other hesi practice OB

B. Maternal and fetal heart rates.

30-year-old gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted to the hospital at 26-weeks' gestation in preterm labor. She is given a dose of terbutaline sulfate (Brethine) 0.25 mg subcutaneous. Which assessment is the highest priority for the nurse to monitor during the administration of this drug? A. Maternal blood pressure and respirations. B. Maternal and fetal heart rates. C. Hourly urinary output. D. Deep tendon reflexes.

C.Increase the rate of IV fluids.

At 14-weeks gestation, a client arrives at the Emergency Center complaining of a dull pain in the right lower quadrant of her abdomen. The nurse obtains a blood sample and initiates an IV. Thirty minutes after admission, the client reports feeling a sharp abdominal pain and a shoulder pain. Assessment findings include diaphoresis, a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, and a blood pressure of 86/48. Which action should the nurse implement next? A. Check the hematocrit results. B. Administer pain medication. C. Increase the rate of IV fluids. D. Monitor client for contractions.

A) Uterine Cramping

At ten weeks gestation, a high risk multiparous client with a Fhx of downs syndrome is admitted for observation following a CVS. What assessment findings requires immediate action? A) Uterine Cramping B) Systolic BP <100 C) Abdominal tenderness D) Intermittent Nausea

0.25 mL 2mg/mL= 0.5mg/xmL2x=0.5x=0.5/2x=0.25 mL

Ativan 0.5 mg IM every 1 hour as needed is prescribed for a client experiencing delirium tremens. The medication vial reads 2mg/mL of solution. How many mL should the nurse draw into the syringe for single dose administration?

D) The fetus can respond to sound by 24 weeks

A client at 25 weeks tells the nurse that she dropped a cooking utensil last week and her baby jumped in response to the noise. What information should the nurse provide? A) This is a demonstration of the fetus's acoustical reflex B) It is a coincidence the fetus responded at the same time C) Report the behavior to the Dr. D) The fetus can respond to sound by 24 weeks

D) Abdominal ultrasound

A client at 28 weeks gestation arrives at the labor and delivery unit with a complaint of bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. For which diagnostic procedure should the nurse prepare the client? A) Internal fetal monitoring B) Lecithin-sphingomylein ratio C) Contraction stress test D) Abdominal ultrasound

C) Ultrasonography

A client at 29 weeks gestation with possible placental insufficiency is being prepared for prenatal testing. Information about which diagnostic study should the nurse provide information to the client? A) Aminocentisis B) Maternal serum alpha fetoprotein C) Ultrasonography D) Chronic villus sampling

C. Obtain a specimen for urine analysis.

A client at 30-weeks gestation, complaining of pressure over the pubic area, is admitted for observation. She is contracting irregularly and demonstrates underlying uterine irritability. Vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is closed, thick, and high. Based on these data, which intervention should the nurse implement first? A. Provide oral hydration. B. Have a complete blood count (CBC) drawn. C. Obtain a specimen for urine analysis. D. Place the client on strict bedrest.

B) Periodic abdominal pain

A client at 35 week visits the clinic for a prenatal check up. Which complaint by the client warrants further assessment? A) Backache with prolonged standing B) Periodic abdominal pain C) Ankle edema in the afternoon D) Shortness of breath when climbing stairs

A) 4-1-2-0-3

A client at 39 weeks is admitted into the labor unit. Her OB history includes 3 live births at 39 weeks, 34 weeks, 35 weeks. Using the GTPAL system which designation is the most accurate summary of this client's obstetrical history? A) 4-1-2-0-3 B) 3-1-1-1-3 C) 4-3-1-0-2 D) 3-0-3-0-3

B) The heart develops in the third - fifth weeks after conception

A client at 8 weeks gestation asks the nurse about the risk for congenital heart defects in her baby. Which response best explains why these defects occur? A) they usually occur in the first trimester B) The heart develops in the third - fifth weeks after conception C) it depends on what the causative factors are for the defect D) We really don't know why they occur.

D. amnioinfusion will be performed Amnioinfusion is instillation of fluid into the amniotic sac within the uterus to treat oligohydraminios. This is not done to prevent precipitate labor and birth.

A client is pregnant with her third child. Medical history of the client indicates a previous precipitate labor and birth. Which of the following interventions would NOT be expected during labor of the present pregnancy? A. Use of magnesium sulfate B. Close monitoring of the fetus for hypoxia C. The nurse stays at the bedside constantly or as much as possible D. amnioinfusion will be performed

A. Raise the foot of the bed.

A client receiving epidural anesthesia begins to experience nausea and becomes pale and clammy. What intervention should the nurse implement first? A. Raise the foot of the bed. B. Assess for vaginal bleeding. C. Evaluate the fetal heart rate. D. Take the client's blood pressure.

C. palpate the firmness of the fundus

A client who delivered an infant an hour ago tells the nurse that she feels wet underneath her buttock. The nurse notes that both perineal pads are completely saturated and the client is lying in a 6inch diameter pool of blood. A. Cleanse the perineum B. Obtain a BP C. Palpate the firmness of the fundus D. Inspect the perineum for lacerations

b. Each pregnancy carries a 50% chance of inheriting the disorder.

A client who has an autosomal dominant inherited disorder is exploring family planning options and the risk of transmission of the disorder to an infant. The nurse's response should be based on what information? a. Males inherit the disorder with a greater frequency than females. b. Each pregnancy carries a 50% chance of inheriting the disorder. c. The disorder occurs in 25% of pregnancies. d. All children will be carriers of the disorder.

prolapsed cord This variable pattern with bradycardia is an ominous sign; it is indicative of cord compression, which can result in fetal hypoxia. Immediate intervention is required. Fetal acidosis occurs with uteroplacental insufficiency, not in response to a prolapsed cord. Early decelerations are associated with head compression and are benign. Late decelerations and tachycardia are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, not a prolapsed cord.

A client's membranes rupture during labor. The nurse immediately assesses the electronic fetal heart rate. Variable decelerations lasting more than 90 seconds, followed by bradycardia, are observed on the monitoring strip. What does the nurse suspect as the cause of this change? A. Fetal acidosis B. Prolapsed cord C. Head compression D. Uteroplacental insufficiency

C. Shoulder pain.

A couple, concerned because the woman has not been able to conceive, is referred to a healthcare provider for a fertility workup and a hysterosalpingography is scheduled. Which postprocedure complaint indicates that the fallopian tubes are patent? A. Back pain B. Abdominal pain. C. Shoulder pain. D. Leg cramps.

a. Choking, coughing, and cyanosis.

A full-term infant is admitted to the newborn nursery and, after careful assessment, the nurse suspects that the infant may have an esophageal atresia. Which symptoms is this newborn likely to have exhibited? a. Choking, coughing, and cyanosis. b. Projectile vomiting and cyanosis. c. Apneic spells and grunting. d. Organomegaly.

A. dark,red vaginal bleeding D. increased uterine irritability F. Rigid abdomen

A healthcare provider informs the charge nurse of a labor and delivery unit that a client is coming to the unit suspected abruptio placentae. What findings should the charge nurse expect the client to demonstrate. A. dark,red vaginal bleeding B. lower back pain C. premature rupture of membranes D. increased uterine irritability E. bilateral pitting edema F. Rigid abdomen

a. Biophysical profile (BPP).

A multigravida client at 41-weeks gestation presents in the labor and delivery unit after a non-stress test indicated that the fetus is experiencing some difficulties in utero. Which diagnostic test should the nurse prepare the client for additional information about fetal status? a. Biophysical profile (BPP). b. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies. c. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (AF) screening d. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS).

D) Blurred vision

A multigravida woman at 35 weeks is diagnosed with pregnancy induced hypertension. Which symptom should the nurse instruct the client to report immediately? A) Increased urine output B) Constipation C) Backache D) Blurred vision

C) Stop the transfusion

A neonate who is receiving an exchange transfusion for hemolytic disease develops respiratory distress, tachycardia, and a cutaneous rash. What nursing intervention should be implement first? A) Monitor vital signs electronically B) Inform the Dr. C) Stop the transfusion D) Administer calcium gluconate

B. Your milk is sufficient if the baby is voiding pale straw-colored urine 6 to 10 times a day.

A new mother asks the nurse, "How do I know that my daughter is getting enough breast milk?" Which explanation should the nurse provide? A. Weigh the baby daily, and if she is gaining weight, she is eating enough. B. Your milk is sufficient if the baby is voiding pale straw-colored urine 6 to 10 times a day. C. Offer the baby extra bottle milk after her feeding, and see if she is still hungry. D. If you're concerned, you might consider bottle feeding so that you can monitor her intake.

A) 3.5 oz

A newborn infant who is 24 hours old is on a 4 hour feeding schedule of formula. To meet daily caloric needs, how many oz are recommended each feeding? A) 3.5 oz B) 2 oz C) 4 oz D) 1.5 oz

D) Assess the infant's glucose level

A nurse assesses a male newborn and determines that he has the following vital signs: Axillary temp of 95.1 F, HR of 136, RR of 48. Based on these findings, which action should the nurse take first? A) Check the infants ABG B) Notify the pediatrician of the vital signs C) Encourage the infant to breastfeed or drink sugar water D) Assess the infant's glucose level

B. G2P1

A nurse is collecting data during the admission asessment of a client who is pregnant with twins. The client also has 5 year old child. The nurse would document which gravida and para status on this client? A. G1P1 B. G2P1 C. G2P2 D. G3P2

A. Allows for fetal movement B. Is a measure of kidney function C. Surrounds, cushions, and protects the fetus D. Maintains the body temperature of the fetus

A nursing instructor asks a nursing student to list the functions of the amniotic fluid. The student responds correctly by stating that which of the following are functions of amniotic fluid? Select all that apply. A. Allows for fetal movement B. Is a measure of kidney function C. Surrounds, cushions, and protects the fetus D. Maintains the body temperature of the fetus E. Prevents large particles such as bacteria from passing to the fetus F. Provides an exchange of nutrients and waste products between the mother and the fetus

C) Hep B D) Diphtheria E) Tetanus

A primigravida at 12 weeks gestation who just moved to the USA indicates she has not received any immunizations. Which immunizations should the nurse administer at this time? (Select all) A) Chickenpox B) Rubella C) Hep B D) Diphtheria E) Tetanus

b. Hyperstimulation.

A primigravida at 40-weeks gestation is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) to augment labor. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during the infusion of Pitocin? a. Dehydration. b. Hyperstimulation. c. Galactorrhea. d. Fetal tachycardia.

d. A platelet count of 67,000/mm3.

A primigravida client who is 5 cm dilated, 90% effaced, and at 0 station is requesting an epidural for pain relief. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider? a. Cervical dilation of 5 cm with 90% effacement. b. White blood cell count of 12,000/mm3. c. Hemoglobin of 12 mg/dl and hematocrit of 38%. d. A platelet count of 67,000/mm3.

C) Apply ice to the breasts

A woman who is bottle feeding her newborn infant calls the clinic 72 hours after delivery and tells the nurse that both of her breasts are swollen, warm, and tender. What instructions should the nurse give? A) Wear a loose fitting bra B) Run warm water on the breasts during a shower C) Apply ice to the breasts D) express small amounts of milk from the breast

A) Secretes both estrogen and progesterone

A woman whose pregnancy is confirmed asks the nurse what the function of the placenta is in early pregnancy. What information supports the explanation that the nurse should provide? A) Secretes both estrogen and progesterone B) Excretes prolactin and insulin C) Forms a protective impenetrable barrier D) Produces nutrients for fetal nutrition.

A) Begin humidified oxygen

An infant in respiratory distress is placed on pulse ox. The O2 sat is 85%. What is the priority nursing intervention? A) Begin humidified oxygen B) Place the infant under a radiant warmer C) Evaluate the blood pH D) Stimulate infant to cry

A) The pinpoint spots are benign and disappear within 48 hours

An infant who weighs 3.8 kg is delivered vaginally at 39 weeks with a nuchal cord after a 30 minute second stage of labor. The nurse identifies petechiae over the face and upper back of the newborn. What information should the nurse provide the parents about this finding? A) The pinpoint spots are benign and disappear within 48 hours B) An increased blood volume causes broken blood vessels C) Further assessment is needed D) Petechiae occurs with forceps delivery

C. probable signs Cervical softening (Goodell sign) and uterine soufflé are two probable signs of pregnancy.Probable signs are objective findings that strongly suggest pregnancy. Other probable signs include Hegar sign, which is softening of the lower uterine segment; Piskacek sign, which is enlargement and softening of the uterus; serum laboratory tests; changes in skin pigmentation; and ultrasonic evidence of a gestational sac. Presumptive signs are subjective signs and include amenorrhea; nausea and vomiting; urinary frequency; breast tenderness and changes; excessive fatigue; uterine enlargement; and quickening.

Cervical softening and uterine souffle are classified as which of the following? A. diagnostic signs B. presumptive signs C. probable signs D. positive signs

A.Admission weight of 4 pounds, 15 ounces (2244 grams) B.Head to heel length of 17 inches (42.5 cm). C.Frontal occipital circumference of 12.5 inches (31.25 cm).

The nurse is performing a gestational age assessment on a full-term newborn during the first hour of transition using the Ballard (Dubowitz) scale. Based on this assessment, the nurse determines that the neonate has a maturity rating of 40-weeks. What findings should the nurse identify to determine if the neonate is small for gestational age (SGA)? (Select all that apply.) A. Admission weight of 4 pounds, 15 ounces (2244 grams) B. Head to heel length of 17 inches (42.5 cm). C. Frontal occipital circumference of 12.5 inches (31.25 cm). D. Skin smooth with visible veins and abundant vernix. E. Anterior plantar crease and smooth heel surfaces. F. Full flexion of all extremities in resting supine position.

A) Assess for abdominal distention

The nurse is preparing to gavage feed a preterm infant who is receiving IV antibiotics. The infant expels a bloody stool. Which action should the nurse implement? A) Assess for abdominal distention B) Institute contact precautions term-81 C) Decrease the amount of feeding D) Obtain a rectal temp

B) Report uterine cramping or low backache

The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a gravid client who is being released from the hospital after placement of a cerclage. Which instruction is the most important for the client to understand? A) Plan for a possible C-section B) Report uterine cramping or low backache C) Arrange for home uterine monitoring D) Make arrangements for care at home

A) Adequate folic acid during embryogenesis reduces the incidence of neural tube defects

The nurse is teaching a primigravida at 10 weeks about the need to increase her folic acid intake. Which explanation should the nurse provide that supports preventative perinatal care? A) Adequate folic acid during embryogenesis reduces the incidence of neural tube defects B) The incidence of congenital heart defects is related to folic acid intake deficiencies C) Folic acid can significantly reduce the incidence of mental retardation D) The risk for neonatal cerebral palsy increases with folic acid deficiency during pregnancy

A. Ambivalence C. Emotional lability D. Body image changes E. Bonding or relationship with the fetus

The nurse knows that there are psychological maternal changes that occurs during pregnancy in a primigravida patient. Select all the normal psychological maternal changes that happens throughout pregnancy. A. Ambivalence B. Breast tenderness C. Emotional lability D. Body image changes E. Bonding or relationship with the fetus F. Nausea and vomiting G. Syncope H. Urinary frequency

C) Mongolian spots

The nurse notes an irregular bluish hue on the sacral area of a 1 day old hispanic infant. How should the nurse document this finding? A) Harlequin sign B) Acrocyanosis C) Mongolian spots D) Erythema toxicum

Linea nigra

This is a dark streak down the midline of the abdomen that may appear as the uterus is enlarging. The LPN correctly describes this to the pregnant woman as?

A) put a blanket on the scale while weighing the infant

What action should the nurse implement to prevent conductive heat loss in a newborn? A) put a blanket on the scale while weighing the infant B) Place the crib under a radiant warming system C) Position the crib away from the windows D) Dry the newborn in a warmed blanket

C) Prepare the family to explore ways to cope with the imminent death of the infant

What action should the nurse implement with the family when an infant is born with anencephaly? A) Ensure that measures to facilitate the attachment process are offered B) Inform the family about multiple corrective surgical procedures that will be needed C) Prepare the family to explore ways to cope with the imminent death of the infant D) Provide emotional support to facilitate the consideration of fetal organ donation

B) Hard board like abdomen

What assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider that is consistent with concealed hemorrhage in an abruptio placenta? A) decrease in abdominal pain B) Hard board like abdomen C) Decrease in fundal height D) Maternal bradycardia

C) Document the finding as erythema toxicum

When assessing the integument of a 24 hour newborn, the nurse notes a pink papular rash with superimposed vesicles on the thorax, back, and abdomen. What action should the nurse implement next? A) Move the newborn to isolation B) Obtain a culture from one of the vesticles C) Document the finding as erythema toxicum D) Notify the Dr. immediately

a. Mood swings c. Tearfulness

When explaining "postpartum blues" to a client who is 1 day postpartum, which symptoms should the nurse include in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.) a. Mood swings. b. Panic attacks. c. Tearfulness d. Decreased need for sleep. e. Disinterest in the infant

C. pressure on blood vessels from the enlarging uterus Pressure of the growing uterus on blood vessels results in an increased risk for venous stasis in the lower extremities. Subsequently, edema and varicose vein formation may occur. Thrombophlebitis is an inflammation of the veins due to thrombus formation. Pregnancy-induced hypertension is not associated with these symptoms. Gravity plays only a minor role with these symptoms.

When talking with a pregnant client who is experiencing aching swollen, leg veins, the nurse would explain that this is most probably the result of which of the following? A. thrombophlebitis B. pregnancy induced hypertension C. pressure on blood vessels from the enlarging uterus D. the force of gravity pulling down on the uterus

B) PICA

Which GI finding should the nurse be concerned about in a client at 28 weeks? A)Pyrosis B) PICA C) Ptyalism D) Decreased peristalsis

D. central cyanosis when crying

Which assessment finding should the nursery nurse report to the pediatric healthcare provider? A. Blood glucose level of 45mg/dl B. Blood pressure of 82/45 mmHG C. Non bulging anterior fontanel D. Central cyanosis when crying

C) Decrease in pulse

Which cardiovascular findings should the nurse assess further in a client at 20 weeks? A) A decrease in BP B) Increase in RBC production C) Decrease in pulse D) increase in heart sounds

D) A primigravida mother who is rH negative.

Which client should the nurse report to the health care provider as needing a prescription for RhoGAM? A) Newborn with rising serum billirubin B) Woman whose blood group is AB+ C) Newborn whose COOMBS is negative D) A primigravida mother who is rH negative.

C) Oral sucrose and nonnutritive sucking

Which nonpharmacological interventions should the nurse implement to provide the most effective response in decreasing procedural pain to the neonate? A) Skin to skin contact with parent B) Tactile stimualtion C) Oral sucrose and nonnutritive sucking D) Commercial warm pack

B. Rubella titer less than 1:8 A rubella titer should be 1:8 or greater. Thurs, a finding of a titer less than 1:8 is significant, indicating that the client may not possess immunity to rubella. A hematocrit of 33.5% a white blood cell count of 8,000/mm3, and a 1 hour glucose challenge test of 110 g/dl are with normal parameters.

Which of the following prenatal laboratory test values would the nurse consider as significant? A. Hematocrit 33.5% B. Rubella titer less than 1:8 C. White blood cells 8,000/mm3 D. One hour glucose challenge test 110 g/dL

C. 25 to 35 lbs The average amount of weight gained during pregnancy is 25 to 35 lb. This weight gain consists of the following: fetus - 7.5 lb; placenta and membrane - 1.5 lb; amniotic fluid - 2 lb; uterus - 2.5 lb; breasts - 3 lb; and increased blood volume - 2 to 4 lb; extravascular fluid and fat - 4 to 9 lb. A gain of 12 to 22 lb is insufficient, whereas a weight gain of 15 to 25 lb is marginal. A weight gain of 25 to 40 lb is considered excessive.

Which of the following represents the average amount of weight gained during pregnancy? A. 12 to 20 lbs B. 15 to 25 lbs C. 25 to 35 lbs D. 25 to 40 lbs

A. The test was performed less than 10 days after an abortion A false-positive reaction can occur if the pregnancy test is performed less than 10 days after an abortion. Performing the tests too early or too late in the pregnancy, storing the urine sample too long at room temperature, or having a spontaneous or missed abortion impending can all produce false- negative results.

Which of the following would cause a false-positive result on a pregnancy test? A. The test was performed less than 10 days after an abortion B. The test was performed too early or too late in thepregnancy C. The urine sample was stored too long at roomtemperature D. A spontaneous abortion or a missed abortion isimpending

B. Nausea and vomiting Presumptive signs of pregnancy are subjective signs. Of the signs listed, only nausea and vomiting are presumptive signs. Hegar sign, skin pigmentation changes, and a positive serum pregnancy test are considered probably signs, which are strongly suggestive of pregnancy.

Which of the following would the nurse identify as a presumptive sign of pregnancy? A. Hegar sign B. Nausea and vomiting C. skin pigmentation changes D. positive serum pregnancy test

A) Vitamin K

Which prescription should the nurse administer to the newborn to reduce complications related to birth trauma? A) Vitamin K B) Silver nitrate C) Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) D) Erythromycin

D) Non-stress test

Which procedure evaluates the effect of fetal movement on the fetal heart activity? A) Sonography B) Biophysical profile C) Contraction test D) Non-stress test

D) Caput succedaneum

While assessing a newborn the nurse observes diffuse edema of the soft tissues of the scalp that cross the suture lines. How should the nurse document this finding? A) Molding B) Cephalohematoma C) Hemangioma D) Caput succedaneum

d. The scalp edema will subside in a few days after birth.

While breastfeeding, a new mother strokes the top of her baby's head and asks the nurse about the baby's swollen scalp. The nurse responds that the swelling is caput succedaneum. Which additional information should the nurse provide this new mother? a. The infant should be positioned to reduce the swelling. b. The swelling is a subperiosteal collection of blood. c. The pediatrician will aspirate the blood if it gets larger. d. The scalp edema will subside in a few days after birth.

B) Cephalohematoma

While inspecting the newborn's head the nurse identifies a swelling of the scalp that does not cross the suture line. Which finding does the nurse document? A) Molding B) Cephalohematoma C) Caput succedaneum D) Bulging fontanel

B. "The fertilization of the zygote is the point at which sex is determined." The sex of the fetus is determined at the point that the sperm fertilizes the ovum to form the zygote. Sex is ultimately determined by the chromosome contributed by the sperm.

During a lecture on reproduction, a student nurse asks the instructor what determines the sex of a fetus. Accurate information in response to this question would be: A. "The sex of the fetus is not determined until the eighth week of gestation." B. "The fertilization of the zygote is the point at which sex is determined." C. "Males have one less pair of chromosomes than females." D. "Sex is determined by the chromosomes contributed by the ovum."

B. lower birth weights.

During a prenatal visit, the nurse discusses with a client the effects of smoking on the fetus. When compared with nonsmokers, mothers who smoke during pregnancy tend to produce infants who have A. lower Apgar scores. B. lower birth weights. C. respiratory distress. D. a higher rate of congenital anomalies.

D. secretory phase

During which of the following phase of the menstrual cycle is it ideal for implantation of a fertilized egg to occur? A. ischemic phase B. mentrual phase C. proliferative phase D. secretory phase

C. decrease gastric acidity During the second trimester, the reduction in gastric acidity in conjunction with pressure from the growing uterus and smooth muscle relaxation, can cause heartburn and flatulence. HCG levels increase in the first, not the second, trimester. Decrease intestinal motility would most likely be the cause of constipation and bloating. Estrogen levels decrease in the second trimester.

Heartburn and flatulence, common in the second trimester, are most likely the result of which of the following? A. increased plasma HCG levels B. decreased intestinal motility C. decrease gastric acidity D. elevated estrogen levels

D. 960 mg 600 mg/ 5 mL = x mg/ 4 mL2400 = 5xx= 2400/5x= 480 mg per dose x 2 = 960 mg in 24 hours.

Pediazole is a suspension medication that contains 200 mg erythromycin and 600 mg sulfisoxazole per 5 mL. The physician orders Pediazole 4 mL PO every 12 hours. How many mg of sulfisoxazole is this client receiving in a 24-hour period? A. 160 mg B. 320 mg C. 480 mg D. 960 mg

C. 75

The LPN is preparing to administer Solu-medrol 40 mg mixed in 150 mL of sodium chloride via intravenous piggyback. The medication is to be administered over 30 minutes. Using the tubing with a drop factor of 15 ggts/mL, what would the LPN calculate the rate to be in drops per minute? A. 40 B. 50 C. 75 D. 150

A. gestational diabetes

The healthcare provider prescribes terbutaline for a client in preterm labor. Before initiating this prescription, it is most important for the nurse to assess the client for which of condition. A. Gestational diabetes B. Elevated BP C. UTI D. Swelling in lower extremities

C. follicle stimulating hormone

The hormone responsible for the development of the ovum during the menstrual cycle is? A. estrogen B. progesterone C. follicle stimulating hormone D. leutenizing hormone

A) Report findings to the Dr.

The nurse assess a high risk neonate under a radiant warmer who has an umbilical catheter and identifies that the neonates feet are blanched. What nursing should be implemented? A) Report findings to the Dr. B) Wrap feet loosely in a prewarmed blanket C) Elevate feet 15 degrees D) Place socks on infant

D. The nurse notices the client's neck and chest is bright red While administering vancomycin the nurse should know to monitor the client carefully for the development of Red Man Syndrome or anaphylactic shock. The common side effects of this medicine are pruritus, flushing and erythema to the head, neck, and upper body.

The nurse has initiated the administration of vancomycin via IV piggyback . In which of the following situations should the nurse recognize that the client may be experiencing a fatal reaction to this medication? A. The client start coughing B. The client complains of pain at the intravenous catheter insertion site C. The nurse hears the client snoring from the hall D. The nurse notices the client's neck and chest is bright red

C. Eliminating substance use during pregnancy Use of substances during pregnancy can lead to severe fetal or neonatal abnormalities, complications, and death. The primary goal of nursing care should be prevention or elimination of substance use during pregnancy.

The nurse identifies substance abuse behaviors exhibited by a pregnant client during an initial prenatal screening. While promoting a therapeutic and accepting environment, the care managment by the nurse would be MOST appropriate if focused on which of the following? A. Discouraging substance use during pregnancy B. Termination of the pregnancy at an early stage C. Eliminating substance use during pregnancy D. Setting boundaries with the client in regards to substance use

C) Flat nasal bridge

The nurse is assessing a 12 hour old infant with maternal history of frequent alcohol consumption during pregnancy. Which finding should the nurse report that is most suggestive of fetal alcohol syndrome? A) An extra digit on the left hand B) Asymmetrical bulging fontanels C) Flat nasal bridge D) Corneal clouding

A) Diaphragmatic with chest retractions B) Grunting heard with stethescope C) Chest breathing with nasal flaring

The nurse is assessing a full term newborn's breathing pattern. Which findings should the nurse assess further? (select all) A) Diaphragmatic with chest retractions B) Grunting heard with stethescope C) Chest breathing with nasal flaring D) HR of 158 E) Abdominal with synchronous chest movements F) Shallow with an irregular rhythm

B) Diaphragmatic with chest retraction E) Grunting heard with a stethoscope F) Chest breathing with nasal flaring

The nurse is assessing a full-term newborn's breathing pattern. Which findings should the nurse assess further? (Select all) A) Shallow with an irregular rhythm B) Diaphragmatic with chest retraction C) Rate of 58 per minute D) Abdominal with synchronous chest movements E) Grunting heard with a stethoscope F) Chest breathing with nasal flaring

B) Monitor for premature ventricular contractions

The nurse is assisting with the insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter (PAC) for a client at 32 weeks who has severe preeclampsia with pulmonary edema. As the PAC enters the right ventricle, what is the priority nursing assessment? A) Observe for maternal BP changes B) Monitor for premature ventricular contractions C) Assess fetal response to the procedure D) Note the complaint of sudden chest pain

c .January 30-31.

The nurse is counseling a woman who wants to become pregnant. The woman tells the nurse that she has a 36-day menstrual cycle and the first day of her last menstrual period was January 8. The nurse correctly calculates that the woman's next fertile period is: a. January 14-15. b. January 22-23. c. January 30-31. d. February 6-7.

B. Between 16 and 20 weeks' gestation A pregnant woman usually can detect fetal movement (quickening) between 16 and 20 weeks' gestation. Before 16 weeks, the fetus is not developed enough for the woman to detect movement. After 20 weeks, the fetus continues to gain weight steadily, the lungs start to produce surfactant, the brain is grossly formed, and myelination of the spinal cord begins.

The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a patient who is 8 weeks pregnant. The nurse should tell the patient that she can expect to feel the fetus move at which time? A. Between 10 and 12 weeks' gestation B. Between 16 and 20 weeks' gestation C. Between 21 and 23 weeks' gestation D. Between 24 and 26 weeks' gestation

C. April 12 To determine the EDD when the date of the client's LMP is known use Nagele rule. To the first day of the LMP, add 7 days, subtract 3 months, and add 1 year (if applicable) to arrive at the EDD as follows: 5 + 7 = 12 (July) minus 3 = 4 (April). Therefore, the client's EDD is April 12.

A client LMP began July 5. Her EDD should be which of the following? A. January 2 B. March 28 C. April 12 D. October 12

c. Teach the client why keeping prenatal care appointments is important.

A 23-year-old client who is receiving Medicaid benefits is pregnant with her first child. Based on knowledge of the statistics related to infant mortality, which plan should the nurse implement with this client? a. Refer the client to a social worker to arrange for home care. b. Recommend perinatal care from an obstetrician, not a nurse-midwife. c. Teach the client why keeping prenatal care appointments is important. d. Advise the client that neonatal intensive care may be needed.

C. Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness.

A 26-year-old, gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted to the hospital at 28-weeks gestation in preterm labor. She is given 3 doses of terbutaline sulfate (Brethine) 0.25 mg subcutaneously to stop her labor contractions. The nurse plans to monitor for which primary side effect of terbutaline sulfate? A. Drowsiness and bradycardia. B. Depressed reflexes and increased respirations. C. Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness. D. A flushed, warm feeling and a dry mouth

D. Urine output 90 ml/4 hours.

A 35-year-old primigravida client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion. Which assessment data indicates to the nurse that the client is experiencing magnesium sulfate toxicity? A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+. B. Blood pressure 140/90. C. Respiratory rate 18/minute. D. Urine output 90 ml/4 hours.

A. Drink 2 quarts of fluid during the day C. Performing Kegel exercises E. Limiting fluid intake during the evening

A 36 weeks gestation pregnant woman is complaining of urinary urgency and frequency. The nurse explained that the enlarging fetus is pressing the bladder which causes frequent urination. This is normally occuring during the first and third trimesters of pregnancy. The nurse advices the patient to do the following measures to prevent urinary frequency. Select all the necessary measures that the nurse can provide to the patient. A. Drink 2 quarts of fluid during the day B. Engaging in a regular exercise C. Performing Kegel exercises D. Soaking in a warm sitz bath E. Limiting fluid intake during the evening

A. transition labor with contractions every 2 mins, lasting 90 seconds each.

A 42 week gestational client is receiving an intravenous infusion of oxytocin(Pitocin) to augment early labor. The nurse should discontinue the oxytocin infusion for with pattern of contractions? A. Transition labor with contractions every 2 mins, lasting 90 seconds each. B. Early labor with contractions every 5 min, lasting 40 seconds each. C. Active labor with contractions every 31 mins, lasting 60 seconds each. D. Active labor with contraction every 2 to 3 mins, lasting 70 to 80 seconds each.