Patho Exam 2

Which substance activates the complement cascade? A. Antigen B. Histamine C. Leukotrienes D. Prostaglandins

Antigen

Which term is used to describe the histologic characterization of tumor cells? A. Staging B. Grading C. Cachexia D. Angiogenesis

Grading

An effective HIV vaccine is difficult to produce, primarily because A. HIV is not immunogenic B. B cells are unable to produce antibodies against HIV C. HIV mutates frequently D. reverse transcriptase cleaves to the vaccine

HIV mutates frequently

Which type of HIV virus causes most infections in the United States and Europe? A. HIV type 1 B. HIV type 2 C. HIV type A D. HIV type B

HIV type 1

An HIV-positive patient is hospitalized for evaluation of symptoms of progressive weakness, dyspnea, weight loss, and low-grade fever. A biopsy of lung tissue reveals Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. This diagnosis means that the patient A. has AIDS. B. has less than 2 years to live. C. cannot be treated. D. was an intravenous drug abuser.

Has AIDS

A patient with metastatic lung cancer wants to know her chances for survival. Which response is correct? A. "Lung cancer is always fatal." B. "Lung cancer has about a 15% survival rate." C. "Lung cancer is highly curable when diagnosed early." D. "Lung cancer death rate has decreased significantly, as with all other cancers."

Lung cancer has about a 15% survival rate

Which specialized cells are associated with the immune response? A. Monocytes B. Neutrophils C. Macrophages D. Lymphocytes

Lymphocytes

Interleukin-1, interleukin-6, and tumor necrosis factor-á are inflammatory cytokines secreted by A. plasma cells B. neutrophils C. lymphocytes D. macrophages

Macrophages

The most common tumor-suppressor gene defect identified in cancer cells is A. Rb B. P53 C. DCC D. APC

p53

HIV replicates very quickly from the onset of infection. What is the major site of HIV replication? A. Vaginal mucosa B. Anal mucosa C. GI tract D. Respiratory tract

GI tract

A patient's white blood cell count indicates a shift to the left. This indicates that the client's A. major white blood cell supply has shifted to the left side of the body B. main blood circulatory pathway is through the left side of the heart C. immature neutrophil count is increased as a result of a bacterial infection D. white blood cell count is greater than their red blood cell count.

Immature neutrophil count is increased as a result of a bacterial infection

Which clinical finding is most indicative of an acute bacterial infection? A. Increased (band) neutrophils B. Elevated temperature C. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate D. Elevated WBC count

Increased (band) neutrophils

The local warmth that occurs during an inflammatory response is the result of A. substances liberated from injured cells B. increased blood flow C. leukocytosis D. swelling

Increased blood flow

After bronchoscopy and histologic examination of a suspected tumor, your patient is diagnosed with primary bronchial carcinoma. Thus, the tumor A. is benign B. is malignant C. is secondary to cancer elsewhere in the body D. has spread

Is malignant

After surgery to remove a lung tumor, your patient is scheduled for chemotherapy, which will A. selectively kill tumor cells B. stimulate immune cells to fight the cancer C. have minimal side effects D. kill rapidly dividing cells

Kill rapidly dividing cells

Familial retinoblastoma involves the transmission of what from parent to offspring? A. Mutant tumor-suppressor gene B. Cancer-causing virus C. Oncogene D. Extra chromosome

Mutant tumor-suppressor gene

Which is the oncogene that allows cells to grow indefinitely? A. Myc B. Ras C. RB D. pRb

Myc

Abnormal new cellular growth is referred to as A. apoptosis B. neoplasia C. proto-oncogene D. suppressor genes

Neoplasia

Breast cancer in women who have the breast cancer gene A. occurs at an earlier age B. is more likely to be unilateral C. is more common than non-inherited breast cancer D. is more responsive to treatment

Occurs at an earlier age

In what way do proto-oncogenes become activated oncogenes? A. A proto-oncogene within the cell stimulates hyperplasia. B. Certain retroviruses enter host cells, altering their DNA structure C. Excessive ATP activity causes the proto-oncogene to become abnormally active. D. Chromosome replication errors cause fewer copies of the proto-oncogene to be included in the genome

Certain retroviruses enter host cells, altering their DNA structure

HIV infection causes immunodeficiency because it A. directly inhibits antibody production by B cells B. causes the destruction of T-helper cells C. causes excessive production of cytotoxic T cells D. blocks the ability of macrophages to present antigens

Causes the destruction of T-helper cells

Cancer grading is based on A. tumor size B. local invasion C. cell differentiation D. metastasis

Cell differentiation

Active immunity involves (Select all that apply.) A. injection of preformed human antibodies B. injection of human immune globulin C. injection with preformed animal antibodies D. vaccines with dead or altered organisms E. active infections

D, E

Which statement is true regarding HIV testing? A. The first test is electrophoresis B. Western blot test is the initial test C. The new rapid finger stick test can provide results in 20 minutes D. All patients in whom positive test results are obtained must have ELISA performed

The new rapid finger stick test can provide results in 20 minutes

Which statement accurately describes the proliferation of cancer cells? A. The resting phase of the cell cycle is prolonged. B. Cancer cells grow at the same rate as normal cells. C. The number of developing cells exceeds the number of dying cells D. The more anaplastic the tumor is, the slower the growth rate of cells

The number of developing cells exceeds the number of dying cells

Which statements are true regarding cancer? (Select all that apply.) A. The greater the undifferentiated cell count, the more aggressive the cancer B. Malignant tumors have the potential to kill the host C. Benign tumors grow rapidly than malignant ones D. Anaplasia means more differentiated cells E. Metastasis means less differentiated cells

A, B

The immune system disorder associated with HIV is A. an overactive B-cell system. B. proliferation of immature WBCs (blasts). C. a deficiency of T-helper lymphocytes. D. cancerous growth of lymph tissue

A deficiency of T-helper lymphocytes

The mononuclear phagocyte system consists of (Select all that apply.) A. monocytes and tissue macrophages B. dendritic cells C. bone marrow stem cells D. antibody-secreting plasma cells E. Basophils

A, B

Passive immunity is provided by (Select all that apply.) A. transfer of preformed human antibodies B. injection of human immune globulin C. injection with preformed animal antibodies D. vaccines with dead or altered organisms E. active infections

A, B, C

Which retrovirus is believed to cause cancer? (Select all that apply.) A. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) B. Human T-lymphocyte virus type I C. Epstein-Barr virus D. Parvovirus E. Poxvirus

A, B, C

Children with a diagnosis of HIV are prone to problems involving which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. Height B. Weight C. Math skills D. Motor function E. Visual function

A, B, C, D

Patients who have advanced cancer develop cachexia because of which of the following reasons? (Select all that apply.) A. They have an increased basal metabolic rate B. Nausea and vomiting are common complications C. Cancer cells produce an enzyme that robs normal cells of nutrients D. Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and other immune cytokines are produced E. Nutritional supplementation by enteral or parenteral routes has proven to be ineffective

A, B, C, D

Which is important for cell attachment? (Select all that apply.) A. CD4 receptor B. CXCR4 C. gp120 D. CCR5 E. p17

A, B, C, D

Characteristics of complement include (Select all that apply.) A. stimulating chemotaxis B. lysing target cells C. having multiple plasma proteins D. being synthesized in the bone marrow E. enhancing phagocytosis.

A, B, C, E

Deficits in immune system function occur in cancer as a result of (Select all that apply.) A. chemotherapy B. cancer cells C. cancer metastasis to bone marrow D. immunotherapy E. malnutrition

A, B, C, E

Functions of antibodies include (Select all that apply.) A. antigen agglutination B. antigen precipitation C. opsonization D. phagocytosis E. complement activation

A, B, C, E

Which statement regarding either HIV-1 or HIV-2 is true? (Select all that apply.) A. HIV-1 is the causative organism for most AIDS diagnosed in the United States B. Both HIV-1 and HIV2 are similar in structure and function C. HIV-2 produces a milder form of the disease than HIV-1 D. The latency period of HIV-1 is shorter than HIV-2 E. Both HIV-1 and HIV-2 are found worldwide

A, B, C, E

Characteristics of telomerase include (Select all that apply.) A. repairs the end caps of chromosomes B. contributes to cancer cell immortality C. is deficient in cancer cells D. activity allows a cell to replicate indefinitely

A, B, D

Which modes of transmission occur with HIV infection? (Select all that apply.) A. Sexual transmission B. Parenteral transmission C. Fomite transmission to intact skin D. Perinatal transmission to fetus E. Inhalant transmission

A, B, D

Side effects of chemotherapy include (Select all that apply.) A. anemia B. nausea C. leukocytosis D. bleeding E. infections

A, B, D, E

Paraneoplastic syndromes in cancer involve excessive production of substances by multiple means. A common substance found in excessive amounts resulting from cancer paraneoplastic syndromes is A. insulin B. tumor necrosis factor C. potassium D. calcium

Calcium

Malignant neoplasms of epithelial origin are known as A. lymphoma B. sarcomas C. carcinomas D. adenomas

Carcinomas

Which is a true statement regarding metastasis? A. Increased cell-to-cell adhesion helps metastasis. B. Lack of proteases and collagenases aids in metastasis. C. Cells must first escape the basement membrane of tissue D. Penetration of the basement membrane of the vessel occurs first.

Cells must first escape the basement membrane of tissue

Your patient eats "lots of fat," leads a "stressful" life, and has smoked "about two packs a day for the last 40 years." Her chronic morning cough recently worsened, and she was diagnosed with a lung mass. The most likely contributing factor for development of lung cancer in this patient is A. high-fat diet B. urban pollutants C. stressful lifestyle D. cigarette smoking

Cigarette smoking

The spleen is an important defense against infection, because it A. activates the complement cascade B. initiates inflammation C. controls phagocytosis D. filters the blood

Filters the blood

What condition is associated with initial HIV infection? A. Decreased CD8 T cells B. Flulike symptoms with rash C. Seroconversion within 3 to 6 days D. CD4 T-cell count less than 200 per µL

Flulike symptoms with rash

Which statement is true regarding HIV? A. Most women with AIDS were infected from IV drug use B. Heterosexuals constitute the largest population with AIDS C. Homosexual men constitute the largest population with AIDS D. Intravenous drug users constitute the largest population with AIDS

Homosexual men constitute the largest population with AIDS

Which HIV-positive patient should be given a diagnosis of AIDS? A. One who has a CD4 count of 300/µL B. One who has neuropathy C. One who has Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. One who has genital herpes

One who has Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A patient diagnosed with cancer presents with Cushing syndrome secondary to excessive adrenocorticotropic hormone secretion. This syndrome is described as A. ionizing B. hypercalcemia C. opportunistic infection D. paraneoplastic syndrome

Paraneoplastic syndrome

The membrane attack complex formed by complement is similar in function to A. CD4+ B. granzymes C. CD8 D. perforin

Perforin

Which process will provide active immunity? A. Hepatitis B immune globulin for a needle-stick injury B. Antibodies transferred through breast feeding C. Polio vaccine to prevent poliomyelitis D. Tetanus antitoxin

Polio vaccine to prevent poliomyelitis

Which is a characteristic of cancer cells? A. Predictable, uniform cell division B. Evidence of cellular cohesiveness C. Uniform size and shape D. Poor differentiation

Poor differentiation

Functions of B cells include A. synthesizing antibodies B. secreting cytokines C. killing antigen-presenting cells D. stimulating B cells E. killing virally infected cells

Synthesizing antibodies

Which statement regarding tobacco use and lung cancer is true? (Select all that apply.) A. Lung cancer accounts for 30% of all cancer deaths B. Cancer deaths attributable to lung cancer have declined since 1930 C. Lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer deaths in men and women D. The survival rate of patients with lung cancer is the lowest among all cancers E. Tobacco use has been linked to cancer of the pancreas, bladder, and kidneys as well

A, C, D, E

Which statement(s) are true regarding replication of the HIV virus? (Select all that apply.) A. Accuracy of transcription is poor with multiple mutations B. HIV viruses that enter the cells must be converted to double-stranded DNA C. The conversion of the DNA is made by the reverse transcriptase from the viral DNA D. The DNA is a template copied by the DNA polymerase to make a second DNA strand E. The process of HIV replication is responsible for the ineffectiveness of many antiviral drugs

A, C, D, E

HIV can be transmitted by which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. Breast milk B. The aerosol route C. The exchange of saliva D. A mother, to the fetus, during delivery E. Sharing a hypodermic needle

A, D, E

The first line of defense against disease is provided by which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. Intact skin B. Phagocytes C. T lymphocytes D. B lymphocytes E. Mucous membranes

A, E

Proto-oncogenes A. are the same as oncogenes B. are normal cellular genes that promote growth C. lead to abnormal tumor-suppressor genes D. result from severe mutational events

Are normal cellular genes that promote growth

Functions of T cells include (Select all that apply.) A. synthesizing antibodies B. secreting cytokines C. killing antigen-presenting cells D. stimulating of B cells

B, C, D

Antibodies respond to antigens by which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. Forming bacterial toxins to neutralize antigens B. Functioning as antitoxins by neutralizing bacterial toxin C. Causing forming large complexes that precipitate out of solution D. Opsonizing antigens to make them more recognizable to phagocytes E. Initiating complement activation to help antibodies and phagocytic cells to attack pathogens

B, C, D, E

Opportunistic infections are a hallmark of HIV and AIDS. Which infections are considered opportunistic? (Select all that apply.) A. Acinetobacter B. Cytomegalovirus C. Candida albicans D. Pneumocystis carinii E. Clostridium difficile

B, C, D, E

Proteins that are increased in the bloodstream during acute inflammation are called A. membrane attack complexes B. selectin receptors C. acute phase proteins D. major histocompatibility complexes

Acute phase proteins

The laboratory analysis conducted on a child with chronic nasal drainage reveals an elevated number of eosinophils on a white blood cell differential. Based on this finding, which is most likely the cause of the nasal drainage? A. Bacterial infection B. Viral infection C. Chronic inflammation D. Allergies

Allergies

What term refers to a cell's decreased ability to fight new infections? A. Virion B. Anergy C. Apoptosis D. Syncytium

Anergy

Immunity to a specific organism can be determined by A. active phase protein count B. antibody titer C. erythrocyte sedimentation rate D. WBC count

Antibody titer

The "classical pathway" for activation of the complement cascade is triggered by A. activation of C3. B. inflammation. C. first recognition of an antigen. D. antigen-antibody complexes

Antigen-antibody complexes

Which statement about oncogene activation is true? (Select all that apply.) A. Bacteria do not carry genetic material into the cell genome. B. Oncogenes may be introduced into the host cell by a retrovirus C. Proto-oncogenes may undergo a mutation thus becoming overly active D. DNA sequences that normally suppress proto-oncogene expression may be inactivated E. An error may occur in the replication of the chromosome such that extra copies are produced

B, C, D, E

Which statement(s) are true regarding postexposure prophylaxis? (Select all that apply.) A. All exposed individuals require a protease inhibitor drug regimen B. Prophylaxis for a significant exposure should be started immediately C. Postexposure medication treatment last at least 4 weeks, or even longer D. Two or more medications may be included in the medication regiment E. Exposure, sexual or otherwise, requires similar medication protocols

B, C, D, E

Which drug is a protease inhibitor? (Select all that apply.) A. Lamivudine (Epivir) B. Nelfinavir (Viracept) C. Atazanavir (Reyataz) D. Zidovudine (Retrovir) E. Fosamprenavir (Lexiva)

B, C, E

Activation of the complement cascade results in (Select all that apply.) A. antibody production B. inflammation C. immunosuppression D. autoimmunity E. chemotaxis

B, E

HIV infection of T-helper cells is facilitated by attachment of the viral envelope protein gp120 to A. CD8 proteins on suppressor cells B. reverse transcriptase. C. CD4 proteins on helper cells. D. the macrophage lipid bilayer.

CD4 proteins on helper cells

Antigen-presenting cells function to A. display foreign antigen on their cell surfaces bound to MHC. B. stimulate cytokine production by macrophages. C. phagocytose and degrade foreign antigens. D. initiate the complement cascade by way of the alternative pathway

Display foreign antigen on their cell surfaces bound to MHC

Which offers the best prognosis for the cure of cancer? A. Surgery B. Radiation C. Early detection D. Chemotherapeutic agents

Early detection

Leukocytosis with a "shift to the left" refers to A. elevated segmented neutrophils B. elevated immature neutrophils C. decreased monocytes D. decreased immature neutrophils

Elevated immature neutrophils

In general, a cancer cell that is more tissue-specific differentiated is more likely to be aggressive. True/ False

False

A child with ill-fitting shoes developed a vesicle (small blister) that burst, releasing clear watery fluid. The school nurse would document this drainage as A. serous B. purulent C. fibrinous D. hemorrhagic

Serous

Which statement about HIV testing is correct? A. Any patient can be tested for HIV with or without their informed consent B. A negative HIV test ensures absence of infection C. The false-negative rate for HIV testing is zero D. Significant exposure to infected blood or body fluids requires HIV testing

Significant exposure to infected blood or body fluids requires HIV testing

The clinical latency period after HIV infection is a time when no A. viral replication occurs B. decline in CD4 lymphocytes occurs C. virus is detectable in the blood D. significant symptoms of immunodeficiency occur

Significant symptoms of immunodeficiency occur

Which drugs are used for the management of HIV? (Select all that apply.) A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors B. DNA polymerase inhibitors C. Protease inhibitors D. Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors E. CD4 analogs

A, C, D

Which statement(s) are true regarding the HIV virus structure? (Select all that apply.) A. There are two strands of RNA B. The nucleocapsid or core is composed of p17 C. The gag gene encodes the core antigen proteins D. The pol gene encodes reverse transcriptase proteins E. Between the envelope and core is a protein layer called p24

A, C, D

Which statement best describes the etiologic development and transmission of AIDS? A. AIDS is caused by a retrovirus and transmitted through body fluids. B. The mechanism of AIDS transmission is unknown; therefore, AIDS is considered to be highly contagious. C. AIDS is an autoimmune disease triggered by a homosexual lifestyle. D. AIDS is caused by a virus that can be transmitted only by sexual contact.

AIDS is caused by a retrovirus and transmitted through body fluids

Tumor markers (Select all that apply.) A. are found only in the blood B. are produced by normal cells C. help determine cancer origin D. help identify progression of cancer E. include prostatic-specific antigen

B, C, D, E

Which gene has been identified as specifically contributing to some types of breast cancer? A. Rb B. p53 C. VHL D. BRCA1

BRCA1

The laboratory analysis conducted on a patient with acute-onset fever and malaise reveals an elevated neutrophil count. This finding suggests that the problem is most likely a A. viral infection B. sinus infection C. parasitic infection D. bacterial infection

Bacterial infection

A series of events occur during acute inflammation resulting from cellular injury. Which event occurs initially? A. Brief constriction of vessel walls B. Phagocytosis results in pus formation C. Neutrophils migrate to the injured area D. Plasma proteins and water move into the interstitial space

Brief constriction of vessel walls

Retroviruses are associated with human cancers, including A. Burkitt lymphoma B. Hodgkin's lymphoma C. pancreatic cancer D. hepatic cancer

Burkitt lymphoma

A patient is infected with the retrovirus HIV. The patient may have contracted HIV as it was transmitted via (Select all that apply.) A. saliva. B. tears. C. semen. D. cervical secretions. E. cerebrospinal fluid

C, D

Which is an example of active immunity? (Select all that apply.) A. Placental transfer of maternal antibodies B. Injection of pooled gamma globulin C. Yearly flu vaccination D. Pneumonia vaccine E. Breast feeding

C, D

Which statement regarding cancer deaths is true? (Select all that apply.) A. It is the leading cause of death. B. Most deaths occur in people age 75 and older. C. The 5-year combined survival rate for cancer is 68% D. Men have a one in two lifetime risk of developing cancer E. Women have a one in three lifetime risk of developing cancer

C, D, E

Your patient is scheduled for a staging procedure. She wants to know what that means. The correct response is which of the following? A. It is a procedure for determining the extent of tumor spread B. It is a histologic examination of tissues to determine the degree of tumor differentiation C. It is based on exploratory surgery D. It is biochemical testing of tumor cells to determine the genetic basis of the tumor

It is a procedure for determining the extent of tumor spread

Which of these statements best describes the purpose of the TNM classification system? A. It tracks the progress of the disease and the effectiveness of treatment. B. It provides tumor data for the CDC C. It enables the physician to determine the underlying cause of the malignancy. D. It provides information for ongoing research efforts to develop a cure for cancer

It provides tumor data for the CDC

The primary function of eosinophils is to A. kill parasitic helminths (worms) B. kill bacteria C. stop viral replication D. phagocytize fungi

Kill parasitic helminths (worms)

Which condition explains the genetic basis for cancer development? A. Decreased immune function B. Exposure to ionizing radiation C. Infection by oncogenic bacteria D. Loss of or defect in tumor suppressor genes

Loss of or defect in tumor suppressor genes

As of 2014, _____ individuals worldwide have been infected with HIV infection. A. 100,000 B. 1 million C. slightly less than 16 million D. nearly 35 million

Nearly 35 million

A patient receiving zidovudine and a protease inhibitor to manage HIV infection is found to have an undetectable viral load. This means that the A. dosage of both agents should be reduced B. zidovudine can be discontinued C. therapy is effective D. HIV virus has been eliminated

Therapy is effective

What is the role of the mast cells in the inflammatory process? A. They form antibodies to fight infection B. They release histamine, a potent vasodilator C. They remove microbes and cellular debris through the process of phagocytosis D. They release fibronectin to form a meshwork trap and stimulate the intrinsic clotting cascade

They release histamine, a potent vasodilator

Which term is used to describe the deficiency in circulating platelets? A. Anemia B. Leukopenia C. Leukocytosis D. Thrombocytopenia

Thrombocytopenia

The hypermetabolic state leading to cachexia in terminal cancer is thought to be because of A. tumor necrosis factor B. angiogenesis C. loss of ATP production D. pain medications

Tumor necrosis factor

Which type of cell does not contain the CD4 receptor? A. Langerhans B. Cervical C. Vaginal D. T

Vaginal

The primary function of kinins is A. phagocytosis of antigens B. production of antibodies C. to limit immune reactions D. vasodilation to enhance inflammation

Vasodilation to enhance inflammation