*OB Quiz 2 - Chapters 6-10

List the time span in lunar months, calendar months, weeks, and days that indicates the appropriate length for a normal pregnancy. ____________________

10 lunar months, 9 calendar months, 40 weeks, 280 days

C (This woman has a normal BMI and should gain 11.5 to 16 kg during her pregnancy. A weight gain of 20 kg (44 lb) is unhealthy for most women; a weight gain of 16 kg (35 lb) is at the high end of the range of weight this woman should gain in her pregnancy; and a weight gain of 10 kg (22 lb) is appropriate for an obese woman. This woman has a normal BMI, which indicates that her weight is average.)

A 27-year-old pregnant woman had a preconceptual body mass index (BMI) of 19. What is this client's total recommended weight gain during pregnancy? A. 20 kg (44 lb) B. 16 kg (35 lb) C. 12.5 kg (27.5 lb) D. 10 kg (22 lb)

B (By age 3 or 4, children like to be told the story of their own beginning and accept its comparison with the present pregnancy. They like to listen to the fetal heartbeat and feel the baby move. Sometimes they worry about how the baby is being fed and what it wears. School-age children take a more clinical interest in their mother's pregnancy and may want to know, "How did the baby get in there?" and "How will it get out?" Whether her mother will die does not tend to be the focus of a child's questions about the impending birth of a sibling. The baby's eye color does not tend to be the focus of children's questions about the impending birth of a sibling.)

A 3-year-old girl's mother is 6 months pregnant. What concern is this child likely to verbalize? A. How the baby will "get out" B. What the baby will eat C. Whether her mother will die D. What color eyes the baby has

A (An ultrasound examination could be done to confirm the pregnancy and determine the gestational age of the fetus. It is too early in the pregnancy to perform MSAFP screening, amniocentesis, or NST. MSAFP screening is performed at 16 to 18 weeks of gestation, followed by amniocentesis if MSAFP levels are abnormal or if fetal/maternal anomalies are detected. NST is performed to assess fetal well-being in the third trimester.)

A 39-year-old primigravida thinks that she is about 8 weeks pregnant, although she has had irregular menstrual periods all her life. She has a history of smoking approximately one pack of cigarettes a day, but she tells you that she is trying to cut down. Her laboratory data are within normal limits. What diagnostic technique could be used with this pregnant woman at this time? A. Ultrasound examination B. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening C. Amniocentesis D. Nonstress test (NST)

A (Fetal heart activity begins around 6 weeks, so 4 weeks is too early to detect fetal heart activity, and this is a normal finding. Absence of fetal heart activity at an advanced gestational age may indicate congenital anomalies, impaired growth, or cardiac disorders.)

A 4-week pregnant patient is undergoing an ultrasound. The report shows an absence of fetal heart activity. What does the nurse infer about the fetus from the report? A. Normal finding B. Congenital abnormality C. Impaired growth D. Cardiac disorder

D (Ultrasound would be performed at this gestational age for biophysical assessment of the infant. BPP would be a method of biophysical assessment of fetal well-being in the third trimester. Amniocentesis is performed after the fourteenth week of pregnancy. MSAFP screening is performed from week 15 to week 22 of gestation (weeks 16 to 18 are ideal).)

A 40-year-old woman is 10 weeks pregnant. Which diagnostic tool would be appropriate to suggest to her at this time? A. Biophysical profile (BPP) B. Amniocentesis C. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening D. Transvaginal ultrasound

D (Rationale: A biophysical profile is a method of biophysical assessment of fetal well-being in the third trimester. An amniocentesis is performed after the fourteenth week of pregnancy. A MSAFP test is performed from week 15 to week 22 of the gestation (weeks 16 to 18 are ideal). An ultrasound is the method of biophysical assessment of the infant that is performed at this gestational age. Transvaginal ultrasound is especially useful for obese women whose thick abdominal layers cannot be penetrated adequately with the abdominal approach.)

A 40-year-old woman with a high body mass index (BMI) is 10 weeks pregnant. Which diagnostic tool is appropriate to suggest to her at this time? A. Biophysical profile B. Amniocentesis C. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) D. Transvaginal ultrasound

D (Transvaginal ultrasound is useful for obese women whose thick abdominal layers cannot be penetrated adequately with the abdominal approach. A biophysical profile is a method of biophysical assessment of fetal well-being in the third trimester. An amniocentesis is performed after the fourteenth week of pregnancy. A MSAFP test is performed from week 15 to week 22 of the gestation (weeks 16 to 18 are ideal). An ultrasound is the method of biophysical assessment of the infant that is performed at this gestational age.)

A 40-year-old woman with a high body mass index is 10 weeks pregnant. Which diagnostic tool is appropriate to suggest to her at this time? A. Biophysical profile B. Amniocentesis C. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) D. Transvaginal ultrasound

B (Real-time ultrasound permits detailed assessment of the physical and physiologic characteristics of the developing fetus and cataloging of normal and abnormal biophysical responses to stimuli. BPP is a noninvasive, dynamic assessment of a fetus that is based on acute and chronic markers of fetal disease. An ultrasound for fetal anomalies would most likely have been performed earlier in the pregnancy. It is too late in the pregnancy to perform MSAFP screening. Also, MSAFP screening does not provide information related to fetal well-being. Indications for PUBS include prenatal diagnosis or inherited blood disorders, karyotyping of malformed fetuses, detection of fetal infection, determination of the acid-base status of a fetus with IUGR, and assessment and treatment of isoimmunization and thrombocytopenia in the fetus.)

A 41-week pregnant multigravida presents in the labor and delivery unit after a nonstress test indicated that her fetus could be experiencing some difficulties in utero. Which diagnostic tool would yield more detailed information about the fetus? A. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies B. Biophysical profile (BPP) C. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening D. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)

A (An accurate and appropriate response is, "Your placenta changes as your pregnancy progresses, and it is given a score that indicates the amount of calcium deposits it has. The more calcium deposits, the higher the grade, or number, that is assigned to the placenta. It also means that less blood and oxygen can be delivered to your baby." Although "Your placenta isn't working properly, and your baby is in danger" may be valid, it does not reflect therapeutic communication techniques and is likely to alarm the client. An ultrasound, not an amniocentesis, is the method of assessment used to determine placental maturation. The response "Don't worry about it. Everything is fine" is not appropriate and discredits the client's concerns.)

A client asks her nurse, "My doctor told me that he is concerned with the grade of my placenta because I am overdue. What does that mean?" The best response by the nurse is: A. "Your placenta changes as your pregnancy progresses, and it is given a score that indicates the amount of calcium deposits it has. The more calcium deposits, the higher the grade, or number, that is assigned to the placenta. It also means that less blood and oxygen can be delivered to your baby." B. "Your placenta isn't working properly, and your baby is in danger." C. "This means that we will need to perform an amniocentesis to detect if you have any placental damage." D. "Don't worry about it. Everything is fine."

D (Sardines are rich in calcium. Fresh apricots, canned clams, and spaghetti with meat sauce are not high in calcium.)

A client states that she does not drink milk. Which foods should the nurse encourage this woman to consume in greater amounts to increase her calcium intake? A. Fresh apricots B. Canned clams C. Spaghetti with meat sauce D. Canned sardines

B (A lactating woman needs to avoid consuming too much caffeine. Vitamin C, zinc, and protein levels need to be moderately higher during lactation than during pregnancy. The recommendations for iron and folic acid are lower during lactation. Lactating women should consume approximately 500 kcal more than their prepregnancy intake, at least 1800 kcal daily overall.)

A client states that she plans to breastfeed her newborn infant. What guidance would be useful for this new mother? A. The mother's intake of vitamin C, zinc, and protein can now be lower than during pregnancy. B. Caffeine consumed by the mother accumulates in the infant, who may be unusually active and wakeful. C. Critical iron and folic acid levels must be maintained. D. Lactating women can go back to their prepregnant caloric intake.

D (Low levels of MSAFP are associated with Down syndrome. Sickle cell anemia is not detected by the MSAFP. Cardiac defects would not be detected with the MSAFP. A triple marker test determines the levels of MSAFP along with serum levels of estriol and human chorionic gonadotropin; an elevated level is associated with open neural tube defects.)

A maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) test is performed at 16 to 18 weeks of gestation. An elevated level has been associated with: A. Down syndrome. B. Sickle cell anemia. C. Cardiac defects. D. Open neural tube defects such as spina bifida.

B, C, E (Vibroacoustic stimulation is often used to stimulate fetal activity if the initial NST result is nonreactive and thus hopefully shortens the time required to complete the test (Greenberg, Druzin, and Gabbe, 2012). A nonreactive test requires further evaluation. The testing period is often extended, usually for an additional 20 minutes, with the expectation that the fetal sleep state will change and the test will become reactive. Care providers sometimes suggest that the woman drink orange juice or be given glucose to increase her blood sugar level and thereby stimulate fetal movements. Although this practice is common, there is no evidence that it increases fetal activity (Greenberg, Druzin, and Gabbe, 2012). A needle biopsy is not part of a NST. The FHR is recorded with a Doppler transducer, and a tocodynamometer is applied to detect uterine contractions or fetal movements. The tracing is observed for signs of fetal activity and a concurrent acceleration of FHR.)

A nonstress test (NST) is ordered on a pregnant woman at 37 weeks of gestation. What are the most appropriate teaching points to include when explaining the procedure to the woman? Select all that apply. A. After 20 minutes, a nonreactive reading indicates the test is complete. B. Vibroacoustic stimulation may be used during the test. C. Drinking orange juice before the test is appropriate. D. A needle biopsy may be needed to stimulate contractions. E. Two sensors are placed on the abdomen to measure contractions and fetal heart tones.

B, C, E (Rationale: A nonreactive test requires further evaluation. The testing period is often extended, usually for an additional 20 minutes, with the expectation that the fetal sleep state will change and the test will become reactive. During this time vibroacoustic stimulation (see later discussion) may be used to stimulate fetal activity. Vibroacoustic stimulation is often used to stimulate fetal activity if the initial NST result is nonreactive and thus hopefully shortens the time required to complete the test. Care providers sometimes suggest that the woman drink orange juice or be given glucose to increase her blood sugar level and thereby stimulate fetal movements. Although this practice is common, there is no evidence that it increases fetal activity. A needle biopsy is not part of a NST. The FHR is recorded with a Doppler transducer, and a tocodynamometer is applied to detect uterine contractions or fetal movements. The tracing is observed for signs of fetal activity and a concurrent acceleration of FHR.)

A nonstress test (NST) is ordered on a pregnant women at 37 weeks gestation. What are the most appropriate teaching points to include when explaining the procedure to the patient? (Select all that apply) A. After 20 minutes, a nonreactive reading indicates the test is complete. B. Vibroacoustic stimulation may be used during the test. C. Drinking orange juice before the test is appropriate. D. A needle biopsy may be needed to stimulate contractions. E. Two sensors are placed on the abdomen to measure contractions and fetal heart tones.

C (Rationale: Vibroacoustic stimulation is sometimes used with NST. CST is invasive if stimulation is by IV oxytocin but not if by nipple stimulation. No late decelerations indicate a positive CST. CST is contraindicated if the membranes have ruptured.)

A nurse providing care for the antepartum woman should understand that the contraction stress test (CST): A. sometimes uses vibroacoustic stimulation. B. is an invasive test; however, contractions are stimulated. C. is considered negative if no late decelerations are observed with the contractions. D. is more effective than nonstress test (NST) if the membranes have already been ruptured.

A, B (Triple marker screening, which is performed in the first trimester of pregnancy, includes the measurement of two maternal biomarkers: PAPP-A and free β-hCG. High levels of free β-hCG and low levels of PAPP-A in the first trimester indicate that the fetus has Down syndrome, or trisomy 21.Inhibin-A is a placental hormone. Low levels of inhibin-A also indicate the possibility of Down syndrome, but inhibin-A levels are not measured in the triple marker screen; these levels are measured in quad screening. A low level of MSAFP and unconjugated estriol also indicate Down syndrome, but these can be measured only in the second and third trimesters.)

A patient in the first trimester of pregnancy undergoes a triple marker screening test. On reviewing the report, the nurse infers that the fetus may have Down syndrome. What clinical findings are noted by the nurse in the test reports? Select all that apply. A. High levels of beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG) B. Low levels of pregnancy-associated placental protein (PAPP-A) C. Low levels of inhibin-A in the fetal blood D. Low levels of maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) E. Low levels of unconjugated estriol in the fetal blood

A (Three-dimensional (3D) or four-dimensional (4D) ultrasonography is advisable for women who want to see the fetus. MRI cannot be used in this case because it requires the fetus to be still for a long period of time for a clear image. CT uses ionizing radiation for imaging, which can be harmful to the fetus. Therefore CT is contraindicated for fetal imaging. NT is a specific ultrasonography screening procedure used to test for genetic abnormalities in the fetus.)

A patient in the sixth month of pregnancy expresses her wish to see the fetus. What investigation does the nurse suggest for the patient to help her see the fetus? A. Ultrasonography B. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) C. Computed tomography (CT) D. Nuchal translucency (NT)

B, C (Consumption of alcohol by a lactating mother would affect the health of the infant. Maternal alcohol consumption causes delayed psychomotor development in the infant. Alcohol also inhibits the milk ejection reflex, so the infant may not be able to suck milk. The inability to produce milk is a side effect of smoking. Caffeine intake can lead to a reduced iron concentration in milk and causes the development of anemia in the infant. Caffeine does affect the activity levels of the mother but does not cause insomnia in the infant.)

A patient tells the nurse, "I abstained from alcohol throughout my pregnancy, but now that I have delivered my baby, I want to be able to drink alcohol." What should the nurse inform the patient? Select all that apply. A. "You would not be able to produce sufficient milk for the baby." B. "Your child may develop psychomotor retardation if you drink." C. "Your child would not be able to suck milk if you have alcohol." D. "Your child may become anemic if you drink any form of alcohol." E. "Your child would not be able sleep properly if you have alcohol."

A (Diverticulosis is a condition in which the patient develops muscular outpouchings in the colon. Intake of fibrous food reduces the risk for diverticulosis in a pregnant patient. Therefore the nurse should recommend that the patient incorporate the diet containing whole grains, bran, vegetables, and fruits. The intake of citrus fruits and dark green leafy vegetables is recommended for vitamin C deficiency. Shellfish, liver, meats, whole grains, and milk are recommended foods for a zinc deficiency. A diet containing iodized salt, seafood, milk products, and rolls is rich in iodine.)

A patient who is 6 months pregnant is diagnosed with diverticulosis. Which diet should the nurse recommend to the patient? A. Whole grains, bran, vegetables, and fruits B. Citrus fruits and dark green leafy vegetables C. Shellfish, liver, meats, whole grains, and milk D. Iodized salt, seafood, milk products, and rolls

A, E (Canned sardines and refried beans are rich sources of calcium. Therefore a diet containing these foods should be suggested for patients who do not drink milk. Avocado, cooked pasta, and bread have poor calcium content. These foods are rich sources of folic acid and are suggested to pregnant patients to increase folate levels.)

A pregnant patient does not drink milk because of lactose intolerance. Which foods should the nurse instruct the patient to incorporate in her diet to prevent calcium deficiency? Select all that apply. A. Sardines B. Avocadoes C. Cooked pasta D. Wheat bread E. Refried beans

D (MRI is a noninvasive technique that causes little pain. Therefore the patient undergoing MRI should be advised to not worry about pain. The patient undergoing MRI should be positioned in a supine position. The lithotomy position is not suitable for this procedure. The patient need not take fluids before the scan to ensure a full bladder because this procedure enables a full pelvic view without a full bladder. The patient should be instructed not to move during the scanning process because it may blur the images obtained.)

A pregnant patient is about to undergo magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). What information does the nurse give the patient before the procedure? The patient will: A. Be positioned in a lithotomy position. B. Need to take fluids to have a full bladder. C. Be able to move freely during the procedure. D. Not have pain during the process

A (A normal fetal kick count is an indication of fetal activity. The patient has undergone nonstress testing, which may have high false-positive rates. Therefore the patient may be scheduled for a contraction stress test. Biophysical profile testing allows detailed assessment of the physical and physiologic characteristics of the fetus. Because the kick count is normal, biophysical profile testing is not needed. Maternal serum analysis is done to determine fetal abnormalities. It is not advised in this case, because the fetal kick count indicates adequate fetal activity. Doppler blood flow analysis is a noninvasive test for analyzing fetal circulation. It cannot be used to assess the fetal heart rate.)

A pregnant patient with a normal fetal kick count has come for a regular nonstress testing session. The nurse notices that there are no heart accelerations after 40 minutes of testing. What diagnostic testing will the nurse include in the plan of care? A. Contraction stress test B. Biophysical profile test C. Maternal serum analysis D. Doppler blood flow test

C (Typically running should be replaced with walking around the seventh month of pregnancy. The nurse should inform the woman that she may need to reduce her exercise level as the pregnancy progresses. Physical activity promotes a feeling of well-being in pregnant women. It improves circulation, promotes relaxation and rest, and counteracts boredom. Simple measures should be initiated to prevent injuries, such as warm-up and stretching exercises to prepare the joints for more strenuous exercise.)

A pregnant woman at 10 weeks of gestation jogs three or four times per week. She is concerned about the effect of exercise on the fetus. The nurse should inform her: A. "You don't need to modify your exercising any time during your pregnancy." B. "Stop exercising because it will harm the fetus." C. "You may find that you need to modify your exercise to walking later in your pregnancy, around the seventh month." D. "Jogging is too hard on your joints; switch to walking now."

C (The nurse should inform the woman that she may need to reduce her exercise level as the pregnancy progresses. Physical activity promotes a feeling of well-being in pregnant women. It improves circulation, promotes relaxation and rest, and counteracts boredom. Typically, running should be replaced with walking around the seventh month of pregnancy. Simple measures should be initiated to prevent injuries, such as warm-up and stretching exercises to prepare the joints for more strenuous exercise.)

A pregnant woman at 10 weeks of gestation jogs three or four times per week. She is concerned about the effect of exercise on the fetus. The nurse should inform her: A. "You don't need to modify your exercising any time during your pregnancy." B. "Stop exercising, because it will harm the fetus." C. "You may find that you need to modify your exercise to walking later in your pregnancy, around the seventh month." D. "Jogging is too hard on your joints; switch to walking now."

B (Pelvic rock exercises may help stretch and strengthen the abdominal and lower back muscles and relieve low back pain. Kegel exercises increase the tone of the pelvic area, not the back. A softer mattress may not provide the support needed to maintain proper alignment of the spine and may contribute to back pain. Stretching and other exercises to relieve back pain should be performed several times a day.)

A pregnant woman at 18 weeks of gestation calls the clinic to report that she has been experiencing occasional backaches of mild-to-moderate intensity. The nurse would recommend that she: A. Do Kegel exercises. B. Do pelvic rock exercises. C. Use a softer mattress. D. Stay in bed for 24 hours.

D (Vital signs can be assessed next. Breathing into a paper bag is the solution for dizziness related to respiratory alkalosis associated with hyperventilation. Raising her legs will not solve the problem since pressure will still remain on the major abdominal blood vessels, thereby continuing to impede cardiac output. During a fundal height measurement the woman is placed in a supine position. This woman is experiencing supine hypotension as a result of uterine compression of the vena cava and abdominal aorta. Turning her on her side will remove the compression and restore cardiac output and blood pressure.)

A pregnant woman at 32 weeks of gestation complains of feeling dizzy and light-headed while her fundal height is being measured. Her skin is pale and moist. The nurse's initial response would be to: A. Assess the woman's blood pressure and pulse. B. Have the woman breathe into a paper bag. C. Raise the woman's legs. D. Turn the woman on her side.

B (A bedtime snack of slowly digested protein is especially important to prevent the occurrence of hypoglycemia during the night that can contribute to nausea. Fluids should be taken between (not with) meals to provide for maximum nutrient uptake in the small intestine. Dry carbohydrates such as plain toast or crackers are recommended before getting out of bed. Eating small, frequent meals (about five or six each day) with snacks helps to avoid a distended or empty stomach, both of which contribute to the development of nausea and vomiting.)

A pregnant woman at 7 weeks of gestation complains to her nurse-midwife about frequent episodes of nausea during the day with occasional vomiting. She asks what she can do to feel better. The nurse-midwife should suggest that the woman: A. Drink warm fluids with each of her meals. B. Eat a high-protein snack before going to bed. C. Keep crackers and peanut butter at her bedside to eat in the morning before getting out of bed. D. Schedule three meals and one midafternoon snack a day.

C (Pointing toes can aggravate rather than relieve the cramp. Application of heat is recommended. Extending the leg and dorsiflexing the foot is the appropriate relief for a leg cramp. Bearing weight on the affected leg can help to relieve the leg cramp, so it should not be avoided.)

A pregnant woman demonstrates understanding of the nurse's instructions regarding relief of leg cramps if she: A. Wiggles and points her toes during the cramp. B. Applies cold compresses to the affected leg. C. Extends her leg and dorsiflexes her foot during the cramp. D. Avoids weight bearing on the affected leg during the cramp.

B (A pregnant woman experiencing nausea and vomiting should eat small, frequent meals. She should avoid consuming fluids early in the day or when nauseated. She should reduce her intake of fried foods and other fatty foods and should avoid consuming fluids early in the morning or when nauseated but should compensate by drinking fluids at other times.)

A pregnant woman experiencing nausea and vomiting should: A. Drink a glass of water with a fat-free carbohydrate before getting out of bed in the morning. B. Eat small, frequent meals (every 2 to 3 hours). C. Increase her intake of high-fat foods to keep the stomach full and coated. D. Limit fluid intake throughout the day.

A (If no medical or obstetric problems contraindicate physical activity, pregnant women should get 30 minutes of moderate physical exercise daily. Liberal amounts of fluid should be consumed before, during, and after exercise, because dehydration can trigger premature labor. Also, the woman's calorie intake should be sufficient to meet the increased needs of pregnancy and the demands of exercise. All pregnant women should consume the necessary amount of protein in their diet, regardless of level of activity. Many pregnant women of this gestation tend to retain fluid. This may contribute to hypertension and swelling. An adequate fluid intake prior to and after exercise should be sufficient. The woman's calorie and carbohydrate intake should be sufficient to meet the increased needs of pregnancy and the demands of exercise.)

A pregnant woman reports that she is still playing tennis at 32 weeks of gestation. The nurse should be most concerned regarding what this woman consumes during and after tennis matches. Which is the most important? A. Several glasses of fluid B. Extra protein sources, such as peanut butter C. Salty foods to replace lost sodium D. Easily digested sources of carbohydrate

A (If no medical or obstetric problems contraindicate physical activity, then pregnant women should get 30 minutes of moderate physical exercise daily. Liberal amounts of fluid should be consumed before, during, and after exercise because dehydration can trigger premature labor. The woman's caloric intake should be sufficient to meet the increased needs of pregnancy and the demands of exercise.)

A pregnant woman reports that she is still playing tennis at 32 weeks of gestation. Which recommendation would the nurse make for this particular client after a tennis match? A. Drink several glasses of fluid. B. Eat extra protein sources such as peanut butter. C. Enjoy salty foods to replace lost sodium. D. Consume easily digested sources of carbohydrate.

B (A BMI of 22 represents a normal weight. Therefore, a total weight gain for pregnancy is about 25 to 35 lbs or about 2 to 5 lbs in the first trimester and about 1 lb per week during the second and third trimesters. One pound per week is not the correct guideline during pregnancy. One pound per week during the first two trimesters and two pounds per week thereafter is not the correct guideline for weight gain during pregnancy. A total weight gain of 25 to 35 pounds is correct, but the pattern needs to be explained to the woman.)

A pregnant woman with a body mass index (BMI) of 22 asks the nurse how she should be gaining weight during pregnancy. The nurse's best response is to tell the woman that her pattern of weight gain should be approximately: A. A pound a week throughout pregnancy. B. 2 to 5 lbs during the first trimester, then a pound each week until the end of pregnancy. C. A pound a week during the first two trimesters, then 2 lbs per week during the third trimester. D. A total of 25 to 35 lbs

A (The normal biophysical score ranges from 8 to 10 points if the amniotic fluid volume is adequate. A normal score allows conservative treatment of high-risk patients. Delivery can be delayed if fetal well-being is indicated. Scores less than 4 should be investigated, and delivery could be initiated sooner than planned. This score is within normal range, and no further testing is required at this time. The results of the biophysical profile are usually available immediately after the procedure is performed.)

A pregnant woman's biophysical profile score is 8. She asks the nurse to explain the results. The nurse's best response is: A. "The test results are within normal limits." B. "Immediate delivery by cesarean birth is being considered." C. "Further testing will be performed to determine the meaning of this score." D. "An obstetric specialist will evaluate the results of this profile and, within the next week, will inform you of your options regarding delivery."

C (A pregnant woman's diet is consistent with that followed by a strict vegetarian (vegan). Vegans consume only plant products. Because vitamin B12 is found in foods of animal origin, this diet is deficient in vitamin B12. Depending on the woman's food choices, a pregnant woman's diet may be adequate in calcium. Protein needs can be sufficiently met by a vegetarian diet. The nurse should be more concerned with the woman's intake of vitamin B12 attributable to her dietary restrictions. Folic acid needs can be met by enriched bread products.)

A pregnant woman's diet consists almost entirely of whole grain breads and cereals, fruits, and vegetables. Which dietary requirement is the nurse most concerned about? A. Calcium B. Protein C. Vitamin B12 D. Folic acid

D (Sources of folates include green leafy vegetables, whole grains, fruits, liver, dried peas, and beans. Chicken and cheese are excellent sources of protein but are poor sources for folates. Potatoes contain carbohydrates and vitamins and minerals but are poor sources for folates.)

A pregnant woman's diet may not meet her increased need for folates. Which food is a rich source of this nutrient? A. Chicken B. Cheese C. Potatoes D. Green leafy vegetables

D (Her family history of NTD, low BMI, and substance abuse all are high risk factors of pregnancy. The woman's BP is normal, and her age does not put her at risk. Her BMI is low and may indicate poor nutritional status, which would be a high risk. The woman's drug/alcohol use and family history put her in a high risk category, but her age does not. The woman's family history puts her in a high risk category. Her BMI is low and may indicate poor nutritional status, which would be high risk. Her BP is normal.)

A woman arrives at the clinic seeking confirmation that she is pregnant. The following information is obtained: She is 24 years old with a body mass index (BMI) of 17.5. She admits to having used cocaine "several times" during the past year and drinks alcohol occasionally. Her blood pressure (BP) is 108/70 mm Hg, her pulse rate is 72 beats/min, and her respiratory rate is 16 breaths/min. The family history is positive for diabetes mellitus and cancer. Her sister recently gave birth to an infant with a neural tube defect (NTD). Which characteristics place the woman in a high risk category? A. Blood pressure, age, BMI B. Drug/alcohol use, age, family history C. Family history, blood pressure, BMI D. Family history, BMI, drug/alcohol abuse

B (The nurse can best help the woman and her husband regain a sense of control in their lives by providing support and encouragement (including active involvement in preparations and classes). The nurse can try to present opportunities for the couple to make as many choices as possible in prenatal care.)

A woman has been diagnosed with a high risk pregnancy. She and her husband come into the office in a very anxious state. She seems to be coping by withdrawing from the discussion, showing declining interest. The nurse can best help the couple by: A. Telling her that the physician will isolate the problem with more tests. B. Encouraging her and urging her to continue with childbirth classes. C. Becoming assertive and laying out the decisions the couple needs to make. D. Downplaying her risks by citing success rate studies.

D (A healthy diet before conception is the best way to ensure that adequate nutrients are available for the developing fetus. A woman's folate or folic acid intake is of particular concern in the periconception period. Neural tube defects are more common in infants of women with a poor folic acid intake. Depending on the type of contraception that she has been using, discontinuing all contraception at this time may not be appropriate. Advising this client to lose weight now so that she can gain more during pregnancy is also not appropriate advice. Depending on the type of medications the woman is taking, continuing to take them regularly may not be appropriate.)

A woman has come to the clinic for preconception counseling because she wants to start trying to get pregnant. Which guidance should she expect to receive? A. "Discontinue all contraception now." B. "Lose weight so that you can gain more during pregnancy." C. "You may take any medications you have been regularly taking." D. "Make sure you include adequate folic acid in your diet."

A, B, E (Immunization with live or attenuated live viruses is contraindicated during pregnancy because of potential teratogenicity. Vaccines consisting of killed viruses may be used. Immunizations that may be administered during pregnancy include tetanus, diphtheria, recombinant hepatitis B, and rabies vaccines. Live-virus vaccines include those for measles (rubeola and rubella), chickenpox, and mumps.)

A woman has just moved to the United States from Mexico. She is 3 months pregnant and has arrived for her first prenatal visit. During her assessment interview, you discover that she has not had any immunizations. Which immunizations should she receive at this point in her pregnancy (Select all that apply)? A. Tetanus B. Diphtheria C. Chickenpox D. Rubella E. Hepatitis B

D (Eating small, frequent meals may help with heartburn, nausea, and vomiting. Substituting other calcium sources for milk, lying down after eating, and reducing fiber intake are inappropriate dietary suggestions for all pregnant women and do not alleviate heartburn.)

A woman in the 34th week of pregnancy reports that she is very uncomfortable because of heartburn. Which recommendation would be appropriate for this client? A. Substitute other calcium sources for milk in her diet. B. Lie down after each meal. C. Reduce the amount of fiber she consumes. D. Eat five small meals daily.

D (The statement "Hormonal changes during pregnancy commonly result in mood swings" is accurate and the most appropriate response by the nurse. The statement "Don't worry about it; you'll feel better in a month or so" dismisses the client's concerns and is not the most appropriate response. Although women should be encouraged to share their feelings, "Have you talked to your husband about how you feel" is not the most appropriate response and does not provide the client with a rationale for the psychosocial dynamics of her pregnancy. "Perhaps you really don't want to be pregnant" is completely inappropriate and deleterious to the psychologic well-being of the woman. Hormonal and metabolic adaptations often cause mood swings in pregnancy. The woman's responses are normal. She should be reassured about her feelings.)

A woman is 3 months pregnant. At her prenatal visit, she tells the nurse that she doesn't know what is happening; one minute she's happy that she is pregnant, and the next minute she cries for no reason. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? A. "Don't worry about it; you'll feel better in a month or so." B. "Have you talked to your husband about how you feel?" C. "Perhaps you really don't want to be pregnant." D. "Hormonal changes during pregnancy commonly result in mood swings."

A (Adequate uterine activity necessary for a CST consists of the presence of three contractions in a 10-minute time frame. If no decelerations are observed in the FHR pattern with the contractions, the findings are considered to be negative. A positive CST indicates the presence of repetitive later FHR decelerations. Satisfactory and unsatisfactory are not applicable terms.)

A woman is undergoing a nipple-stimulated contraction stress test (CST). She is having contractions that occur every 3 minutes. The fetal heart rate (FHR) has a baseline of approximately 120 beats/min without any decelerations. The interpretation of this test is said to be: A. Negative. B. Positive. C. Satisfactory. D. Unsatisfactory.

D (Regardless of which trimester the woman has reached, no amount of alcohol during pregnancy has been deemed safe for the fetus. Neither one drink per night nor three drinks per week is a safe recommendation. Although the first trimester is a crucial period of fetal development, pregnant women of all gestations are counseled to eliminate all alcohol from their diet. A safe level of alcohol consumption during pregnancy has not yet been established. Although the consumption of occasional alcoholic beverages may not be harmful to the mother or her developing fetus, complete abstinence is strongly advised.)

A woman who is 14 weeks pregnant tells the nurse that she always had a glass of wine with dinner before she became pregnant. She has abstained during her first trimester and would like to know if it is safe for her to have a drink with dinner now. The nurse tells her: A. "Because you're in your second trimester, there's no problem with having one drink with dinner." B. "One drink every night is too much. One drink three times a week should be fine." C. "Because you're in your second trimester, you can drink as much as you like." D. "Because no one knows how much or how little alcohol it takes to cause fetal problems, the best course is to abstain throughout your pregnancy."

D (The statement "Because no one knows how much or how little alcohol it takes to cause fetal problems, the best course is to abstain throughout your pregnancy" is accurate. A safe level of alcohol consumption during pregnancy has not yet been established. Although the consumption of occasional alcoholic beverages may not be harmful to the mother or her developing fetus, complete abstinence is strongly advised.)

A woman who is 14 weeks pregnant tells the nurse that she always had a glass of wine with dinner before she became pregnant. She has abstained during her first trimester and would like to know if it is safe for her to have a drink with dinner now. The nurse would tell her: A. "Since you're in your second trimester, there's no problem with having one drink with dinner." B. "One drink every night is too much. One drink three times a week should be fine." C. "Since you're in your second trimester, you can drink as much as you like." D. "Because no one knows how much or how little alcohol it takes to cause fetal problems, the best course is to abstain throughout your pregnancy."

B (Constipation is a normal discomfort of pregnancy that occurs in the second and third trimesters. An alteration in the pattern or amount of fetal movement may indicate fetal jeopardy. Heart palpitations are a normal change related to pregnancy. This is most likely to occur during the second and third trimesters. As the pregnancy progresses, edema in the ankles and feet at the end of the day is not uncommon.)

A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is informed by the nurse that a danger sign of pregnancy could be: A. Constipation. B. Alteration in the pattern of fetal movement. C. Heart palpitations. D. Edema in the ankles and feet at the end of the day.

B (An alteration in the pattern or amount of fetal movement may indicate fetal jeopardy. Constipation, heart palpitations, and ankle and foot edema are normal discomforts of pregnancy that occur in the second and third trimesters.)

A woman who is 32 weeks' pregnant is informed by the nurse that a danger sign of pregnancy could be: A. Constipation. B. Alteration in the pattern of fetal movement. C. Heart palpitations. D. Edema in the ankles and feet at the end of the day.

D (The nonstress test is one of the most widely used techniques to determine fetal well-being and is accomplished by monitoring fetal heart rate in conjunction with fetal activity and movements. An ultrasound is the test that requires a full bladder. An amniocentesis is the test that a pregnant woman should be driven home afterward. A maternal alpha-fetoprotein test is used in conjunction with unconjugated estriol levels, and human chorionic gonadotropin helps to determine Down syndrome.)

A woman who is at 36 weeks of gestation is having a nonstress test. Which statement by the woman indicates a correct understanding of the test? A. "I will need to have a full bladder for the test to be done accurately." B. "I should have my husband drive me home after the test because I may be nauseous." C. "This test will help to determine if the baby has Down syndrome or a neural tube defect." D. "This test will observe for fetal activity and an acceleration of the fetal heart rate to determine the well-being of the baby."

D (Rationale: An ultrasound is the test that requires a full bladder. An amniocentesis would be the test that a pregnant woman should be driven home afterward. A maternal alpha-fetoprotein test is used in conjunction with unconjugated estriol levels, and human chorionic gonadotropin helps to determine Down syndrome. The nonstress test is one of the most widely used techniques to determine fetal well-being and is accomplished by monitoring fetal heart rate in conjunction with fetal activity and movements.)

A woman who is at 36 weeks of gestation is having a nonstress test. Which statement by the woman would indicate a correct understanding of the test? A. "I will need to have a full bladder for the test to be done accurately." B. "I should have my husband drive me home after the test because I may be nauseous." C. "This test will help to determine if the baby has Down syndrome or a neural tube defect." D. None of the above

A key finding from the Human Genome Project is: A. Approximately 20,000 to 25,000 genes make up the genome. B. All human beings are 80.99% identical at the DNA level. C. Human genes produce only one protein per gene; other mammals produce three proteins per gene. D. Single-gene testing will become a standardized test for all pregnant women in the future.

A. Approximately 20,000 to 25,000 genes make up the genome. Approximately 20,500 genes make up the human genome; this is only twice as many as make up the genomes of roundworms and flies. Human beings are 99.9% identical at the DNA level. Most human genes produce at least three proteins. Single-gene testing (e.g., alpha-fetoprotein) is already standardized for prenatal care

The nurse should teach a pregnant woman that which substances are teratogens? (Select all that apply) A. Cigarette smoke B. Isotretinoin (Retin A) C. Vitamin C D. Salicylic acid E. Rubella

A. Cigarette smoke B. Isotretinoin (Retin A) E. Rubella Vitamin C and salicylic acid are not known teratogens.

A maternity nurse should be aware of which fact about the amniotic fluid? A. It serves as a source of oral fluid and as a repository for waste from the fetus. B. The volume remains about the same throughout the term of a healthy pregnancy. C. A volume of less than 300 mL is associated with gastrointestinal malformations. D. A volume of more than 2 L is associated with fetal renal abnormalities.

A. It serves as a source of oral fluid and as a repository for waste from the fetus. Amniotic fluid also cushions the fetus and helps maintain a constant body temperature. The volume of amniotic fluid changes constantly. Too little amniotic fluid (oligohydramnios) is associated with renal abnormalities. Too much amniotic fluid (hydramnios) is associated with gastrointestinal and other abnormalities.

Most of the genetic tests now offered in clinical practice are tests for: A. Single-gene disorders. B. Carrier screening. C. Predictive values. D. Predispositional testing.

A. Single-gene disorders. Most tests now offered are tests for single-gene disorders in clients with clinical symptoms or who have a family history of a genetic disease. Carrier screening is used to identify individuals who have a gene mutation for a genetic condition but do not display symptoms. Predictive testing is used only to clarify the genetic status of asymptomatic family members. Predispositional testing differs from the other types of genetic screening in that a positive result does not indicate a 100% chance of developing the condition.

34. A woman is 6 weeks pregnant. She has had a previous spontaneous abortion at 14 weeks of gestation and a pregnancy that ended at 38 weeks with the birth of a stillborn girl. What is her gravidity and parity using the GTPAL system? ___________________

ANS: 3-1-0-1-0 The correct calculation of this woman's gravidity and parity is 3-1-0-1-0. Using the GPTAL system, this client's gravidity and parity information is calculated as follows: G: Total number of times the woman has been pregnant (she is pregnant for the third time) T: Number of pregnancies carried to term (she has had only one pregnancy that resulted in a fetus at term) P: Number of pregnancies that resulted in a preterm birth (none) A: Abortions or miscarriages before the period of viability (she has had one) L: Number of children born who are currently living (she has no living children)

14. A woman who has completed one pregnancy with a fetus (or fetuses) reaching the stage of fetal viability is called a: a. Primipara. b. Primigravida. c. Multipara. d. Nulligravida.

ANS: A A primipara is a woman who has completed one pregnancy with a viable fetus. To remember terms, keep in mind: gravida is a pregnant woman; para comes from parity, meaning a viable fetus; primi means first; multi means many; and null means none. A primigravida is a woman pregnant for the first time. A multipara is a woman who has completed two or more pregnancies with a viable fetus. A nulligravida is a woman who has never been pregnant.

2. A woman at 10 weeks of gestation who is seen in the prenatal clinic with presumptive signs and symptoms of pregnancy likely will have: a. Amenorrhea. b. Positive pregnancy test. c. Chadwick's sign. d. Hegar's sign.

ANS: A Amenorrhea is a presumptive sign of pregnancy. Presumptive signs of pregnancy are felt by the woman. A positive pregnancy test, the presence of Chadwick's sign, and the presence of Hegar's sign all are probable signs of pregnancy.

5. During a client's physical examination the nurse notes that the lower uterine segment is soft on palpation. The nurse would document this finding as: a. Hegar's sign b. McDonald's sign c. Chadwick's sign d. Goodell's sign

ANS: A At approximately 6 weeks of gestation, softening and compressibility of the lower uterine segment occur; this is called Hegar's sign. McDonald's sign indicates a fast food restaurant. Chadwick's sign is the blue-violet coloring of the cervix caused by increased vascularity; this occurs around the fourth week of gestation. Softening of the cervical tip is called Goodell's sign, which may be observed around the sixth week of pregnancy.

10. A woman is in her seventh month of pregnancy. She has been complaining of nasal congestion and occasional epistaxis. The nurse suspects that: a. This is a normal respiratory change in pregnancy caused by elevated levels of estrogen. b. This is an abnormal cardiovascular change, and the nosebleeds are an ominous sign. c. The woman is a victim of domestic violence and is being hit in the face by her partner. d. The woman has been using cocaine intranasally.

ANS: A Elevated levels of estrogen cause capillaries to become engorged in the respiratory tract. This may result in edema in the nose, larynx, trachea, and bronchi. This congestion may cause nasal stuffiness and epistaxis. Cardiovascular changes in pregnancy may cause edema in lower extremities. Determining that the woman is a victim of domestic violence and was hit in the face cannot be made on the basis of the sparse facts provided. If the woman had been hit in the face, she most likely would have additional physical findings. Determination of the use of cocaine by the woman cannot be made on the basis of the sparse facts provided.

13. Appendicitis may be difficult to diagnose in pregnancy because the appendix is: a. Displaced upward and laterally, high and to the right. b. Displaced upward and laterally, high and to the left. c. Deep at McBurney point. d. Displaced downward and laterally, low and to the right.

ANS: A The appendix is displaced high and to the right, beyond McBurney point.

19. The mucous plug that forms in the endocervical canal is called the: a. Operculum. b. Leukorrhea. c. Funic souffle. d. Ballottement.

ANS: A The operculum protects against bacterial invasion. Leukorrhea is the mucus that forms the endocervical plug (the operculum). The funic souffle is the sound of blood flow

26. A first-time mother at 18 weeks of gestation comes for her regularly scheduled prenatal visit. The client tells the nurse that she is afraid that she is going into premature labor because she is beginning to have regular contractions. The nurse explains that this is the Braxton Hicks sign and teaches the client that this type of contraction: a. Is painless. b. Increases with walking. c. Causes cervical dilation. d. Impedes oxygen flow to the fetus.

ANS: A Uterine contractions can be felt through the abdominal wall soon after the fourth month of gestation. Braxton Hicks contractions are regular and painless and continue throughout the pregnancy. Although they are not painful, some women complain that they are annoying. Braxton Hicks contractions usually cease with walking or exercise. They can be mistaken for true labor; however, they do not increase in intensity or frequency or cause cervical dilation. In addition, they facilitate uterine blood flow through the intervillous spaces of the placenta and promote oxygen delivery to the fetus.

32. A woman is in for a routine prenatal checkup. You are assessing her urine for proteinuria. Which findings are considered normal (Select all that apply)? a. Dipstick assessment of trace to +1 b. <300 mg/24 hours c. Dipstick assessment of +2 d. >300 mg/24 hours

ANS: A, B Small amounts of protein in the urine are acceptable during pregnancy. The presence of protein in greater amounts may indicate renal problems. A dipstick assessment of +2 and >300 mg/24 hours are excessive amounts of protein in the urine and should be evaluated further.

31. The diagnosis of pregnancy is based on which positive signs of pregnancy (Select all that apply)? a. Identification of fetal heartbeat b. Palpation of fetal outline c. Visualization of the fetus d. Verification of fetal movement e. Positive hCG test

ANS: A, C, D Identification of fetal heartbeat, visualization of the fetus, and verification of fetal movement all are positive, objective signs of pregnancy. Palpation of fetal outline and a positive hCG test are probable signs of pregnancy. A tumor also can be palpated. Medication and tumors may lead to false-positive results on pregnancy tests.

8. The musculoskeletal system adapts to the changes that occur during pregnancy. A woman can expect to experience what change? a. Her center of gravity will shift backward. b. She will have increased lordosis. c. She will have increased abdominal muscle tone. d. She will notice decreased mobility of her pelvic joints.

ANS: B An increase in the normal lumbosacral curve (lordosis) develops, and a compensatory curvature in the cervicodorsal region develops to help the woman maintain her balance. The center of gravity shifts forward. She will have decreased muscle tone. She will notice increased mobility of her pelvic joints.

9. A 31-year-old woman believes that she may be pregnant. She took an OTC pregnancy test 1 week ago after missing her period; the test was positive. During her assessment interview, the nurse inquires about the woman's last menstrual period and asks whether she is taking any medications. The woman states that she takes medicine for epilepsy. She has been under considerable stress lately at work and has not been sleeping well. She also has a history of irregular periods. Her physical examination does not indicate that she is pregnant. She has an ultrasound scan, which reveals that she is not pregnant. What is the most likely cause of the false-positive pregnancy test result? a. She took the pregnancy test too early. b. She takes anticonvulsants. c. She has a fibroid tumor. d. She has been under considerable stress and has a hormone imbalance.

ANS: B Anticonvulsants may cause false-positive pregnancy test results. OTC pregnancy tests use enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay technology, which can yield positive results 4 days after implantation. Implantation occurs 6 to 10 days after conception. If the woman were pregnant, she would be into her third week at this point (having missed her period 1 week ago). Fibroid tumors do not produce hormones and have no bearing on hCG pregnancy tests. Although stress may interrupt normal hormone cycles (menstrual cycles), it does not affect human chorionic gonadotropin levels or produce positive pregnancy test results.

To reassure and educate pregnant clients about changes in their cardiovascular system, maternity nurses should be aware that: a. A pregnant woman experiencing disturbed cardiac rhythm, such as sinus arrhythmia requires close medical and obstetric observation, no matter how healthy she otherwise may appear. b. Changes in heart size and position and increases in blood volume create auditory changes from 20 weeks to term. c. Palpitations are twice as likely to occur in twin gestations. d. All of the above changes likely will occur.

ANS: B Auscultatory changes should be discernible after 20 weeks of gestation. A healthy woman with no underlying heart disease does not need any therapy. The maternal heart rate increases in the third trimester, but palpitations may not occur. Auditory changes are discernible at 20 weeks.

6. Cardiovascular system changes occur during pregnancy. Which finding would be considered normal for a woman in her second trimester? a. Less audible heart sounds (S1, S2) b. Increased pulse rate c. Increased blood pressure d. Decreased red blood cell (RBC) production

ANS: B Between 14 and 20 weeks of gestation, the pulse increases about 10 to 15 beats/min, which persists to term. Splitting of S1 and S2 is more audible. In the first trimester, blood pressure usually remains the same as at the prepregnancy level, but it gradually decreases up to about 20 weeks of gestation. During the second trimester, both the systolic and the diastolic pressures decrease by about 5 to 10 mm Hg. Production of RBCs accelerates during pregnancy.

24. To reassure and educate pregnant clients about the functioning of their kidneys in eliminating waste products, maternity nurses should be aware that: a. Increased urinary output makes pregnant women less susceptible to urinary infection. b. Increased bladder sensitivity and then compression of the bladder by the enlarging uterus results in the urge to urinate even if the bladder is almost empty. c. Renal (kidney) function is more efficient when the woman assumes a supine position. d. Using diuretics during pregnancy can help keep kidney function regular.

ANS: B First bladder sensitivity and then compression of the bladder by the uterus result in the urge to urinate more often. Numerous anatomic changes make a pregnant woman more susceptible to urinary tract infection. Renal function is more efficient when the woman lies in the lateral recumbent position and less efficient when she is supine. Diuretic use during pregnancy can overstress the system and cause problems.

A woman is at 14 weeks of gestation. The nurse would expect to palpate the fundus at which level? a. Not palpable above the symphysis at this time b. Slightly above the symphysis pubis c. At the level of the umbilicus d. Slightly above the umbilicus

ANS: B In normal pregnancies, the uterus grows at a predictable rate. It may be palpated above the symphysis pubis sometime between the twelfth and fourteenth weeks of pregnancy. As the uterus grows, it may be palpated above the symphysis pubis sometime between the twelfth and fourteenth weeks of pregnancy. The uterus rises gradually to the level of the umbilicus at 22 to 24 weeks of gestation.

30. A patient in her first trimester complains of nausea and vomiting. She asks, "Why does this happen?" The nurse's best response is: a. "It is due to an increase in gastric motility." b. "It may be due to changes in hormones." c. "It is related to an increase in glucose levels." d. "It is caused by a decrease in gastric secretions."

ANS: B Nausea and vomiting are believed to be caused by increased levels of hormones, decreased gastric motility, and hypoglycemia. Gastric motility decreases during pregnancy. Glucose levels decrease in the first trimester. Although gastric secretions decrease, this is not the main cause of nausea and vomiting.

3. The nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the presumptive, probable, and positive signs of pregnancy. The woman demonstrates understanding of the nurse's instructions if she states that a positive sign of pregnancy is: a. A positive pregnancy test. b. Fetal movement palpated by the nurse-midwife. c. Braxton Hicks contractions. d. Quickening.

ANS: B Positive signs of pregnancy are attributed to the presence of a fetus, such as hearing the fetal heartbeat or palpating fetal movement. A positive pregnancy test and Braxton Hicks contractions are probable signs of pregnancy. Quickening is a presumptive sign of pregnancy.

Which finding in the urine analysis of a pregnant woman is considered a variation of normal? a. Proteinuria b. Glycosuria c. Bacteria in the urine. d. Ketones in the urine.

ANS: B Small amounts of glucose may indicate "physiologic spilling." The presence of protein could indicate kidney disease or preeclampsia. Urinary tract infections are associated with bacteria in the urine. An increase in ketones indicates that the patient is exercising too strenuously or has an inadequate fluid and food intake

15. Which time-based description of a stage of development in pregnancy is accurate? a. Viability—22 to 37 weeks since the last menstrual period (LMP) (assuming a fetal weight >500 g) b. Term—pregnancy from the beginning of week 38 of gestation to the end of week 42 c. Preterm—pregnancy from 20 to 28 weeks d. Postdate—pregnancy that extends beyond 38 weeks

ANS: B Term is 38 to 42 weeks of gestation. Viability is the ability of the fetus to live outside the uterus before coming to term, or 22 to 24 weeks since LMP. Preterm is 20 to 37 weeks of gestation. Postdate or postterm is a pregnancy that extends beyond 42 weeks or what is considered the limit of full term.

1. A woman's obstetric history indicates that she is pregnant for the fourth time and all of her children from previous pregnancies are living. One was born at 39 weeks of gestation, twins were born at 34 weeks of gestation, and another child was born at 35 weeks of gestation. What is her gravidity and parity using the GTPAL system? a. 3-1-1-1-3 b. 4-1-2-0-4 c. 3-0-3-0-3 d. 4-2-1-0-3

ANS: B The correct calculation of this woman's gravidity and parity is 4-1-2-0-4. The numbers reflect the woman's gravidity and parity information. Using the GPTAL system, her information is calculated as: G: The first number reflects the total number of times the woman has been pregnant; she is pregnant for the fourth time. T: This number indicates the number of pregnancies carried to term, not the number of deliveries at term; only one of her pregnancies has resulted in a fetus at term. P: This is the number of pregnancies that resulted in a preterm birth; the woman has had two pregnancies in which she delivered preterm. A: This number signifies whether the woman has had any abortions or miscarriages before the period of viability; she has not. L: This number signifies the number of children born that currently are living; the woman has four children.

28. The maternity nurse understands that vascular volume increases 40% to 60% during pregnancy to: a. Compensate for decreased renal plasma flow. b. Provide adequate perfusion of the placenta. c. Eliminate metabolic wastes of the mother. d. Prevent maternal and fetal dehydration.

ANS: B The primary function of increased vascular volume is to transport oxygen and nutrients to the fetus via the placenta. Renal plasma flow increases during pregnancy. Assisting with pulling metabolic wastes from the fetus for maternal excretion is one purpose of the increased vascular volume.

17. To reassure and educate pregnant clients about changes in the uterus, nurses should be aware that: a. Lightening occurs near the end of the second trimester as the uterus rises into a different position. b. The woman's increased urinary frequency in the first trimester is the result of exaggerated uterine antireflexion caused by softening. c. Braxton Hicks contractions become more painful in the third trimester, particularly if the woman tries to exercise. d. The uterine souffle is the movement of the fetus.

ANS: B The softening of the lower uterine segment is called Hegar's sign. Lightening occurs in the last 2 weeks of pregnancy, when the fetus descends. Braxton Hicks contractions become more defined in the final trimester but are not painful. Walking or exercise usually causes them to stop. The uterine souffle is the sound made by blood in the uterine arteries; it can be heard with a fetal stethoscope.

29. Physiologic anemia often occurs during pregnancy as a result of: a. Inadequate intake of iron. b. Dilution of hemoglobin concentration. c. The fetus establishing iron stores. d. Decreased production of erythrocytes.

ANS: B When blood volume expansion is more pronounced and occurs earlier than the increase in red blood cells, the woman has physiologic anemia, which is the result of dilution of hemoglobin concentration rather than inadequate hemoglobin. Inadequate intake of iron may lead to true anemia. There is an increased production of erythrocytes during pregnancy.

23. Some pregnant clients may complain of changes in their voice and impaired hearing. The nurse can tell these clients that these are common reactions to: a. A decreased estrogen level. b. Displacement of the diaphragm, resulting in thoracic breathing. c. Congestion and swelling, which occur because the upper respiratory tract has become more vascular. d. Increased blood volume.

ANS: C Estrogen levels increase, causing the upper respiratory tract to become more vascular producing swelling and congestion in the nose and ears leading to voice changes and impaired hearing. The diaphragm is displaced, and the volume of blood is increased. However, the main concern is increased estrogen levels.

20. To reassure and educate pregnant clients about changes in their breasts, nurses should be aware that: a. The visibility of blood vessels that form an intertwining blue network indicates full function of Montgomery's tubercles and possibly infection of the tubercles. b. The mammary glands do not develop until 2 weeks before labor. c. Lactation is inhibited until the estrogen level declines after birth. d. Colostrum is the yellowish oily substance used to lubricate the nipples for breastfeeding

ANS: C Lactation is inhibited until after birth. The visible blue network of blood vessels is a normal outgrowth of a richer blood supply. The mammary glands are functionally complete by midpregnancy. Colostrum is a creamy, white-to-yellow premilk fluid that can be expressed from the nipples before birth.

A patient at 24 weeks of gestation contacts the nurse at her obstetric provider's office to complain that she has cravings for dirt and gravel. The nurse is aware that this condition is known as ________ and may indicate anemia. a. Ptyalism b. Pyrosis c. Pica d. Decreased peristalsis

ANS: C Pica (a desire to eat nonfood substances) is an indication of iron deficiency and should be evaluated. Ptyalism (excessive salivation), pyrosis (heartburn), and decreased peristalsis are normal findings of gastrointestinal change during pregnancy. Food cravings during pregnancy are normal.

33. During pregnancy, many changes occur as a direct result of the presence of the fetus. Which of these adaptations meet this criteria? [select all that apply] a. Leukorrhea b. Development of the operculum c. Quickening d. Ballottement e. Lightening

ANS: C, D, E Leukorrhea is a white or slightly gray vaginal discharge that develops in response to cervical stimulation by estrogen and progesterone. Quickening is the first recognition of fetal movements or "feeling life." Quickening is often described as a flutter and is felt earlier in multiparous women than in primiparas. Lightening occurs when the fetus begins to descend into the pelvis. This occurs 2 weeks before labor in the nullipara and at the start of labor in the multipara. Mucus fills the cervical canal creating a plug otherwise known as the operculum. The operculum acts as a barrier against bacterial invasion during the pregnancy. Passive movement of the unengaged fetus is referred to as ballottement.

22. To reassure and educate their pregnant clients about changes in their blood pressure, maternity nurses should be aware that: a. A blood pressure cuff that is too small produces a reading that is too low; a cuff that is too large produces a reading that is too high. b. Shifting the client's position and changing from arm to arm for different measurements produces the most accurate composite blood pressure reading at each visit. c. The systolic blood pressure increases slightly as pregnancy advances; the diastolic pressure remains constant. d. Compression of the iliac veins and inferior vena cava by the uterus contributes to hemorrhoids in the later stage of term pregnancy.

ANS: D Compression of the iliac veins and inferior vena cava also leads to varicose veins in the legs and vulva. The tightness of a cuff that is too small produces a reading that is too high; similarly the looseness of a cuff that is too large results in a reading that is too low. Because maternal positioning affects readings, blood pressure measurements should be obtained in the same arm and with the woman in the same position. The systolic blood pressure generally remains constant but may decline slightly as pregnancy advances. The diastolic blood pressure first decreases and then gradually increases.

16. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is an important biochemical marker for pregnancy and the basis for many tests. A maternity nurse should be aware that: a. hCG can be detected 2.5 weeks after conception. b. The hCG level increases gradually and uniformly throughout pregnancy. c. Much lower than normal increases in the level of hCG may indicate a postdate pregnancy. d. A higher than normal level of hCG may indicate an ectopic pregnancy or Down syndrome.

ANS: D Higher levels also could be a sign of multiple gestation. hCG can be detected 7 to 8 days after conception. The hCG level fluctuates during pregnancy: peaking, declining, stabilizing, and increasing again. Abnormally slow increases may indicate impending miscarriage.

18. To reassure and educate pregnant clients about changes in the cervix, vagina, and position of the fetus, nurses should be aware that: a. Because of a number of changes in the cervix, abnormal Papanicolaou (Pap) tests are much easier to evaluate. b. Quickening is a technique of palpating the fetus to engage it in passive movement. c. The deepening color of the vaginal mucosa and cervix (Chadwick's sign) usually appears in the second trimester or later as the vagina prepares to stretch during labor. d. Increased vascularity of the vagina increases sensitivity and may lead to a high degree of arousal, especially in the second trimester.

ANS: D Increased sensitivity and an increased interest in sex sometimes go together. This frequently occurs during the second trimester. Cervical changes make evaluation of abnormal Pap tests more difficult. Quickening is the first recognition of fetal movements by the mother. Ballottement is a technique used to palpate the fetus. Chadwick's sign appears from the sixth to eighth weeks.

Which statement about a condition of pregnancy is accurate? a. Insufficient salivation (ptyalism) is caused by increases in estrogen. b. Acid indigestion (pyrosis) begins early but declines throughout pregnancy. c. Hyperthyroidism often develops (temporarily) because hormone production increases. d. Nausea and vomiting rarely have harmful effects on the fetus and may be beneficial.

ANS: D Normal nausea and vomiting rarely produce harmful effects, and nausea and vomiting periods may be less likely to result in miscarriage or preterm labor. Ptyalism is excessive salivation, which may be caused by a decrease in unconscious swallowing or stimulation of the salivary glands. Pyrosis begins in the first trimester and intensifies through the third trimester. Increased hormone production does not lead to hyperthyroidism in pregnant women.

11. The nurse caring for the pregnant client must understand that the hormone essential for maintaining pregnancy is: a. Estrogen. b. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). c. Oxytocin. d. Progesterone.

ANS: D Progesterone is essential for maintaining pregnancy; it does so by relaxing smooth muscles. This reduces uterine activity and prevents miscarriage. Estrogen plays a vital role in pregnancy, but it is not the primary hormone for maintaining pregnancy. hCG levels increase at implantation but decline after 60 to 70 days. Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions.

7. Numerous changes in the integumentary system occur during pregnancy. Which change persists after birth? a. Epulis b. Chloasma c. Telangiectasia d. Striae gravidarum

ANS: D Striae gravidarum, or stretch marks, reflect separation within the underlying connective tissue of the skin. They usually fade after birth, although they never disappear completely. An epulis is a red, raised nodule on the gums that bleeds easily. Chloasma, or mask of pregnancy, is a blotchy, brown hyperpigmentation of the skin over the cheeks, nose, and forehead, especially in dark-complexioned pregnant women. Chloasma usually fades after the birth. Telangiectasia, or vascular spiders, are tiny, star-shaped or branchlike, slightly raised, pulsating end-arterioles usually found on the neck, thorax, face, and arms. They occur as a result of elevated levels of circulating estrogen. These usually disappear after birth.

B (Exposure to nicotine from maternal smoking has been reported to increase the fetal S/D ratio. An elevated S/D ratio indicates a poorly perfused placenta. To improve the blood supply to the placenta, the patient should quit smoking as soon as possible. The AFV cannot be assessed through Doppler umbilical blood flow study. Moreover, smoking does not affect amniotic fluid volume. Smoking increases the S/D ratio; it does not decrease it.)

After reviewing the Doppler umbilical flow reports of a pregnant patient, the nurse advises the patient to quit smoking immediately. Which finding in the report could be the reason for this instruction? A. High amniotic fluid volume (AFV) B. High systolic-to-diastolic (S/D) ratio C. Low amniotic fluid volume (AFV) D. Low systolic-to-diastolic (S/D) ratio

D (If the BPP score is 8 to 10, then the test should be repeated weekly or twice weekly. If the BPP score is 0 to 2, then chronic asphyxia may be suspected. In this case the testing time should be extended to 120 minutes. If the BPP score is 4 after 36 weeks' gestation, then clinical conditions exist that may lead to an eminent delivery. If the BPP score is 4 before 32 weeks' gestation, the test should be repeated. If the BPP score is 6 at 36 to 37 weeks' gestation with positive fetal pulmonary testing, then delivery can be performed. If the BPP score is 6 before 36 weeks' gestation with negative pulmonary testing, then BPP can be repeated in 4 to 6 hours, and if oligohydramnios is present, then delivery can be done. The BPP provides an insight into fetal maturity and well-being and as such should be used as a diagnostic tool to plan and evaluate management of care. Findings are related to several factors involving both maternal and fetal characteristics.)

After reviewing the biophysical profile (BPP) reports of a pregnant patient close to term, the nurse advises the patient to repeat the test on a weekly basis. What BPP score did the nurse find in the report? A. 1 B. 4 C. 6 D. 9

A (An AFI less than 5 cm indicates oligohydramnios. Oligohydramnios is associated with intrauterine growth restriction and congenital anomalies. An AFI of 10 cm or greater indicates that the fetus is normal. AFI values between 5 and 10 cm are considered low normal, indicating a comparatively low risk for congenital anomalies. An AFI greater than 25 cm indicates polyhydramnios. This is associated with neural tube defects and obstruction of the fetal gastrointestinal tract.)

After reviewing the reports of a pregnant patient, the nurse infers that there might be a high risk for intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). What could be the reason for this? The amniotic fluid index (AFI) is: A. Less than 5 cm. B. Equal to or more than 10 cm. C. Between 5 and 10 cm. D. More than 25 cm

C (Specialized or targeted ultrasound scans are performed only if a patient is suspected of carrying an anatomically or physiologically abnormal fetus. Limited ultrasound examination is used to estimate the amniotic fluid volume. Standard ultrasound scan is used to see the detailed anatomy of the fetus. Ultrasound scan is not used to find genetic abnormalities in the fetus.)

After reviewing the standard ultrasound scan reports of a pregnant patient, the nurse advises the patient to undergo a specialized ultrasound scan. What is the nurse's rationale for this suggestion? A. To estimate the amniotic fluid volume B. To identify the detailed fetal anatomy C. To assess for physiologic abnormalities D. To assess for fetal genetic abnormalities

B, D, E (The triple marker screen measures the levels of three maternal serum markers: unconjugated estriol, hCG, and MSAFP. Low values of unconjugated estriol, hCG, and MSAFP indicate that the fetus has trisomy 18. The quad screen has an additional serum marker: inhibin-A. A low inhibin-A level indicates the possibility of Down syndrome. NT is not a serum marker protein. Moreover, elevated NT indicates that the fetus has a chromosomal abnormality but does not specifically indicate that the fetus has trisomy 18.)

After reviewing the triple marker screen reports of a patient who is in the second trimester of pregnancy, the nurse concludes that the fetus has trisomy 18. What factors in the report led to the nurse's conclusion? Select all that apply. A. Low level of inhibin-A in the maternal serum B. Low level of unconjugated estriol in serum C. Elevated nuchal translucency (NT) in the fetus D. Low level of maternal human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) E. Low level of maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)

A (Protein is the nutritional element basic to growth. An adequate protein intake is essential to meeting the increasing demands of pregnancy. These demands arise from the rapid growth of the fetus; the enlargement of the uterus, mammary glands, and placenta; the increase in the maternal blood volume; and the formation of the amniotic fluid. Iron intake prevents anemia. Calcium intake is needed for fetal bone and tooth development. Glycemic control is needed in those with diabetes; protein is one nutritional factor to consider for glycemic control but not the primary role of protein intake.)

After the nurse completes nutritional counseling for a pregnant woman, she asks the client to repeat the instructions to assess the client's understanding. Which statement indicates that the client understands the role of protein in her pregnancy? A. "Protein will help my baby grow." B. "Eating protein will prevent me from becoming anemic." C. "Eating protein will make my baby have strong teeth after he is born." D. "Eating protein will prevent me from being diabetic."

D (Some spotting can normally occur as a result of the increased fragility and vascularity of the cervix and vagina during pregnancy. Intercourse can continue as long as the pregnancy is progressing normally. Safer-sex practices are always recommended; rupture of the membranes may require abstaining from intercourse. Uterine contractions that accompany orgasm can stimulate labor and would be problematic if the woman were at risk for or had a history of preterm labor.)

An expectant couple asks the nurse about intercourse during pregnancy and if it is safe for the baby. The nurse should tell the couple that: A. Intercourse should be avoided if any spotting from the vagina occurs afterward. B. Intercourse is safe until the third trimester. C. Safer-sex practices should be used once the membranes rupture. D. Intercourse and orgasm are often contraindicated if a history or signs of preterm labor are present.

C (Although this statement is appropriate, it does not answer the father's question. Mood swings are a normal finding in the first trimester; the woman does not need counseling. This is the most appropriate response since it gives an explanation and a time frame for when the mood swings may stop. This statement is judgmental and not appropriate.)

An expectant father confides in the nurse that his pregnant wife, 10 weeks of gestation, is driving him crazy. "One minute she seems happy, and the next minute she is crying over nothing at all. Is there something wrong with her?" The nurse's BEST response would be: A. "This is normal behavior and should begin to subside by the second trimester." B. "She may be having difficulty adjusting to pregnancy; I will refer her to a counselor that I know." C. "This is called emotional liability and is related to hormone changes and anxiety during pregnancy. The mood swings will eventually subside as she adjusts to being pregnant." D. "You seem impatient with her. Perhaps this is precipitating her behavior."

A (A father typically goes through three phases of development to reach acceptance of fatherhood: the announcement phase, the moratorium phase, and the focusing phase. The father-child attachment can be as strong as the mother-child relationship and can also begin during pregnancy. In the last 2 months of pregnancy, many expectant fathers work hard to improve the environment of the home for the child. Typically the expectant father's ambivalence ends by the first trimester, and he progresses to adjusting to the reality of the situation and then to focusing on his role.)

As relates to the father's acceptance of the pregnancy and preparation for childbirth, the maternity nurse should know that: A. The father goes through three phases of acceptance of his own. B. The father's attachment to the fetus cannot be as strong as that of the mother because it does not start until after birth. C. In the last 2 months of pregnancy, most expectant fathers suddenly get very protective of their established lifestyle and resist making changes to the home. D. Typically men remain ambivalent about fatherhood right up to the birth of their child.

B (A registered dietitian can help with therapeutic diets. Oral contraceptive use may interfere with the absorption of folic acid. Iron deficiency can appear if placement of an intrauterine device (IUD) results in blood loss. A woman's finances can affect her access to good nutrition; her education (or lack thereof) can influence the nurse's teaching decisions. The nutrition-related laboratory test that pregnant women usually need is a screen for anemia.)

Assessment of a woman's nutritional status includes a diet history, medication regimen, physical examination, and relevant laboratory tests. Which finding might require consultation to a higher level of care? A. Oral contraceptive use may interfere with the absorption of iron. B. Illnesses that have created nutritional deficits, such as PKU, may require nutritional care before conception. C. The woman's socioeconomic status and educational level are not relevant to her examination; they are the province of the social worker. D. Testing for diabetes is the only nutrition-related laboratory test most pregnant women need.

C (Amniocentesis would be performed to assess fetal lung maturity in the event of a preterm birth. Indications for PUBS include prenatal diagnosis or inherited blood disorders, karyotyping of malformed fetuses, detection of fetal infection, determination of the acid-base status of a fetus with intrauterine growth restriction, and assessment and treatment of isoimmunization and thrombocytopenia in the fetus. Typically, fetal size is determined by ultrasound during the second trimester and is not indicated in this scenario. NST measures the fetal response to fetal movement in a noncontracting mother.)

At 35 weeks of pregnancy a woman experiences preterm labor. Tocolytics are administered and she is placed on bed rest, but she continues to experience regular uterine contractions, and her cervix is beginning to dilate and efface. What would be an important test for fetal well-being at this time? A. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) B. Ultrasound for fetal size C. Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity D. Nonstress test (NST)

A woman is 8 months pregnant. She tells the nurse that she knows her baby listens to her, but her husband thinks she is imagining things. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? A. "Many women imagine what their baby is like." B. "A baby in utero does respond to the mother's voice." C. "You'll need to ask the doctor if the baby can hear yet." D. "Thinking that your baby hears will help you bond with the baby."

B. "A baby in utero does respond to the mother's voice." Although this statement is accurate, it is not the most appropriate response. Fetuses respond to sound by 24 weeks. The fetus can be soothed by the sound of the mother's voice. This statement is not appropriate. The mother should be instructed that her fetus can hear at 24 weeks and can respond to the sound of her voice. The statement is not appropriate. It gives the impression that her baby cannot hear her. It also belittles the mother's interpretation of her fetus's behaviors.

With regard to abnormalities of chromosomes, nurses should be aware that: A. They occur in approximately 10% of newborns. B. Abnormalities of number are the leading cause of pregnancy loss. C. Down syndrome is a result of an abnormal chromosomal structure. D. Unbalanced translocation results in a mild abnormality that the child will outgrow.

B. Abnormalities of number are the leading cause of pregnancy loss. Chromosomal abnormalities occur in less than 1% of newborns. Aneuploidy is an abnormality of number that also is the leading genetic cause of mental retardation. Down syndrome is the most common form of trisomal abnormality, an abnormality of chromosome number (47 chromosomes). Unbalanced translocation is an abnormality of chromosome structure that often has serious clinical effects.

What best describes the pattern of genetic transmission known as autosomal recessive inheritance? A. Disorders in which the abnormal gene for the trait is expressed even when the other member of the pair is normal B. Disorders in which both genes of a pair must be abnormal for the disorder to be expressed C. Disorders in which a single gene controls the particular trait D. Disorders in which the abnormal gene is carried on the X chromosome

B. Disorders in which both genes of a pair must be abnormal for the disorder to be expressed Autosomal dominant inheritance occurs when the abnormal gene for the trait is expressed, even when the other member of the pair is normal, such as Huntington disease or Marfan syndrome. An autosomal recessive inheritance disorder occurs when both genes of the pair are abnormal, such as phenylketonuria or sickle cell anemia. Disorders in which a single gene controls the particular trait describe the unifactorial inheritance. X-linked recessive inheritance occurs when the abnormal gene is carried on the X chromosome, such as hemophilia or Duchenne muscular dystrophy.

A (Biochemical findings such as an L/S ratio of 2:1, an S/A ratio of 60 mg/g, and the presence of PG in amniotic fluid indicate that the fetal lungs are well developed. The gestational age can be predicted only with the help of creatinine and lipid levels in the amniotic fluid. Creatinine levels greater than 2 mg/dL in amniotic fluid indicate that the gestational age is more than 36 weeks. The presence of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid indicates a neural tube defect in the fetus. The nurse needs to assess AFP levels in the amniotic fluid to determine whether the fetus has an open neural tube defect. A high AFP level in amniotic fluid after 15 weeks' gestation indicates that the fetus has an open neural tube defect.)

Biochemical examination of the amniotic fluid of a pregnant patient yields the following results: lecithin-to-sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio, 2:1; surfactant-to-albumin (S/A) ratio, 60 mg/g; and phosphatidylglycerol (PG) present. What conclusions will the nurse draw from this report? A. The fetal lungs are well developed. B. The gestational age is 36 weeks. C. The fetus has a neural tube defect. D. The fetus has an open neural tube defect.

E (NOT: Each pregnancy problem can be attributed to a number of related risk factors. Polyhydramnios may also be the result of poorly controlled diabetes mellitus. Other maternal causes of IUGR include hypertensive disorders, diabetes, chronic renal disease, vascular disease, thrombophilia, poor weight gain, and cyanotic heart disease. Fetoplacental causes of IUGR may be related to chromosomal abnormalities, congenital malformations, intrauterine infection, or genetic syndromes. Other contributors to oligohydramnios are renal agenesis, prolonged pregnancy, uteroplacental insufficiency, and paternal hypertensive disorders. Although advanced maternal age is a well-known cause of chromosomal abnormalities, other causes include parental chromosome rearrangements and pregnancy with autosomal trisomy.)

Biophysical risks include factors that originate with either the mother or the fetus and affect the functioning of either one or both. The nurse who provides prenatal care should have an understanding of these risk factors. Match the specific pregnancy problem with the related risk factor. Abnormal placenta development A. Polyhydramnios B. Intrauterine growth restriction (maternal cause) C. Oligohydramnios D. Chromosomal abnormalities E. Intrauterine growth restriction (fetoplacental cause)

D (NOT: Each pregnancy problem can be attributed to a number of related risk factors. Polyhydramnios may also be the result of poorly controlled diabetes mellitus. Other maternal causes of IUGR include hypertensive disorders, diabetes, chronic renal disease, vascular disease, thrombophilia, poor weight gain, and cyanotic heart disease. Fetoplacental causes of IUGR may be related to chromosomal abnormalities, congenital malformations, intrauterine infection, or genetic syndromes. Other contributors to oligohydramnios are renal agenesis, prolonged pregnancy, uteroplacental insufficiency, and paternal hypertensive disorders. Although advanced maternal age is a well-known cause of chromosomal abnormalities, other causes include parental chromosome rearrangements and pregnancy with autosomal trisomy.)

Biophysical risks include factors that originate with either the mother or the fetus and affect the functioning of either one or both. The nurse who provides prenatal care should have an understanding of these risk factors. Match the specific pregnancy problem with the related risk factor. Advanced maternal age A. Polyhydramnios B. Intrauterine growth restriction (maternal cause) C. Oligohydramnios D. Chromosomal abnormalities E. Intrauterine growth restriction (fetoplacental cause)

A (NOT: Each pregnancy problem can be attributed to a number of related risk factors. Polyhydramnios may also be the result of poorly controlled diabetes mellitus. Other maternal causes of IUGR include hypertensive disorders, diabetes, chronic renal disease, vascular disease, thrombophilia, poor weight gain, and cyanotic heart disease. Fetoplacental causes of IUGR may be related to chromosomal abnormalities, congenital malformations, intrauterine infection, or genetic syndromes. Other contributors to oligohydramnios are renal agenesis, prolonged pregnancy, uteroplacental insufficiency, and paternal hypertensive disorders. Although advanced maternal age is a well-known cause of chromosomal abnormalities, other causes include parental chromosome rearrangements and pregnancy with autosomal trisomy.)

Biophysical risks include factors that originate with either the mother or the fetus and affect the functioning of either one or both. The nurse who provides prenatal care should have an understanding of these risk factors. Match the specific pregnancy problem with the related risk factor. Fetal congenital anomalies A. Polyhydramnios B. Intrauterine growth restriction (maternal cause) C. Oligohydramnios D. Chromosomal abnormalities E. Intrauterine growth restriction (fetoplacental cause)

C (NOT: Each pregnancy problem can be attributed to a number of related risk factors. Polyhydramnios may also be the result of poorly controlled diabetes mellitus. Other maternal causes of IUGR include hypertensive disorders, diabetes, chronic renal disease, vascular disease, thrombophilia, poor weight gain, and cyanotic heart disease. Fetoplacental causes of IUGR may be related to chromosomal abnormalities, congenital malformations, intrauterine infection, or genetic syndromes. Other contributors to oligohydramnios are renal agenesis, prolonged pregnancy, uteroplacental insufficiency, and paternal hypertensive disorders. Although advanced maternal age is a well-known cause of chromosomal abnormalities, other causes include parental chromosome rearrangements and pregnancy with autosomal trisomy.)

Biophysical risks include factors that originate with either the mother or the fetus and affect the functioning of either one or both. The nurse who provides prenatal care should have an understanding of these risk factors. Match the specific pregnancy problem with the related risk factor. Premature rupture of membranes A. Polyhydramnios B. Intrauterine growth restriction (maternal cause) C. Oligohydramnios D. Chromosomal abnormalities E. Intrauterine growth restriction (fetoplacental cause)

B (NOT: Each pregnancy problem can be attributed to a number of related risk factors. Polyhydramnios may also be the result of poorly controlled diabetes mellitus. Other maternal causes of IUGR include hypertensive disorders, diabetes, chronic renal disease, vascular disease, thrombophilia, poor weight gain, and cyanotic heart disease. Fetoplacental causes of IUGR may be related to chromosomal abnormalities, congenital malformations, intrauterine infection, or genetic syndromes. Other contributors to oligohydramnios are renal agenesis, prolonged pregnancy, uteroplacental insufficiency, and paternal hypertensive disorders. Although advanced maternal age is a well-known cause of chromosomal abnormalities, other causes include parental chromosome rearrangements and pregnancy with autosomal trisomy.)

Biophysical risks include factors that originate with either the mother or the fetus and affect the functioning of either one or both. The nurse who provides prenatal care should have an understanding of these risk factors. Match the specific pregnancy problem with the related risk factor. Smoking, alcohol, and illicit drug use A. Polyhydramnios B. Intrauterine growth restriction (maternal cause) C. Oligohydramnios D. Chromosomal abnormalities E. Intrauterine growth restriction (fetoplacental cause)

A couple has been counseled for genetic anomalies. They ask you, "What is karyotyping?" Your best response is: A. "Karyotyping will reveal if the baby's lungs are mature." B. "Karyotyping will reveal if your baby will develop normally." C. "Karyotyping will provide information about the gender of the baby, and the number and structure of the chromosomes." D. "Karyotyping will detect any physical deformities the baby has."

C. "Karyotyping will provide information about the gender of the baby, and the number and structure of the chromosomes." The lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio, not karyotyping, reveals lung maturity. Although karyotyping can detect genetic anomalies, the range of normal is nondescriptive. Karyotyping provides genetic information, such as gender and chromosomal structure. Although karyotyping can detect genetic anomalies, not all such anomalies display obvious physical deformities. The term deformities is a nondescriptive word. Furthermore, physical anomalies may be present that are not detected by genetic studies (e.g., cardiac malformations).

A woman's cousin gave birth to an infant with a congenital heart anomaly. The woman asks the nurse when such anomalies occur during development. Which response by the nurse is most accurate? A. "We don't really know when such defects occur." B. "It depends on what caused the defect." C. "They occur between the third and fifth weeks of development." D. "They usually occur in the first 2 weeks of development."

C. "They occur between the third and fifth weeks of development." This is an inaccurate statement. Regardless of the cause, the heart is vulnerable during its period of development, the third to fifth weeks. The cardiovascular system is the first organ system to function in the developing human. Blood vessel and blood formation begins in the third week, and the heart is developmentally complete in the fifth week. This is an inaccurate statement.

The student nurse is giving a presentation about milestones in embryonic development. Which information should he or she include? A. At 8 weeks of gestation, primary lung and urethral buds appear. B. At 12 weeks of gestation, the vagina is open or the testes are in position for descent into the scrotum. C. At 20 weeks of age, the vernix caseosa and lanugo appear. D. At 24 weeks of age, the skin is smooth, and subcutaneous fat is beginning to collect.

C. At 20 weeks of age, the vernix caseosa and lanugo appear. The primary lung and urethral buds appear at 6 weeks of gestation. The vagina is open or the testes are in position for descent into the scrotum at 16 weeks. Two milestones that occur at 20 weeks are the appearance of the vernix caseosa and lanugo. The appearance of smooth skin occurs at 28 weeks, and subcutaneous fat begins to collect at 30 to 31 weeks.

A nurse is providing genetic counseling for an expectant couple who already have a child with trisomy 18. The nurse should: A. Tell the couple they need to have an abortion within 2 to 3 weeks. B. Explain that the fetus has a 50% chance of having the disorder. C. Discuss options with the couple, including amniocentesis to determine whether the fetus is affected. D. Refer the couple to a psychologist for emotional support.

C. Discuss options with the couple, including amniocentesis to determine whether the fetus is affected. The couple should be given information about the likelihood of having another baby with this disorder so that they can make an informed decision. A genetic counselor is the best source for determining genetic probability ratios. Genetic testing, including amniocentesis, would need to be performed to determine whether the fetus is affected. The couple eventually may need emotional support, but the status of the pregnancy must be determined first.

A woman at 35 weeks of gestation has had an amniocentesis. The results reveal that surface-active phospholipids are present in the amniotic fluid. The nurse is aware that this finding indicates: A The fetus is at risk for Down syndrome. B. The woman is at high risk for developing preterm labor. C. Lung maturity. D. Meconium is present in the amniotic fluid.

C. Lung maturity. The presence of surface-active phospholipids is not an indication of Down syndrome. This result reveals the fetal lungs are mature and in no way indicates risk for preterm labor. The detection of the presence of pulmonary surfactants, surface-active phospholipids, in amniotic fluid has been used to determine fetal lung maturity, or the ability of the lungs to function after birth. This occurs at approximately 35 weeks of gestation. Meconium should not be present in the amniotic fluid.

A (CST has several contraindications. NST has a high rate of false-positive results, is less sensitive than the CST, and is relatively inexpensive.)

Compared with contraction stress test (CST), nonstress test (NST) for antepartum fetal assessment: A. Has no known contraindications. B. Has fewer false-positive results. C. Is more sensitive in detecting fetal compromise. D. Is slightly more expensive.

With regard to the estimation and interpretation of the recurrence of risks for genetic disorders, nurses should be aware that: A. With a dominant disorder, the likelihood of the second child also having the condition is 100%. B. An autosomal recessive disease carries a one in eight risk of the second child also having the disorder. C. Disorders involving maternal ingestion of drugs carry a one in four chance of being repeated in the second child. D. The risk factor remains the same no matter how many affected children are already in the family.

D. The risk factor remains the same no matter how many affected children are already in the family. In a dominant disorder, the likelihood of recurrence in subsequent children is 50% (one in two). An autosomal recessive disease carries a one in four chance of recurrence. Subsequent children would be at risk only if the mother continued to use drugs; the rate of risk would be difficult to calculate. Each pregnancy is an independent event. The risk factor (e.g., one in two, one in four) remains the same for each child, no matter how many children are born to the family.

D (Fetal kick count is a simple method to determine the presence of complications related to fetal oxygenation and activity level. The fetal kick count during the third trimester of pregnancy is approximately 30 kicks an hour; a count lower than that is an indication of poor health of the fetus. Fetal anomalies may not affect the oxygenation levels of the fetus. The nurse already knows the gestational age of the fetus; therefore the nurse need not refer the woman for ultrasonography to find the gestational age. Fetal position does not affect the activity level of the fetus.)

During a prenatal checkup, the patient who is 7 months pregnant reports that she is able to feel about two kicks in an hour. The nurse refers the patient for an ultrasound. What is the primary reason for this referral? To check: A. For fetal anomalies B. Gestational age C. Fetal position D. For fetal well-being

A (Hypertension is caused by decreased levels of potassium and increased intake of sodium. To prevent the risk for hypertension, the nurse instructs the patient to consume 8 to 10 cups of vegetables and fruits, low fat meats, and dairy products. These foods are rich sources of potassium and also reduce the sodium content in the body. This helps prevent hypertension. Milk is a rich source of calcium and does not prevent hypercalcemia. These food choices do not enhance uric acid excretion and therefore do not prevent hypouricemia. Hypothyroidism is caused by the imbalance of thyroid hormones.)

During the assessment of a pregnant patient, the nurse instructs the patient to eat eight to ten servings of vegetables and fruits, three servings of milk products, and incorporate low-fat meats daily. What is the most probable reason for giving such instruction? To prevent: A. Hypertension B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypouricemia D. Hypothyroidism

C (Fetal development concerns are more apparent in the second trimester when the woman is feeling fetal movement. Impact of a new baby on the family would be appropriate topics for the second trimester when the fetus becomes "real" as its movements are felt and its heartbeat heard. During this trimester a woman works on the task of, "I am going to have a baby." During the first trimester a woman is egocentric and concerned about how she feels. She is working on the task of accepting her pregnancy. Motivation to learn about childbirth techniques and breastfeeding is greatest for most women during the third trimester as the reality of impending birth and becoming a parent is accepted. A goal is to achieve a safe passage for herself and her baby.)

During the first trimester the pregnant woman would be most motivated to learn about: A. Fetal development. B. Impact of a new baby on family members. C. Measures to reduce nausea and fatigue so she can feel better. D. Location of childbirth preparation and breastfeeding classes

B (Maternal physiologic changes such as breast enlargement, nausea, fatigue, abdominal changes, perineal enlargement, leukorrhea, pelvic vasocongestion, and orgasmic responses may affect sexuality and sexual expression. Libido may be depressed in the first trimester but often increases during the second and third trimesters. During pregnancy, the breasts may become enlarged and tender; this tends to interfere with coitus, decreasing the desire to engage in sexual activity.)

During the first trimester, a woman can expect which of the following changes in her sexual desire? A. An increase, because of enlarging breasts B. A decrease, because of nausea and fatigue C. No change D. An increase, because of increased levels of female hormones

B, C, D, E (According to the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (2013), the "four simple steps" are: • Clean: Frequently cleanse hands, food preparation surfaces, and utensils. • Separate: Avoid contact among raw meat, fish, or poultry and other foods that will not be cooked before consumption • Cook: Cook foods to the proper temperature. • Chill: Properly store foods, and promptly refrigerate. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply REF: p. 361 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance)

Foodborne illnesses can cause adverse effects for both mother and fetus. The nurse is in an ideal position to evaluate the client's knowledge regarding steps to prevent a foodborne illness. The nurse asks the client to "teach back" the fours simple steps of food preparation. What are they? (Select all that apply.) A. Purchase B. Clean C. Separate D. Cook E. Chill

D (Women who are HIV positive are discouraged from breastfeeding. Although hepatitis B antigen has not been shown to be transmitted through breast milk, as an added precaution infants born to HBsAg-positive women should receive the hepatitis B vaccine and immune globulin immediately after birth. Everted nipples are functional for breastfeeding. Newly diagnosed breast cancer would be a contraindication to breastfeeding.)

For what reason would breastfeeding be contraindicated? A. Hepatitis B B. Everted nipples C. History of breast cancer 3 years ago D. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive

C (The recommended intake of protein for the pregnant woman is 70 g. Therefore, additional protein intakes of 5, 10, or 15 g would be inadequate to meet protein needs during pregnancy. A protein intake of 30 g is more than would be necessary and would add extra calories.)

If a client's normal prepregnancy diet contains 45 g of protein daily, how many more grams of protein should she consume per day during pregnancy? A. 5 B. 10 C. 25 D. 30

B (This is an expected view for an expectant father. Persistent refusal to talk about the fetus-newborn may be a sign of a problem and should be assessed further. This is an expected feeling for an expectant father. This is an expected finding with expectant fathers.)

If exhibited by an expectant father, what would be a warning sign of ineffective adaptation to his partner's first pregnancy? A. Views pregnancy with pride as a confirmation of his virility B. Consistently changes the subject when the topic of the fetus/newborn is raised C. Expresses concern that he might faint at the birth of his baby D. Experiences nausea and fatigue, along with his partner, during the first trimester

D (The transvaginal examination allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater detail and allows intrauterine pregnancies to be diagnosed earlier. The abdominal examination requires a full bladder; the transvaginal examination requires an empty bladder. The transvaginal examination is more useful in the first trimester; the abdominal examination works better after the first trimester. Neither method should be painful, although with the transvaginal examination the woman feels pressure as the probe is moved.)

In comparing the abdominal and transvaginal methods of ultrasound examination, nurses should explain to their clients that: A. Both require the woman to have a full bladder. B. The abdominal examination is more useful in the first trimester. C. Initially the transvaginal examination can be painful. D. The transvaginal examination allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater detail.

D (The purpose of all cultural practices is to protect the mother and fetus during pregnancy. Although many cultures consider pregnancy normal, certain practices are expected of women of all cultures to ensure a good outcome. Cultural prescriptions tell women what to do, and cultural proscriptions establish taboos. The purposes of these practices are to prevent maternal illness resulting from a pregnancy-induced imbalanced state and to protect the vulnerable fetus.)

In her work with pregnant women of various cultures, a nurse practitioner has observed various practices that seemed strange or unusual. She has learned that cultural rituals and practices during pregnancy seem to have one purpose in common. Which statement best describes that purpose? A. To promote family unity B. To ward off the "evil eye" C. To appease the gods of fertility D. To protect the mother and fetus during pregnancy

C (Gestational age cohorts comprise the groups, with approximately 8 to 12 women in each group. This group remains intact throughout the pregnancy. Individual follow-up visits are scheduled as needed. Group sessions begin at 12 to 16 weeks of gestation and end with an early postpartum visit. Before group sessions the client has an individual assessment, physical examination, and history. At the beginning of each group meeting, clients measure their own blood pressure, weight, and urine dips and enter these in their record. Fetal heart rate assessment and fundal height are obtained by the nurse. Results evaluating this approach have been very promising. In a study of adolescent clients, there was a decrease in low-birth-weight infants and an increase in breastfeeding rates.)

In response to requests by the U.S. Public Health Service for new models of prenatal care, an innovative new approach to prenatal care known as centering pregnancy was developed. Which statement would accurately apply to the centering model of care? A. Group sessions begin with the first prenatal visit. B. At each visit, blood pressure, weight, and urine dipsticks are obtained by the nurse. C. Eight to 12 women are placed in gestational-age cohort groups. D. Outcomes are similar to those of traditional prenatal care.

B (During the first trimester, ultrasound examination is performed to obtain information regarding the number, size, and location of gestatials sacs; the presence or absence of fetal cardiac and body movements; the presences or absence of uterine abnormalities (e.g., bicornuate uterus or fibroids) or adnexal masses (e.g., ovarian cysts or an ectopic pregnancy); and pregnancy dating.)

In the first trimester, ultrasonography can be used to gain information on: A. Amniotic fluid volume. B. Location of Gestational sacs C. Placental location and maturity. D. Cervical length.

C (This category is correctly referred to as sociodemographic risk. These factors stem from the mother and her family. Ethnicity may be one of the risks to pregnancy; however, it is not the only factor in this category. Low income, lack of prenatal care, age, parity, and marital status also are included. Biophysical is one of the broad categories used for determining risk. These include genetic considerations, nutritional status, and medical and obstetric disorders. Psychosocial risks include smoking, caffeine, drugs, alcohol, and psychologic status. All of these adverse lifestyles can have a negative effect on the health of the mother or fetus. Environmental risks are risks that can affect both fertility and fetal development. These include infections, chemicals, radiation, pesticides, illicit drugs, and industrial pollutants.)

In the past, factors to determine whether a woman was likely to develop a high risk pregnancy were evaluated primarily from a medical point of view. A broader, more comprehensive approach to high-risk pregnancy has been adopted today. There are now four categories based on threats to the health of the woman and the outcome of pregnancy. Which of the following is not one of these categories? A. Biophysical B. Psychosocial C. Geographic D. Environmental

B (Mood swings are natural and are likely to affect every woman to some degree. A woman may dislike being pregnant, refuse to accept it, and still love and accept the child. Ambivalent feelings about pregnancy are normal for mature or immature women, younger or older women. Conflicts such as not wanting to be pregnant or childrearing and career-related decisions need to be resolved. The baby ends the pregnancy but not all the issues.)

In understanding and guiding a woman through her acceptance of pregnancy, a maternity nurse should be aware that: A. Nonacceptance of the pregnancy very often equates to rejection of the child. B. Mood swings most likely are the result of worries about finances and a changed lifestyle as well as profound hormonal changes. C. Ambivalent feelings during pregnancy usually are seen only in emotionally immature or very young mothers. D. Conflicts such as not wanting to be pregnant or childrearing and career-related decisions need not be addressed during pregnancy because they will resolve themselves naturally after birth.

A, B, C, E (Poor nutrition, maternal collagen disease, gestational hypertension, and smoking all are risk factors associated with IUGR. Premature rupture of membranes is associated with preterm labor, not IUGR.)

Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) is associated with numerous pregnancy-related risk factors (Select all that apply). A. Poor nutrition B. Maternal collagen disease C. Gestational hypertension D. Premature rupture of membranes E. Smoking

B (As a precaution, the pregnant client should avoid eating shark, swordfish, and mackerel, as well as the less common tilefish. High levels of mercury can harm the developing nervous system of the fetus. Assisting the client in understanding the differences between numerous sources of mercury is essential for the nurse. A pregnant client may eat as much as 12 ounces a week of canned light tuna; however, canned white, albacore, or tuna steaks contain higher levels of mercury and should be limited to no more than 6 ounces per week. Pregnant women and mothers of young children should check with local advisories about the safety of fish caught by families and friends in nearby bodies of water. If no information is available, then these fish sources should be avoided, limited to less than 6 ounces per week, or the only fish consumed that week. Commercially caught fish that is low in mercury includes salmon, shrimp, pollock, or catfish. The pregnant client may eat up to 12 ounces of commercially caught fish per week. Additional information on levels of mercury in commercially caught fish is available at www.cfsan.fda.gov.)

Many clients are concerned about the increased levels of mercury in fish and may be reluctant to include this source of nutrients in their diet. What is the best advice for the nurse to provide? A. Canned white tuna is a preferred choice. B. Shark, swordfish, and mackerel should be avoided. C. Fish caught in local waterways is the safest. D. Salmon and shrimp contain high levels of mercury.

B (Nutritional status draws so much attention not only for its effect on a healthy pregnancy and birth but also because significant changes are within relatively easy reach. Pregnancy is a time when many women are motivated to learn about adequate nutrition and make changes to their diet that will benefit their baby. Pregnancy is not the time to begin a weight loss diet. Clients and their caregivers should still be concerned with appropriate weight gain.)

Maternal nutritional status is an especially significant factor of the many that influence the outcome of pregnancy. Why is this the case? A. Maternal nutritional status is extremely difficult to adjust because of an individual's ingrained eating habits. B. Adequate nutrition is an important preventive measure for a variety of problems. C. Women love obsessing about their weight and diets. D. A woman's preconception weight becomes irrelevant.

B (If MSAFP findings are abnormal, follow-up procedures include genetic counseling for families with a history of neural tube defect, repeated MSAFP screening, ultrasound examination, and possibly amniocentesis. Indications for use of PUBS include prenatal diagnosis of inherited blood disorders, karyotyping of malformed fetuses, detection of fetal infection, determination of the acid-base status of fetuses with intrauterine growth restriction, and assessment and treatment of isoimmunization and thrombocytopenia in the fetus. BPP is a method of assessing fetal well-being in the third trimester. Before amniocentesis is considered, the client first would have an ultrasound for direct visualization of the fetus.)

Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening indicates an elevated level. MSAFP screening is repeated and again is reported as higher than normal. What would be the next step in the assessment sequence to determine the well-being of the fetus? A. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) B. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies C. Biophysical profile (BPP) for fetal well-being D. Amniocentesis for genetic anomalies

A, B, C, D (The nurse should be especially aware that conditions such as diabetes can require in-depth dietary planning and evaluation. To prevent issues with hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia, as well as an increased risk for perinatal morbidity and mortality, the client with a preexisting or gestational illness would benefit from a referral to a dietitian. Consultation with a dietitian may ensure that cultural food beliefs are congruent with modern knowledge of fetal development and that adjustments can be made to ensure that all nutritional needs are met. The obese pregnant client may be under the misapprehension that, because of her excess weight, little or no weight gain is necessary. According to the Institute of Medicine, a client with a BMI in the obese range should gain at least 7 kg to ensure a healthy outcome. This client may require in-depth counseling on the optimal food choices. The vegetarian client needs to have her dietary intake carefully assessed to ensure that the optimal combination of amino acids and protein intake is achieved. Very strict vegetarians (vegans) who consume only plant products may also require vitamin B and mineral supplementation. A multifetal pregnancy can be managed by increasing the number of servings of complex carbohydrates and proteins.)

Most women with uncomplicated pregnancies can use the nurse as their primary source for nutritional information. However, the nurse or midwife may need to refer a client to a registered dietitian for in-depth nutritional counseling. Which conditions would require such a consultation? (Select all that apply.) A. Preexisting or gestational illness such as diabetes B. Ethnic or cultural food patterns C. Obesity D. Vegetarian diets E. Multifetal pregnancy

D (MSAFP is a screening tool, not a diagnostic tool. CVS provides a rapid result, but it is declining in popularity because of advances in noninvasive screening techniques. MSAFP screening is recommended for all pregnant women. MSAFP screening, not PUBS, is part of the triple-marker tests for Down syndrome.)

Nurses should be aware of the strengths and limitations of various biochemical assessments during pregnancy, including that: A. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is becoming more popular because it provides early diagnosis. B. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is recommended only for women at risk for neural tube defects. C. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) is one of the triple-marker tests for Down syndrome. D. MSAFP is a screening tool only; it identifies candidates for more definitive procedures.

D (MSAFP is a screening tool, not a diagnostic tool. Further diagnostic testing is indicated after an abnormal MSAFP. CVS does provide a rapid result, but it is declining in popularity because of advances in noninvasive screening techniques. MSAFP screening is recommended for all pregnant women. MSAFP, not PUBS, is part of the quad-screen tests for Down syndrome.)

Nurses should be aware of the strengths and limitations of various biochemical assessments during pregnancy, including that: A. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is becoming more popular because it provides early diagnosis. B. Screening for maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) levels is recommended only for women at risk for neural tube defects. C. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) is one of the quad-screen tests for Down syndrome. D. MSAFP is a screening tool only; it identifies candidates for more definitive procedures.

D (Rationale: CVS does provide a rapid result, but it is declining in popularity because of advances in noninvasive screening techniques. MSAFP screening is recommended for all pregnant women. MSAFP, not PUBS, is part of the quad-screen tests for Down syndrome. This is correct. MSAFP is a screening tool, not a diagnostic tool. Further diagnostic testing is indicated after an abnormal MSAFP.)

Nurses should be aware of the strengths and limitations of various biochemical assessments during pregnancy, including that: A. chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is becoming more popular because it provides early diagnosis. B. screening for maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) levels is recommended only for women at risk for neural tube defects. C. percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) is one of the quad-screen tests for Down syndrome. D. MSAFP is a screening tool only; it identifies candidates for more definitive procedures.

A (An abnormal BPP score is an indication that labor should be induced. The BPP evaluates the health of the fetus, requires many different measures, and is a noninvasive procedure.)

Nurses should be aware that the biophysical profile (BPP): A. Is an accurate indicator of impending fetal well-being. B. Is a compilation of health risk factors of the mother during the later stages of pregnancy. C. Consists of a Doppler blood flow analysis and an amniotic fluid index. D. Involves an invasive form of ultrasound examination.

D (The physiologic changes of pregnancy may complicate the interpretation of physical findings. Lower extremity edema often occurs when caloric and protein deficiencies are present; however, edema in the lower extremities may also be a common physical finding during the third trimester. Completing a thorough health history and physical assessment and requesting further laboratory testing, if indicated, are essential for the nurse. The malnourished pregnant client may display rapid heart rate, abnormal rhythm, enlarged heart, and elevated blood pressure. A client receiving adequate nutrition will have bright, shiny eyes with no sores and moist, pink membranes. Pale or red membranes, dryness, infection, dull appearance of the cornea, or blue sclerae are signs of poor nutrition. A client who is alert and responsive with good endurance is well nourished. A listless, cachectic, easily fatigued, and tired presentation would be an indication of a poor nutritional status.)

Nutrition is an alterable and important preventive measure for a variety of potential problems such as low birth weight and prematurity. While completing the physical assessment of the pregnant client, the nurse is able to evaluate the client's nutritional status by observing a number of physical signs. Which physical sign indicates to the nurse that the client has unmet nutritional needs? A. Normal heart rate, rhythm, and blood pressure B. Bright, clear, and shiny eyes C. Alert and responsive with good endurance D. Edema, tender calves, and tingling

C (Adolescents tend to have lower BMIs. In addition, the fetus and the still-growing mother appear to compete for nutrients. These factors, along with inadequate weight gain, lend themselves to a higher incidence of low-birth-weight babies. Obesity is associated with a higher-than-normal BMI. Unless the teenager has type 1 diabetes, an adolescent with a low BMI is less likely to develop gestational diabetes. High-birth-weight or large-for-gestational age (LGA) babies are most often associated with gestational diabetes.)

Pregnant adolescents are at greater risk for decreased BMI and "fad" dieting with which condition? A. Obesity B. Gestational diabetes C. Low-birth-weight babies D. High-birth-weight babies

A (Testing for the antibody to HIV is strongly recommended for all pregnant women. A HIV test is recommended for all women, regardless of risk factors. Women who test positive for HIV can be treated, reducing the risk of transmission to the fetus.)

Prenatal testing for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is recommended for: A. All women, regardless of risk factors. B. A woman who has had more than one sexual partner. C. A woman who has had a sexually transmitted infection. D. A woman who is monogamous with her partner.

A (Rationale: Because of the possibility of fetomaternal hemorrhage, administering RhoD immunoglobulin to the woman who is Rh negative is standard practice after an amniocentesis. Anticoagulants are not administered before amniocentesis as this would increase the risk of bleeding when the needle is inserted transabdominally. A CT is not required before amniocentesis, because the procedure is ultrasound guided. The mother is not exposed to radiation during amniocentesis.)

Prior to the patient undergoing amniocentesis, the most appropriate nursing intervention is to: A. administer RhoD immunoglobulin. B. administer anticoagulant. C. send the patient for a computed tomography (CT) scan before the procedure. D. assure the mother that short-term radiation exposure is not harmful to the fetus.

B (Polyhydramnios (amniotic fluid >2000 mL) is 10 times more likely to occur in diabetic compared with nondiabetic pregnancies. Polyhydramnios puts the mother at risk for premature rupture of membranes, premature labor, and postpartum hemorrhage. Prolonged rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth restriction, intrauterine fetal death, and renal agenesis (Potter syndrome) all put the client at risk for developing oligohydramnios. Anencephaly, placental insufficiency, and perinatal hypoxia all contribute to the risk for postterm pregnancy. Maternal age older than 35 and balanced translocation (maternal and paternal) are risk factors for chromosome abnormalities.)

Risk factors tend to be interrelated and cumulative in their effect. While planning the care for a laboring client with diabetes mellitus, the nurse is aware that she is at a greater risk for: A. Oligohydramnios. B. Polyhydramnios. C. Postterm pregnancy. D. Chromosomal abnormalities.

A, B, C (Vaginal bleeding, rupture of membranes, and severe headaches all are signs of potential complications in pregnancy. Clients should be advised to report these signs to the health care provider. Decreased libido and urinary frequency are common discomforts of pregnancy that do not require immediate health care interventions.)

Signs and symptoms that a woman should report immediately to her health care provider include (Select all that apply): A. Vaginal bleeding. B. Rupture of membranes. C. Heartburn accompanied by severe headache. D. Decreased libido. E. Urinary frequency.

C (The normal value of AFI is 10 cm or greater, with the upper limit of normal around 25 cm. An AFI less than 5 cm indicates oligohydramnios. This condition is associated with renal agenesis in the fetus. A high AFI indicates neural tube defects and fetal hydrops. The AFI is not directly related to fetal movement. Fetal activity can be assessed using ultrasonography.)

The amniotic fluid index (AFI) of a pregnant patient is 3 cm. What clinical information related to the fetus does the nurse infer from this? A. Neural tube defect B. Fetal hydrops C. Renal defects D. Low activity level

D (If the BPP score is less than 2, regardless of gestational age, delivery can be performed. If the BPP score is 0 to 2 and chronic asphyxia is suspected, then testing time should be extended to 120 minutes. If the BPP score is 8 to 10 and a low risk for chronic asphyxia is suspected, then the test should be repeated at twice-weekly intervals. If the fetal pulmonary test result is negative and the BPP score is 6, then the BPP profile should be repeated in 4 to 6 hours.)

The biophysical profile (BPP) testing report of a pregnant patient gives the following information: one episode of fetal breathing movement lasting for 30 seconds in a 30-minute observation; three limb movements of the fetus in 30 minutes; an amniotic fluid index greater than 5; a reactive nonstress test; and a BPP score of 1. The test is performed for 120 minutes. What does the nurse expect the primary health care provider to do? A. Extend the test time to 120 minutes. B. Repeat the test twice a week. C. Repeat the test in 4 to 6 hours. D. Consider delivery of the fetus.

C (Obstetricians today are seeing an increasing number of morbidly obese pregnant women weighing 400, 500, and 600 pounds. To manage their conditions and to meet their logistical needs, a new medical subspecialty,bariatric obstetrics, has arisen. Extra-wide blood pressure cuffs, scales that can accommodate up to 880 pounds, and extra-wide surgical tables designed to hold the weight of these women are used. Special techniques for ultrasound examination and longer surgical instruments for cesarean birth are also required. A temporal thermometer can be used for a pregnant client of any size.)

The labor and delivery nurse is preparing a client who is severely obese (bariatric) for an elective cesarean birth. Which piece of specialized equipment will not likely be needed when providing care for this pregnant woman? A. Extra-long surgical instruments B. Wide surgical table C. Temporal thermometer D. Increased diameter blood pressure cuff

D (Complex carbohydrates supply the pregnant woman with vitamins, minerals, and fiber. The most common simple carbohydrate is table sugar, which is a source of energy but does not provide any nutrients. Fats provide 9 kcal in each gram, in contrast to carbohydrates and proteins, which provide only 4 kcal in each gram. Fiber is primarily supplied by complex carbohydrates.)

The major source of nutrients in the diet of a pregnant woman should be composed of what? A. Simple sugars B. Fats C. Fiber D. Complex carbohydrates

A (The maternal serum level of alpha-fetoprotein is used to screen for Down syndrome, neural tube defects, and other chromosome anomalies. The multiple marker test would not detect diaphragmatic hernia, congenital cardiac abnormality, or anencephaly. Additional testing, such as ultrasonography and amniocentesis, would be required to diagnose these conditions.)

The multiple marker test is used to assess the fetus for which condition? A. Down syndrome B. Congenital cardiac abnormality C. Diaphragmatic hernia D. Anencephaly

D (Most nurse-midwife births are managed in hospitals or birth centers; a few may be managed in the home. Nurse-midwives may practice with physicians or independently with an arrangement for physician backup. They must refer clients to physicians for complications. Care in a midwifery model is noninterventional, and the woman and family usually are encouraged to be active participants in the care. This does not imply that medications for pain control are prohibited. Midwives usually see low-risk obstetric clients. Care is often noninterventional with active involvement from the woman and her family. Nurse-midwives must refer clients to physicians for complications.)

The nurse advises the woman who wants to have a nurse-midwife provide obstetric care that: A. She will have to give birth at home. B. She must see an obstetrician as well as the midwife during pregnancy. C. She will not be able to have epidural analgesia for labor pain. D. She must be having a low-risk pregnancy.

B (Prenatal care ideally should begin soon after the first missed menstrual period. Regular prenatal visits offer opportunities to ensure the health of the expectant mother and her infant.)

The nurse caring for a newly pregnant woman would advise her that ideally prenatal care should begin: A. Before the first missed menstrual period. B. After the first missed menstrual period. C. After the second missed menstrual period. D. After the third missed menstrual period.

C (The nonstress test is the most widely used technique for prenatal evaluation of the fetus. The results are either nonreactive or reactive. In a nonreactive test, there are less than two qualifying accelerations of the fetal heart rate in a 20-minute period. Absence of fetal heart rate accelerations during the nonstress test indicates that the fetus is sleeping. In a reactive test, there are at least two qualifying accelerations in a 20-minute time period. More than two fetal heart rate accelerations within a 20-minute time period also would be considered a reactive test.)

The nurse finds that the nonstress test of a pregnant patient is nonreactive. Which factor in the report might have led the nurse to this finding? A. No qualifying accelerations in a 20-minute period B. Two qualifying accelerations in a 20-minute period C. Less than two qualifying accelerations in a 20-minute period D. More than two qualifying accelerations in a 20-minute period

A (A weight gain of 30 pounds is one indication that the client has gained a sufficient amount for the nutritional needs of pregnancy. A daily supplement is not the best goal for this client and does not meet the basic need of proper nutrition during pregnancy. Decreasing snack foods may be needed and should be assessed; however, assessing weight gain is the best method of monitoring nutritional intake for this pregnant client. Although increasing the intake of complex carbohydrates is important for this client, monitoring the weight gain should be the end goal.)

The nurse has formulated a diagnosis of Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements for the client. Which goal is most appropriate for this client to obtain? A. Gain a total of 30 pounds. B. Consistently take daily supplements. C. Decrease her intake of snack foods. D. Increase her intake of complex carbohydrates.

A, C (Grapes and apricots are some of the fruits that are common in the diets followed in the Middle East. Therefore the nurse should teach the patient to include grapes and apricots in the diet to improve the nutritional status. Peaches, star fruit, and pomegranates are not popular fruits in Middle East. Peaches are the most common fruits for Native American groups. Star fruit is a fruit commonly eaten by people in Chinese communities. Pomegranates are popular in Italian communities.)

The nurse instructs a Middle Eastern patient who is pregnant regarding the importance of including a good amount of fruits in the diet to improve folate levels in the body. Which fruits should the nurse recommend to the patient? Select all that apply. A. Grapes B. Peaches C. Apricots D. Star fruit E. Pomegranates

A (Brie, Camembert, and the soft Mexican cheeses are made with unpasteurized milk. Listeriosis is a disease caused by the infection of the bacteria Listeria, which is present in unpasteurized milk. This disease increases the risk for miscarriage, premature birth, and stillbirth in pregnant patients. Thus the nurse instructs the patient to stay away from those products that cause listeriosis. Brie, Camembert, and the soft Mexican cheeses are not associated with physiologic anemia, diverticulosis, and PKU. Pregnant patients with physiologic anemia are instructed to eat iron-rich foods. Pregnant patients are advised to eat fiber-rich food to prevent diverticulosis flare-ups. Pregnant patients with PKU should not use the artificial sweetener aspartame.)

The nurse instructs a pregnant patient to stay away from Brie, Camembert, and the soft Mexican cheeses. What would be the possible clinical reason for giving such advice to the patient? A. Possibility of listeriosis developing B. Physiologic anemia C. Sigmoid diverticulosis D. Phenylketonuria (PKU)

C (A diet containing nuts, legumes, cocoa, and whole grains is suggested for a pregnant patient to improve the levels of magnesium. Magnesium is essential for energy metabolism, tissue growth, and muscle action. Thus the most appropriate reason for adding these in the diet is to eliminate the risk for magnesium deficiency. Nuts, legumes, cocoa, and whole grains are not rich sources of zinc, vitamin A, or vitamin D. Food sources high in zinc are liver, shellfish, meat, whole grains, and milk. Food sources containing vitamin A are dark green leafy vegetables, liver, fruits, fortified margarine, and butter. Foods rich in vitamin D are fortified milk, cereals, oily fish, butter, and liver.)

The nurse instructs the patient to eat nuts, legumes, cocoa, and whole grains during the second trimester of pregnancy. What is the rationale for this instruction? The patient has: A. A diet that is low in zinc. B. A low intake of vitamin A. C. A low intake of magnesium. D. Decreased vitamin D intake.

A (Pica refers to the practice of consuming nonfood substances, such as clay and dirt. Consumption of soil and pulverized pottery causes high levels of lead in the mother and the child because of lead contamination of the soil. Anemia is usually caused by a lack of red blood cells (RBCs). An anemic patient may possibly be at risk for pica and may develop cravings for metallic items but will not show excessive amounts of lead in the body. Malnutrition in the mother leads to several severe risks like premature labor, miscarriage, or lack of nutrition in the child. Preeclampsia is the condition for high blood pressure and excess of protein in the urine of a pregnant woman. Preeclampsia may be caused by an imbalanced diet, but it does not show unusually high levels of lead in the body.)

The nurse is assessing a patient who recently delivered a child. The laboratory reports of both the mother and the child show high amounts of lead in the blood. What clinical condition observed in the mother during pregnancy could be the reason for the abnormal levels of lead? A. Pica B. Anemia C. Malnutrition D. Preeclampsia

C (Maternal hypertension can cause serious adverse effects on the fetus. A blood pressure reading of 150/90 mm Hg indicates that the mother is hypertensive. To assess the effect of maternal hypertension on the fetus, the nurse should refer the patient for a Doppler blood flow analysis. It is a noninvasive ultrasonic technique used to study fetal blood flow. NT is a technique used to assess genetic abnormalities in the fetus. CVS is a prenatal test used to diagnose structural defects in the fetus. PUBS is used to assess the fetal circulation.)

The nurse is assessing a pregnant patient and finds that her blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg. What procedure does the nurse recommend for this patient? A. Nuchal translucency (NT) test B. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) C. Doppler blood flow analysis D. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)

A, B, C, E (Dried beans, seeds, peanut butter, and eggs provide protein. A bagel is an example of a whole grain food, not protein.)

The nurse is developing a dietary teaching plan for a patient on a vegetarian diet. The nurse should provide the patient with which examples of protein-containing foods? Select all that apply. A. Dried beans B. Seeds C. Peanut butter D. Bagel E. Eggs

B (Leg cramps during pregnancy result from an imbalance in the calcium levels in the body. Thus the nurse would include a food rich in calcium in the diet. Because the patient is a vegetarian, this can be accomplished by incorporating turnip greens in the diet. Turnip greens are turnip leaves that are rich in calcium. Even though sardines have high calcium content, the patient is a vegetarian and this is considered a meat source. Milk is the richest source of calcium. Hispanic people do not consume milk directly but use it as an additive in coffee. Having too much coffee also affects the pregnant patient's health adversely, so it should not be included. Melon fruit is rich in vitamin A but is not a good source of calcium; therefore the nurse should not suggest it to increase calcium in the patient's diet.)

The nurse is preparing a diet chart for a Hispanic pregnant patient who is a vegetarian. The patient complains of leg cramps. What does the nurse ensure to include in the patient's diet? A. Melon fruit B. Turnip greens C. Whole or 2% milk D. Canned sardines

D (A diet rich in vitamin B12 and folic acid is essential for proper neural development of the fetus during pregnancy. Asparagus, fortified cereals, and green leafy vegetables are rich sources of folic acid, and eggs are rich in vitamin B12. Therefore a diet containing these foods is most advisable for the patient to ensure proper neural development of the fetus. Nuts, beans and legumes, cocoa, meats, and whole grains are rich sources of magnesium. Iodized salt, milk and milk products, yeast breads, and rolls contain iodine. Citrus fruits, broccoli, melons, strawberries, and tomatoes are rich sources of vitamin C. Magnesium, iodine, and vitamin C do not affect the neural development of the fetus.)

The nurse is providing dietary education to a patient who is 4 months pregnant. Which diet should the nurse suggest to the patient for proper neural development of the fetus? A. Nuts, beans and legumes, cocoa, meats, and whole grains B. Iodized salt, milk and milk products, yeast breads, and rolls C. Citrus fruits, broccoli, melons, strawberries, and tomatoes D. Asparagus, eggs, fortified cereals, and green leafy vegetables

A (Rationale: The indirect Coombs test is a screening tool for Rh incompatibility. If the maternal titer for Rh antibodies is greater than 1:8, amniocentesis for determination of bilirubin in amniotic fluid is indicated to establish the severity of fetal hemolytic anemia. Hemoglobin reveals the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood. hCG is the hormone of pregnancy. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) levels are used as a screening tool for NTDs in pregnancy)

The nurse is reviewing lab values to determine Rh incompatibility between mother and fetus. The nurse should assess which specific lab result? A. Indirect Coombs test B. Hemoglobin level C. hCG level D. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)

A (The indirect Coombs test is a screening tool for Rh incompatibility. If the maternal titer for Rh antibodies is greater than 1:8, amniocentesis for determination of bilirubin in amniotic fluid is indicated to establish the severity of fetal hemolytic anemia. Hemoglobin reveals the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood. hCG is the hormone of pregnancy. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) levels are used as a screening tool for NTDs in pregnancy.)

The nurse is reviewing lab values to determine Rh incompatibility between mother and fetus. Which specific lab result should the nurse assess? A. Indirect Coombs test B. Hemoglobin level C. hCG level D. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)

B (Meconium is normally stored in the infant's intestines until after birth, but sometimes (in cases of fetal distress and hypoxia) it is expelled into the amniotic fluid before birth. The amniotic fluid is then said to be meconium stained. Fewer than three contractions in 10 minutes or late decelerations occurring with 50% or more of contractions constitute positive CST results. Positive CST results are associated with meconium-stained amniotic fluid. Negative CST results indicate that the fetus is normal. Suspicious or unsatisfactory CST results are not associated with any other fetal conditions.)

The nurse is reviewing the contraction stress test (CST) reports of a pregnant patient. The nurse expects the fetus to have meconium-stained amniotic fluid. What would be the reason for that conclusion? A. Negative CST results B. Positive CST results C. Suspicious CST results D. Unsatisfactory CST results

C (Anemia is caused by decreased hemoglobin levels in the blood, which, in turn, is caused by decreased iron intake. Iron supplements are usually given to treat iron deficiency anemia. Tea, coffee, and milk decrease iron absorption, which reduces the efficiency of iron supplements. Therefore the nurse teaches the anemic patient to stop drinking tea, coffee, and milk with the iron supplement. Tea, coffee, and milk do not affect the plasma levels of caffeine, the hematopoiesis process, or cause RBC destruction.)

The nurse is teaching a patient with anemia when and how to take the prescribed iron supplements. The nurse provides a list of beverages for the patient to stay away from while taking the iron supplement. What is the rationale for this? A. They can affect the process of hematopoiesis. B. They increase red blood cell (RBC) destruction. C. They can decrease iron supplement absorption. D. They can increase the plasma levels of caffeine.

C (Some patients decrease their food intake during pregnancy for fear of weight gain. This may affect fetal development. Therefore the nurse should teach the patient to maintain adequate nutrition. When the patient delivers the baby and begins to breastfeed, this will aid postpartum weight loss. However, most of the weight is lost after the child's birth due to reduction of fat. There is no evidence that reduced consumption of carbohydrates may cause fetal obesity. Fetal obesity can happen as a result of maternal obesity. Lack of proper nutrition causes ketonuria, which may lead to preterm delivery, not a delay in the delivery. Ketonuria happens because the body breaks down fats for energy because of the lack of carbohydrates. Carbohydrates and proteins are essential for fetal development. Therefore the nurse should suggest the patient eat a balanced diet, rather than increasing the intake of protein.)

The nurse notices that a pregnant patient is worried about gaining weight and has stayed away from eating foods high in carbohydrates. What should the nurse do to ensure adequate nutrition? A. Inform the patient that lack of proper nutrition may delay the newborn's delivery date. B. Suggest the patient increase her protein intake to compensate for the carbohydrate levels. C. Inform the patient that breastfeeding aids in losing the weight gained during pregnancy. D. Inform the patient that a decreased intake of carbohydrates during pregnancy causes fetal obesity.

B (Caffeine intake leads to reduced absorption of iron into the milk. In turn this reduces the concentration of iron in the milk, which may cause anemia in the newborn. Iron supplements are usually prescribed to prevent anemia in the mother. Iron does not cause anemia in the newborn. Folate supplements help prevent spina bifida (SB) in the newborn. Folate does not cause anemia in the newborn. Excess fluids help maintain the blood volume in the mother and enhance the formation of milk. Excess fluids do not cause anemia in the newborn.)

The nurse notices that the hemoglobin levels of an infant who is breastfed have reduced drastically since birth. What is the probable reason for the infant to have anemia? A. The infant's mother is still taking folic acid and B vitamins. B. The infant's mother is consuming large amounts of caffeine. C. The infant's mother continues to take oral iron supplements. D. The infant's mother drinks large amounts of water and juices.

D (A BMI of 34.2 kg/m2 indicates that the patient is obese. Obese patients are more likely to develop preeclampsia as compared with their counterparts who have normal weight. Hypervitaminosis, severe hypotension, and lower extremity edema are not associated with preeclampsia. Deficiency of vitamin B6 is associated with preeclampsia. Hypertension during pregnancy, which is also referred to as gestational hypertension, is associated with preeclampsia. Small amounts of lower-extremity edema are normal in pregnant patients.)

The nurse observes a patient had preeclampsia during the second trimester of her pregnancy. Which is the most likely reason for preeclampsia in this patient? A. Hypervitaminosis B. Severe hypotension C. Lower extremity edema D. Body mass index (BMI) of 34.2 kg/m2

B (Vitamin D plays a key role in the absorption and metabolism of calcium. A severe deficiency of vitamin D leads to tetany, neonatal hypocalcemia, and hypoplasia of tooth enamel. Thus the patient is most likely to have the risk for tetany. Goiter, ketonuria, and macrosomia are not related to vitamin D deficiency. Goiters occur because of an iodine deficiency. Ketonuria is the presence of ketones in urine and happens in patients with diabetes mellitus. Macrosomia is a risk that can happen with obese women during pregnancy.)

The nurse observes that a patient has a decreased vitamin D level during a prenatal visit. Which associated risk should the nurse suspect to observe in the patient? A. Goiter B. Tetany C. Ketonuria D. Macrosomia

C (No late decelerations is good news. Vibroacoustic stimulation is sometimes used with NST. CST is invasive if stimulation is by intravenous oxytocin but not if by nipple stimulation and is contraindicated if the membranes have ruptured.)

The nurse providing care for the antepartum woman should understand that contraction stress test (CST): A. Sometimes uses vibroacoustic stimulation. B. Is an invasive test; however, contractions are stimulated. C. Is considered negative if no late decelerations are observed with the contractions. D. Is more effective than nonstress test (NST) if the membranes have already been ruptured.

D (The NST is reactive (normal) when two or more FHR accelerations of at least 15 beats/min (each with a duration of at least 15 seconds) occur in a 20-minute period. A nonreactive result means that the heart rate did not accelerate during fetal movement. A positive result is not used with NST. Contraction stress test (CST) uses positive as a result term. A negative result is not used with NST. CST uses negative as a result term.)

The nurse recognizes that a nonstress test (NST) in which two or more fetal heart rate (FHR) accelerations of 15 beats/min or more occur with fetal movement in a 20-minute period is: A. Nonreactive B. Positive C. Negative D. Reactive

B (The nurse suggests the patient prevent conception because the patient was using isotretinoin (Accutane) for the treatment of acne. It is because isotretinoin (Accutane) is teratogenic and associated with fetal malformations. Sucralose (Splenda), saccharin (Sweet'N Low), and aspartame (NutraSweet) are artificial sweeteners, which have no profound effect on pregnancy. However, aspartame (NutraSweet) contains phenylalanine, which is to be avoided in pregnant patients with phenylketonuria (PKU).)

The nurse reviews the medical history of a patient and instructs the patient to prevent conception. Which finding led the nurse to make such a decision? The patient is using: A. Sucralose (Splenda). B. Isotretinoin (Accutane). C. Saccharin (Sweet'N Low). D. Aspartame (NutraSweet).

A (Doppler blood flow analysis allows the examiner to study the blood flow noninvasively in the fetus and the placenta. It is a helpful tool in the management of high risk pregnancies because of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), diabetes mellitus, multiple fetuses, or preterm labor. Because of the potential risk of inducing labor and causing fetal distress, CST is not performed on a woman whose fetus is preterm. Indications for amniocentesis include diagnosis of genetic disorders or congenital anomalies, assessment of pulmonary maturity, and diagnosis of fetal hemolytic disease, not IUGR. Fetal kick count monitoring is performed to monitor the fetus in pregnancies complicated by conditions that may affect fetal oxygenation. Although this may be a useful tool at some point later in this woman's pregnancy, it is not used to diagnose IUGR.)

The nurse sees a woman for the first time when she is 30 weeks pregnant. The woman has smoked throughout the pregnancy, and fundal height measurements now are suggestive of growth restriction in the fetus. In addition to ultrasound to measure fetal size, what other tool would be useful in confirming the diagnosis? A. Doppler blood flow analysis B. Contraction stress test (CST) C. Amniocentesis D. Daily fetal movement counts

A (Doppler blood flow analysis allows the examiner to study the blood flow noninvasively in the fetus and placenta. It is a helpful tool in the management of high risk pregnancies because of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), diabetes mellitus, multiple fetuses, or preterm labor. Because of the potential risk of inducing labor and causing fetal distress, a CST is not performed on a woman whose fetus is preterm. Indications for an amniocentesis include diagnosis of genetic disorders or congenital anomalies, assessment of pulmonary maturity, and the diagnosis of fetal hemolytic disease, not IUGR. Fetal kick count monitoring is performed to monitor the fetus in pregnancies complicated by conditions that may affect fetal oxygenation. Although this may be a useful tool at some point later in this woman's pregnancy, it is not used to diagnose IUGR.)

The nurse sees a woman for the first time when she is 30 weeks pregnant. The woman has smoked throughout the pregnancy, and fundal height measurements now are suggestive of growth restriction in the fetus. In addition to ultrasound to measure fetal size, what tool is useful in confirming the diagnosis? A. Doppler blood flow analysis B. Contraction stress test (CST) C. Amniocentesis D. Daily fetal movement counts

A (Rationale: Doppler blood flow analysis allows the examiner to study the blood flow noninvasively in the fetus and the placenta. It is a helpful tool in the management of high-risk pregnancies because of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), diabetes mellitus, multiple fetuses, or preterm labor. Because of the potential risk of inducing labor and causing fetal distress, a CST is not performed on a woman whose fetus is preterm. Indications for an amniocentesis include diagnosis of genetic disorders or congenital anomalies, assessment of pulmonary maturity, and the diagnosis of fetal hemolytic disease, not IUGR. Fetal kick count monitoring is performed to monitor the fetus in pregnancies complicated by conditions that may affect fetal oxygenation. Although this may be a useful tool at some point later in this woman's pregnancy, it is not used to diagnose IUGR.)

The nurse sees a woman for the first time when she is 30 weeks pregnant. The woman has smoked throughout the pregnancy, and fundal height measurements now are suggestive of growth restriction in the fetus. In addition to ultrasound to measure fetal size, what would be another tool useful in confirming the diagnosis? A. Doppler blood flow analysis B. Contraction stress test (CST) C. Amniocentesis D. Daily fetal movement counts

C (The partner's main role in pregnancy is to nurture the pregnant woman and respond to her feelings of vulnerability. In older societies, the man enacted the ritual couvade. Changing cultural and professional attitudes have encouraged fathers' participation in the birth experience over the past 30 years.)

The nurse should be aware that the partner's main role in pregnancy is to: A. Provide financial support. B. Protect the pregnant woman from "old wives' tales." C. Support and nurture the pregnant woman. D. Make sure the pregnant woman keeps prenatal appointments.

B (The pinch test is used to determine whether the nipple is everted or inverted. Nipples must be everted to allow breastfeeding.)

The nurse should have knowledge of the purpose of the pinch test. It is used to: A. Check the sensitivity of the nipples. B. Determine whether the nipple is everted or inverted. C. Calculate the adipose buildup in the abdomen. D. See whether the fetus has become inactive.

D (An expectant father's experiencing pregnancy-like symptoms is called the couvade syndrome.)

The phenomenon of someone other than the mother-to-be experiencing pregnancy-like symptoms such as nausea and weight gain applies to the: A. Mother of the pregnant woman. B. Sister of the pregnant woman. C. Couple's teenage daughter. D. Expectant father.

B (The presence of bilirubin in the amniotic fluid indicates the possibility of hemolytic anemia in the fetus. The degree of hemolytic anemia can be determined by using Doppler blood flow analysis. The presence of the placental hormone inhibin-A in the quad screen indicates Down syndrome. The amniotic fluid index values are used to detect Potter syndrome. Fetal hydrops is caused by polyhydramnios, which can be assessed by ultrasound scanning.)

The primary health care provider advises a pregnant woman to undergo a Doppler blood flow analysis after reviewing the amniocentesis reports. What clinical condition in the fetus could be the reason for this referral? A. Down syndrome B. Hemolytic anemia C. Potter syndrome D. Fetal hydrops

B (Iron supplements taken at bedtime may reduce GI upset and should be taken at bedtime if abdominal discomfort occurs when iron supplements are taken between meals. Iron supplements are best absorbed if they are taken when the stomach is empty. Bran, tea, coffee, milk, and eggs may reduce absorption.)

To prevent gastrointestinal (GI) upset, when should a pregnant client be instructed to take the recommended iron supplements? A. On a full stomach B. At bedtime C. After eating a meal D. With milk

C (The second trimester is best for dental treatment because that is when the woman will be able to sit most comfortably in the dental chair. Dental care such as brushing with fluoride toothpaste is especially important during pregnancy because nausea during pregnancy may lead to poor oral hygiene. Emergency dental surgery is permissible, but the mother must clearly understand the risks and benefits. Conscious relaxation is useful, and it may even help the woman get through any dental appointments; it is not a reason to avoid them.)

To provide the patient with accurate information about dental care during pregnancy, maternity nurses should be aware that: A. Dental care can be dropped from the priority list because the woman has enough to worry about and is getting a lot of calcium anyway. B. Dental surgery, in particular, is contraindicated because of the psychologic stress it engenders. C. If dental treatment is necessary, the woman will be most comfortable with it in the second trimester. D. Dental care interferes with the expectant mother's need to practice conscious relaxation.

A, B, C, E (Transvaginal ultrasound is useful in obese women whose thick abdominal layers cannot be penetrated with traditional abdominal ultrasound. This procedure is also used for identifying multifetal gestation, ectopic pregnancy, estimating gestational age, confirming fetal viability, and identifying fetal abnormalities. Amniotic fluid volume is assessed during the second and third trimester. Conventional ultrasound would be used.)

Transvaginal ultrasonography is often performed during the first trimester. While preparing your 6-week gestation patient for this procedure, she expresses concerns over the necessity for this test. The nurse should explain that this diagnostic test may be indicated for a number of situations (Select all that apply). A. Multifetal gestation B. Obesity C. Fetal abnormalities D. Amniotic fluid volume E. Ectopic pregnancy

B (Rationale: Decreased fetal movement is an indicator for performing a contraction stress test; the size (small for gestational age) is not an indicator. Maternal diabetes mellitus and postmaturity are two indications for performing a contraction stress test. Although adolescent pregnancy and poor prenatal care are risk factors of poor fetal outcomes, they are not indicators for performing a contraction stress test. Intrauterine growth restriction is an indicator; but history of a previous stillbirth, not preterm labor, is the other indicator.)

What is an indicator for performing a contraction stress test? A. Increased fetal movement and small for gestational age B. Maternal diabetes mellitus and postmaturity C. Adolescent pregnancy and poor prenatal care D. History of preterm labor and intrauterine growth restriction

D (This is a normal laboratory value in the pregnant woman. This is a normal laboratory value in the pregnant woman. This is a normal laboratory value in the pregnant woman. A rubella titer of less than 1:10 indicates a lack of immunity to rubella, a viral infection that has the potential to cause teratogenic effects on fetal development. Arrangements should be made to administer the rubella vaccine after birth during the postpartum period since administration of rubella, a live vaccine, would be contraindicated during pregnancy. Women receiving the vaccine during the postpartum period should be cautioned to avoid pregnancy for 3 months.)

What laboratory results would be a cause for concern if exhibited by a woman at her first prenatal visit during the second month of her pregnancy? A. Hematocrit 38%, hemoglobin 13 g/dL B. White blood cell count 6000/mm3 C. Platelets 300,000/mm3 D. Rubella titer 1:6

A, B, E (Morning sickness is seen in most women during the first trimester. Hot foods have strong odors, which may stimulate the chemoreceptor trigger zone and cause nausea. Therefore the nurse should advise the patient to ingest the food when it is not too hot. The patient is usually taught to have smaller, more frequent meals every 2 to 3 hours because it prevents stomach distention. Starch reduces the concentration of gastric acid, which aids in preventing nausea. Therefore the nurse should teach the patient to incorporate foods that contain higher quantities of starch. Usually patients are instructed to include higher amounts of fluids during pregnancy to prevent dehydration caused by nausea. Fried foods and foods rich in fats tend to produce more acids that can aggravate nausea and contribute to reflux.)

What measures should the nurse instruct a pregnant patient to take to relieve the symptoms of morning sickness during the first trimester? Select all that apply. A. Consume food when it is not hot. B. Eat food in smaller portions. C. Include smaller amounts of fluids. D. Include foods that are high in fats. E. Include food high in starch content.

B (The L/S ratio indicates fetal lung maturity. AFP is assessed to check for the presence of neural defects. Presence of creatinine in the amniotic fluid indicates that the patient's gestational age is more than 36 weeks. The antibody titer is used to determine Rh incompatibility in the fetus.)

What parameter does the nurse check in the amniocentesis report of a pregnant patient to assess fetal lung growth? A. Alfa-fetoprotein (AFP) levels B. Lecithin-to-sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio C. Creatinine levels in the blood D. Antibody titer in the blood

C (When the nurse is assessing a patient's socioeconomic status, the nurse should determine whether the patient has health insurance. Lack of health insurance may mean the patient does not have a job to pay for insurance or the income to pay for it privately. This may affect the patient's prenatal care if she cannot afford services. When the nurse asks about the family's medical history, this falls under the patient's personal history. The nurse asks about the community in which the patient lives when assessing the patient's environment. Medications can affect the fetus in a pregnant patient. Therefore the nurse should ask about the medications taken by the patient when assessing the patient's health status.)

What question does the nurse ask while assessing the socioeconomic status of a pregnant patient? A. "What prescription medications do you take?" B. "Do you have any factories around your house?" C. "Do you have any medical or dental insurance?" D. "Are there any diseases that run in your family?"

D (The woman first centers on herself as pregnant, then on the baby as an entity separate from herself, and then on her responsibilities as a mother. The expressions, "I am pregnant," "I am going to have a baby," and "I am going to be a mother" sum up the progression through the three phases.)

What represents a typical progression through the phases of a woman's establishing a relationship with the fetus? A. Accepts the fetus as distinct from herself—accepts the biologic fact of pregnancy—has a feeling of caring and responsibility B. Fantasizes about the child's gender and personality—views the child as part of herself—becomes introspective C. Views the child as part of herself—has feelings of well-being—accepts the biologic fact of pregnancy D. "I am pregnant."—"I am going to have a baby."—"I am going to be a mother.

B (A concern for modesty is a deterrent to many women seeking prenatal care. For some women, exposing body parts, especially to a man, is considered a major violation of their modesty. Many cultural variations are found in prenatal care. Even if the prenatal care described is familiar to a woman, some practices may conflict with the beliefs and practices of a subculture group to which she belongs.)

What type of cultural concern is the most likely deterrent to many women seeking prenatal care? A. Religion B. Modesty C. Ignorance D. Belief that physicians are evil

B (Edema usually refers to the abnormal accumulation of fluid in the interstitium. In the past it was believed to be caused by an excess of sodium. However, a moderate amount of edema is considered normal. This happens because of higher estrogen levels. Vitamin B deficiency causes neural tube defects. Taking in too many calories does not cause edema; it causes weight gain. Glucose is the basic source for energy, deficiency of which causes hypoglycemia and reduces stamina. However, it does not cause edema.)

When assessing a pregnant woman in the second trimester, the nurse finds the patient to be healthy, but the patient reports mild edema. What should the nurse infer from this finding? A. The patient has a vitamin B deficiency. B. This is a normal finding; it results from estrogen. C. The patient is consuming too many calories. D. The nurse should check the blood glucose

D (Periodic walking helps prevent thrombophlebitis. Pregnant women should avoid sitting or standing for long periods and crossing the legs at the knees. Pregnant women must wear lap belts and shoulder restraints. The most common injury to the fetus comes from injury to the mother. Metal detectors at airport security checkpoints do not harm fetuses.)

When discussing work and travel during pregnancy with a pregnant patient, nurses should instruct them that: A. Women should sit for as long as possible and cross their legs at the knees from time to time for exercise. B. Women should avoid seat belts and shoulder restraints in the car because they press on the fetus. C. Metal detectors at airport security checkpoints can harm the fetus if the woman passes through them a number of times. D. While working or traveling in a car or on a plane, women should arrange to walk around at least every hour or so

C (No movement in a 12-hour period is cause for investigation and possibly intervention. Alcohol and cigarette smoke temporarily reduce fetal movement. The mother should count fetal activity ("kick counts") two or three times daily for 60 minutes each time. Obese women have a harder time assessing fetal movement.)

When nurses help their expectant mothers assess the daily fetal movement counts, they should be aware that: A. Alcohol or cigarette smoke can irritate the fetus into greater activity. B. "Kick counts" should be taken every half hour and averaged every 6 hours, with every other 6-hour stretch off. C. The fetal alarm signal should go off when fetal movements stop entirely for 12 hours. D. Obese mothers familiar with their bodies can assess fetal movement as well as average-size women.

D (Understanding the client's food preferences and how she prepares food will assist the nurse in determining whether the client's culture is adversely affecting her nutritional intake. An evaluation of a client's weight gain during pregnancy should be included for all clients, not only for clients from different cultural backgrounds. The socioeconomic status of the client may alter the nutritional intake but not the cultural influence. Teaching the food groups to the client should come after assessing her food preferences.)

Which action is the first priority for the nurse who is assessing the influence of culture on a client's diet? A. Evaluate the client's weight gain during pregnancy. B. Assess the socioeconomic status of the client. C. Discuss the four food groups with the client. D. Identify the food preferences and methods of food preparation common to the client's culture.

B (Adolescents should gain in the upper range of the recommended weight gain. They also need to gain weight that would be expected for their own normal growth. Changes in the diet should be kept at a minimum. Snack foods can be included in moderation, and other foods can be added to make up for lost nutrients. Eliminating fast foods would make the adolescent appear different to her peers. The client should be taught to choose foods that add needed nutrients. Adolescents are willing to make changes; however, they still have the need to be similar to their peers.)

Which action is the highest priority for the nurse when educating a pregnant adolescent? A. Emphasize the need to eliminate common teenage snack foods because they are high in fat and sodium. B. Determine the weight gain needed to meet adolescent growth, and add 35 pounds. C. Suggest that she not eat at fast-food restaurants to avoid foods of poor nutritional value. D. Realize that most adolescents are unwilling to make dietary changes during pregnancy.

A (Maternal serum can be analyzed for abnormal levels of alpha-fetoprotein, human chorionic gonadotropin, and estriol. The multiple-marker screening may predict chromosomal defects in the fetus. The L/S ratio is used to determine fetal lung maturity. A biophysical profile is used for evaluating fetal status during the antepartum period. Five variables are used, but none is concerned with chromosomal problems. The blood type and crossmatch would not predict chromosomal defects in the fetus.)

Which analysis of maternal serum may predict chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus? A. Multiple-marker screening B. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio C. Biophysical profile D. Type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum

A (The goal of prenatal care is to foster a safe birth for the infant and mother. Although eating properly, driving carefully, and using proper body mechanics all are healthy measures that a mother can take, obtaining prenatal care is the optimal method for providing safety for both herself and her baby)

Which behavior indicates that a woman is "seeking safe passage" for herself and her infant? A. She keeps all prenatal appointments. B. She drives her car slowly. C. She "eats for two." D. She wears only low-heeled shoes.

A (Interestingly, some women can tolerate tart or salty foods when they are nauseated. Lemonade and potato chips are an ideal combination. The woman should avoid drinking too much when nausea is most likely, but she should increase her fluid levels later in the day when she feels better. The woman should avoid brushing her teeth immediately after eating. A small snack of cereal and milk or yogurt before bedtime may help the stomach in the morning.)

Which guidance might the nurse provide for a client with severe morning sickness? A. Trying lemonade and potato chips B. Drinking plenty of fluids early in the day C. Immediately brushing her teeth after eating D. Never snacking before bedtime

A (Good sources for protein, such as meat, milk, eggs, and cheese, have a lot of calcium and iron. Most women already eat a high-protein diet and do not need to increase their intake. Protein is sufficiently important that specific servings of meat and dairy are recommended. High-protein supplements are not recommended because they have been associated with an increased incidence of preterm births.)

Which information regarding protein in the diet of a pregnant woman is most helpful to the client? A. Many protein-rich foods are also good sources of calcium, iron, and B vitamins. B. Many women need to increase their protein intake during pregnancy. C. As with carbohydrates and fat, no specific recommendations exist for the amount of protein in the diet. D. High-protein supplements can be used without risk by women on macrobiotic diets.

C (Iron should generally be supplemented, and folic acid supplements are often needed because folate is so important in pregnancy. Fat-soluble vitamins should be supplemented as a medical prescription, as vitamin D might be for lactose-intolerant women. Water-soluble vitamin C is sometimes naturally consumed in excess; vitamin B6 is prescribed only if the woman has a very poor diet; and zinc is sometimes supplemented. Most women get enough calcium.)

Which minerals and vitamins are usually recommended as a supplement in a pregnant client's diet? A. Fat-soluble vitamins A and D B. Water-soluble vitamins C and B6 C. Iron and folate D. Calcium and zinc

B (When the uterus is still in the pelvis, visualization may be difficult. It is necessary to perform the test when the woman has a full bladder, which provides a "window" through which the uterus and its contents can be viewed. The woman needs a full bladder to elevate the uterus; therefore being NPO is not appropriate. Neither an enema nor an abdominal preparation is necessary for this procedure.)

Which nursing intervention is necessary before a second-trimester transabdominal ultrasound? A. Place the woman NPO for 12 hours. B. Instruct the woman to drink 1 to 2 quarts of water. C. Administer an enema. D. Perform an abdominal preparation.

A (Nutrient needs for energy—protein, calcium, iodine, zinc, B vitamins, and vitamin C—remain higher during lactation than during pregnancy. The need for iron is not higher during lactation than during pregnancy. A lactating woman does not have a greater requirement for vitamin A than a nonpregnant woman. Folic acid requirements are the highest during the first trimester of pregnancy.)

Which nutrient's recommended dietary allowance (RDA) is higher during lactation than during pregnancy? A. Energy (kcal) B. Iron C. Vitamin A D. Folic acid

A (Six to eight glasses is still the standard for fluids; however, they should be the right fluids. All beverages containing caffeine, including tea, cocoa, and some soft drinks, should be avoided or should be consumed only in limited amounts. Artificial sweeteners, including aspartame, have no ill effects on the normal mother or fetus. However, mothers with phenylketonuria (PKU) should avoid aspartame. Although no evidence indicates that prenatal fluoride consumption reduces childhood tooth decay, fluoride still helps the mother.)

Which nutritional recommendation regarding fluids is accurate? A. A woman's daily intake should be six to eight glasses of water, milk, and/or juice. B. Coffee should be limited to no more than 2 cups, but tea and cocoa can be consumed without worry. C. Of the artificial sweeteners, only aspartame has not been associated with any maternity health concerns. D. Water with fluoride is especially encouraged because it reduces the child's risk of tooth decay.

A, B, C (Assessment of physiologic parameters such as AFV, FBMs, and limb and head movements of the fetus by ultrasonography gives a reliable picture of fetal well-being. Abnormalities in the amniotic fluid volume are frequently associated with fetal disorders. Fetal breathing and limb and head movements reflect the status of the central nervous system. Daily fetal movement count is the most common method used to assess fetal activity. Ultrasound is not used to assess the daily fetal movement count. The fluid volume in the nape of the fetal neck is measured to assess structural abnormalities in the fetus.)

Which physiologic parameters does the nurse check in the ultrasound report to assess fetal well-being? Select all that apply. A. Amniotic fluid volume (AFV) B. Fetal breathing movements (FBMs) C. Fetal limb and head movements D. Daily count of fetal movements E. Fluid volume in the nape of the fetal neck

D (A weight gain of 5 to 9 kg will provide sufficient nutrients for the fetus. Overweight and obese women should be advised to lose weight before conception to achieve the best pregnancy outcomes. A higher weight gain in twin gestations may help prevent low birth weights. Adolescents need to gain weight toward the higher acceptable range, which provides for their own growth, as well as for fetal growth. In the past, women of short stature were advised to restrict their weight gain; however, evidence to support these guidelines has not been found.)

Which pregnant woman should strictly follow weight gain recommendations during pregnancy? A. Pregnant with twins B. In early adolescence C. Shorter than 62 inches or 157 cm D. Was 20 pounds overweight before pregnancy

B (Twin pregnancies often end in prematurity. Serious efforts should be made to bring the pregnancy to term. A woman with a multifetal pregnancy often develops anemia, suffers more or worse backache, and needs to gain more weight. Counseling is needed to help her adjust to these conditions.)

Which statement about multifetal pregnancy is inaccurate? A. The expectant mother often develops anemia because the fetuses have a greater demand for iron. B. Twin pregnancies come to term with the same frequency as single pregnancies. C. The mother should be counseled to increase her nutritional intake and gain more weight. D. Backache and varicose veins often are more pronounced.

A (A lunar month lasts 28 days, or 4 weeks. Pregnancy spans 9 calendar months but 10 lunar months. A trimester is one third of a normal pregnancy, or about 13 to 14 weeks. The prenatal period covers the full course of pregnancy (prenatal means before birth). The EDC is now called the EDB, or estimated date of birth. It has nothing to do with the duration of bed rest.)

Which statement about pregnancy is accurate? A. A normal pregnancy lasts about 10 lunar months. B. A trimester is one third of a year. C. The prenatal period extends from fertilization to conception. D. The estimated date of confinement (EDC) is how long the mother will have to be bedridden after birth.

B (Lactose intolerance, which is an inability to digest milk sugar because of a lack of the enzyme lactose in the small intestine, is a problem that interferes with milk consumption. Milk consumption may cause abdominal cramping, bloating, and diarrhea in such people, although many lactose-intolerant individuals can tolerate small amounts of milk without symptoms. A woman with lactose intolerance is more likely to experience bloating and cramping, not heartburn. A client who breaks out in hives after consuming milk is more likely to have a milk allergy and should be advised to simply brush her teeth after consuming dairy products.)

Which statement made by a lactating woman leads the nurse to believe that the client might have lactose intolerance? A. "I always have heartburn after I drink milk." B. "If I drink more than a cup of milk, I usually have abdominal cramps and bloating." C. "Drinking milk usually makes me break out in hives." D. "Sometimes I notice that I have bad breath after I drink a cup of milk."

A, C, D (A woman with a multifetal pregnancy often develops anemia due to the increased demands of two fetuses. This should be monitored closely throughout her pregnancy. Twin pregnancies often end in prematurity. Serious efforts should be made to bring the pregnancy to term. The client may need nutrition counseling to ensure that she gains more weight than what is needed for a singleton birth. The considerable uterine distention is likely to cause backache and leg varicosities. Maternal support hose should be recommended. Spontaneous rupture of membranes before term is common.)

Which statements about multifetal pregnancy are most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) A. The expectant mother often develops anemia because the fetuses have a greater demand for iron. B. Twin pregnancies come to term with the same frequency as single pregnancies. C. The mother should be counseled to increase her nutritional intake and gain more weight. D. Backache and varicose veins are often more pronounced. E. Spontaneous rupture of membranes before term is uncommon.

A, B, C, E (Underweight women need to gain the most. Obese women need to gain weight during pregnancy to equal the weight of the products of conception. Adolescents are still growing; therefore, their bodies naturally compete for nutrients with the fetus. Women bearing twins need to gain more weight (usually 16 to 20 kg), but not necessarily twice as much. Normal weight women should gain 11.5 to 16 kg.)

Which suggestions should the nurse include when teaching about appropriate weight gain in pregnancy? Select all that apply. A. Underweight women should gain 12.5 to 18 kg. B. Overweight women should gain at least 7 to 11.5 kg. C. Adolescents are encouraged to strive for weight gains at the upper end of the recommended scale. D. In twin gestations, the weight gain recommended for a single fetus pregnancy should simply be doubled. E. Normal weight women should gain 11.5 to 16 kg.

D (Signs and symptoms that must be reported include severe vomiting, fever and chills, burning on urination, diarrhea, abdominal cramping, and vaginal bleeding. These symptoms may be signs of potential complications of the pregnancy. Nausea with occasional vomiting, fatigue, and urinary frequency are normal first-trimester complaints. Although they may be worrisome or annoying to the mother, they usually are not indications of pregnancy problems.)

Which symptom is considered a first-trimester warning sign and should be reported immediately by the pregnant woman to her health care provider? A. Nausea with occasional vomiting B. Urinary frequency C. Fatigue D. Vaginal bleeding

C (The NT ultrasound screening technique is used to measure fluid in the nape of the fetal neck between 10 and 14 weeks' gestation. Fluid volume greater than 3 mm is considered abnormal. NT is used mostly to identify possible fetal genetic abnormalities. AFV, fetal body movements, and fetal heart activity are measured to assess fetal well-being.)

Which test does the nurse recommend for the patient to help assess fetal genetic abnormalities? A. Amniotic fluid volume (AFV) B. Fetal body movements C. Nuchal translucency (NT) D. Fetal heart activity

D (If taken in excess, vitamin A causes a number of problems. An analog of vitamin A appears in prescribed acne medications, which must not be taken during pregnancy. Zinc, vitamin D, and folic acid are all vital to good maternity and fetal health and are highly unlikely to be consumed in excess.)

Which vitamins or minerals may lead to congenital malformations of the fetus if taken in excess by the mother? A. Zinc B. Vitamin D C. Folic acid D. Vitamin A

C (The consumption of foods low in nutritional value or of nonfood substances (e.g., dirt, laundry starch) is called pica. Preeclampsia is a vasospastic disease process encountered after 20 weeks of gestation. Characteristics of preeclampsia include increasing hypertension, proteinuria, and hemoconcentration. Pyrosis is a burning sensation in the epigastric region, otherwise known as heartburn. Purging refers to self-induced vomiting after consuming large quantities of food.)

While obtaining a diet history, the nurse might be told that the expectant mother has cravings for ice chips, cornstarch, and baking soda. Which nutritional problem does this behavior indicate? A. Preeclampsia B. Pyrosis C. Pica D. Purging

B (Lack of response after 3 minutes of FAST indicates that the fetus has low activity levels. In this situation, to accurately assess fetal activity, the nurse should recommend a BPP of the fetus. Amniocentesis helps detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus. Fetal activity cannot be determined using this technique. In cordocentesis, the umbilical blood is tested for Rh incompatibility and hemolytic anemia in the fetus. Coombs' test is used to determine the presence of antibody incompatibilities in the fetus and the mother.)

While performing the fetal acoustic stimulation test (FAST) in a patient, the nurse observes that there is no fetal response even after 3 minutes of testing. Which test does the nurse suggest? A. Amniocentesis B. Biophysical profile (BPP) C. Cordocentesis D. Coombs' test

C, D (A floating fetus is seen in cases of elevated amniotic fluid volume, or polyhydramnios. Polyhydramnios is associated with neural tube defects and gastrointestinal obstruction. Renal agenesis and severe intrauterine growth restriction are associated with oligohydramnios, or low amniotic fluid volume. A low amount of fluid may not result in a floating fetus in the scanned image. The amniotic fluid level is unrelated to cardiac disease in the fetus.)

While reviewing the ultrasound reports of a patient, the nurse notices a floating fetus in the scanned image. What potential fetal risks should the nurse interpret from this finding? Select all that apply: A. Renal agenesis B. Growth restriction C. Neural tube defects D. Gastrointestinal obstruction E. Cardiac disease.

A (The main danger from taking baths is falling in the tub. The perineum should be wiped from front to back. Bubble baths and bath oils should be avoided because they may irritate the urethra. Soap, alcohol, ointments, and tinctures should not be used to cleanse the nipples because they remove protective oils. Warm water is sufficient.)

While teaching the expectant mother about personal hygiene during pregnancy, maternity nurses should be aware that: A. Tub bathing is permitted even in late pregnancy unless membranes have ruptured. B. The perineum should be wiped from back to front. C. Bubble bath and bath oils are permissible because they add an extra soothing and cleansing action to the bath. D. Expectant mothers should use specially treated soap to cleanse the nipples.

C (CVS can be performed in the first or second trimester, ideally between 10 and 13 weeks of gestation. During this procedure, a small piece of tissue is removed from the fetal portion of the placenta. If performed after 9 completed weeks of gestation, the risk of limb reduction is no greater than in the general population.)

While working with the pregnant woman in her first trimester, the nurse is aware that chorionic villus sampling (CVS) can be performed during pregnancy at: A. 4 weeks B. 8 weeks C. 10 weeks D. 14 weeks

D (Blood pressure is affected by maternal position during pregnancy. The supine position may cause occlusion of the vena cava and descending aorta. Turning the pregnant woman to a lateral recumbent position alleviates pressure on the blood vessels and quickly corrects supine hypotension. Pressures are significantly higher when the patient is standing. This option causes an increase in systolic and diastolic pressures. The arm should be supported at the same level of the heart. The supine position may cause occlusion of the vena cava and descending aorta, creating hypotension.)

While you are assessing the vital signs of a pregnant woman in her third trimester, the patient complains of feeling faint, dizzy, and agitated. Which nursing intervention is appropriate? A. Have the patient stand up and retake her blood pressure. B. Have the patient sit down and hold her arm in a dependent position. C. Have the patient lie supine for 5 minutes and recheck her blood pressure on both arms. D. Have the patient turn to her left side and recheck her blood pressure in 5 minutes.

C (Love and support help a woman feel better about her pregnancy. The most important person to the pregnant woman is usually the father. Nurses can facilitate communication between partners about sexual matters if, as is common, they are nervous about expressing their worries and feelings. The second trimester is the time when a woman's sense of well-being, along with certain physical changes, increases her desire for sex. Desire is decreased in the first and third trimesters.)

With regard to a woman's reordering of personal relationships during pregnancy, the maternity nurse should understand that: A. Because of the special motherhood bond, a woman's relationship with her mother is even more important than with the father of the child. B. Nurses need not get involved in any sexual issues the couple has during pregnancy, particularly if they have trouble communicating them to each other. C. Women usually express two major relationship needs during pregnancy: feeling loved and valued and having the child accepted by the father. D. The woman's sexual desire is likely to be highest in the first trimester because of the excitement and because intercourse is physically easier.

C (Diluted fluid is mixed with ethanol and shaken. After 15 minutes, the bubbles tell the story. Amniocentesis is possible after the fourteenth week of pregnancy when the uterus becomes an abdominal organ. Complications occur in less than 1% of cases; many have been minimized or eliminated through the use of ultrasound. Meconium in the amniotic fluid before the beginning of labor is not usually a problem.)

With regard to amniocentesis, nurses should be aware that: A. Because of new imaging techniques, amniocentesis is now possible in the first trimester. B. Despite the use of ultrasound, complications still occur in the mother or infant in 5% to 10% of cases. C. The shake test, or bubble stability test, is a quick means of determining fetal maturity. D. The presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid is always cause for concern.

C (The woman lies on her back during the abdominal examination, possibly compressing the vena cava and aorta, which can cause a decrease in blood pressure and a feeling of faintness. The interview portion of follow-up examinations is less extensive than in the initial prenatal visits, during which so much new information must be gathered. Monthly visits are routinely scheduled for the first and second trimesters; visits increase to every 2 weeks at week 28 and to once a week at week 36. For pregnant women hypertension is defined as a systolic BP of 140 or greater and a diastolic BP of 90 or greater.)

With regard to follow-up visits for women receiving prenatal care, nurses should be aware that: A. The interview portions become more intensive as the visits become more frequent over the course of the pregnancy. B. Monthly visits are scheduled for the first trimester, every 2 weeks for the second trimester, and weekly for the third trimester. C. During the abdominal examination, the nurse should be alert for supine hypotension. D. For pregnant women, a systolic blood pressure (BP) of 130 and a diastolic BP of 80 is sufficient to be considered hypertensive.

A (Both prescription and OTC drugs that otherwise are harmless can be made hazardous by metabolic deficiencies of the fetus. This is especially true for new medications and combinations of drugs. The greatest danger of drug-caused developmental defects exists in the interval from fertilization through the first trimester, when a woman may not realize that she is pregnant. Live-virus vaccines should be part of postpartum care; killed-virus vaccines may be administered during pregnancy. Secondhand smoke is associated with fetal growth restriction and increases in infant mortality.)

With regard to medications, herbs, shots, and other substances normally encountered by pregnant women, the maternity nurse should be aware that: A. Both prescription and over-the-counter (OTC) drugs that otherwise are harmless can be made hazardous by metabolic deficiencies of the fetus. B. The greatest danger of drug-caused developmental deficits in the fetus is seen in the final trimester. C. Killed-virus vaccines (e.g., tetanus) should not be given during pregnancy, but live-virus vaccines (e.g., measles) are permissible. D. No convincing evidence exists that secondhand smoke is potentially dangerous to the fetus.

A (This is especially true for new medications and combinations of drugs. The greatest danger of drug-caused developmental defects exists in the interval from fertilization through the first trimester, when a woman may not realize that she is pregnant. Live-virus vaccines should be part of postpartum care; killed-virus vaccines may be administered during pregnancy. Secondhand smoke is associated with fetal growth restriction and increases in infant mortality.)

With regard to medications, herbs, shots, and other substances normally encountered, the maternity nurse should be aware that: A. Prescription and over-the-counter (OTC) drugs that otherwise are harmless can be made hazardous by metabolic deficiencies of the fetus. B. The greatest danger of drug-caused developmental deficits in the fetus is seen in the final trimester. C. Killed-virus vaccines (e.g., tetanus) should not be given during pregnancy, but live-virus vaccines (e.g., measles) are permissible. D. No convincing evidence exists that secondhand smoke is potentially dangerous to the fetus.

B (An empty bladder facilitates the examination; this is also an opportunity to get a urine sample easily for a number of tests. All women should be assessed for a history of physical abuse, particularly because the likelihood of abuse increases during pregnancy. Noting body hair is important because body hair reflects nutritional status, endocrine function, and hygiene. Particular attention is paid to the size of the uterus because it is an indication of the duration of gestation.)

With regard to the initial physical examination of a woman beginning prenatal care, maternity nurses should be cognizant of: A. Only women who show physical signs or meet the sociologic profile should be assessed for physical abuse. B. The woman should empty her bladder before the pelvic examination is performed. C. The distribution, amount, and quality of body hair are of no particular importance. D. The size of the uterus is discounted in the initial examination.

C (Besides these potential problems, nurses need to be alert to the woman's attitude toward health care. The initial interview needs to be planned, purposeful, and focused on specific content. A lot of ground must be covered. Nurses must be sensitive to special problems, but they do need to inquire because discovering individual needs is important. People with chronic or handicapping conditions forget to mention them because they have adapted to them. Getting information on drug use is important and can be done confidentially. Actual testing for drug use requires the client's consent.)

With regard to the initial visit with a client who is beginning prenatal care, nurses should be aware that: A. The first interview is a relaxed, get-acquainted affair in which nurses gather some general impressions. B. If nurses observe handicapping conditions, they should be sensitive and not inquire about them because the client will do that in her own time. C. Nurses should be alert to the appearance of potential parenting problems, such as depression or lack of family support. D. Because of legal complications, nurses should not ask about illegal drug use; that is left to physicians

C (IUGR is associated with women with inadequate weight gain. The primary factor in making a weight gain recommendation is the appropriateness of the prepregnancy weight for the woman's height. Obese women are twice as likely as women of normal weight to give birth to a child with major congenital defects. Overeating is only one of several likely causes.)

With regard to weight gain during pregnancy, the nurse should be aware of which important information? A. In pregnancy, the woman's height is not a factor in determining her target weight. B. Obese women may have their health concerns, but their risk of giving birth to a child with major congenital defects is the same as with women of normal weight. C. Women with inadequate weight gain have an increased risk of delivering a preterm infant with intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). D. Greater than expected weight gain during pregnancy is almost always attributable to old-fashioned overeating.

B (Both normal-weight and underweight women with inadequate weight gain have an increased risk of giving birth to an infant with intrauterine growth restriction. Spina bifida is not associated with inadequate maternal weight gain. An adequate amount of folic acid has been shown to reduce the incidence of this condition. Diabetes mellitus is not related to inadequate weight gain. A gestational diabetic mother is more likely to give birth to a large-for-gestational age infant. Down syndrome is the result of a trisomy 21, not inadequate maternal weight gain.)

Women with an inadequate weight gain during pregnancy are at higher risk of giving birth to an infant with: A. Spina bifida. B. Intrauterine growth restriction. C. Diabetes mellitus. D. Down syndrome.

A woman asks the nurse, "What protects my baby's umbilical cord from being squashed while the baby's inside of me?" The nurse's best response is: a. "Your baby's umbilical cord is surrounded by connective tissue called Wharton jelly, which prevents compression of the blood vessels and ensures continued nourishment of your baby." b. "Your baby's umbilical floats around in blood anyway." c. "You don't need to worry about things like that." d. "The umbilical cord is a group of blood vessels that are very well protected by the placenta."

a. "Your baby's umbilical cord is surrounded by connective tissue called Wharton jelly, which prevents compression of the blood vessels and ensures continued nourishment of your baby." "Your baby's umbilical cord is surrounded by connective tissue called Wharton jelly, which prevents compression of the blood vessels and ensures continued nourishment of your baby" is the most appropriate response. "Your baby's umbilical floats around in blood anyway" is inaccurate. "You don't need to worry about things like that" is not appropriate response. It negates the client's need for teaching and discounts her feelings. The placenta does not protect the umbilical cord. The cord is protected by the surrounding Wharton jelly.

A key finding from the Human Genome Project is: a. Approximately 20,000 to 25,000 genes make up the genome. b. All human beings are 80.99% identical at the DNA level. c. Human genes produce only one protein per gene; other mammals produce three proteins per gene. d. Single gene testing will become a standardized test for all pregnant clients in the future.

a. Approximately 20,000 to 25,000 genes make up the genome. Approximately 20,000 to 25,000 genes make up the human genome; this is only twice as many as make up the genomes of roundworms and flies. Human beings are 99.9% identical at the DNA level. Most human genes produce at least three proteins. Single gene testing (e.g., alpha-fetoprotein) is already standardized for prenatal care.

The nurse is assessing the knowledge of new parents with a child born with maple syrup urine disease (MSUD). This is an autosomal recessive inherited disorder, which means that: a. Both genes of a pair must be abnormal for the disorder to be expressed. b. Only one copy of the abnormal gene is required for the disorder to be expressed. c. The disorder occurs in males and heterozygous females. d. The disorder is carried on the X chromosome.

a. Both genes of a pair must be abnormal for the disorder to be expressed. MSUD is a type of autosomal recessive inheritance disorder in which both genes of a pair must be abnormal for the disorder to be expressed. MSUD is not an X-linked dominant or recessive disorder or an autosomal dominant inheritance disorder.

The nurse caring for the laboring woman should know that meconium is produced by: a. Fetal intestines. b. Fetal kidneys. c. Amniotic fluid. d. The placenta.

a. Fetal intestines. As the fetus nears term, fetal waste products accumulate in the intestines as dark green-to-black, tarry meconium.

The nurse must be cognizant that an individual's genetic makeup is known as his or her: a. Genotype. b. Phenotype. c. Karyotype. d. Chromotype.

a. Genotype. The genotype comprises all the genes the individual can pass on to a future generation. The phenotype is the observable expression of an individual's genotype. The karyotype is a pictorial analysis of the number, form, and size of an individual's chromosomes. Genotype refers to an individual's genetic makeup.

The nurse caring for a pregnant client knows that her health teaching regarding fetal circulation has been effective when the client reports that she has been sleeping: a. In a side-lying position. b. On her back with a pillow under her knees. c. With the head of the bed elevated. d. On her abdomen.

a. In a side-lying position. Optimal circulation is achieved when the woman is lying at rest on her side. Decreased uterine circulation may lead to intrauterine growth restriction. Previously it was believed that the left lateral position promoted maternal cardiac output, thereby enhancing blood flow to the fetus. However, it is now known that either side-lying position enhances uteroplacental blood flow. If a woman lies on her back with the pressure of the uterus compressing the vena cava, blood return to the right atrium will be diminished. Although this position is recommended and ideal for later in pregnancy, the woman must still maintain a lateral tilt to the pelvis to avoid compression of the vena cava. Many women will find this position uncomfortable as pregnancy advances. Side-lying is the ideal position to promote blood flow to the fetus.

A maternity nurse should be aware of which fact about the amniotic fluid? a. It serves as a source of oral fluid and a repository for waste from the fetus. b. The volume remains about the same throughout the term of a healthy pregnancy. c. A volume of less than 300 ml is associated with gastrointestinal malformations. d. A volume of more than 2 L is associated with fetal renal abnormalities.

a. It serves as a source of oral fluid and a repository for waste from the fetus. Amniotic fluid serves as a source of oral fluid, a repository for waste from the fetus, and also cushions the fetus and helps maintain a constant body temperature. The volume of amniotic fluid changes constantly. Too little amniotic fluid (oligohydramnios) is associated with renal abnormalities. Too much amniotic fluid (hydramnios) is associated with gastrointestinal and other abnormalities.

With regard to prenatal genetic testing, nurses should be aware that: a. Maternal serum screening can determine whether a pregnant woman is at risk of carrying a fetus with Down syndrome. b. Carrier screening tests look for gene mutations of people already showing symptoms of a disease. c. Predisposition testing predicts with near certainty that symptoms will appear. d. Presymptomatic testing is used to predict the likelihood of breast cancer.

a. Maternal serum screening can determine whether a pregnant woman is at risk of carrying a fetus with Down syndrome. Maternal serum screening identifies the risk for the neural tube defect and the specific chromosome abnormality involved in Down syndrome. Carriers of some diseases such as sickle cell disease do not display symptoms. Predisposition testing determines susceptibility such as for breast cancer; presymptomatic testing indicates that, if the gene is present, symptoms are certain to appear.

Many parents-to-be have questions about multiple births. Maternity nurses should be able to tell them that: a. Twinning and other multiple births are increasing because of the use of fertility drugs and delayed childbearing. b. Dizygotic twins (two fertilized ova) have the potential to be conjoined twins. c. Identical twins are more common in Caucasian families. d. Fraternal twins are same gender, usually male.

a. Twinning and other multiple births are increasing because of the use of fertility drugs and delayed childbearing. If the parents-to-be are older and have taken fertility drugs, they would be very interested to know about twinning and other multiple births. Conjoined twins are monozygotic; they are from a single fertilized ovum in which division occurred very late. Identical twins show no racial or ethnic preference; fraternal twins are more common among African-American women. Fraternal twins can be different genders or the same gender. Identical twins are the same gender.

With regard to chromosome abnormalities, nurses should be aware that: a. They occur in approximately 10% of newborns. b. Abnormalities of number are the leading cause of pregnancy loss. c. Down syndrome is a result of an abnormal chromosome structure. d. Unbalanced translocation results in a mild abnormality that the child will outgrow.

b. Abnormalities of number are the leading cause of pregnancy loss. Aneuploidy is an abnormality of number that also is the leading genetic cause of mental retardation. Chromosome abnormalities occur in fewer than 1% of newborns. Down syndrome is the most common form of trisomal abnormality, an abnormality of chromosome number (47 chromosomes). Unbalanced translocation is an abnormality of chromosome structure that often has serious clinical effects.

With regard to the structure and function of the placenta, the maternity nurse should be aware that: a. As the placenta widens, it gradually thins to allow easier passage of air and nutrients. b. As one of its early functions, the placenta acts as an endocrine gland. c. The placenta is able to keep out most potentially toxic substances such as cigarette smoke to which the mother is exposed. d. Optimal blood circulation is achieved through the placenta when the woman is lying on her back or standing.

b. As one of its early functions, the placenta acts as an endocrine gland. The placenta produces four hormones necessary to maintain the pregnancy. The placenta widens until week 20 and continues to grow thicker. Toxic substances such as nicotine and carbon monoxide readily cross the placenta into the fetus. Optimal circulation occurs when the woman is lying on her side.

In presenting to obstetric nurses interested in genetics, the genetic nurse identifies the primary risk(s) associated with genetic testing as: a. Anxiety and altered family relationships. b. Denial of insurance benefits. c. High false positives associated with genetic testing. d. Ethnic and socioeconomic disparity associated with genetic testing.

b. Denial of insurance benefits. Decisions about genetic testing are shaped by socioeconomic status and the ability to pay for the testing. Some types of genetic testing are expensive and are not covered by insurance benefits. Anxiety and altered family relationships, high false positives, and ethnic and socioeconomic disparity are factors that may be difficulties associated with genetic testing, but they are not risks associated with testing.

You are a maternal-newborn nurse caring for a mother who just delivered a baby born with Down syndrome. What nursing diagnosis would be the most essential in caring for the mother of this infant? a. Disturbed body image b. Interrupted family processes c. Anxiety d. Risk for injury

b. Interrupted family processes This mother likely will experience a disruption in the family process related to the birth of a baby with an inherited disorder. Women commonly experience body image disturbances in the postpartum period, but this is unrelated to giving birth to a child with Down syndrome. The mother likely will have a mix of emotions that may include anxiety, guilt, and denial, but this is not the most essential nursing diagnosis for this family. Risk for injury is not an applicable nursing diagnosis.

A man's wife is pregnant for the third time. One child was born with cystic fibrosis, and the other child is healthy. The man wonders what the chance is that this child will have cystic fibrosis. This type of testing is known as: a. Occurrence risk. b. Recurrence risk. c. Predictive testing. d. Predisposition testing.

b. Recurrence risk. The couple already has a child with a genetic disease; therefore they will be given a recurrence risk test. If a couple has not yet had children but are known to be at risk for having children with a genetic disease, they are given an occurrence risk test. This couple already has a child with a genetic disorder. Predictive testing is used to clarify the genetic status of an asymptomatic family member. Predisposition testing differs from presymptomatic testing in that a positive result does not indicate 100% risk of a condition developing.

A pregnant woman at 25 weeks' gestation tells the nurse that she dropped a pan last week and her baby jumped at the noise. Which response by the nurse is most accurate? a. "That must have been a coincidence; babies can't respond like that." b. "The fetus is demonstrating the aural reflex." c. "Babies respond to sound starting at about 24 weeks of gestation." d. "Let me know if it happens again; we need to report that to your midwife."

c. "Babies respond to sound starting at about 24 weeks of gestation." "Babies respond to sound starting at about 24 weeks of gestation" is an accurate statement. "That must have been a coincidence; babies can't respond like that" is inaccurate. Fetuses respond to sound by 24 weeks. Acoustic stimulations can evoke a fetal heart rate response. There is no such thing as an aural reflex. The statement, "Let me know if it happens again; we need to report that to your midwife" is not appropriate; it gives the impression that something is wrong.

A couple has been counseled for genetic anomalies. They ask you, "What is karyotyping?" Your best response is: a. "Karyotyping will reveal if the baby's lungs are mature." b. "Karyotyping will reveal if your baby will develop normally." c. "Karyotyping will provide information about the gender of the baby and the number and structure of the chromosomes." d. "Karyotyping will detect any physical deformities the baby has."

c. "Karyotyping will provide information about the gender of the baby and the number and structure of the chromosomes." Karyotyping provides genetic information such as gender and chromosome structure. The L/S, not karyotyping, reveals lung maturity. Although karyotyping can detect genetic anomalies, the range of normal is nondescriptive. Although karyotyping can detect genetic anomalies, not all such anomalies display obvious physical deformities. The term deformities is a nondescriptive word. Furthermore, physical anomalies may be present that are not detected by genetic studies (e.g., cardiac malformations).

Sally comes in for her first prenatal examination. This is her first child. She asks you (the nurse), "How does my baby get air inside my uterus?" The correct response is: a. "The baby's lungs work in utero to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide." b. "The baby absorbs oxygen from your blood system." c. "The placenta provides oxygen to the baby and excretes carbon dioxide into your bloodstream." d. "The placenta delivers oxygen-rich blood through the umbilical artery to the baby's abdomen."

c. "The placenta provides oxygen to the baby and excretes carbon dioxide into your bloodstream." The placenta functions by supplying oxygen and excreting carbon dioxide to the maternal bloodstream. The fetal lungs do not function for respiratory gas exchange in utero. The baby does not simply absorb oxygen from a woman's blood system. Blood and gas transport occur through the placenta. The placenta delivers oxygen-rich blood through the umbilical vein and not the artery.

A woman's cousin gave birth to an infant with a congenital heart anomaly. The woman asks the nurse when such anomalies occur during development. Which response by the nurse is most accurate? a. "We don't really know when such defects occur." b. "It depends on what caused the defect." c. "They occur between the third and fifth weeks of development." d. "They usually occur in the first 2 weeks of development."

c. "They occur between the third and fifth weeks of development." The cardiovascular system is the first organ system to function in the developing human. Blood vessel and blood formation begins in the third week, and the heart is developmentally complete in the fifth week. "We don't really know when such defects occur" is an inaccurate statement. Regardless of the cause, the heart is vulnerable during its period of development, the third to fifth weeks. "They usually occur in the first 2 weeks of development" is an inaccurate statement.

A father and mother are carriers of phenylketonuria (PKU). Their 2-year-old daughter has PKU. The couple tells the nurse that they are planning to have a second baby. Because their daughter has PKU, they are sure that their next baby won't be affected. What response by the nurse is most accurate? a. "Good planning; you need to take advantage of the odds in your favor." b. "I think you'd better check with your doctor first." c. "You are both carriers, so each baby has a 25% chance of being affected." d. "The ultrasound indicates a boy, and boys are not affected by PKU."

c. "You are both carriers, so each baby has a 25% chance of being affected." The chance is one in four that each child produced by this couple will be affected by PKU disorder. This couple still has an increased likelihood of having a child with PKU. Having one child already with PKU does not guarantee that they will not have another. These parents need to discuss their options with their physician. However, an opportune time has presented itself for the couple to receive correct teaching about inherited genetic risks. No correlation exists between gender and inheritance of the disorder, because PKU is an autosomal recessive disorder.

At approximately _____ weeks of gestation, lecithin is forming on the alveolar surfaces, the eyelids open, and the fetus measures approximately 27 cm crown to rump and weighs approximately 1110 g. a. 20 b. 24 c. 28 d. 30

c. 28 These are all milestones in human development that occur at approximately 28 weeks.

The measurement of lecithin in relation to sphingomyelin (L/S ratio) is used to determine fetal lung maturity. Which ratio reflects maturity of the lungs? a. 1.4:1 b. 1.8:1 c. 2:1 d. 1:1

c. 2:1 A ratio of 2:1 indicates a two-to-one ratio of L/S, an indicator of lung maturity. Ratios of 1.4:1, 1.8:1, and 1:1 indicate immaturity of the fetal lungs.

The nurse is providing genetic counseling for an expectant couple who already have a child with trisomy 18. The nurse should: a. Tell the couple they need to have an abortion within 2 to 3 weeks. b. Explain that the fetus has a 50% chance of having the disorder. c. Discuss options with the couple, including amniocentesis to determine whether the fetus is affected. d. Refer the couple to a psychologist for emotional support.

c. Discuss options with the couple, including amniocentesis to determine whether the fetus is affected. Genetic testing, including amniocentesis, would need to be performed to determine whether the fetus is affected. The couple should be given information about the likelihood of having another baby with this disorder so that they can make an informed decision. A genetic counselor is the best source for determining genetic probability ratios. The couple eventually may need emotional support, but the status of the pregnancy must be determined first.

With regard to the development of the respiratory system, maternity nurses should be aware that: a. The respiratory system does not begin developing until after the embryonic stage. b. The infant's lungs are considered mature when the lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio is 1:1, at about 32 weeks. c. Maternal hypertension can reduce maternal-placental blood flow, accelerating lung maturity. d. Fetal respiratory movements are not visible on ultrasound scans until at least 16 weeks.

c. Maternal hypertension can reduce maternal-placental blood flow, accelerating lung maturity. A reduction in placental blood flow stresses the fetus, increases blood levels of corticosteroids, and thus accelerates lung maturity. Development of the respiratory system begins during the embryonic phase and continues into childhood. The infant's lungs are mature when the L/S ratio is 2:1, at about 35 weeks. Lung movements have been seen on ultrasound scans at 11 weeks.

In practical terms regarding genetic health care, nurses should be aware that: a. Genetic disorders affect equally people of all socioeconomic backgrounds, races, and ethnic groups. b. Genetic health care is more concerned with populations than individuals. c. The most important of all nursing functions is providing emotional support to the family during counseling. d. Taking genetic histories is the province of large universities and medical centers.

c. The most important of all nursing functions is providing emotional support to the family during counseling. Nurses should be prepared to help with a variety of stress reactions from a couple facing the possibility of a genetic disorder. Although anyone may have a genetic disorder, certain disorders appear more often in certain ethnic and racial groups. Genetic health care is highly individualized because treatments are based on the phenotypic responses of the individual. Individual nurses at any facility can take a genetic history, although larger facilities may have better support services.

A woman who is 8 months pregnant asks the nurse, "Does my baby have any antibodies to fight infection?" The most appropriate response by the nurse is: a. "Your baby has all the immune globulins (Ig) necessary: IgG, IgM, and IgA." b. "Your baby won't receive any antibodies until he is born and you breastfeed him." c. "Your baby does not have any antibodies to fight infection." d. "Your baby has IgG and IgM."

d. "Your baby has IgG and IgM." During the third trimester the only Ig that crosses the placenta, IgG, provides passive acquired immunity to specific bacterial toxins. The fetus produces IgM by the end of the first trimester. IgAs are not produced by the baby. By the third trimester the fetus has IgG and IgM. Breastfeeding supplies the baby with IgA. "Your baby does not have any antibodies to fight infection" is not an accurate statement.

The _____ is/are responsible for oxygen and carbon dioxide transport to and from the maternal bloodstream. a. Decidua basalis b. Blastocyst c. Germ layer d. Chorionic villi

d. Chorionic villi Chorionic villi are fingerlike projections that develop out of the trophoblast and extend into the blood-filled spaces of the endometrium. The villi obtain oxygen and nutrients from the maternal bloodstream and dispose of carbon dioxide and waste products into the maternal blood. The decidua basalis is the portion of the decidua (endometrium) under the blastocyst where the villi attach. The blastocyst is the embryonic development stage after the morula. Implantation occurs at this stage. The germ layer is a layer of the blastocyst.

The most basic information a maternity nurse should have concerning conception is that: a. Ova are considered fertile 48 to 72 hours after ovulation. b. Sperm remain viable in the woman's reproductive system for an average of 12 to 24 hours. c. Conception is achieved when a sperm successfully penetrates the membrane surrounding the ovum. d. Implantation in the endometrium occurs 6 to 10 days after conception.

d. Implantation in the endometrium occurs 6 to 10 days after conception. After implantation, the endometrium is called the decidua. Ova are considered fertile for about 24 hours after ovulation. Sperm remain viable in the woman's reproductive system for an average of 2 to 3 days. Penetration of the ovum by the sperm is called fertilization. Conception occurs when the zygote, the first cell of the new individual, is formed.

With regard to the estimation and interpretation of the recurrence of risks for genetic disorders, nurses should be aware that: a. With a dominant disorder the likelihood of the second child also having the condition is 100%. b. An autosomal recessive disease carries a one in eight risk of the second child also having the disorder. c. Disorders involving maternal ingestion of drugs carry a one in four chance of being repeated in the second child. d. The risk factor remains the same no matter how many affected children are already in the family.

d. The risk factor remains the same no matter how many affected children are already in the family. Each pregnancy is an independent event. The risk factor (e.g., one in two, one in four) remains the same for each child, no matter how many children are born to the family. In a dominant disorder the likelihood of recurrence in subsequent children is 50% (one in two). An autosomal recessive disease carries a one in four chance of recurrence. Subsequent children would be at risk only if the mother continued to take drugs; the rate of risk would be difficult to calculate.