OB EXAM 3 (Ch 32, 33, 34, 35, 37)

The nurse is teaching a client with preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM) regarding self-care activities. Which activities should the nurse include in her teaching? a. Report a temperature higher than 40° C. b. Tampons are safe to use to absorb the leaking amniotic fluid. c. Do not engage in sexual activity. d. Taking frequent tub baths is safe.

C Sexual activity should be avoided because it may induce preterm labor. A temperature higher than 38° C should be reported. To prevent the risk of infection, tub baths should be avoided and nothing should be inserted into the vagina. Further, foul-smelling vaginal fluid, which may be a sign of infection, should be reported.

In evaluating the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate for the treatment of preterm labor, which finding alerts the nurse to possible side effects? a. Urine output of 160 ml in 4 hours b. DTRs 2+ and no clonus c. Respiratory rate (RR) of 16 breaths per minute d. Serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dl

D The therapeutic range for magnesium sulfate management is 4 to 7.5 mg/dl. A serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dl could lead to signs and symptoms of magnesium toxicity, including oliguria and respiratory distress. Urine output of 160 ml in 4 hours, DTRs of 2+, and a RR of 16 breaths per minute are all normal findings

Which substance, when abused during pregnancy, is the most significant cause of cognitive impairment and dysfunction in the infant? a. Alcohol b. Tobacco c. Marijuana d. Heroin

A Alcohol abuse during pregnancy is recognized as one of the leading causes of neurodevelopmental disorders in the United States. Alcohol is a teratogen; maternal ethanol abuse during gestation can lead to identifiable fetal alcohol spectrum disorders that include alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorders. Cigarette smoking is linked to adverse pregnancy outcomes; the risk for placenta previa, placenta abruption, and premature rupture of membranes is twice that of nonsmokers. Marijuana is the most common illicit drug used by pregnant women. Marijuana crosses the placenta, and its use during pregnancy can result in shortened gestation and a higher incidence of IUGR. Heroin crosses the placenta and often results in IUGR, stillbirth, and congenital anomalies.

Which information regarding to injuries to the infant's plexus during labor and birth is most accurate? a. If the nerves are stretched with no avulsion, then they should completely recover in 3 to 6 months. b. Erb palsy is damage to the lower plexus. c. Parents of children with brachial palsy are taught to pick up the child from under the axillae. d. Breastfeeding is not recommended for infants with facial nerve paralysis until the condition resolves.

A If the nerves are stretched with no avulsion, then they should recover completely in 3 to 6 months. However, if the ganglia are completely disconnected from the spinal cord, then the damage is permanent. Erb palsy is damage to the upper plexus and is less serious than brachial palsy. Parents of children with brachial palsy are taught to avoid picking up the child under the axillae or by pulling on the arms. Breastfeeding is not contraindicated, but both the mother and the infant will need help from the nurse at the start.

Which condition is considered a medical emergency that requires immediate treatment? a. Inversion of the uterus b. Hypotonic uterus c. ITP d. Uterine atony

A Inversion of the uterus is likely to lead to hypovolemic shock and therefore is considered a medical emergency. Although hypotonic uterus, ITP, and uterine atony are serious conditions, they are not necessarily medical emergencies that require immediate treatment.

What is the most common reason for late postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)? a. Subinvolution of the uterus b. Defective vascularity of the decidua c. Cervical lacerations d. Coagulation disorders

A Late PPH may be the result of subinvolution of the uterus. Recognized causes of subinvolution include retained placental fragments and pelvic infection. Although defective vascularity, cervical lacerations, and coagulation disorders of the decidua may also cause PPH, late PPH typically results from subinvolution of the uterus, pelvic infection, or retained placental fragments.

A 3.8-kg infant was vaginally delivered at 39 weeks after a 30-minute second stage. A nuchal cord was found at delivery. After birth, the infant is noted to have petechiae over the face and upper back. Which information regarding petechiae is most accurate and should be provided to the parents? a. Are benign if they disappear within 48 hours of birth b. Result from increased blood volume c. Should always be further investigated d. Usually occur with a forceps-assisted delivery

A Petechiae, or pinpoint hemorrhagic areas, acquired during childbirth may extend over the upper portion of the trunk and face. These lesions are benign if they disappear within 2 days of childbirth and no new lesions appear. Petechiae may result from decreased platelet formation. In this situation, the presence of petechiae is most likely a soft-tissue injury resulting from the nuchal cord at birth. Unless the lesions do not dissipate in 2 days, alarming the family is not necessary. Petechiae usually occur with a breech presentation vaginal birth.

An infant at 26 weeks of gestation arrives intubated from the delivery room. The nurse weighs the infant, places him under the radiant warmer, and attaches him to the ventilator at the prescribed settings. A pulse oximeter and cardiorespiratory monitor are placed. The pulse oximeter is recording oxygen saturations of 80%. The prescribed saturations are 92%. What is the nurse's most appropriate action at this time? a. Listening to breath sounds, and ensuring the patency of the endotracheal tube, increasing oxygen, and notifying a physician b. Continuing to observe and making no changes until the saturations are 75% c. Continuing with the admission process to ensure that a thorough assessment is completed d. Notifying the parents that their infant is not doing well

A Listening to breath sounds and ensuring the patency of the endotracheal tube, increasing oxygen, and notifying a physician are appropriate nursing interventions to assist in optimal oxygen saturation of the infant. Oxygen saturation should be maintained above 92%, and oxygenation status of the infant is crucial. The nurse should delay other tasks to stabilize the infant. Notifying the parents that the infant is not doing well is not an appropriate action. Further assessment and intervention are warranted before determining fetal status.

A pregnant woman was admitted for induction of labor at 43 weeks of gestation with sure dates. A nonstress test (NST) in the obstetrician's office revealed a nonreactive tracing. On artificial rupture of membranes, thick meconium-stained fluid was noted. What should the nurse caring for the infant after birth anticipate? a. Meconium aspiration, hypoglycemia, and dry, cracked skin b. Excessive vernix caseosa covering the skin, lethargy, and RDS c. Golden yellow to green-stained skin and nails, absence of scalp hair, and an increased amount of subcutaneous fat d. Hyperglycemia, hyperthermia, and an alert, wide-eyed appearance

A Meconium aspiration, hypoglycemia, and dry, cracked skin are consistent with a postmature infant. Excessive vernix caseosa, lethargy, and RDS are consistent with a very premature infant. The skin may be meconium stained, but the infant will most likely have long hair and decreased amounts of subcutaneous fat. Postmaturity with a nonreactive NST is indicative of hypoxia. Signs and symptoms associated with fetal hypoxia are hypoglycemia, temperature instability, and lethargy.

During the assessment of a preterm infant, the nurse notices continued respiratory distress even though oxygen and ventilation have been provided. In this situation, which condition should the nurse suspect? a. Hypovolemia and/or shock b. Excessively cool environment c. Central nervous system (CNS) injury d. Pending renal failure

A Other symptoms might include hypotension, prolonged capillary refill, and tachycardia, followed by bradycardia. Intervention is necessary. Preterm infants are susceptible to temperature instability. The goal of thermoregulation is to provide a neutral thermal environment. Hypoglycemia is likely to occur if the infant is attempting to conserve heat. CNS injury is manifested by hyperirritability, seizures, and abnormal movements of the extremities. Urine output and testing of specific gravity are appropriate interventions for the infant with suspected renal failure. This neonate is unlikely to be delivered with respiratory distress.

A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents? a. "Surfactant improves the ability of your baby's lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide." b. "The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation." c. "Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea." d. "Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection."

A Surfactant can be administered as an adjunct to oxygen and ventilation therapy. With the administration of an artificial surfactant, respiratory compliance is improved until the infant can generate enough surfactant on his or her own. Surfactant has no bearing on the sedation needs of the infant. Surfactant is used to improve respiratory compliance, including the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. The goal of surfactant therapy in an infant with RDS is to stimulate the production of surfactant in the type 2 cells of the alveoli. The clinical presentation of RDS and neonatal pneumonia may be similar. The infant may be started on broad-spectrum antibiotics to treat infection.

A pregnant woman arrives at the birth unit in labor at term, having had no prenatal care. After birth, her infant is noted to be small for gestational age with small eyes and a thin upper lip. The infant also is microcephalic. Based on her infant's physical findings, this woman should be questioned about her use of which substance during pregnancy? a. Alcohol b. Cocaine c. Heroin d. Marijuana

A The description of the infant suggests fetal alcohol syndrome, which is consistent with maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy. Fetal brain, kidney, and urogenital system malformations have been associated with maternal cocaine ingestions. Heroin use in pregnancy frequently results in intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). The infant may have a shrill cry and sleep-cycle disturbances and may exhibit with poor feeding, tachypnea, vomiting, diarrhea, hypothermia or hyperthermia, and sweating. Studies have found a higher incidence of meconium staining in infants born of mothers who used marijuana during pregnancy.

During a prenatal examination, a woman reports having two cats at home. The nurse informs her that she should not be cleaning the litter box while she is pregnant. The client questions the nurse as to why. What is the nurse'smost appropriate response? a. "Your cats could be carrying toxoplasmosis. This is a zoonotic parasite that can infect you and have severe effects on your unborn child." b. "You and your baby can be exposed to the HIV in your cats' feces." c. "It's just gross. You should make your husband clean the litter boxes." d. "Cat feces are known to carry Escherichia coli, which can cause a severe infection in you and your baby."

A Toxoplasmosis is a multisystem disease caused by the protozoal Toxoplasma gondii parasite, commonly found in cats, dogs, pigs, sheep, and cattle. Approximately 30% of women who contract toxoplasmosis during gestation transmit the disease to their offspring. Clinical features ascribed to toxoplasmosis include hydrocephalus or microcephaly, chorioretinitis, seizures, or cerebral calcifications. HIV is not transmitted by cats. Although cleaning the litter boxes is "just gross," this statement is not appropriate, fails to answer the client's question, and is not the nurse's best response. E. coli is found in normal human fecal flora and is not transmitted by cats.

A perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postbirth period. Assessment reveals that the client is experiencing profuse bleeding. What is the most likely cause for this bleeding? a. Uterine atony b. Uterine inversion c. Vaginal hematoma d. Vaginal laceration

A Uterine atony is significant hypotonia of the uterus and is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine inversion may lead to hemorrhage; however, it is not the most likely source of this client's bleeding. Further, if the woman were experiencing a uterine inversion, it would be evidenced by the presence of a large, red, rounded mass protruding from the introitus. A vaginal hematoma may be associated with hemorrhage. However, the most likely clinical finding for vaginal hematoma is pain, not the presence of profuse bleeding. A vaginal laceration should be suspected if vaginal bleeding continues in the presence of a firm, contracted uterine fundus.

What is the most important nursing action in preventing neonatal infection? a. Good handwashing b. Isolation of infected infants c. Separate gown technique d. Standard Precautions

A Virtually all controlled clinical trials have demonstrated that effective handwashing is responsible for the prevention of health care-associated infection in nursery units. Overcrowding must be avoided in nurseries, and infants with infectious processes should be isolated. Separate gowns should be worn in caring for each infant in the special care nursery. Soiled linens should be disposed of in an appropriate manner. Measures to be taken include Standard Precautions, careful and thorough cleaning, frequent replacement of used equipment, and disposal of excrement and linens in an appropriate manner. Ideally infants should remain with their mothers.

What is the most important nursing action in preventing neonatal infection? a. Good handwashing b. Isolation of infected infants c. Separate gown technique d. Standard Precautions

A Virtually all controlled clinical trials have demonstrated that effective handwashing is responsible for the prevention of nosocomial infection in nursery units. Measures to be taken include Standard Precautions, careful and thorough cleaning, frequent replacement of used equipment, and disposal of excrement and linens in an appropriate manner. Overcrowding must be avoided in nurseries. However, the most important nursing action for preventing neonatal infection is effective handwashing.

A client at 39 weeks of gestation has been admitted for an external version. Which intervention would the nurse anticipate the provider to order? a. Tocolytic drug b. Contraction stress test (CST) c. Local anesthetic d. Foley catheter

A A tocolytic drug will relax the uterus before and during the version, thus making manipulation easier. CST is used to determine the fetal response to stress. A local anesthetic is not used with external version. Although the bladder should be emptied, catheterization is not necessary.

A woman in preterm labor at 30 weeks of gestation receives two 12-mg intramuscular (IM) doses of betamethasone. What is the purpose of this pharmacologic intervention? a. To stimulate fetal surfactant production b. To reduce maternal and fetal tachycardia associated with ritodrine administration c. To suppress uterine contractions d. To maintain adequate maternal respiratory effort and ventilation during magnesium sulfate therapy

A Antenatal glucocorticoids administered as IM injections to the mother accelerate fetal lung maturity. Propranolol (Inderal) is given to reduce the effects of ritodrine administration. Betamethasone has no effect on uterine contractions. Calcium gluconate is given to reverse the respiratory depressive effects of magnesium sulfate therapy.

Which description most accurately describes the augmentation of labor? a. Is part of the active management of labor that is instituted when the labor process is unsatisfactory b. Relies on more invasive methods when oxytocin and amniotomy have failed c. Is a modern management term to cover up the negative connotations of forcepsassisted birth d. Uses vacuum cups

A Augmentation is part of the active management of labor that stimulates uterine contractions after labor has started but is not progressing satisfactorily. Augmentation uses amniotomy and oxytocin infusion, as well as some more gentle, noninvasive methods. Forceps-assisted births are less common than in the past and not considered a method of augmentation. A vacuum-assisted delivery occurs during childbirth if the mother is too exhausted to push. Vacuum extraction is not considered an augmentation methodology.

The exact cause of preterm labor is unknown but believed to be multifactorial. Infection is thought to be a major factor in many preterm labors. Which type of infection has not been linked to preterm birth? a. Viral b. Periodontal c. Cervical d. Urinary tract

A Infections that increase the risk of preterm labor and birth are bacterial and include cervical, urinary tract, periodontal, and other bacterial infections. Therefore, early, continual, and comprehensive participation by the client in her prenatal care is important. Recent evidence has shown a link between periodontal infections and preterm labor. Researchers recommend regular dental care before and during pregnancy, oral assessment as a routine part of prenatal care, and scrupulous oral hygiene to prevent periodontal infections.

Which nursing intervention should be immediately performed after the forceps-assisted birth of an infant? a. Assessing the infant for signs of trauma b. Administering prophylactic antibiotic agents to the infant c. Applying a cold pack to the infant's scalp d. Measuring the circumference of the infant's head

A The infant should be assessed for bruising or abrasions at the site of application, facial palsy, and subdural hematoma. Prophylactic antibiotics are not necessary with a forceps delivery. A cold pack would place the infant at risk for cold stress and is contraindicated. Measuring the circumference of the head is part of the initial nursing assessment

A pregnant woman's amniotic membranes have ruptured. A prolapsed umbilical cord is suspected. What intervention would be the nurse's highest priority? a. Placing the woman in the knee-chest position b. Covering the cord in sterile gauze soaked in saline c. Preparing the woman for a cesarean birth d. Starting oxygen by face mask

A The woman is assisted into a modified Sims position, Trendelenburg position, or the knee-chest position in which gravity keeps the pressure of the presenting part off the cord. Although covering the cord in sterile gauze soaked saline, preparing the woman for a cesarean, and starting oxygen by face mark are appropriate nursing interventions in the event of a prolapsed cord, the intervention of top priority would be positioning the mother to relieve cord compression.

Which risk factors are associated with NEC? (Select all that apply.) a. Polycythemia b. Anemia c. Congenital heart disease d. Bronchopulmonary dysphasia e. Retinopathy

A, B, C Risk factors for NEC include asphyxia, RDS, umbilical artery catheterization, exchange transfusion, early enteral feedings, patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), congenital heart disease, polycythemia, anemia, shock, and gastrointestinal infection. Bronchopulmonary dysphasia and retinopathy are not associated with NEC.

A number of common drugs of abuse may cross into the breast milk of a mother who is currently using these substances, which may result in behavioral effects in the newborn. Which substances are contraindicated if the mother elects to breastfeed her infant? (Select all that apply.) a. Cocaine b. Marijuana c. Nicotine d. Methadone e. Morphine

A, B, C The use of cocaine, marijuana, and nicotine are contraindicated during breastfeeding because of their reported effects on the infant. Morphine is a medication often used to treat neonatal abstinence syndrome. Maternal methadone maintenance is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

What are the complications and risks associated with cesarean births? (Select all that apply.) a. Pulmonary edema b. Wound dehiscence c. Hemorrhage d. Urinary tract infections e. Fetal injuries

A, B, C, D, E Pulmonary edema, wound dehiscence, hemorrhage, urinary tract infections, and fetal injuries are possible complications and risks associated with cesarean births.

Women who are obese are at risk for several complications during pregnancy and birth. Which of these would the nurse anticipate with an obese client? (Select all that apply.) a. Thromboembolism b. Cesarean birth c. Wound infection d. Breech presentation e. Hypertension

A, B, C, E A breech presentation is not a complication of pregnancy or birth for the client who is obese. Venous thromboembolism is a known risk for obese women. Therefore, the use of thromboembolism-deterrent (TED) hose and sequential compression devices may help decrease the chance for clot formation. Women should also be encouraged to ambulate as soon as possible. In addition to having an increased risk for complications with a cesarean birth, in general, obese women are also more likely to require an emergency cesarean birth. Many obese women have a pannus (i.e., large roll of abdominal fat) that overlies a lower transverse incision made just above the pubic area. The pannus causes the area to remain moist, which encourages the development of infection. Obese women are more likely to begin pregnancy with comorbidities such as hypertension and type 2 diabetes

Infants born between 34 0/7 and 36 6/7 weeks of gestation are called late-preterm infants because they have many needs similar to those of preterm infants. Because they are more stable than early-preterm infants, they may receive care that is similar to that of a full-term baby. These infants are at increased risk for which conditions? (Select all that apply.) a. Problems with thermoregulation b. Cardiac distress c. Hyperbilirubinemia d. Sepsis e. Hyperglycemia

A, C, D Thermoregulation problems, hyperbilirubinemia, and sepsis are all conditions related to immaturity and warrant close observation. After discharge, the infant is at risk for rehospitalization related to these problems. Association of Women's Health, Obstetric and Neonatal Nurses (AWHONN) launched the Near-Term Infant Initiative to study the problem and ways to ensure that these infants receive adequate care. The nurse should ensure that this infant is adequately feeding before discharge and that parents are taught the signs and symptoms of these complications. Late-preterm infants are also at increased risk for respiratory distress and hypoglycemia.

The induction of labor is considered an acceptable obstetric procedure if it is in the best interest to deliver the fetus. The charge nurse on the labor and delivery unit is often asked to schedule clients for this procedure and therefore must be cognizant of the specific conditions appropriate for labor induction. What are appropriate indications for induction? (Select all that apply?) a. Rupture of membranes at or near term b. Convenience of the woman or her physician c. Chorioamnionitis (inflammation of the amniotic sac) d. Postterm pregnancy e. Fetal death

A, C, D, E The conditions listed are all acceptable indications for induction. Other conditions include intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), maternal-fetal blood incompatibility, hypertension, and placental abruption. Elective inductions for the convenience of the woman or her provider are not recommended; however, they have become commonplace. Factors such as rapid labors and living a long distance from a health care facility may be valid reasons in such a circumstance. Elective delivery should not occur before 39 weeks of completed gestation.

A premature infant never seems to sleep longer than an hour at a time. Each time a light is turned on, an incubator closes, or people talk near her crib, she wakes up and inconsolably cries until held. What is the correct nursing diagnosis beginning with "ineffective coping, related to"? a. Severe immaturity b. Environmental stress c. Physiologic distress d. Behavioral responses

B "Ineffective coping, related to environmental stress" is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this infant. Light and sound are known adverse stimuli that add to an already stressed premature infant. The nurse must closely monitor the environment for sources of overstimulation. Although the infant may be severely immature in this case, she is responding to environmental stress. Physiologic distress is the response to environmental stress. The result is stress cues such as increased metabolic rate, increased oxygen and caloric use, and depression of the immune system. The infant's behavioral response to the environmental stress is crying. The appropriate nursing diagnosis reflects the cause of this response.

NEC is an acute inflammatory disease of the gastrointestinal mucosa that can progress to perforation of the bowel. Approximately 2% to 5% of premature infants succumb to this fatal disease. Care is supportive; however, known interventions may decrease the risk of NEC. Which intervention has the greatest effect on lowering the risk of NEC? a. Early enteral feedings b. Breastfeeding c. Exchange transfusion d. Prophylactic probiotics

B A decrease in the incidence of NEC is directly correlated with exclusive breastfeeding. Breast milk enhances the maturation of the gastrointestinal tract and contains immune factors that contribute to a lower incidence or severity of NEC, Crohn disease, and celiac illness. The NICU nurse can be very supportive of the mother in terms of providing her with equipment to pump breast milk, ensuring privacy, and encouraging skin-to-skin contact with the infant. Early enteral feedings of formula or hyperosmolar feedings are a risk factor known to contribute to the development of NEC. The mother should be encouraged to pump or feed breast milk exclusively. Exchange transfusion may be necessary; however, it is a known risk factor for the development of NEC. Although still early, a study in 2005 found that the introduction of prophylactic probiotics appeared to enhance the normal flora of the bowel and therefore decrease the severity of NEC when it did occur. This treatment modality is not as widespread as encouraging breastfeeding; however, it is another strategy that the care providers of these extremely fragile infants may have at their disposal.

The nurse should be cognizant of which condition related to skeletal injuries sustained by a neonate during labor or childbirth? a. Newborn's skull is still forming and fractures fairly easily. b. Unless a blood vessel is involved, linear skull fractures heal without special treatment. c. Clavicle fractures often need to be set with an inserted pin for stability. d. Other than the skull, the most common skeletal injuries are to leg bones.

B Approximately 70% of neonatal skull fractures are linear. Because the newborn skull is flexible, considerable force is required to fracture it. Clavicle fractures need no special treatment. The clavicle is the bone most often fractured during birth.

In appraising the growth and development potential of a preterm infant, the nurse should be cognizant of the information that is best described in which statement? a. Tell the parents that their child will not catch up until approximately age 10 years (for girls) to age 12 years (for boys). b. Correct for milestones, such as motor competencies and vocalizations, until the child is approximately 2 years of age. c. Know that the greatest catch-up period is between 9 and 15 months postconceptual age. d. Know that the length and breadth of the trunk is the first part of the infant to experience catch-up growth.

B Corrections are made with a formula that adds gestational age and postnatal age. Whether a girl or boy, the infant experiences catch-up body growth during the first 2 to 3 years of life. Maximum catch-up growth occurs between 36 and 40 weeks of postconceptual age. The head is the first to experience catch-up growth

Parents have asked the nurse about organ donation after that infant's death. Which information regarding organ donation is important for the nurse to understand? a. Federal law requires the medical staff to ask the parents about organ donation and then to contact their state's organ procurement organization (OPO) to handle the procedure if the parents agree. b. Organ donation can aid grieving by giving the family an opportunity to see something positive about the experience. c. Most common donation is the infant's kidneys. d. Corneas can be donated if the infant was either stillborn or alive as long as the pregnancy went full term.

B Evidence indicates that organ donation can promote healing among the surviving family members. The federal Gift of Life Act made state OPOs responsible for deciding whether to request a donation and for making that request. The most common donation is the cornea. For cornea donation, the infant must have been born alive at 36 weeks of gestation or later.

What information regarding a fractured clavicle is most important for the nurse to take into consideration when planning the infant's care? a. Prone positioning facilitates bone alignment. b. No special treatment is necessary. c. Parents should be taught range-of-motion exercises. d. The shoulder should be immobilized with a splint.

B Fractures in newborns generally heal rapidly. Except for gentle handling, no accepted treatment for a fractured clavicle exists. Movement should be limited, and the infant should be gently handled. Performing range-of-motion exercises on the infant is not necessary. A fractured clavicle does not require immobilization with a splint.

With regard to infants who are SGA and intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), the nurse should be aware of which information? a. In the first trimester, diseases or abnormalities result in asymmetric IUGR. b. Infants with asymmetric IUGR have the potential for normal growth and development. c. In asymmetric IUGR, weight is slightly larger than SGA, whereas length and head circumference are somewhat less than SGA. d. Symmetric IUGR occurs in the later stages of pregnancy.

B IUGR is either symmetric or asymmetric. The symmetric form occurs in the first trimester; infants who are SGA have reduced brain capacity. The asymmetric form occurs in the later stages of pregnancy. Weight is less than the 10th percentile; head circumference is greater than the 10th percentile. Infants with asymmetric IUGR have the potential for normal growth and development.

Which client is at greatest risk for early PPH? a. Primiparous woman (G 2, P 1-0-0-1) being prepared for an emergency cesarean birth for fetal distress b. Woman with severe preeclampsia on magnesium sulfate whose labor is being induced c. Multiparous woman (G 3, P 2-0-0-2) with an 8-hour labor d. Primigravida in spontaneous labor with preterm twins

B Magnesium sulfate administration during labor poses a risk for PPH. Magnesium acts as a smooth muscle relaxant, thereby contributing to uterine relaxation and atony. A primiparous woman being prepared for an emergency cesarean birth for fetal distress, a multiparous woman with an 8-hour labor, and a primigravida in spontaneous labor with preterm twins do not indicate risk factors or causes of early PPH.

Which finding would indicate to the nurse that the grieving parents have progressed to the reorganization phase of grieving? a. The parents say that they "feel no pain." b. The parents are discussing sex and a future pregnancy, even if they have not yet sorted out their feelings. c. The parents have abandoned those moments of "bittersweet grief." d. The parents' questions have progressed from "Why?" to "Why us?"

B Many couples have conflicting feelings about sexuality and future pregnancies. A little pain is always present, certainly beyond the first year when recovery begins to peak. Bittersweet grief describes the brief grief response that occurs with reminders of a loss, such as anniversary dates. Most couples never abandon these reminders. Recovery is ongoing. Typically, a couple's search for meaning progresses from "Why?" in the acute phase to "Why me?" in the intense phase to "What does this loss mean to my life?" in the reorganizational phase.

In caring for the preterm infant, what complication is thought to be a result of high arterial blood oxygen level? a. NEC b. ROP c. BPD d. Intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH)

B ROP is thought to occur as a result of high levels of oxygen in the blood. NEC is caused by the interference of blood supply to the intestinal mucosa. Necrotic lesions occur at that site. BPD is caused by the use of positive pressure ventilation against the immature lung tissue. IVH results from the rupture of the fragile blood vessels in the ventricles of the brain and is most often associated with hypoxic injury, increased blood pressure, and fluctuating cerebral blood flow.

Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is an inflammatory disease of the gastrointestinal mucosa. The signs of NEC are nonspecific. What are generalized signs and symptoms of this condition? a. Hypertonia, tachycardia, and metabolic alkalosis b. Abdominal distention, temperature instability, and grossly bloody stools c. Hypertension, absence of apnea, and ruddy skin color d. Scaphoid abdomen, no residual with feedings, and increased urinary output

B Some generalized signs of NEC include decreased activity, hypotonia, pallor, recurrent apnea and bradycardia, decreased oxygen saturation values, respiratory distress, metabolic acidosis, oliguria, hypotension, decreased perfusion, temperature instability, cyanosis, abdominal distention, residual gastric aspirates, vomiting, grossly bloody stools, abdominal tenderness, and erythema of the abdominal wall. The infant may display hypotonia, bradycardia, and metabolic acidosis.

A client is diagnosed with having a stillborn infant. At first, she appears stunned by the news, cries a little, and then asks the nurse to call her mother. What is the proper term for the phase of bereavement that this client is experiencing? a. Anticipatory grief b. Acute distress c. Intense grief d. Reorganization

B The immediate reaction to news of a perinatal loss or infant death encompasses a period of acute distress. Disbelief and denial can occur. However, parents also feel very sad and depressed. Intense outbursts of emotion and crying are normal. However, a lack of affect, euphoria, and calmness may occur and may reflect numbness, denial, or personal ways of coping with stress. Anticipatory grief applies to the grief related to a potential loss of an infant. The parent grieves in preparation of the infant's possible death, although he or she clings to the hope that the child will survive. Intense grief occurs in the first few months after the death of the infant. This phase encompasses many different emotions, including loneliness, emptiness, yearning, guilt, anger, and fear. Reorganization occurs after a long and intense search for meaning. Parents are better able to function at work and home, experience a return of self-esteem and confidence, can cope with new challenges, and have placed the loss in perspective.

What is the primary nursing responsibility when caring for a client who is experiencing an obstetric hemorrhage associated with uterine atony? a. Establishing venous access b. Performing fundal massage c. Preparing the woman for surgical intervention d. Catheterizing the bladder

B The initial management of excessive postpartum bleeding is a firm massage of the uterine fundus. Although establishing venous access may be a necessary intervention, fundal massage is the initial intervention. The woman may need surgical intervention to treat her postpartum hemorrhage, but the initial nursing intervention is to assess the uterus. After uterine massage, the nurse may want to catheterize the client to eliminate any bladder distention that may be preventing the uterus from properly contracting.

A newborn was admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) after being delivered at 29 weeks of gestation to a 28-year-old multiparous, married, Caucasian woman whose pregnancy was uncomplicated until the premature rupture of membranes and preterm birth. The newborn's parents arrive for their first visit after the birth. The parents walk toward the bedside but remain approximately 5 feet away from the bed. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? a. Wait quietly at the newborn's bedside until the parents come closer. b. Go to the parents, introduce him or herself, and gently encourage them to meet their infant. Explain the equipment first, and then focus on the newborn. c. Leave the parents at the bedside while they are visiting so that they have some privacy. d. Tell the parents only about the newborn's physical condition and caution them to avoid touching their baby.

B The nurse is instrumental in the initial interactions with the infant. The nurse can help the parents see the infant rather than focus on the equipment. The importance and purpose of the apparatus that surrounds their infant also should be explained to them. Parents often need encouragement and recognition from the nurse to acknowledge the reality of the infant's condition. Parents need to see and touch their infant as soon as possible to acknowledge the reality of the birth and the infant's appearance and condition. Encouragement from the nurse is instrumental in this process. Telling the parents to avoid touching their baby is inappropriate and unhelpful.

A newborn in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) is dying as a result of a massive infection. The parents speak to the neonatologist, who informs them of their son's prognosis. When the father sees his son, he says, "He looks just fine to me. I can't understand what all this is about." What is the most appropriate response or reaction by the nurse at this time? a. "Didn't the physician tell you about your son's problems?" b. "This must be a difficult time for you. Tell me how you're doing." c. Quietly stand beside the infant's father. d. "You'll have to face up to the fact that he is going to die sooner or later."

B The phase of intense grief can be very difficult, especially for fathers. Parents should be encouraged to share their feelings during the initial steps in the grieving process. This father is in a phase of acute distress and is reaching out to the nurse as a source of direction in his grieving process. Shifting the focus is not in the best interest of the parent. Nursing actions may help the parents actualize the loss of their infant through a sharing and verbalization of their feelings of grief. Telling the father that his son is going to die sooner or later is dispassionate and an inappropriate statement on the part of the nurse.

During a follow-up home visit, the nurse plans to evaluate whether parents have progressed to the second stage of grieving (phase of intense grief). Which behavior would the nurse notanticipate finding? a. Guilt, particularly in the mother b. Numbness or lack of response c. Bitterness or irritability d. Fear and anxiety, especially about getting pregnant again

B The second phase of grieving encompasses a wide range of intense emotions, including guilt, anger, bitterness, fear, and anxiety. What the nurse would hope not to see is numbness or unresponsiveness, which indicates that the parents are still in denial or shock.

What would a steady trickle of bright red blood from the vagina in the presence of a firm fundus suggest to the nurse? a. Uterine atony b. Lacerations of the genital tract c. Perineal hematoma d. Infection of the uterus

B Undetected lacerations will bleed slowly and continuously. Bleeding from lacerations is uncontrolled by uterine contraction. The fundus is not firm in the presence of uterine atony. A hematoma would develop internally. Swelling and discoloration would be noticeable; however, bright bleeding would not be. With an infection of the uterus, an odor to the lochia and systemic symptoms such as fever and malaise would be present.

What is a maternal indication for the use of vacuum-assisted birth? a. Wide pelvic outlet b. Maternal exhaustion c. History of rapid deliveries d. Failure to progress past station 0

B A mother who is exhausted may be unable to assist with the expulsion of the fetus. The client with a wide pelvic outlet will likely not require vacuum extraction. With a rapid delivery, vacuum extraction is not necessary. A station of 0 is too high for a vacuumassisted birth.

A number of methods can be used for inducing labor. Which cervical ripening method falls under the category of mechanical or physical? a. Prostaglandins are used to soften and thin the cervix. b. Labor can sometimes be induced with balloon catheters or laminaria tents. c. Oxytocin is less expensive and more effective than prostaglandins but creates greater health risks. d. Amniotomy can be used to make the cervix more favorable for labor.

B Balloon catheters or laminaria tents are mechanical means of ripening the cervix. Ripening the cervix, making it softer and thinner, increases the success rate of induced labor. Prostaglandin E1 is less expensive and more effective than oxytocin but carries a greater risk. Amniotomy is the artificial rupture of membranes, which is used to induce labor only when the cervix is already ripe.

The nurse who elects to work in the specialty of obstetric care must have the ability to distinguish between preterm birth, preterm labor, and low birth weight. Which statement regarding this terminology is correct? a. Terms preterm birth and low birth weight can be used interchangeably. b. Preterm labor is defined as cervical changes and uterine contractions occurring between 20 and 37 weeks of gestation. c. Low birth weight is a newborn who weighs below 3.7 pounds. d. Preterm birth rate in the United States continues to increase.

B Before 20 weeks of gestation, the fetus is not viable (miscarriage); after 37 weeks, the fetus can be considered term. Although these terms are used interchangeably, they have different meanings: preterm birth describes the length of gestation (before 37 weeks), regardless of the newborn's weight; low birth weight describes only the infant's weight at the time of birth (2500 g or less), whenever it occurs. Low birth weight is anything below 2500 g or approximately pounds. In 2011, the preterm birth rate in the United States was 11.7 %; it has dropped every year since 2008.

Which nursing intervention is paramount when providing care to a client with preterm labor who has received terbutaline? a. Assess deep tendon reflexes (DTRs). b. Assess for dyspnea and crackles. c. Assess for bradycardia. d. Assess for hypoglycemia

B Terbutaline is a beta2-adrenergic agonist that affects the mother's cardiopulmonary and metabolic systems. Signs of cardiopulmonary decompensation include adventitious breath sounds and dyspnea. An assessment for dyspnea and crackles is important for the nurse to perform if the woman is taking magnesium sulfate. Assessing DTRs does not address the possible respiratory side effects of using terbutaline. Since terbutaline is a beta2-adrenergic agonist, it can lead to hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. Beta2- adrenergic agonist drugs cause tachycardia, not bradycardia.

A pregnant woman at 29 weeks of gestation has been diagnosed with preterm labor. Her labor is being controlled with tocolytic medications. She asks when she might be able to go home. Which response by the nurse is most accurate? a. "After the baby is born." b. "When we can stabilize your preterm labor and arrange home health visits." c. "Whenever your physician says that it is okay." d. "It depends on what kind of insurance coverage you have."

B This client's preterm labor is being controlled with tocolytics. Once she is stable, home care may be a viable option for this type of client. Care of a client with preterm labor is multidisciplinary and multifactorial; the goal is to prevent delivery. In many cases, this goal may be achieved at home. Managed care may dictate an earlier hospital discharge or a shift from hospital to home care. Insurance coverage may be one factor in client care, but ultimately, client safety remains the most important factor.

Indications for a primary cesarean birth are often nonrecurring. Therefore, a woman who has had a cesarean birth with a low transverse scar may be a candidate for vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC). Which clients would be less likely to have a successful VBAC? (Select all that apply.) a. Lengthy interpregnancy interval b. African-American race c. Delivery at a rural hospital d. Estimated fetal weight <4000 g e. Maternal obesity (BMI >30)

B, C, E Indications for a low success rate for a VBAC delivery include a short interpregnancy interval, non-Caucasian race, gestational age longer than 40 weeks, maternal obesity, preeclampsia, fetal weight greater than 4000 g, and delivery at a rural or private hospital.

The nurse recognizes that uterine hyperstimulation with oxytocin requires emergency interventions. What clinical cues alert the nurse that the woman is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation? (Select all that apply.) a. Uterine contractions lasting <90 seconds and occurring >2 minutes in frequency b. Uterine contractions lasting >90 seconds and occurring <2 minutes in frequency c. Uterine tone <20 mm Hg d. Uterine tone >20 mm Hg e. Increased uterine activity accomp

B, D, E Uterine contractions that occur less frequently than 2 minutes apart and last longer than 90 seconds, a uterine tone over 20 mm Hg, and a nonreassuring FHR and pattern are indications of uterine hyperstimulation with oxytocin administration. Uterine contractions that occur more frequently than 2 minutes apart and last less than 90 seconds are the expected goal of oxytocin induction. A uterine tone less than 20 mm Hg is normal.

Near the end of the first week of life, an infant who has not been treated for any infection develops a copper-colored maculopapular rash on the palms and around the mouth and anus. The newborn is displaying signs and symptoms of which condition? a. Gonorrhea b. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection c. Congenital syphilis d. HIV

C A copper-colored maculopapular rash is indicative of congenital syphilis with lesions that may extend over the trunk and extremities. This rash is not an indication that the neonate has contracted gonorrhea. Rather, the neonate with gonorrheal infection might have septicemia, meningitis, conjunctivitis, and scalp abscesses. Infants affected with the HSV display growth restriction, skin lesions, microcephaly, hypertonicity, and seizures. Typically, the HIV-infected neonate is asymptomatic at birth. Most often the infant develops an opportunistic infection and rapid progression of immunodeficiency.

The nurse is evaluating a neonate who was delivered 3 hours ago by vacuum-assisted delivery. The infant has developed a cephalhematoma. Which statement is most applicable to the care of this neonate? a. Intracranial hemorrhage (ICH) as a result of birth trauma is more likely to occur in the preterm, low-birth-weight infant. b. Subarachnoid hemorrhage (the most common form of ICH) occurs in term infants as a result of hypoxia. c. In many infants, signs of hemorrhage in a full-term infant are absent and diagnosed only through laboratory tests. d. Spinal cord injuries almost always result from vacuum-assisted deliveries.

C Abnormalities in lumbar punctures or red blood cell counts, for instance, or in visuals on computed tomographic (CT) scans might reveal a hemorrhage. ICH as a result of birth trauma is more likely to occur in the full-term, large infant. Subarachnoid hemorrhage in term infants is a result of trauma; in preterm infants, it is a result of hypoxia. Spinal cord injuries are almost always from breech births; however, spinal cord injuries are rare today because cesarean birth is used for breech presentation.

Which is the initial treatment for the client with vWD who experiences a PPH? a. Cryoprecipitate b. Factor VIII and von Willebrand factor (vWf) c. Desmopressin d. Hemabate

C Desmopressin is the primary treatment of choice for vWD and can be administered orally, nasally, and intravenously. This medication promotes the release of factor VIII and vWf from storage. Cryoprecipitate may be used; however, because of the risk of possible donor viruses, other modalities are considered safer. Treatment with plasma products such as factor VIII and vWf is an acceptable option for this client. Because of the repeated exposure to donor blood products and possible viruses, this modality is not the initial treatment of choice. Although the administration of the prostaglandin, Hemabate, is known to promote contraction of the uterus during PPH, it is not effective for the client who has a bleeding disorder.

An infant was born 2 hours ago at 37 weeks of gestation and weighs 4.1 kg. The infant appears chubby with a flushed complexion and is very tremulous. The tremors are most likely the result of what condition? a. Birth injury b. Hypocalcemia c. Hypoglycemia d. Seizures

C Hypoglycemia is common in the macrosomic infant. Signs of hypoglycemia include jitteriness, apnea, tachypnea, and cyanosis.

An infant is to receive gastrostomy feedings. Which intervention should the nurse institute to prevent bloating, gastrointestinal reflux into the esophagus, vomiting, and respiratory compromise? a. Rapid bolusing of the entire amount in 15 minutes b. Warm cloths to the abdomen for the first 10 minutes c. Slow, small, warm bolus feedings over 30 minutes d. Cold, medium bolus feedings over 20 minutes

C Feedings by gravity are slowly accomplished over 20- to 30-minute periods to prevent adverse reactions. Rapid bolusing would most likely lead to the adverse reactions listed. Temperature stability in the newborn is critical. Applying warm cloths to the abdomen would not be appropriate because the environment is not thermoregulated. In addition, abdominal warming is not indicated with feedings of any kind. Small feedings at room temperature are recommended to prevent adverse reactions.

With regard to an eventual discharge of the high-risk newborn or the transfer of the newborn to a different facility, which information is essential to provide to the parents? a. Infants stay in the NICU until they are ready to go home. b. Once discharged to go home, the high-risk infant should be treated like any healthy term newborn. c. Parents of high-risk infants need special support and detailed contact information. d. If a high-risk infant and mother need to be transferred to a specialized regional center, then waiting until after the birth and until the infant is stabilized is best.

C High-risk infants can cause profound parental stress and emotional turmoil. Parents need support, special teaching, and quick access to various resources available to help them care for their baby. Parents and their high-risk infant should get to spend a night or two in a predischarge room, where care for the infant is provided away from the NICU. Simply because high-risk infants are eventually discharged does not mean they are normal, healthy babies. Follow-up by specialized practitioners is essential. Ideally, the mother and baby are transported with the fetus in utero; this reduces neonatal morbidity and mortality.

Which conditions are infants of diabetic mothers (IDMs) at a higher risk for developing? a. Iron deficiency anemia b. Hyponatremia c. Respiratory distress syndrome d. Sepsis

C IDMs are at risk for macrosomia, birth trauma, perinatal asphyxia, respiratory distress syndrome, hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, cardiomyopathy, hyperbilirubinemia, and polycythemia. IDMs are not at risk for anemia, hyponatremia, or sepsis.

A nurse practicing in the perinatal setting should promote kangaroo care regardless of an infant's gestational age. Which statement regarding this intervention is most appropriate? a. Kangaroo care was adopted from classical British nursing traditions. b. This intervention helps infants with motor and CNS impairments. c. Kangaroo care helps infants interact directly with their parents and enhances their temperature regulation. d. This intervention gets infants ready for breastfeeding.

C Kangaroo care is skin-to-skin holding in which the infant, dressed only in a diaper, is placed directly on the parent's bare chest and then covered. The procedure helps infants interact with their parents and regulates their temperature, among other developmental benefits. Kangaroo care was established in Bogota, Colombia, assists the infant in maintaining an organized state, and decreases pain perception during heelsticks. Even premature infants who are unable to suckle benefit from kangaroo care. This practice fosters increased vigor and an enhanced breastfeeding experience as the infant matures.

Which options for saying "good-bye" would the nurse want to discuss with a woman who is diagnosed with having a stillborn girl? a. The nurse should not discuss any options at this time; plenty of time will be available after the baby is born. b. "Would you like a picture taken of your baby after birth?" c. "When your baby is born, would you like to see and hold her?" d. "What funeral home do you want notified after the baby is born?"

C Mothers and fathers may find it helpful to see their infant after delivery. The parents' wishes should be respected. Interventions and support from the nursing and medical staff after a prenatal loss are extremely important in the healing of the parents. The initial intervention should be directly related to the parents' wishes concerning seeing or holding their dead infant. Although information about funeral home notification may be relevant, this information is not the most appropriate option at this time. Burial arrangements can be discussed after the infant is born.

Providing care for the neonate born to a mother who abuses substances can present a challenge for the health care team. Nursing care for this infant requires a multisystem approach. What is the first step in the provision of care for the infant? a. Pharmacologic treatment b. Reduction of environmental stimuli c. Neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS) scoring d. Adequate nutrition and maintenance of fluid and electrolyte balance

C NAS describes the cohort of symptoms associated with drug withdrawal in the neonate. The NAS system evaluates CNS, metabolic, vasomotor, respiratory, and gastrointestinal (GI) disturbances. This evaluation tool enables the health care team to develop an appropriate plan of care. The infant is scored throughout his or her length of stay, and the treatment plan is adjusted accordingly. Pharmacologic treatment is based on the severity of the withdrawal symptoms, which are determined by using a standard assessment tool. Medications of choice are morphine, phenobarbital, diazepam, or diluted tincture of opium. Swaddling, holding, and reducing environmental stimuli are essential in providing care to the infant who is experiencing withdrawal. These nursing interventions are appropriate for the infant who displays CNS disturbances. Poor feeding is one of the GI symptoms common to this client population. Fluid and electrolyte balance must be maintained, and adequate nutrition provided. These infants often have a poor suck reflex and may need to be fed via gavage.

A woman who has recently given birth complains of pain and tenderness in her leg. On physical examination, the nurse notices warmth and redness over an enlarged, hardened area. Which condition should the nurse suspect, and how will it be confirmed? a. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC); asking for laboratory tests b. von Willebrand disease (vWD); noting whether bleeding times have been extended c. Thrombophlebitis; using real-time and color Doppler ultrasound d. Idiopathic or immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP); drawing blood for laboratory analysis

C Pain and tenderness in the extremities, which show warmth, redness, and hardness, is likely thrombophlebitis. A Doppler ultrasound examination is a common noninvasive way to confirm the diagnosis. A diagnosis of DIC is made according to clinical findings and laboratory markers. With DIC, a physical examination will reveal symptoms that may include unusual bleeding, petechiae around a blood pressure cuff on the woman's arm, and/or excessive bleeding from the site of a slight trauma such as a venipuncture site. Symptoms of vWD, a type of hemophilia, include recurrent bleeding episodes, prolonged bleeding time, and factor VIII deficiency. A risk for PPH exists with vWD but does not exhibit a warm or reddened area in an extremity. ITP is an autoimmune disorder in which the life span of antiplatelet antibodies is decreased. Increased bleeding time is a diagnostic finding, and the risk of postpartum uterine bleeding is increased.

Which statement most accurately describes complicated grief? a. Occurs when, in multiple births, one child dies and the other or others live b. Is a state during which the parents are ambivalent, as with an abortion c. Is an extremely intense grief reaction that persists for a long time d. Is felt by the family of adolescent mothers who lose their babies

C Parents showing signs of complicated grief should be referred for counseling. Multiple births, in which not all of the babies survive, create a complicated parenting situation but not complicated bereavement. Abortion can generate complicated emotional responses, but these responses do not constitute complicated bereavement. Families of lost adolescent pregnancies may have to deal with complicated issues, but these issues are not complicated bereavement.

When assisting the mother, father, and other family members to actualize the loss of an infant, which action is most helpful? a. Using the words lost or gone rather than dead or died b. Making sure the family understands that naming the baby is important c. Ensuring the baby is clothed or wrapped if the parents choose to visit with the baby d. Setting a firm time for ending the visit with the baby so that the parents know when to let go

C Presenting the baby as nicely as possible stimulates the parents' senses and provides pleasant memories of their baby. Baby lotion or powder can be applied, and the baby should be wrapped in a soft blanket, clothed, and have a cap placed on his or her head. Nurses must use the wordsdead and died to assist the bereaved in accepting the reality. Although naming the baby can be helpful, creating the sense that the parents have to name the baby is not important. In fact, some cultural taboos and religious rules prohibit the naming of an infant who has died. Parents need different times with their baby to say "good-bye." Nurses need to be careful not to rush the process.

For clinical purposes, the most accurate definition of preterm and postterm infants is defined as what? a. Preterm: Before 34 weeks of gestation if the infant is appropriate for gestational age (AGA); before 37 weeks if the infant is small for gestational age (SGA) b. Postterm: After 40 weeks of gestation if the infant is large for gestational age (LGA); beyond 42 weeks if the infant is AGA c. Preterm: Before 37 weeks of gestation and postterm beyond 42 weeks of gestation; no matter the size for gestational age at birth d. Preterm: Before 38 to 40 weeks of gestation if the infant is SGA; postterm, beyond 40 to 42 weeks gestation if the infant is LGA

C Preterm and postterm are strictly measures of time—before 37 weeks and beyond 42 weeks, respectively—regardless of the size for gestational age.

In planning for home care of a woman with preterm labor, which concern should the nurse need to address? a. Nursing assessments are different from those performed in the hospital setting. b. Restricted activity and medications are necessary to prevent a recurrence of preterm labor. c. Prolonged bed rest may cause negative physiologic effects. d. Home health care providers are necessary.

C Prolonged bed rest may cause adverse effects such as weight loss, loss of appetite, muscle wasting, weakness, bone demineralization, decreased cardiac output, risk for thrombophlebitis, alteration in bowel functions, sleep disturbance, and prolonged postpartum recovery. Nursing assessments differ somewhat from those performed in the acute care setting, but this concern does not need to be addressed. Restricted activity and medications may prevent preterm labor but not in all women. In addition, the plan of care is individualized to meet the needs of each client. Many women receive home health nurse visits, but care is individualized for each woman.

The most effective and least expensive treatment of puerperal infection is prevention. What is the most important strategy for the nurse to adopt? a. Large doses of vitamin C during pregnancy b. Prophylactic antibiotics c. Strict aseptic technique, including hand washing, by all health care personnel d. Limited protein and fat intake

C Strict adherence by all health care personnel to aseptic techniques during childbirth and the postpartum period is extremely important and the least expensive measure to prevent infection. Good nutrition to control anemia is a preventive measure. Increased iron intake assists in preventing anemia. Antibiotics may be administered to manage infections; they are not a cost-effective measure to prevent postpartum infection. Limiting protein and fat intake does not help prevent anemia or prevent infection.

An infant is being discharged from the NICU after 70 days of hospitalization. The infant was born at 30 weeks of gestation with several conditions associated with prematurity, including RDS, mild bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD), and retinopathy of prematurity (ROP), requiring surgical treatment. During discharge teaching, the infant's mother asks the nurse if her baby will meet developmental milestones on time, as did her son who was born at term. What is the nurse's most appropriate response? a. "Your baby will develop exactly like your first child." b. "Your baby does not appear to have any problems at this time." c. "Your baby will need to be corrected for prematurity." d. "Your baby will need to be followed very closely."

C The age of a preterm newborn is corrected by adding the gestational age and the postnatal age. The infant's responses are accordingly evaluated against the norm expected for the corrected age of the infant. The baby is currently 40 weeks of postconceptional age and can be expected to be doing what a 40-week-old infant would be doing. Although predicting with complete accuracy the growth and development potential of each preterm infant is impossible, certain measurable factors predict normal growth and development. The preterm infant experiences catch-up body growth during the first 2 to 3 years of life. Development needs to be evaluated over time. The growth and developmental milestones are corrected for gestational age until the child is approximately years old.

By understanding the four mechanisms of heat transfer (convection, conduction, radiation, and evaporation), the nurse can create an environment for the infant that prevents temperature instability. Which significant symptoms will the infant display when experiencing cold stress? a. Decreased respiratory rate b. Bradycardia, followed by an increased heart rate c. Mottled skin with acrocyanosis d. Increased physical activity

C The infant has minimal-to-no fat stores. During times of cold stress, the skin becomes mottled and acrocyanosis develops, progressing to cyanosis. Even if the infant is being cared for on a radiant warmer or in an isolette, the nurse's role is to observe the infant frequently to prevent heat loss and to respond quickly if signs and symptoms of cold stress occur. The respiratory rate increases, followed by periods of apnea. The infant initially tries to conserve heat and burns more calories, after which the metabolic system goes into overdrive. In the preterm infant who is experiencing heat loss, the heart rate initially increases, followed by periods of bradycardia. In the term infant, increased physical activity is the natural response to heat loss. However, in a term infant who is experiencing respiratory distress or in a preterm infant, physical activity is decreased.

For an infant experiencing symptoms of drug withdrawal, which intervention should be included in the plan of care? a. Administering chloral hydrate for sedation b. Feeding every 4 to 6 hours to allow extra rest between feedings c. Snugly swaddling the infant and tightly holding the baby d. Playing soft music during feeding

C The infant should be snugly wrapped to reduce self-stimulation behaviors and to protect the skin from abrasions. Phenobarbital or diazepam may be administered to decrease central nervous system (CNS) irritability. The infant should be fed in small, frequent amounts and burped well to diminish aspiration and maintain hydration. The infant should not be stimulated (such as with music), because stimulation will increase activity and potentially increase CNS irritability.

An infant at 36 weeks of gestation has increasing respirations (80 to 100 breaths per minute with significant substernal retractions). The infant is given oxygen by continuous nasal positive airway pressure (CPAP). What level of partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) indicates hypoxia? a. 67 mm Hg b. 89 mm Hg c. 45 mm Hg d. 73 mm Hg

C The laboratory value of PaO2 of 45 mm Hg is below the range for a normal neonate and indicates hypoxia in this infant. The normal range for PaO2 is 60 to 80 mm Hg; therefore, PaO2 levels of 67 and 73 mm Hg fall within the normal range, and a PaO2 of 89 mm Hg is higher than the normal range.

During the initial acute distress phase of grieving, parents still must make unexpected and unwanted decisions about funeral arrangements and even naming the baby. What is the nurse's role at this time? a. To take over as much as possible to relieve the pressure b. To encourage the grandparents to take over c. To ensure that the parents, themselves, approve the final decisions d. To leave them alone to work things out

C The nurse is always the client's advocate. Nurses can offer support and guidance and yet leave room for the same from grandparents. In the end, however, nurses should let the parents make the final decisions. For the nurse to be able to present options regarding burial and autopsy, among other issues, in a sensitive and respectful manner is essential. The nurse should assist the parents in any way possible; however, taking over all arrangements is not the nurse's role. Grandparents are often called on to help make the difficult decisions regarding funeral arrangements or the disposition of the body because they have more life experiences with taking care of these painful, yet required arrangements. Some well-meaning relatives may try to take over all decision-making responsibilities. The nurse must remember that the parents, themselves, should approve all of the final decisions. During this time of acute distress, the nurse should be present to provide quiet support, answer questions, obtain information, and act as a client advocate.

A primigravida has just delivered a healthy infant girl. The nurse is about to administer erythromycin ointment in the infant's eyes when the mother asks, "What is that medicine for?" How should the nurse respond? a. "It is an eye ointment to help your baby see you better." b. "It is to protect your baby from contracting herpes from your vaginal tract." c. "Erythromycin is prophylactically given to prevent a gonorrheal infection." d. "This medicine will protect your baby's eyes from drying out over the next few days."

C With the prophylactic use of erythromycin, the incidence of gonococcal conjunctivitis has declined to less than 0.5%. Eye prophylaxis is administered at or shortly after birth to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum. Erythromycin has no bearing on enhancing vision, is used to prevent an infection caused by gonorrhea, not herpes, and is given to prevent infection, not for lubrication.

What is the primary purpose for the use of tocolytic therapy to suppress uterine activity? a. Drugs can be efficaciously administered up to the designated beginning of term at 37 weeks gestation. b. Tocolytic therapy has no important maternal (as opposed to fetal) contraindications. c. The most important function of tocolytic therapy is to provide the opportunity to administer antenatal glucocorticoids. d. If the client develops pulmonary edema while receiving tocolytic therapy, then intravenous (IV) fluids should be given.

C Buying time for antenatal glucocorticoids to accelerate fetal lung development may be the best reason to use tocolytic therapy. Once the pregnancy has reached 34 weeks, however, the risks of tocolytic therapy outweigh the benefits. Important maternal contraindications to tocolytic therapy exist. Tocolytic-induced edema can be caused by IV fluids

Prostaglandin gel has been ordered for a pregnant woman at 43 weeks of gestation. What is the primary purpose of prostaglandin administration? a. To enhance uteroplacental perfusion in an aging placenta b. To increase amniotic fluid volume c. To ripen the cervix in preparation for labor induction d. To stimulate the amniotic membranes to rupture a. To enhance uteroplacental perfusion in an aging placenta b. To increase amniotic fluid volume c. To ripen the cervix in preparation for labor induction d. To stimulate the amniotic membranes to rupture

C Preparations of prostaglandin E1 and E2 are effective when used before labor induction to ripen (i.e., soften and thin) the cervix. Uteroplacental perfusion is not altered by the use of prostaglandins. The insertion of prostaglandin gel has no effect on the level of amniotic fluid. In some cases, women will spontaneously begin laboring after the administration of prostaglandins, thereby eliminating the need for oxytocin. It is not common for a woman's membranes to rupture as a result of prostaglandin use.

A primigravida at 40 weeks of gestation is having uterine contractions every to 2 minutes and states that they are very painful. Her cervix is dilated 2 cm and has not changed in 3 hours. The woman is crying and wants an epidural. What is the likely status of this woman's labor? a. She is exhibiting hypotonic uterine dysfunction. b. She is experiencing a normal latent stage. c. She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction. d. She is experiencing precipitous labor.

C The contraction pattern observed in this woman signifies hypertonic uterine activity. Typically, uterine activity in this phase occurs at 4- to 5-minute intervals lasting 30 to 45 seconds. Women who experience hypertonic uterine dysfunction, or primary dysfunctional labor, are often anxious first-time mothers who are having painful and frequent contractions that are ineffective at causing cervical dilation or effacement to progress. With hypotonic uterine dysfunction, the woman initially makes normal progress into the active stage of labor; then the contractions become weak and inefficient or stop altogether. Precipitous labor is one that lasts less than 3 hours from the onset of contractions until time of birth.

Which statement related to cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) is the least accurate? a. CPD can be related to either fetal size or fetal position. b. The fetus cannot be born vaginally. c. CPD can be accurately predicted. d. Causes of CPD may have maternal or fetal origins.

C Unfortunately, accurately predicting CPD is not possible. Although CPD is often related to excessive fetal size (macrosomia), malposition of the fetal presenting part is the problem in many cases, not true CPD. When CPD is present, the fetus cannot fit through the maternal pelvis to be born vaginally. CPD may be related to either fetal origins such as macrosomia or malposition or maternal origins such as a too small or malformed pelvis

A woman is having her first child. She has been in labor for 15 hours. A vaginal examination performed 2 hours earlier revealed the cervix to be dilated to 5 cm and 100% effaced, and the presenting part of the fetus was at station 0; however, another vaginal examination performed 5 minutes ago indicated no changes. What abnormal labor pattern is associated with this description? a. Prolonged latent phase b. Protracted active phase c. Secondary arrest d. Protracted descent

C With a secondary arrest of the active phase, the progress of labor has stopped. This client has not had any anticipated cervical change, indicating an arrest of labor. In the nulliparous woman, a prolonged latent phase typically lasts longer than 20 hours. A protracted active phase, the first or second stage of labor, is prolonged (slow dilation). With a protracted descent, the fetus fails to descend at an anticipated rate during the deceleration phase and second stage of labor.

A family is visiting two surviving triplets. The third triplet died 2 days ago. What action indicates that the family has begun to grieve for the dead infant? a. Refers to the two live infants as twins b. Asks about the dead triplet's current status c. Brings in play clothes for all three infants d. Refers to the dead infant in the past tense

D Accepting that the infant is dead (in the past tense of the word) demonstrates an acceptance of the reality and that the family has begun to grieve. Parents of multiples are challenged with the task of parenting and grieving at the same time. Referring to the two live infants as twins does not acknowledge an acceptance of the existence of their third child. Bringing in play clothes for all three infants indicates that the parents are still in denial regarding the death of the third triplet. The death of the third infant has imposed a confusing and ambivalent induction into parenthood for this couple. If the two live infants are referred to as twins and/or if play clothes for all three infants are still considered, then the family is clearly still in denial regarding the death of one of the triplets.

Which statement is the most appropriate for the nurse to make when caring for bereaved parents? a. "This happened for the best." b. "You have an angel in heaven." c. "I know how you feel." d. "What can I do for you?"

D Acknowledging the loss and being open to listening is the best action that the nurse can do. No bereaved parent would find the statement "This has happened for the best" to be comforting in any way, and it may sound judgmental. Nurses must resist the impulse to speak about the afterlife to people in pain. They should also resist the temptation to give advice or to use clichés. Unless the nurse has lost a child, he or she does not understand how the parents feel.

Which condition might premature infants who exhibit 5 to 10 seconds of respiratory pauses, followed by 10 to 15 seconds of compensatory rapid respiration, be experiencing? a. Suffering from sleep or wakeful apnea b. Experiencing severe swings in blood pressure c. Trying to maintain a neutral thermal environment d. Breathing in a respiratory pattern common to premature infants

D Breathing in a respiratory pattern is called periodic breathing and is common to premature infants. This pattern may still require nursing intervention of oxygen and/or ventilation. Apnea is the cessation of respirations for 20 seconds or longer and should not be confused with periodic breathing.

Which clinical findings would alert the nurse that the neonate is expressing pain? a. Low-pitched crying; tachycardia; eyelids open wide b. Cry face; flaccid limbs; closed mouth c. High-pitched, shrill cry; withdrawal; change in heart rate d. Cry face; eyes squeezed; increase in blood pressure

D Crying and an increased heart rate are manifestations indicative of pain in the neonate. Typically, infants tightly close their eyes when in pain, not open them wide. In addition, infants may display a rigid posture with the mouth open and may also withdraw limbs and become tachycardic with pain. A high-pitched, shrill cry is associated with genetic or neurologic anomalies.

If nonsurgical treatment for late PPH is ineffective, which surgical procedure would be appropriate to correct the cause of this condition? a. Hysterectomy b. Laparoscopy c. Laparotomy d. Dilation and curettage (D&C)

D D&C allows the examination of the uterine contents and the removal of any retained placental fragments or blood clots. Hysterectomy is the removal of the uterus and is not the appropriate treatment for late PPH. A laparoscopy is the insertion of an endoscope through the abdominal wall to examine the peritoneal cavity, but it, too, is not the appropriate treatment for this condition. A laparotomy is the surgical incision into the peritoneal cavity to explore it but is also not the appropriate treatment for late PPH.

When providing an infant with a gavage feeding, which infant assessment should be documented each time? a. Abdominal circumference after the feeding b. Heart rate and respirations before feeding c. Suck and swallow coordination d. Response to the feeding

D Documentation of a gavage feeding should include the size of the feeding tube, the amount and quality of the residual from the previous feeding, the type and quantity of the fluid instilled, and the infant's response to the procedure. Abdominal circumference is not measured after a gavage feeding. Although vital signs may be obtained before feeding, the infant's response to the feeding is more important. Similarly, some older infants may be learning to suck; the most important factor to document would still be the infant's response to the feeding, including the attempts to suck.

Nurses need to understand the basic definitions and incidence data regarding PPH. Which statement regarding this condition is most accurate? a. PPH is easy to recognize early; after all, the woman is bleeding. b. Traditionally, it takes more than 1000 ml of blood after vaginal birth and 2500 ml after cesarean birth to define the condition as PPH. c. If anything, nurses and physicians tend to overestimate the amount of blood loss. d. Traditionally, PPH has been classified as early PPH or late PPH with respect to birth.

D Early PPH is also known as primary, or acute, PPH; late PPH is known as secondary PPH. Unfortunately, PPH can occur with little warning and is often recognized only after the mother has profound symptoms. Traditionally, a 500-ml blood loss after a vaginal birth and a 1000-ml blood loss after a cesarean birth constitute PPH. Medical personnel tend to underestimate blood loss by as much as 50% in their subjective observations.

The nurse suspects that her postpartum client is experiencing hemorrhagic shock. Which observation indicates or would confirm this diagnosis? a. Absence of cyanosis in the buccal mucosa b. Cool, dry skin c. Calm mental status d. Urinary output of at least 30 ml/hr

D Hemorrhage may result in hemorrhagic shock. Shock is an emergency situation during which the perfusion of body organs may become severely compromised, and death may occur. The presence of adequate urinary output indicates adequate tissue perfusion. The assessment of the buccal mucosa for cyanosis can be subjective. The presence of cool, pale, clammy skin is associated with hemorrhagic shock. Hemorrhagic shock is associated with lethargy, not restlessness.

What bacterial infection is definitely decreasing because of effective drug treatment? a. Escherichia coli infection b. Tuberculosis c. Candidiasis d. Group B streptococci (GBS) infection

D Penicillin has significantly decreased the incidence of GBS infection. E. coli may be increasing, perhaps because of the increasing use of ampicillin (resulting in a more virulent E. coli resistant to the drug). Tuberculosis is increasing in the United States and in Canada. Candidiasis is a fairly benign fungal infection.

On day 3 of life, a newborn continues to require 100% oxygen by nasal cannula. The parents ask if they may hold their infant during his next gavage feeding. Considering that this newborn is physiologically stable, what response should the nurse provide? a. "Parents are not allowed to hold their infants who are dependent on oxygen." b. "You may only hold your baby's hand during the feeding." c. "Feedings cause more physiologic stress; therefore, the baby must be closely monitored. I don't think you should hold the baby." d. "You may hold your baby during the feeding."

D Physical contact with the infant is important to establish early bonding. The nurse as the support person and teacher is responsible for shaping the environment and making the caregiving responsive to the needs of both the parents and the infant. Allowing the parents to hold their baby is the most appropriate response by the nurse. Parental interaction by holding should be encouraged during gavage feedings; nasal cannula oxygen therapy allows for easy feedings and psychosocial interactions. The parent can swaddle the infant or provide kangaroo care while gavage feeding their infant. Both swaddling and kangaroo care during feedings provide positive interactions for the infant and help the infant associate feedings with positive interactions.

Which classification of placental separation is not recognized as an abnormal adherence pattern? a. Placenta accreta b. Placenta increta c. Placenta percreta d. Placenta abruptio

D Placenta abruptio is premature separation of the placenta as opposed to partial or complete adherence. This classification occurs between the 20th week of gestation and delivery in the area of the decidua basalis. Symptoms include localized pain and bleeding. Placenta accreta is a recognized degree of attachment. With placenta accreta, the trophoblast slightly penetrates into the myometrium. Placenta increta is a recognized degree of attachment that results in deep penetration of the myometrium. Placenta percreta is the most severe degree of placental penetration that results in deep penetration of the myometrium. Bleeding with complete placental attachment occurs only when separation of the placenta is attempted after delivery. Treatment includes blood component therapy and, in extreme cases, hysterectomy may be necessary.

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) may be transmitted perinatally or during the postpartum period. Which statement regarding the method of transmission is most accurate? a. Only in the third trimester from the maternal circulation b. From the use of unsterile instruments c. Only through the ingestion of amniotic fluid d. Through the ingestion of breast milk from an infected mother

D Postnatal transmission of the HIV through breastfeeding and breast milk may occur. Transmission of the HIV from the mother to the fetus may occur through the placenta at various gestational ages. Transmission of the HIV from the use of unsterile instruments is highly unlikely; most health care facilities must meet sterility standards for all instrumentation.

What is one of the initial signs and symptoms of puerperal infection in the postpartum client? a. Fatigue continuing for longer than 1 week b. Pain with voiding c. Profuse vaginal lochia with ambulation d. Temperature of 38° C (100.4° F) or higher on 2 successive days

D Postpartum or puerperal infection is any clinical infection of the genital canal that occurs within 28 days after miscarriage, induced abortion, or childbirth. The definition used in the United States continues to be the presence of a fever of 38° C (100.4° F) or higher on 2 successive days of the first 10 postpartum days, starting 24 hours after birth. Fatigue is a late finding associated with infection. Pain with voiding may indicate a urinary tract infection (UTI), but it is not typically one of the earlier symptoms of infection. Profuse lochia may be associated with endometritis, but it is not the first symptom associated with infection.

When evaluating the preterm infant, the nurse understands that compared with the term infant, what information is important for the nurse to understand? a. Few blood vessels visible through the skin b. More subcutaneous fat c. Well-developed flexor muscles d. Greater surface area in proportion to weight

D Preterm infants have greater surface area in proportion to their weight. More subcutaneous fat and well-developed muscles are indications of a more mature infant.

A macrosomic infant is born after a difficult forceps-assisted delivery. After stabilization, the infant is weighed, and the birth weight is 4550 g (9 lb, 6 oz). What is the nurse's first priority? a. Leave the infant in the room with the mother. b. Immediately take the infant to the nursery. c. Perform a gestational age assessment to determine whether the infant is large for gestational age. d. Frequently monitor blood glucose levels, and closely observe the infant for signs of hypoglycemia.

D Regardless of gestational age, this infant is macrosomic (defined as fetal weight more than 4000 g) and is at high risk for hypoglycemia, which affects many macrosomic infants. Blood glucose levels should be frequently monitored, and the infant should be closely observed for signs of hypoglycemia. Close observation can be achieved in the mother's room with nursing interventions. However, depending on the condition of the infant, observation may be more appropriate in the nursery.

Parents are often asked if they would like to have an autopsy performed on their infant. Nurses who are assisting parents with this decision should be aware of which information? a. Autopsies are usually covered by insurance. b. Autopsies must be performed within a few hours after the infant's death. c. In the current litigious society, more autopsies are performed than in the past. d. Some religions prohibit autopsy.

D Some religions prohibit autopsies or limit the choice to the times when it may help prevent further loss. The cost of the autopsy must be considered; it is not covered by insurance and can be very expensive. There is no rush to perform an autopsy unless evidence of a contagious disease or maternal infection is present at the time of death. The rate of autopsies is declining, in part because of a fear by medical facilities that errors by the staff might be revealed, resulting in litigation.

A nurse caring for a family during a loss might notice that a family member is experiencing survivor guilt. Which family member is most likely to exhibit this guilt? a. Siblings b. Mother c. Father d. Grandparents

D Survivor guilt is sometimes felt by grandparents because they feel that the death is out of order; they are still alive, while their grandchild has died. They may express anger that they are alive and their grandchild is not. The siblings of the expired infant may also experience a profound loss. A young child will respond to the reactions of the parents and may act out. Older children have a more complete understanding of the loss. School-age children are likely to be frightened, whereas teenagers are at a loss on how to react. The mother of the infant is experiencing intense grief at this time. She may be dealing with questions such as, "Why me?" or "Why my baby?" and is unlikely to be experiencing survival guilt. Realizing that fathers can be experiencing deep pain beneath their calm and quiet appearance and may need help acknowledging these feelings is important. This need, however, is not the same as survivor guilt.

Because of the premature infant's decreased immune functioning, what nursing diagnosis should the nurse include in a plan of care for a premature infant? a. Delayed growth and development b. Ineffective thermoregulation c. Ineffective infant feeding pattern d. Risk for infection

D The nurse needs to understand that decreased immune functioning increases the risk for infection. Growth and development, thermoregulation, and feeding may be affected, although only indirectly.

A pregnant woman at 37 weeks of gestation has had ruptured membranes for 26 hours. A cesarean section is performed for failure to progress. The fetal heart rate (FHR) before birth is 180 beats per minute with limited variability. At birth the newborn has Apgar scores of 6 and 7 at 1 and 5 minutes and is noted to be pale and tachypneic. Based on the maternal history, what is the most likely cause of this newborn's distress? a. Hypoglycemia b. Phrenic nerve injury c. Respiratory distress syndrome d. Sepsis

D The prolonged rupture of membranes and the tachypnea (before and after birth) suggest sepsis. A differential diagnosis can be difficult because signs of sepsis are similar to noninfectious problems such as anemia and hypoglycemia. Phrenic nerve injury is usually the result of traction on the neck and arm during childbirth and is not applicable to this situation. The earliest signs of sepsis are characterized by lack of specificity (e.g., lethargy, poor feeding, irritability), not respiratory distress syndrome.

After giving birth to a stillborn infant, the woman turns to the nurse and says, "I just finished painting the baby's room. Do you think that caused my baby to die?" What is the nurse's mostappropriate response? a. "That's an old wives' tale; lots of women are around paint during pregnancy, and this doesn't happen to them." b. "That's not likely. Paint is associated with elevated pediatric lead levels." c. Silence. d. "I can understand your need to find an answer to what caused this. What else are you thinking about?"

D The statement "I can understand your need to find an answer to what caused this. What else are you thinking about?" is very appropriate for the nurse. It demonstrates caring and compassion and allows the mother to vent her thoughts and feelings, which is therapeutic in the process of grieving. The nurse should resist the temptation to give advice or to use clichés in offering support to the bereaved. In addition, trying to give bereaved parents answers when no clear answers exist or trying to squelch their guilt feeling does not help the process of grieving. Silence would probably increase the mother's feelings of guilt. One of the most important goals of the nurse is to validate the experience and feelings of the parents by encouraging them to tell their stories and then listening with care. The nurse should encourage the mother to express her thoughts.

A woman at 26 weeks of gestation is being assessed to determine whether she is experiencing preterm labor. Which finding indicates that preterm labor is occurring? a. Estriol is not found in maternal saliva. b. Irregular, mild uterine contractions are occurring every 12 to 15 minutes. c. Fetal fibronectin is present in vaginal secretions. d. The cervix is effacing and dilated to 2 cm.

D Cervical changes such as shortened endocervical length, effacement, and dilation are predictors of imminent preterm labor. Changes in the cervix accompanied by regular contractions indicate labor at any gestation. Estriol is a form of estrogen produced by the fetus that is present in plasma at 9 weeks of gestation. Levels of salivary estriol have been shown to increase before preterm birth. Irregular, mild contractions that do not cause cervical change are not considered a threat. The presence of fetal fibronectin in vaginal secretions between 24 and 36 weeks of gestation could predict preterm labor, but it has only a 20% to 40% positive predictive value. Of more importance are other physiologic clues of preterm labor such as cervical changes

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who thinks she may be experiencing preterm labor. Which information is the most important for the nurse to understand and share with the client? a. Because all women must be considered at risk for preterm labor and prediction is so variable, teaching pregnant women the symptoms of preterm labor probably causes more harm through false alarms. b. Braxton Hicks contractions often signal the onset of preterm labor. c. Because preterm labor is likely to be the start of an extended labor, a woman with symptoms can wait several hours before contacting the primary caregiver. d. Diagnosis of preterm labor is based on gestational age, uterine activity, and progressive cervical change

D Gestational age of 20 to 37 weeks, uterine contractions, and a cervix that is 80% effaced or dilated 2 cm indicates preterm labor. It is essential that nurses teach women how to detect the early symptoms of preterm labor. Braxton Hicks contractions resemble preterm labor contractions, but they are not true labor. Waiting too long to see a health care provider could result in essential medications failing to be administered. Preterm labor is not necessarily long-term labor.

Which statement related to the induction of labor is most accurate? a. Can be achieved by external and internal version techniques b. Is also known as a trial of labor (TOL) c. Is almost always performed for medical reasons d. Is rated for viability by a Bishop score

D Induction of labor is likely to be more successful with a Bishop score of 9 or higher for first-time mothers or 5 or higher for veterans. Version is the turning of the fetus to a better position by a physician for an easier or safer birth. A TOL is the observance of a woman and her fetus for several hours of active labor to assess the safety of vaginal birth. Two thirds of cases of induced labor are elective and not done for medical reasons

When would an internal version be indicated to manipulate the fetus into a vertex position? a. Fetus from a breech to a cephalic presentation before labor begins b. Fetus from a transverse lie to a longitudinal lie before a cesarean birth c. Second twin from an oblique lie to a transverse lie before labor begins d. Second twin from a transverse lie to a breech presentation during a vaginal birth

D Internal version is used only during a vaginal birth to manipulate the second twin into a presentation that allows it to be vaginally born. For internal version to occur, the cervix needs to be completely dilated.

Which assessment is least likely to be associated with a breech presentation? a. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid b. Fetal heart tones heard at or above the maternal umbilicus c. Preterm labor and birth d. Postterm gestation

D Postterm gestation is not likely to occur with a breech presentation. The presence of meconium in a breech presentation may be a result of pressure on the fetal wall as it traverses the birth canal. Fetal heart tones heard at the level of the umbilical level of the mother are a typical finding in a breech presentation because the fetal back would be located in the upper abdominal area. Breech presentations often occur in preterm births

The obstetric provider has informed the nurse that she will be performing an amniotomy on the client to induce labor. What is the nurse's highest priority intervention after the amniotomy is performed? a. Applying clean linens under the woman b. Taking the client's vital signs c. Performing a vaginal examination d. Assessing the fetal heart rate (FHR)

D The FHR is assessed before and immediately after the amniotomy to detect any changes that might indicate cord compression or prolapse. Providing comfort measures, such as clean linens, for the client is important but not the priority immediately after an amniotomy. The woman's temperature should be checked every 2 hours after the rupture of membranes but not the priority immediately after an amniotomy. The woman would have had a vaginal examination during the procedure. Unless cord prolapse is suspected, another vaginal examination is not warranted. Additionally, FHR assessment provides clinical cues to a prolapsed cord.