 21

Bladder exstrophy - Epispadias complex

Normal AFI with non-visualization of the bladder after 30 minutes will cause you to be suspicious for: a. Trisomy 18 b. Trisomy 21 c. Omphalocele, Exstrophy, Imperforate anus, Spinal defect complex (OEIS) d. Bladder exstrophy - Epispadias complex

ectopia cordis (aka ectopic heart)

Pantralogy of Cantrell consists of the following a sternum defect, diaphragm defect, omphalocele, intracardial anomalies, and: a. renal agensis b. ectopia cordis c. club foot d. bladder exstrophy

3rd trimester

Placental abruption is the most common cause of significant bleeding in this stage of pregnancy. a. Post-partum b. 3rd trimester c. 2nd trimester d. 1st trimester

37 weeks

Premature delivery is referred to when the fetus is delivered before this gestational age. a. 38 weeks b. 37 weeks c. 35 weeks d. 33 weeks

increased hCG & decreased MSAFP (T21 Quad screen = low unconjugated estriol & MSAFP, high hCG & inhibin-A; also low PAPP-A w/ T21)

Quad screen results for a fetus with Trisomy 21 would include which of the following? a. decreased hCG & inhibin-A b. increased hCG & estriol levels c. decreased unconjugated estriol & increased MSAFP d. increased hCG & decreased MSAFP

Ostium primum ASD and an inlet VSD

The AV canal defect is the combination of an: a. Ostium primum ASD and a membranous VSD b. Ostium primum ASD and a muscular VSD c. Ostium primum ASD and an inlet VSD d. Sinus venosus ASD and an inlet VSD

3 - 8 weeks (Week 1 to Week 8 (GA) are considered the embryonic period of development.)

The embryo is most sensitive to teratogenic effects between which gestational range? a. 4 - 7 weeks b. 6 - 10 weeks c. 3 - 8 weeks d. 2 - 4 weeks

Measurement of the length of the nasal bone (this is important for assessing possible T21, not IUGR)

The following protocols are important to evaluating a fetus with potential IUGR, except: a. Calculation of the S/D ratio of the umbilical artery b. Measurement of the placental thickness c. Calculation of the FL/AC ratio d. Measurement of the length of the nasal bone

Urinary bladder filling and emptying every 30-45 min. (no kidneys would mean no bladder to fill)

The following would be an unexpected finding in a fetus with renal agenesis. a. Pulmonary hypoplasia b. Urinary bladder filling and emptying every 30-45 min. c. Oligohydramnios d. Small fetal stomach

Occipital

The majority of encephaloceles are located in this region of the cranium. a. Frontal b. Temporal c. Occipital d. Parietal

Chromosomal abnormalities

The most common cause of demise in the first trimester is which of the following? a. Prior history of abortion b. Uterine trauma c. Chromosomal abnormalities d. Maternal smoking

Fluid-filled sacs of cerebrospinal fluid in the cranial cavity with varying amounts of tissue remaining due to atrophy & necrosis

The sonographic appearance of hydranencephaly is: a. Absent or malformed cerebellum with an enlarged cisterna magna b. Fluid-filled sacs of cerebrospinal fluid in the cranial cavity with varying amounts of tissue remaining due to atrophy & necrosis c. Abnormal brain stem identified with a CM < 2mm d. A single large c-shaped ventricle is usually present

Talipes equinovarus (also known as club foot)

This pedal abnormality is commonly seen with spina bifida. a. Polydactyly b. Splayed digits c. Rocker bottom foot d. Talipes equinovarus

Patau's syndrome

Trisomy 13 is also known as: a. Patau's syndrome b. Turner's syndrome c. Edward's syndrome d. Down's syndrome

Edward's syndrome

Trisomy 18 is also known as: a. Patau's syndrome b. Turner's syndrome c. Edward's syndrome d. Down's syndrome

Postpartum hemorrhage (Uterine atony refers to the lack of uterine ability to return to a pregnancy state; the uterus is unable to contact fully during delivery so some arteries remain from the placenta, causing active bleeding post-delivery)

Uterine atony is a frequent cause of what maternal complication? a. Endometritis b. Premature rupture of the membranes c. Incompetent cervix d. Postpartum hemorrhage

Uterine synechia don't attach to the fetus while amniotic bands do

Uterine synechia and amniotic bands that are associated with fetal abnormalities look similar on ultrasound. How can these be differentiated? a. Uterine synechia are only identified in the non-pregnant uterus, while amniotic bands are identified in the pregnant uterus b. Uterine synechia don't attach to the fetus while amniotic bands do c. Uterine synechia don't attach to the uterine wall, while amniotic bands do d. It is not possible to distinguish the two findings on ultrasound

Rhabdomyoma (this is the most common pediatric tumor of the heart and is associated with tuberous sclerosis)

What are the arrows in this image pointing to? a. Hypoplastic left heart b. Rhabdomyoma c. Multiple echogenic intracardiac foci d. Pulmonary sequestration

Normal retroplacental space

What are the arrows pointing to in this image? a. Hematoma formation within a placental abruption b. Normal retroplacental space c. Placental lake formation posterior to the placenta d. Amnion and chorion junction

Rocker bottom foot (TEV is also known as club foot, while both T13 & 18 have these, you can only select one choice. T13 has polydactyly of the hand but not of the foot - "pedal abnormality")

What pedal abnormality do Trisomy 13 and 18 have in common? a. Rocker bottom foot b. Talipes Equinovarus c. Polydactyly d. Club foot

Hypophosphatasia

What skeletal dysplasia is associated with low levels of Alkaline Phosphatase in the fetal tissue samples obtained by CVS? a. Hypophosphatasia b. Short-rib Polydactyly Syndrome c. Campomelic Dysplasia d. Achondrogenesis

Lissencephaly (Also known as agyria; absence of the sulci & gyri formation in the brain tissue. Nearly impossible to evaluated by US)

Which of the following abnormalities is least likely to be evaluated with 3D/4D techniques? a. Anencephaly b. Cleft lip c. Club foot d. Lissencephaly

Meninges and brain tissue herniation through a bony defect in the calvarium

Which of the following best describes an encephalocele? a. Lack of cranial bone formation b. Collection of lymphatic fluid at the neck due to obstruction c. Premature ossification of one or more skull sutures causing abnormally shaped calvarium & abnormal facial features d. Meninges and brain tissue herniation through a bony defect in the calvarium

Polydactyly (the image demonstrates a fetal foot with an extra digit)

Which of the following best describes the skeletal anomaly seen in this image? a. Syndactyly b. Polydactyly c. Clinodactyly d. Ectrodactyly

A diaphragmatic hernia (the heart should be on a superior transverse plane than the stomach)

Which of the following best identify the finding when the stomach and heart are viewed on the same transverse view? a. A diaphragmatic hernia b. Normal situs is demonstrated on a breech fetus c. A possible sign of trisomy 21 d. A possible sign of erythroblastosis fetalis

Triploidy

Which of the following chromosomal anomalies seen in the fetus is most likely to cause a partial molar pregnancy? a. Trisomy 13 b. Trisomy 21 c. Triploidy d. Trisomy 18

Associated with increased alpha fetoprotein (anencephaly is displayed, which is fatal with no surgical intervention & is an open neural tube defect associated with high AFP)

Which of the following conditions are associated with the findings displayed on this ultrasound image? a. Commonly associated with Trisomy 21 b. Surgical intervention in utero can be done to possibly allow this fetus to live a normal life c. Associated with increased alpha fetoprotein d. Associated with decreased alpha fetoprotein

fetal demise (all others commonly are associated with poly)

Which of the following conditions is associated with oligohydramnios? a. fetal demise b. cystic hygroma c. preterm labor d. skeletal dysplasia

Trisomy 21 (the image demonstrated echogenic bowel on the fetus, which is a common finding with T21)

Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with the finding seen on these ultrasound images? a. Trisomy 21 b. Turner syndrome c. Noonan syndrome d. Trisomy 13

Brachycephaly

Which of the following cranial abnormality is usually a normal variant, but has been associated with T21 and spina bifida? a. Brachycephaly b. Encephalocele c. Dolichocephaly d. Exencephaly

Placental abruption and premature birth (cocaine acts as a potent vasoconstrictor that causes the placenta to age more quickly)

Which of the following critical findings in fetal ultrasound could be caused by maternal cocaine abuse? a. Theca lutein cyst formation b. Fetal hydrops and demise c. Fetal congestive heart failure d. Placental abruption and premature birth

IUGR

Which of the following does NOT have postpartum hemorrhage as a complication? a. Twin gestation b. IUGR c. Polyhydramnios d. Macrosomia

Blood first appears as a hypoechoic fluid collection (these blood clots typically first appear hyperechoic and turn hypoechoic later)

Which of the following does not correctly describe intracranial hemorrhage in a fetus? a. Blood first appears as a hypoechoic fluid collection b. There are 4 grades of hemorrhage based on the extent of the bleed c. Common complication in premature infants d. Commonly associated with ventricular dilation

Midline cleft lip (hypertelorism & proboscis are best seen in TRV, macroglossia & arhinia are best in SAG)

Which of the following fetal anomalies are best demonstrated in the coronal view of the face? a. Hypertelorism b. Macroglossia c. Arhinia d. Midline cleft lip

Cebocephaly (this term refers to hypotelorism (the eyes are set too close together) & a flat nose with a single nostril; some cases have cleft palate or lip, but the better choice would be "a")

Which of the following findings is most suggestive of a diagnosis of holoprosencephaly? a. Cebocephaly b. Bilateral cleft lip c. Prominent falx cerebri d. Bilateral cleft palate

Fetal weight over 4000 grams (TORCH is associated with IUGR while the above results in a larger-than-normal fetus)

Which of the following findings is not associated with toxoplasmosis infection? a. Microphthalmia b. Microcephaly c. Intracranial calcifications d. Fetal weight over 4000 grams

Brachycephaly (this is caused by symmetrically flattening the occipital bone)

Which of the following is NOT related to premature ossification of the cranial sutures? a. Strawberry skull b. Craniosynostosis c. Brachycephaly d. Clover leaf skull

compression of the umbilical cord with fetal motion (this will cause the fetal heart rate to decelerate rapidly)

Which of the following is a potential cause for deceleration of the heart rate on a non-stress test? a. increased fetal motion b. lack of fetal motion c. compression of the umbilical cord with fetal motion d. compression of the placenta with fetal motion

IUGR (maternal HTN leads to placental insufficiency/thinning and IUGR)

Which of the following is a sign of maternal HTN on the fetal ultrasound exam? a. Placental thickness of 6cm b. Macrosomia c. non-immune hydrops d. IUGR

Hypophosphatasia (bony demineralization, severe micromelia, & multiple fractures)

Which of the following is a type of lethal skeletal dysplasia? a. Ellis van Creveld syndrome b. Hypophosphatasia c. Osteogenesis Imperfecta Type II d. Jeune dystrophy

Parvovirus infection (hepatomegaly & polyhydramnios are associated with CMV while all the others are linked with oligohydramnios)

Which of the following is most likely to cause polyhydramnios, fetal ascites, and hepatomegaly? a. ARPKDisease b. IUGR c. Potter Syndrome d. Parvovirus infection

Cystic changes in the lung tissue (CHAOS = Congenital High Airway Obstruction Syndrome)

Which of the following is not a suspected finding with CHAOS? a. Dilated, fluid-filled trachea b. Bilateral, symmetrically enlarged hyperechoic fetal lungs c. Cystic changes in the lung tissue d. Flattened or everted hemidiaphragms

Chromosomal abnormalities in pregnancy (DES exposure only effects the fetus, not down to the chromosome level)

Which of the following is not an associated increased risk due to DES exposure? a. Ectopic pregnancy b. Chromosomal abnormalities in pregnancy c. Cervical cancer d. Uterine malformation

Omphalocele and Multiple gestation (AFP levels go down with T21, aka Down's syndrome)

Which of the following is related to increased AFP in the amniotic fluid? a. Omphalocele only b. Multiple gestation only c. Omphalocele and Multiple gestation d. Trisomy 21, Omphalocele, and Multiple gestation

Cystic fibrosis (this condition is located within the pancreas so more likely to obstruct bowel than the cystic kidney choices; Erythroblastosis fetalis is a transplacental blood disorder due to Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus)

Which of the following is the autosomal recessive genetic disorder associated with meconium ileus and fetal bowel obstruction? a. Multicystic kidney disease b. Polycystic kidney disease c. Cystic fibrosis d. Erythroblastosis fetalis

Cleft lip/palate

Which of the following is the most common facial anomaly? a. Cleft lip/palate b. Micrognathia c. Hypertelorism d. Hypotelorism

Ellis-van Creveld Syndrome (Chondroectodermal Dysplasia)

Which of the following is the most common in Amish communities and presents with mesomelia, polydactyly & cardiac defects? a. Short rib polydactyly b. Ellis van Creveld syndrome c. Jeune dystrophy d. Hypophosphatasia

Heterozygous Achondroplasia

Which of the following is the most common type of non-lethal fetal skeletal dysplasia? a. Achondrogenesis b. Osteogenesis Imprefecta Type II c. Thanatophoric Skeletal Dysplasia d. Heterozygous Achondroplasia

ARPKD (Autosomal Recessive Polycystic Kidney Disease diminishes renal production of fluid)

Which of the following is typically associated with oligohydramnios? a. Cleft lip b. Spina bifida c. ARPKD d. Thanatophoric dwarfism

Congenital talipes equinovarus

Which of the following skeletal anomalies usually occur as an isolated finding? a. Phocomelia b. Rhizomelia c. Arthrogryposis d. Congenital talipes equinovarus

Ectrodactyly

Which of the following skeletal anomaly term is used to describe an abnormally shapped hand/fingers that look like a "lobster claw" or mitten? a. Syndactyly b. Polydactyly c. Clinodactyly d. Ectrodactyly

Syndactyly

Which of the following skeletal anomaly term is used to describe webbing formation between two or more digits? a. Syndactyly b. Polydactyly c. Clinodactyly d. Ectrodactyly

Clinodactyly

Which of the following skeletal anomaly terms is used to describe when the 4th & 5th digit bend/curve toward the thumb or big toe? a. Syndactyly b. Polydactyly c. Clinodactyly d. Ectrodactyly

Cullen's sign

Which of the following sonographic signs indicates a ruptured ectopic pregnancy? a. Cullen's sign b. Robert's sign c. Spalding's sign d. Deuel's sign

Ibuprofen use (all others are associated with IUGR)

Which of the following teratogens is least likely to be associated with IUGR? a. Maternal smoling b. Methotrexate use c. Ibuprofen use d. Alcohol consumption

Proboscis

Which of the following terms describes an abnormal homogeneous soft tissue mass, usually protruding from the anterior cranium or face with associated arhinia? a. Proboscis b. Anostomia c. Teratoma d. Epidermal cyst

Delta-OD 450 (this test evaluates bilirubin - predicting the severity of hemolytic disease; excessive bilirubin indicate fetal anemia or erythroblastosis fetalis)

Which of the following tests can predict erythroblastosis fetalis using a sample of amniotic fluid? a. Acetylcholinesterase levels b. Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio c. Karyotyping d. Delta-OD 450

Edward's syndrome (trisomy 18)

Which of the following trisomies has a significant association with choroid plexus cysts? a. Edward's syndrome b. Patau syndrome c. Down's syndrome d. Mosaic or Complete trisomy

gestational diabetes mellitus (NIDDM/IDDM are associated with IUGR)

Which of the following types of maternal diabetes are associated with a risk of macrosomia in the fetus? a. insulin dependent diabetes mellitus b. gestational diabetes mellitus c. non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus d. All types of maternal diabetes are associated with IUGR, not macrosomia

Placenta accreta (placental lakes will demonstrate slow moving - non turbulent flow; fibrin & infarction will not demonstrate blood flow within the hypoechoic areas)

Which of the following will be demonstrated as hypoechoic areas within the placenta that display turbulent flow on color Doppler evaluation? a. Venous lake b. Infarction c. Placenta accreta d. Fibrin deposition

There is one defective gene present in the pair (recessive = both genes are defective)

Which of the following will result in an autosomal dominant disorder? a. Both genes are defective in the pair b. There is a single extra chromosome present c. There is one defective gene present in the pair d. There is a duplicate copy of all chromosomes

Obtaining a sagittal image of the ankle and lower leg that shows the tibia and a normal profile of the foot

Which of the following will rule out rocker bottom foot, club foot, or campomelic dysplasia? a. Obtaining an axial image of the foot that shows the soft tissue formation and toes b. Obtaining an axial image of the foot that shows the number of digits c. Obtaining a sagittal image of the ankle and lower leg that shows the tibia and a normal profile of the foot d. Obtaining a sagittal image of the leg that shows the normal profile view of the knee

Dandy Walker malformation & Black pouch cyst (Blake's pouch cyst is a cystic appearing structure that represents posterior ballooning of the inferior medullary velum into the cisterna magna, below and posterior to the vermis, that communicates with an open fourth ventricle. DWM is the most common posterior fossa malformation, characterized by dilation, cysts & enlarged posterior fossa)

Which of the following would be a differential diagnoses for cystic formation in the posterior fossa? a. Intracranial hemorrhage & hydrocephaly b. Vein of Galen malformation & ACC c. Anterior encephalocele & arachnid cysts d. Dandy Walker malformation & Blake's pouch cyst

D (note the calcified and enlarged appearing placenta with slow flow color Doppler over hypoechoic areas)

Which of these ultrasound images is most suggestive of a Grade III placenta with venous lakes? a. A b. B c. C d. D

C (note the mottled trophoblastic mass on the left of the image and fetal spine shadowing to the right)

Which of these ultrasound images is most suggestive of a partial molar pregnancy with a fetus and IUP? a. A b. B c. C d. D

B (note the large simple cyst within the umbilical cord)

Which of these ultrasound images is most suggestive of an allantoic cyst? a. A b. B c. C d. D

A (note the solid hypervascular mass in the placenta)

Which of these ultrasound images is most suggestive of chorioangiosarcoma? a. A b. B c. C d. D

T18

Which trisomy is most commonly associated with a strawberry shaped fetal skull? a. T21 b. T18 c. T13 d. T23

Trisomy 21

While scanning you see an atrioventricular septal defect with a single AV valve, instead of the mitral and tricuspid valves. These endocardial cushion defects are a common finding associated with this condition: a. Trisomy 13 b. Turner's Syndrome c. Trisomy 18 d. Trisomy 21