Patho Exam 2 Test Bank (16, 22, 30, 31, 41)

12. Which of the following clients' signs and symptoms would allow a clinician to be most justified in ruling out stroke as a cause? An adult A) has had a gradual onset of weakness, headache, and visual disturbances over the last 2 days. B) has experienced a sudden loss of balance and slurred speech. C) has vomited and complained of a severe headache. D) states that his left arm and leg are numb, and gait is consequently unsteady.

Ans: A Feedback: A cardinal trait of the manifestations of stroke is that the onset is sudden, and a gradual onset of symptoms over 2 days would suggest an alternative etiology. Ataxia, slurred speech, and unilateral numbness are associated with stroke, with sudden vomiting and headache being particularly indicative of a hemorrhagic CVA.

9. Following a collision while mountain biking, the diagnostic workup of a 22-year-old male has indicated the presence of an acute subdural hematoma. Which of the following pathophysiological processes most likely underlies his diagnosis? A) Blood has accumulated between the man's dura and subarachnoid space. B) Vessels have burst between the client's skull and his dura. C) A traumatic lesion in the frontal or temporal lobe has resulted in increased ICP. D) Blood has displaced CSF in the ventricles as a consequence of his coup-contrecoup injury.

Ans: A Feedback: A subdural hematoma develops in the area between the dura and the arachnoid space, while epidural hematomas exist between the skull and dura. Intracerebral hematomas are located most often in the frontal or temporal lobe, and the ventricles are not directly involved in a subdural hematoma.

4. When discussing the sequence of clot dissolution, the science instructor will talk about which item that begins the process? A) Plasminogen B) Dabigatran C) Platelets D) alpha2-plasmin inhibitor

Ans: A Feedback: As with clot formation, clot dissolution requires a sequence of steps controlled by activators and inhibitors. Plasminogen, the proenzyme for the fibrinolytic process, normally is present in the blood in its inactive form. It is converted to its active form, plasmin, by plasminogen activators formed in the vascular endothelium, liver, and kidneys. Dabigatran is an anticoagulant. Platelets actually help cells stick together or adhere.

14. Misinterpreting her physician's instructions, a 69-year-old woman with a history of peripheral artery disease has been taking two 325 mg tablets of aspirin daily. How has this most likely affected her hemostatic status? A) Irreversible acetylation of platelet cyclooxygenase activity has occurred. B) The patient's prostaglandin (TXA2) levels are abnormally high. C) She is at risk of developing secondary immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). D) The binding of an antibody to platelet factor IV produces immune complexes.

Ans: A Feedback: Aspirin can cause inhibition of platelet aggregation that lasts for the life of the platelet. High TXA2 levels would be associated with increased coagulability. ITP would not result from aspirin intake, and binding of an antibody to platelet factor IV is associated with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.

2. A 71-year-old male patient with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) and peripheral vascular disease (PVD) has been advised by his family physician to begin taking 81 mg aspirin once daily. Which of the following statements best captures an aspect of the underlying rationale for the physician's suggestion? A) Platelet aggregation can be precluded through inhibition of prostaglandin production by aspirin. B) Aspirin helps to inhibit ADP action and minimizes platelet plug formation. C) Aspirin can reduce unwanted platelet adhesion by inhibiting TXA2 synthesis. D) Aspirin inhibits the conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin and consequent platelet plug formation.

Ans: A Feedback: Aspirin prevents platelet plug formation by inhibiting synthesis of prostaglandins that mediate clot formation. Aspirin does not influence ADP, TXA2 synthesis, or fibrinogen conversion.

7. The first-time parents of an infant girl 2 days postpartum are distressed at the jaundiced appearance of her skin and are eager for both an explanation and treatment for the problem. Which of the following responses by their physician is most accurate? A) "Your daughter's young liver is unable to get rid of the waste products from old red blood cells." B) "Because your daughter's kidneys are so small, they have a hard time getting rid of the wastes that are always accumulating in her blood." C) "Nearly half of all infants have this problem, and while it is distressing to look at, it is largely harmless and will resolve in time." D) "This is a sign that your baby needs more milk than she is currently getting, and increased breast-feeding will act to flush these pigments out of her system."

Ans: A Feedback: Bilirubin is formed from the breakdown of hemoglobin in red blood cells. Normally about two thirds of the unconjugated bilirubin produced by a term newborn can be effectively cleared by the liver. However, the relative immaturity of the newborn liver and the shortened life span of the fetal red blood cells may predispose the term newborn to hyperbilirubinemia. Bilirubin clearance is not the domain of the kidneys, and treatment is often necessary. Jaundice can sometimes be addressed by increasing breast-feeding, but it is not a sign in and of itself of insufficient feeding.

19. A 30-year-old woman who has given birth 12 hours prior is displaying signs and symptoms of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The client's husband is confused as to why a disease of coagulation can result in bleeding. Which of the nurse's following statements best characterizes DIC? A) "So much clotting takes place that there are no available clotting components left, and bleeding ensues." B) "Massive clotting causes irritation, friction, and bleeding in the small blood vessels." C) "Excessive activation of clotting causes an overload of vital organs, resulting in bleeding." D) "The same hormones and bacteria that cause clotting also cause bleeding."

Ans: A Feedback: DIC hemorrhage results from an insufficiency of clotting proteins after large-scale coagulation. It is not a result of physical irritation, organ overload, or bacteria and hormones.

1. A female patient presented to her primary care physician with classic signs and symptoms of Cushing syndrome. Upon testing, it was discovered that the patient had vaginal small cell carcinoma. How can the health care providers explain her Cushing syndrome signs and symptoms to this patient? A) "Your tumor in your vagina is secreting a hormone called adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which is responsible for these signs and symptoms." B) "We are going to have to run some more tests. We think you might have a problem with your pituitary gland." C) "There is no connection between the Cushing syndrome and the vaginal carcinoma. You have two very distinct problems occurring at the same time." D) "We need to check your thyroid. Your Cushing syndrome may be caused by hypofunction of this gland."

Ans: A Feedback: Hyperfunction is usually associated with excessive hormone production. This can result from excessive stimulation and hyperplasia of the endocrine gland or from a hormone-producing tumor. A clinical example of this phenomenon is evidenced by the case of a woman with vaginal small cell carcinoma who also presented with Cushing syndrome. After testing, it was determined that the tumor is secreting ACTH. In this situation, the cause is not related to a pituitary problem. There is a connection between Cushing syndrome and the carcinoma. The thyroid gland is not responsible for Cushing syndrome.

12. Following a course of measles, a 5-year-old girl developed scattered bruising over numerous body surfaces and was diagnosed with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). As part of her diagnostic workup, blood work was performed. Which of the following results is most likely to be considered unexpected by the health care team? A) Increased thrombopoietin levels B) Decreased platelet count C) Normal vitamin K levels D) Normal leukocyte levels

Ans: A Feedback: In ITP, thrombopoietin levels are not elevated. Platelet levels would be expected to be low, and vitamin K and leukocyte levels would be unlikely abnormal.

3. A midwife who is providing care for a woman during her first pregnancy is assessing for intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR) during an early prenatal checkup. Which of the following questions best addresses the risks for IUGR? A) "What does your typical diet look like over the course of a day?" B) "What is the highest level of education that you've finished?" C) "Are there many people in your life that you can count on for help and support?" D) "How would you describe your mood since you've been pregnant?"

Ans: A Feedback: Nutrition is a key aspect in the prevention of IUGR. Educational level, the presence or absence of support systems, and psychosocial health may all have ramifications that could affect fetal development, but they have a less direct bearing than maternal nutrition.

3. A nurse is providing care for a patient who has been admitted with a newly diagnosed bilateral pleural effusion. Which of the following findings from the nurse's initial assessment of the patient is incongruent with the patient's diagnosis and would require further investigation? A) The client complains of sharp pain exacerbated by deep inspiration. B) The client's breath sounds are diminished on auscultation. C) Pulse oximetry indicates that the client is hypoxemic. D) The client complains of dyspnea and increased work of breathing.

Ans: A Feedback: Pleural effusion is not normally associated with pain, and intense pain that is worsened by deep breathing would necessitate further investigation. Diminished breath sounds, hypoxemia, and dyspnea are common findings associated with pleural effusion.

A nurse on a medical unit is providing care for a 37-year-old female patient who has a diagnosis of Graves disease. Which of the following treatments would the nurse most likely anticipate providing for the client? A) -Adrenergic-blocking medications to reduce sympathetic nervous stimulation B) Administration of levothyroxine to supplement thyroid function C) Calcium channel blocking medications to reduce heart rate and cardiac risks D) Administration of somatostatin analogs to inhibit GH production

Ans: A Feedback: The hyperthyroidism that constitutes Graves disease can often be mitigated by the administration of beta-adrenergic-blocking medications. Levothyroxine would be used to address hypothyroidism, and calcium channel blockers are not an identified treatment modality for Graves disease. Somatostatin analogs are used to treat GH excess.

17. A 20-year-old has been diagnosed with an astrocytic brain tumor located in the brain stem. Which of the following statements by the oncologist treating the client is most accurate? A) "Your prognosis will depend on whether we can surgically resect your tumor." B) "Our treatment plan will depend on whether your tumor is malignant or benign." C) "This is likely a result of a combination of heredity and lifestyle." D) "The major risk that you face is metastases to your lungs, liver, or bones."

Ans: A Feedback: The prognosis of people with pilocytic astrocytomas is influenced primarily by their location. The prognosis is usually better for people with surgically resectable tumors, such as those located in the cerebellar cortex, than for people with less accessible tumors, such as those involving the hypothalamus or brain stem. Because of infiltration of brain tissue that prevents total resection, surgery rarely cures brain tumors. The binary of malignant and benign is not used to characterize brain tumors, and the etiology and substantive risk factors are largely unknown. Brain tumors rarely metastasize outside the CNS.

18. A 38-year-old male has presented to a clinic for the treatment of severe dermatitis after contact with poison ivy on a camping trip. The client has been prescribed prednisone, a corticosteroid, for the treatment of his skin condition. The client's care provider has emphasized that dosages of the drug will be gradually tapered off rather than stopped upon resolution of the symptoms. What is the most accurate rationale for this dosing protocol? A) The client's hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) system will require recovery time before normal function is restored. B) Steroids can induce a dependency that it best addressed with a gradual withdrawal. C) HPA function is heightened during steroid administration and must return to normal levels before the drug is completely stopped. D) Abrupt cessation of the drug can contribute to symptoms similar to Cushing syndrome.

Ans: A Feedback: The suppression of the HPA system that accompanies steroid therapy requires time for a return to normal function. Dependency on the drug itself is not the rationale for tapering, and HPA function is suppressed, not heightened during therapy. Abrupt cessation can contribute to an Addison disease-like response, not Cushing syndrome.

8. The mother of a 7-year-old boy who has recently been diagnosed with childhood asthma has come to the education center to learn more about her son's condition. Which of the following teaching points is most justifiable? A) "Research has shown that viruses may actually be a factor in many children's asthma." B) "The most reliable indicator that your child is having an asthma attack is audible wheezing." C) "Steroids that your child can inhale will likely be the first line of defense." D) "Your son will likely need to limit or avoid exercise and sports."

Ans: A Feedback: Viruses have been implicated as a contributing factor in childhood asthma. Wheezing may or may not be present in children, and inhaled corticosteroids are not common as an initial therapy. Current treatment guidelines do not advise the categorical avoidance of exercise.

4. Which of the following diagnostic findings is likely to result in the most serious brain insult? A) Mean arterial pressure (MAP) that equals intracranial pressure (ICP) B) Moderate decrease in brain tissue volume secondary to a brain tumor removal C) Increased ICP accompanied by hyperventilation D) High intracellular concentration of glutamate

Ans: A Feedback: When the pressure in the cranial cavity approaches or exceeds the MAP, tissue perfusion becomes inadequate; cellular hypoxia results; and neuronal death may occur. Displacement of CSF and blood can partially compensate for decreased brain tissue volume. Hyperventilation partially mitigates, rather than exacerbates, increase in ICP. Glutamate is normally in far higher concentrations intracellularly than extracellularly.

Testing for short stature growth hormone (GH) problems can be done by pharmacologic means. Which of the following medications can be utilized to test for a rise in GH? Select all that apply. A) Insulin B) Levodopa C) Persantine D) Dobutamine E) Sestamibi

Ans: A, B Feedback: Diagnostic procedures for short stature include tests to exclude nonendocrine causes. If the cause is hormonal, extensive hormonal testing procedures are initiated. Tests can be performed using insulin, CHRH, levodopa, and arginine, all of which stimulate GH secretion so that GH reserve can be evaluated. Persantine, dobutamine, and sestamibi are used in cardiac stress testing. Sestamibi is also used in the testing of the parathyroid.

11. A COPD patient asks the nurse what medications are prescribed to help his breathing. The nurse, looking at the list of medications, will educate the patient about which of the following medications to help his COPD in the long term? Select all that apply. A) Salmeterol (Serevent), a bronchodilator B) Tiotropium (Spiriva), anticholinergic C) Alprazolam (Xanax), a benzodiazepine D) Sildenafil (Viagra), a vasodilator E) Ketorolac (Toradol), an NSAID

Ans: A, B Feedback: Pharmacologic treatment of COPD includes the use of bronchodilators (Serevent) and anticholinergic drugs (Tiotropium). Benzodiazepines are used for anxiety, and sildenafil is a vasodilator commonly prescribed not only for erectile dysfunction but also for patients with pulmonary hypertension. Toradol (ketorolac) is an NSAID for pain and inflammation

12. The neonatologist suspects an infant has developed sepsis with multiorgan system illness. The nurse caring for this infant will note which of the assessment findings support this diagnosis. Select all that apply. A) Decreasing BP with increase in heart rate indicative of shock B) Prolonged PT and PTT and decrease in platelet count C) Frequent voiding of a small amount of light-colored urine D) Bilateral warm feet but pedal pulses hard to palpate E) Positive Moro reflex when loud noise made at crib side

Ans: A, B Feedback: Premature infants' health is severely impacted by early-onset infections and progressive multiorgan system illness. Infants with sepsis frequently present with respiratory failure, shock, meningitis, DIC, acute tubular necrosis, and symmetrical peripheral gangrene. Positive Moro reflex is normal for this infant.

20. A newly diagnosed leukemia patient begins hemorrhaging from every orifice. The physician is concerned that the patient has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The nurse should anticipate which of the following orders to be prescribed for this patient? Select all that apply. A) Transfuse 2 units of platelets. B) Transfuse fresh frozen plan plasma. C) Give aspirin twice per day. D) Administer IV Toradol stat. E) Place in reverse isolation.

Ans: A, B Feedback: The treatment of DIC is directed toward managing the primary disease, replacing clotting components, and preventing further activation of clotting mechanisms. Transfusions of FFP, platelets, or fibrinogen-containing cryoprecipitate may correct the clotting factor deficiency. ASA would make the bleeding worse. Toradol is an NSAID and should be avoided in patients with a bleeding problem. Reverse isolation is implemented for patients with pancytopenia.

4. A patient arrives in the ED after an automobile accident. Which of the following clinical manifestations lead the nurse to suspect a pneumothorax? Select all that apply. A) Respiratory rate 34 B) Asymmetrical chest movements, especially on inspiration C) Diminished breath sounds over the painful chest area D) Pulse oximetry 98% E) ABG pH level of 7.38

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: Manifestations of pneumothorax include increase in respiratory rate, dyspnea, asymmetrical movements of the chest wall, especially during inspiration, hyperresonant sound on percussion, and decreased or absent breath sounds over the area of pneumothorax. The pulse oximetry reading is normal. ABG pH level of 7.38 is a normal finding.

Of the following list of nursing interventions, which would be considered priority when managing a patient with life-threatening myxedematous coma? Select all that apply. A) Administer 3% sodium IV solution to increase sodium levels. B) Administer 50% dextrose to raise glucose levels. C) Place on oxygen therapy to encourage deep breathing. D) Place on a warming bed to raise body temperature. E) Administer sedatives frequently to prevent seizures.

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: Myxedematous coma is a life-threatening, end-stage expression of hypothyroidism. It is characterized by coma, hypothermia, CV collapse, hypoventilation, and severe metabolic disorders that include low sodium, low glucose, and lactic acidosis. Treatment includes aggressive management of precipitating factors; supportive therapy such as management of CV status, hyponatremia, and hypoglycemia; and thyroid replacement therapy. If hypothermia is present, active rewarming is contraindicated because it may induce vasodilation and vascular collapse. Administering sedatives frequently could be harmful since the person is unable to metabolize sedatives, analgesics, and anesthetic drugs.

12. A nurse is providing care for a client who has been admitted to a medical unit with a diagnosis of bronchiectasis. Which of the following signs and symptoms should the nurse expect to find during physical assessment of the client and the review of the client's history? Select all that apply. A) Recurrent chest infections B) Production of purulent sputum C) A barrel chest D) Low hemoglobin levels E) Recent surgery

Ans: A, B, D Feedback: Chest infections, copious production of purulent sputum, and anemia are all associated with bronchiectasis. A barrel chest is more commonly evident with emphysema, and recent surgery is not a noted factor.

17. A patient with pulmonary hypertension may display which of the following clinical manifestations? Select all that apply. A) Shortness of breath B) Decreased exercise tolerance C) Nasal flaring D) Grunting on expiration E) Swelling (edema) of the legs and feet

Ans: A, B, E Feedback: Symptoms of PAH typically progress from shortness of breath and decreasing exercise tolerance to right heart failure, with marked peripheral edema and functional limitations. Other common symptoms include fatigue, angina, and syncope (fainting) or near-syncope. Nasal flaring and expiratory grunting are usually seen in infants experiencing respiratory distress.

18. A brain tumor causing clinical manifestations of headache,nausea,projectile vomiting, and mental changes is likely located in which parts of the brain? Select all that apply. A) Intra-axially B) Extra-axially C) Brain stem D) Temporal lobe E) Frontal lobe

Ans: A, B, E Feedback: Tumors within the intracranial (intra-axially) cavity are fixed and cause s/s of increased ICP like headache, nausea, vomiting, mental changes, papilledema, visual disturbances, and alterations in sensory and motor function. Outside the brain tissue (extra-axially), but within the cranium, tumors may reach large sizes without producing s/s. After they reach a sufficient size, s/s of increased ICP appear. Temporal lobe tumors often produce seizures as their first symptom. Brain stem tumors commonly produce upper/lower motor neuron s/s such as weakness of facial muscles and ocular palsies. Frontal lobe tumors also grow to a large size and cause s/s of increased ICP.

18. Which of the following patients would be at risk for developing nonthrombocytopenic purpura? Select all that apply. A) A child adopted from India and displaying malaise, lethargy, and petechiae all over the body B) A 73-year-old patient admitted with a concussion that resulted from a fall C) A 55-year-old patient diagnosed with Cushing disease displaying bruises, weight gain with a buffalo hump, and moon face D) A 15-year-old insulin-dependent diabetic with hypoglycemia displaying irritability with headaches and tachycardia E) A pregnant mother experiencing headaches and proteinuria

Ans: A, C Feedback: Vascular disorders that cause bleeding include vitamin C deficiency (answer A), Cushing disease (answer C), senile purpura, and aging process. Answers B and D do not result in weak vessel walls initially. Pregnant mother experiencing headaches and proteinuria is associated with preeclampsia.

Of the following patient conditions, which patients would be at risk for experiencing a thyroid problem due to a decrease in thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)? Select all that apply. A) A 55-year-old male with cirrhosis due to alcohol abuse B) A 47-year-old female experiencing hot flashes and excess diaphoresis related to menopause C) A 75-year-old man receNivUinRgScIhNroGniTcBg.luCcoOcMorticoid therapy to treat his severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) D) A 18-year-old female anorexia nervosa patient weighing 78 lb and has consumed no protein for the past 3 years

Ans: A, C, D Feedback: A number of disease conditions and pharmacologic agents can decrease the amount of binding protein in the plasma or influence the binding of hormone. Glucocorticoid medications and systemic disease conditions such as protein malnutrition, nephritic syndrome, and cirrhosis decrease TBG concentrations.

10. A20-year-oldhasbeenadmittedtoarehabilitationcenterafterhospitaltreatmentforan ischemic stroke. Which of the following aspects of the client's history would be considered to have contributed to his stroke? Select all that apply. The client A) is an African American male. B) takes iron supplements for the treatment of chronic anemia. C) blood pressure has historically been in the range of 150s/90s. D) was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes 8 years ago. E) takes corticosteroids for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis.

Ans: A, C, D Feedback: African American race, male gender, hypertension, and diabetes are all well-documented risk factors for stroke. Anemia, autoimmune disorders like rheumatoid arthritis, and the use of corticosteroids are not noted to predispose to stroke.

2. A patient who has been on a high-protein diet comes to the emergency department with respiratory symptoms. Upon analysis of arterial blood gases (ABGs), the patient is diagnosed with hypercapnia. The nurse will note the ABG results that confirm this diagnosis include: Select all that apply. A) pH 7.31 (normal 7.35 to 7.45). B) PO2 of 97%. C) PCO2 of 58 mm Hg (normal 38 to 42). D) Serum HCO3 of -33mEq/L (normal 22 to 28) E) Serum K+ (potassium)of 3.6 mmol/L (normal 3.5 to 5.0).

Ans: A, C, D Feedback: Hypercapnia affects a number of body functions, including acid-base balance and renal, neurological, and CV functions. Elevated levels of PCO2 (38 to 42) produce a decrease in pH (7.35 to 7.45) and respiratory acidosis. Compensatory mechanisms result in an increase in serum HCO3 (22 to 28). In this example, the PO2 level is within normal range. Serum K+ is not part of the ABG analysis.

11. A premature infant who is receiving care in a neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) has just been identified as having necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC). Of the following clinical manifestations, identify those most likely to contribute to the diagnosis of NEC. Select all that apply. A) Feeding intolerance B) Inability to pass stool within the first 10 days of life C) Hard, taut abdomen with increasing distention D) Blood noted in stools E) Hypoactive bowel sounds on right lower quadrant

Ans: A, C, D Feedback: Immature immunity, shunting of circulation away from the GI tract, and infectious processes have all been implicated in the etiology of NEC. The classic initial symptoms are usually feeding intolerance, abdominal distention, and bloody stools shortly after the first week of life.

14. During a prenatal education class, a participant has related a story about how her friend's infant died of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). What can the educator tell the group about how they can prevent SIDS when they have their babies? Select all that apply. A) "The best sleeping position for your baby is on his back." B) "Children are at particular risk of SIDS when they have a cold or flu, so these times require extra vigilance." C) "Using drugs during pregnancy has been shown to be associated with SIDS after birth, which is one more reason for mothers to avoid them." D) "It's important if anyone in your home smokes to make sure they only do it outside." E) "The exact cause of SIDS still isn't known, so there's little that you can do to prevent this tragic event."

Ans: A, C, D Feedback: Prone or side-lying position, intrauterine drug exposure, and postnatal exposure to cigarette smoke are all associated with SIDS. Upper respiratory infections are not noted to present a particular risk, and though the exact etiology is not known, preventative measures do exist.

16. Which of the following clients are displaying known risk factors for the development of pulmonary emboli? Select all that apply. A client who is: A) immobilized following orthopedic surgery. B) experiencing impaired Cl- and Na+ regulation. C) taking amiodarone for the treatment of premature ventricular contractions. D) a smoker and who takes oral contraceptives. E) undergoing radiation therapy for the treatment of breast cancer.

Ans: A, D Feedback: Postsurgical immobility, smoking, and the use of oral contraceptives are all identified risk factors for the development of pulmonary emboli. Impaired Cl- and Na+ regulation are associated with cystic fibrosis, while amiodarone and radiation therapy are linked to interstitial lung diseases.

2. Following a motor vehicle accident 3 months prior, a 20-year-old female who has been in a coma since her accident has now had her condition declared a persistent vegetative state. How can her care providers most accurately explain an aspect of her situation to her parents? A) "Your daughter has lost all her cognitive functions as well as all her basic reflexes." B) "Though she still goes through a cycle of sleeping and waking, her condition is unlikely to change." C) "If you or the care team notices any spontaneous eye opening, then we will change our treatment plan." D) "Your daughter's condition is an unfortunate combination with total loss of consciousness but continuation of all other normal brain functions."

Ans: B Feedback: A continuation of the sleep-wake cycle can exist in a persistent vegetative state. Reflexes often remain, as does spontaneous eye opening. Aspects of brain function beyond those governing consciousness are affected.

20. A 26-year-old female is resting after a one-minute episode during which she lost consciousness while her muscles contracted and extremities extended. This was followed by rhythmic contraction and relaxation of her extremities. On regaining consciousness, she found herself to have been incontinent of urine. What has the woman most likely experienced? A) A myoclonic seizure B) A tonic-clonic seizure C) An absence seizure D) A complex partial seizure

Ans: B Feedback: A tonic-clonic seizure often begins with tonic contraction of the muscles with extension of the extremities and immediate loss of consciousness. Incontinence of the bladder and bowel is common. Cyanosis may occur from contraction of airway and respiratory muscles. The tonic phase is followed by the clonic phase, which involves rhythmic bilateral contraction and relaxation of the extremities. A myoclonic seizure involves bilateral jerking of muscles, generalized or confined to the face, trunk, or one or more extremities. Absence seizures are nonconvulsive, and complex partial seizures are accompanied by automatisms.

Which of the following statements best captures an aspect of the function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) system? A) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) released by the hypothalamus controls to release of cortisol. B) The pituitary gland communicates with the adrenal cortex through the release of ACTH. C) The adrenal cortex receives corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH) and in turn releases cortisol. D) The pituitary gland causes a release of CRH from the hypothalamus, which promotes hormone release from the adrenal cortex.

Ans: B Feedback: ACTH mediates between the anterior pituitary gland and the adrenal cortex in the HPA system. ACTH is released by the pituitary, not the hypothalamus, and CRH acts on the pituitary, not the adrenal cortex. CRH flows from the hypothalamus to the pituitary, not vice versa.

A 28-year-old male who is 611 tall has a diagnosis of acromegaly. The man is explaining to a curious but sympathetic coworker exactly what accounts for his extraordinary height. Which of the following explanations demonstrates a sound understanding of his health problem? A) "My pituitary gland produced a much higher than normal amount of growth hormone when I was a child." C) "My liver is malfunctioning and produces too many of the hormones that ultimately cause growth." D) "The high sugar levels that go along with my diabetes made my pituitary gland overproduce the hormones that cause you to grow."

Ans: B Feedback: Acromegaly is associated with adult onset and nearly always involves an adenoma. Increased GH as a child and liver dysfunction are not noted contributors to acromegaly. High levels of GH can cause overproduction of insulin and eventual diabetes, but diabetes does not itself lead to acromegaly.

6. A 51-year-old female client who is 2 days postoperative in a surgical unit of a hospital is at risk of developing atelectasis from being largely immobile. Which of the following teaching points by her nurse is most appropriate? A) "Being in bed increases the risk of fluid accumulating between your lungs and their lining, so it's important for you to change positions often." B) "You should breathe deeply and cough to help your lungs expand as much as possible while you're in bed." C) "Make sure that you stay hydrated and walk as soon as possible to avoid us having to insert a chest tube." D) "I'll proscribe bronchodilator medications that will help open up your airways and allow more oxygen in."

Ans: B Feedback: Atelectasis is characterized by incomplete lung expansion and can often be prevented by deep breathing and coughing. Pleural effusion, not atelectasis, is associated with fluid accumulation between the lungs and their lining, and neither chest tube insertion nor bronchodilators are common treatments for atelectasis.

Following the identification of low blood levels of cortisol and low 24-hour urinary free cortisol, a 51-year-old female client has been diagnosed with a primary adrenal cortical insufficiency. Which of the following health consequences would be attributable to her low levels of cortisol? A) Visible exophthalmos B) Impaired immunological and inflammatory response C) Diminished secondary sex characteristics D) Insufficient regulation of serum potassium and sodium levels

Ans: B Feedback: Cortisol plays a central role in the normal functioning of the immune response and inflammation. Exophthalmos is associated with Graves disease, and secondary sex characteristics are functions of adrenal androgens. Potassium and sodium are regulated by mineralocorticoids.

9. A patient asks the health care provider why his lower legs look purple. The health care provider will base her response on which pathophysiological principle? A) Too much trauma breaks capillaries, and they bleed into the tissue. B) The bruising around the ankles is due to the fact that it is a dependent area where the capillary pressure is higher. C) There is a problem with his plasminogen levels. D) Morbid obesity causes veins to enlarge and bleed into tissues due to stress the abdomen is placing on the vascular system.

Ans: B Feedback: Cutaneous bleeding is seen as pinpoint hemorrhages and purple areas of bruising in dependent areas where the capillary pressure is higher. There is no indication that the patient has experienced trauma to the area or is morbidly obese. Plasminogen helps with clot dissolution.

17. In the grocery store, a nurse overhears a teenage mother intentionally shaming and verbally reprimanding a child in public. The mother also grabbed the child's stuffed animal and tore the limbs off. From what the nurse remembers about abuse, this would be classified as a form of A) physical abuse. B) emotional abuse. C) sexual abuse. D) neglect.

Ans: B Feedback: Emotional abuse or psychological maltreatment includes methods of verbal abuse, shaming, destruction of child's personal property, harming or killing child's pet, and bullying.

17. A 44-year-old female patient presents to the emergency department with abnormal bleeding and abdominal pain that is later attributed to gallbladder disease. Which of the following diagnoses would the medical team be most justified in suspecting as a cause of the patient's bleeding? A) Excess calcium B) Vitamin K deficiency C) Hemophilia B D) Idiopathic immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

Ans: B Feedback: Factors VII, IX, and X and prothrombin require the presence of vitamin K for normal activity. Vitamin K deficiency may result from impaired fat absorption caused by liver or gallbladder disease. Calcium, factors X and V, and platelet phospholipids combine to form prothrombin activator, which then converts prothrombin to thrombin. Excess calcium could result in increased formation of blood clots. Hemophilia B is a hereditary disorder. Half of the cases of ITP occur as an acute disorder in children; ITP in adults is a chronic disorder with insidious onset.

Followingalonghistoryoffatigue,weakness,andpoorappetite,a39-year-oldmalehas been diagnosed with hypopituitarism. Which of the following clinical findings would most likely cause his care team to suspect that the man has an additional endocrine disorder from a different source? A) The man has a low sperm count and has been unable to have children. B) The man has a chronic platelet deficiency and is occasionally anemic. C) The client is 52 tall and was consistently short for his age as a child. D) The man displays the signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism.

Ans: B Feedback: Low platelets and low hemoglobin are unlikely to be a manifestation of hypopituitarism. A low sperm count, small stature, and hypothyroidism are all noted manifestations of pituitary hypofunction.

1. A hospital laboratory technologist is analyzing the complete blood count (CBC) of a patient. Which of the following statements best reflects an aspect of the platelets that would constitute part of the CBC? A) Platelets originate with granulocyte colony-forming units (CFU). B) The half-life of a platelet is typically around 8 to 12 days. C) The alpha-granules of platelets contribute primarily to vasoconstriction. D) New platelets are released from the bone marrow into circulation.

Ans: B Feedback: Platelets' half-life is typically around 8 to 12 days. They originate from megakaryocytes, and delta-granules facilitate vasoconstriction. New platelets are released from the spleen into circulation.

19. A 41-year-old male client has presented to the emergency department with an acute onset of increased respiratory rate and difficulty breathing. STAT chest x-ray indicates diffuse bilateral infiltrates of his lung tissue, and ECG displays no cardiac dysfunction. What is this client's most likely diagnosis? A) Cor pulmonale B) Acute lung injury C) Pulmonary hypertension D) Sarcoidosis

Ans: B Feedback: Rapid onset of respiratory distress accompanied by diffuse bilateral infiltrates of lung tissue and an absence of cardiac changes are associated with acute lung injury/acute respiratory distress syndrome. These particular signs and symptoms are not as closely associated with cor pulmonale, pulmonary hypertension, or sarcoidosis.

Which of the following statements best captures the role of the adrenal cortex in maintaining homeostasis? A) The adrenal cortex is responsible for the production of epinephrine and norepinephrine that are part of the sympathetic nervous system. B) The adrenal cortical hormones are primarily steroids and sex hormones. C) Redundant, secondary production of adrenal cortical hormones can compensate for the loss of the adrenal glands. D) Normal sexual function is dependent on adequate adrenal cortical function.

Ans: B Feedback: The adrenal cortex is responsible for secreting three types of hormones: the glucocorticoids, the mineralocorticoids, and the adrenal androgens. The adrenal medulla produces epinephrine and norepinephrine, and there are no alternate production sites for adrenal cortical hormones. The adrenal androgens are least responsible for normal sexual function.

1. A nurse on a neurology unit is assessing a female brain-injured client. The client is unresponsive to speech, and her pupils are dilated and do not react to light. She is breathing regularly, but her respiratory rate is 45 breaths/minute. In response to a noxious stimulus, her arms and legs extend rigidly. What is her level of impairment? A) Delirium B) Coma C) Brain death D) Vegetative state

Ans: B Feedback: The continuum of loss of consciousness is marked by the degree of client's responsiveness to stimuli, in addition to the preservation of brain stem reflexes. Since this client still exhibits a pain response (the extended arms and legs indicate decerebrate posturing), even though her pupils are not responsive to light, she has sustained sufficient brain function that she fails to qualify as being brain dead or in a vegetative state.

15. A 9-year-old boy has been brought to the emergency department by his father who is concerned by his son's recent fever, stiff neck, pain, and nausea. Examination reveals a petechial rash. Which of the following assessment questions by the emergency room physician is most appropriate? A) "Is your son currently taking any medications?" B) "Has your son had any sinus or ear infections in the last little while?" C) "Does your son have a history of cancer?" D) "Was your son born with any problems that affect his bone marrow or blood?"

Ans: B Feedback: The most common symptoms of acute bacterial meningitis are fever and chills; headache; stiff neck; back, abdominal, and extremity pains; and nausea and vomiting. Risk factors associated with contracting meningitis include otitis media and sinusitis or mastoiditis. Particular medications, a history of neoplasm, and hematopoietic problems would be unlikely to relate directly to his symptoms of meningitis.

11. While being on subcutaneous heparin injections for deep vein thrombosis during her latter pregnancy, a patient begins to experience major side effects. Her OB-GYN physician has called in a specialist who thinks that the patient is experiencing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. The nurse should anticipate which of the following orders? A) Decrease the dose of heparin from 5000 units b.i.d to 3000 units b.i.d B) Immediately discontinue the heparin therapy C) Switch to Coumadin 2.5 mg once/day D) Infuse FFP stat

Ans: B Feedback: The treatment of HIT requires the immediate discontinuation of heparin therapy and the use of alternative anticoagulants to prevent thrombosis recurrence. Decreasing the dose will not stop HIT. Coumadin is contraindicated in pregnancy. FFP is not called for in this situation.

15. A patient is admitted for a relapse for sarcoidosis. Knowing this is usually caused by an inflammatory process, the nurse can anticipate administering A) a bronchodilator. B) a corticosteroid. C) aspirin. D) an albuterol inhaler.

Ans: B Feedback: Treatment is directed at interrupting the granulomatous inflammatory process that is characteristic of the disease and managing the associated complications. When treatment is indicated, corticosteroid drugs are used. Bronchodilators may be used if there is wheezing, but this is not a normal medication for this disease. Aspirin is a blood thinner. Albuterol is a short-term bronchodilator for acute asthma.

3. A hospital client is receiving intravenous infusion of heparin for treatment of a pulmonary embolus. Which of the following phenomena is most likely to occur, resulting in the drug's therapeutic effect? A) Inhibition of vitamin K synthesis in the liver B) Suppression of fibrin formation C) Deactivation of the intrinsic clotting pathway D) Inhibition of ADP-induced platelet aggregation

Ans: B Feedback: Ultimately, heparin inhibits the clotting factors that mediate the formation of fibrin. It does not inhibit vitamin K synthesis, nor does it deactivate the intrinsic clotting pathway in particular. Heparin does not act on platelet plug formation.

9. A nurse who works in a neonatal intensive care unit is providing care for an infant born at 26 weeks' gestation. Which of the following assessments would lead the nurse to suspect that the infant has developed respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)? A) The infant's blood pressure and temperature are normal measurements as expected. B) Infant is grunting and has notable intercostal retractions with respirations. C) Infant has poor motor skills and limited limb range of motion. D) Infant has apnea lasting 5 to 10 seconds with a decrease in heart rate, which reverses with tactile stimulation.

Ans: B Feedback: While premature birth is associated with numerous potential health problems, including variations in vital signs, impaired motor function, and neurological deficits, the most common complications of prematurity involve respiratory function.

Followingdestructionofthepituitarygland,ACTHstimulationstops.WithoutACTH to stimulate the adrenal glands, the adrenals' production of cortisol drops. This is an example of which type of endocrine disorder? A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Somatic

Ans: B Feedback: In secondary disorders of endocrine function, the target gland is essentially normal, but defective levels of stimulating hormones or releasing factors from the pituitary system alter its function.

16. What topic should health promotion initiatives emphasize if the target audience is parents of preschoolers and the goal is to minimize mortality? A) Handwashing as an infection control measure B) Injury prevention especially when the child is near water C) Identifying signs of child abuse and neglect D) The importance of good nutrition

Ans: B Feedback: Injuries are the leading cause of death in children aged 1 to 4. While handwashing does prevent many infections, these are not commonly fatal. Likewise, child abuse and poor nutrition are valid educational topics, but they do not relate as directly and frequently to childhood death as do injuries.

An infant born with congenital hypothyroidism and has not sought care from any health care provider is likely to develop which of the following complications? Select all that apply. A) Deformed joints and bone spurs B) Impaired physical growth C) Mental retardation D) Loss of fine motor control and arthritis E) Down syndrome

Ans: B, C Feedback: Thyroid hormone is essential for normal growth and brain development, almost half of which occurs during the first 6 months of life. If untreated, congenital hypothyroidism causes mental retardation and impairs physical growth. Down syndrome is a congenital birth defect and not caused by hypothyroidism.

6. The nursery has just admitted a new infant born 1 hour ago. While performing an assessment, the nurse suspects the infant may have hypoglycemia based on which of the following assessment data? Select all that apply. A) Heel stick glucose value of 50 mg/dL B) Infant having periods of apnea requiring physical stimulation C) Muscle twitching noted while lying in crib undisturbed by nurses D) Hyperactive reflexes noted especially when crying E) Poor suck reflex resulting in an inability to feed properly

Ans: B, C, E Feedback: In neonates, glucose levels stabilize to a value of 50 mg/dL or higher within the first 3 hours of life. Concentrations below 45 mg/dL should be considered abnormal. Signs and symptoms of neonatal hypoglycemia include cyanosis, apnea, hypothermia, hypotonia, poor feeding, lethargy, and seizures.

8. Following an injury where a child hit his head from a fall, the CT scan reveals a contusion that the doctor classifies as a moderate brain injury. Which of the following manifestations will the nurse more than likely assess on this child that support this diagnosis? Select all that apply. A) Coma with total paralysis B) Periods of unconsciousness C) Aphasia at times D) Nuchal rigidity E) Weakness or slight paralysis affecting one side of the body

Ans: B, C, E Feedback: Moderate brain injury is characterized by a period of unconsciousness and may be associated with focal manifestations such as hemiparesis (weakness or slight paralysis affecting one side of the body), aphasia, and cranial nerve palsy. Coma with total paralysis is seen in severe brain injury. Nuchal rigidity is a classic sign of meningitis.

14. Which of the following clinical findings would be most closely associated with a client who has interstitial lung disease in comparison to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? A) Audible wheezing on expiration B) Reduced expiratory flow rates C) Decreased tidal volume D) Normal forced expiratory volume

Ans: C Feedback: Because it takes less work to move air through the airways at an increased rate than it does to stretch a stiff lung to accommodate a larger tidal volume, interstitial lung disease is commonly associated with an increased respiratory rate but decreased tidal volume. Wheezing and decreased expiratory flow rate are more closely associated with COPD.

19. A 14-year-old boy has experienced a pronounced growth spurt over the last several months. While discussing this with his parents, the nurse educates what normal male growth patterns contain. Of the following, which are accurate statements to relay to the parents? Select all that apply. A) Most males will complete their growth spurt by age 16. B) It is not usual for their son to gain up to 30 kg in weight. C) With parathyroid hormone involvement, your son may be at risk for fractures. D) Expect the thorax to become broader and for the pelvis to remain narrow. E) Some children have stunted growth in their arms or legs.

Ans: B, D Feedback: In males, they may continue to gain height until 18 to 20 years of age and gain from 7 to 30 kg of weight. Parathyroid hormone does not have roles that relate to the adolescent growth spurt. In males, the thorax becomes broader and the pelvis remains narrow. In girls, the opposite occurs. Growth in the arms, legs, hands, feet, and neck is followed by increases in the hip and chest months later.

1. As a consequence of a long-standing lung disease, a client is in a chronic state of hypoxia. Which of the following phenomena would the client's care team be most justified in anticipating? Select all that apply. A) Metabolic alkalosis B) Increased erythropoietin production C) Pulmonary vasodilation D) Hyperventilation E) Personality changes

Ans: B, D, E Feedback: Increased production of erythropoietin, hyperventilation, and cognitive and personality changes are all associated with hypoxemia. Acidosis, not alkalosis, and vasoconstriction rather than vasodilation are likely to occur.

18. Upon admission to the ICU, a patient with a history of cor pulmonale will likely be exhibiting which of the following clinical manifestations of right heart failure? Select all that apply. A) Fine crackles throughout both lung fields B) +4 pitting edema in lower extremities C) Expectorating copious amounts of frothy, pink sputum D) Jugular vein distension E) Altered level of consciousness

Ans: B, D, E Feedback: Signs of right-sided HF include venous congestion (jugular vein distension), peripheral edema (+4 pitting edema in feet), shortness of breath, and productive cough. Altered level of consciousness may occur as the result of carbon dioxide retention. Fine crackles in all lung fields and frothy, pink sputum are common in left-sided HF.

10. A surgeon is explaining to the parents of a 6-year-old boy the rationale for the suggestion of removing the boy's spleen. Which of the following teaching points would be most accurate? A) "We believe that your son's spleen is causing the destruction of many of his blood platelets, putting him at a bleeding risk." B) "Your son's spleen is inappropriately filtering out the platelets from his blood and keeping them from normal circulation." C) "Your son's spleen is holding on to too many of his platelets, so they're not available for clotting." D) "We think that his spleen is inhibiting the production of platelets by his bone marrow."

Ans: C Feedback: A cause of thrombocytopenia is excessive sequestering of platelets by the spleen, necessitating splenectomy. The spleen would not be involved in destroying platelets, filtering them out from existing circulation, or inhibiting their production.

7. A baseball player was hit in the head with a bat during practice. In the emergency department, the physician tells the family that he has a "coup" injury. How will the nurse explain this to the family so they can understand? A) "It's like squeezing an orange so tight that the juice runs out of the top." B) "Your son has a huge laceration inside his brain where the bat hit his skull." C) "Your son has a contusion of the brain at the site where the bat hit his head." D) "When the bat hit his head, his neck jerked backward causing injury to the spine."

Ans: C Feedback: A direct contusion of the brain at the site of external force is referred to as a coup injury. Contrecoup injury (answer choice D) is the rebound injury on the opposite side of the brain. Answer choice B relates to lacerations that are usually not caused by a direct blow to the head. However, depending on how hard the head was hit with a bat, a hematoma could form as the brain strikes the rough surface of the cranial vault.

A 51-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Cushing syndrome after a diagnostic workup that reveals cortisol hypersecretion. The nurse knows which of the following assessment findings would be inconsistent with her diagnosis? A) Increased blood pressure and decreased potassium levels B) A protruding abdomen and a "buffalo hump" on the back C) Poor stress management and hyperpigmentation D) A "moon face" and muscle weakness

Ans: C Feedback: A low tolerance for stress and hyperpigmentation is associated with Addison disease and its consequent elevated levels of ACTH. High blood pressure, hypokalemia, buffalo hump, and moon face are all characteristics of the elevated steroid levels that denote Cushing syndrome.

6. A 44-year-old Caucasian woman is being treated in an airport infirmary after she developed a painful, swollen leg during a transatlantic flight in economy class. The woman is suspected of having deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and is questioning the paramedics about why this might be the case, given that she has twice previously had similar experiences. Which of the following teaching points by the airport medical staff would be most appropriate? A) "A lot of Caucasian people have a genetic mutation that causes platelets to stick to their blood vessel walls." B) "There is a genetic disorder that causes many Caucasians to form more clots in their blood vessels." C) "A lot of Caucasians have an inherited inability to dissolve clots that form in their bodies." D) "Your doctor might be able to tell you if you've inherited a predisposition to bleeding in your veins."

Ans: C Feedback: All of the listed responses refer to the Leiden mutation, which is best characterized as an inhibition of normal clot dissolution due to factor V defects. It does not involve platelet aggregation or adhesion or excess bleeding. It is better characterized as decreased clot dissolution rather than increased clot formation.

9. In the early morning, an African American woman brings her 5-year-old son to the emergency room. The boy is wheezing, is short of breath, and has a dry cough. The mother states that he has always been very healthy. He went to bed with only a slight cold and a runny nose but woke her with his coughing shortly after 4 AM. His symptoms worsened so dramatically that she brought him to the hospital. The care team would most likely suspect that he has A) respiratory syncytial virus. B) influenza. C) asthma. D) pneumonia.

Ans: C Feedback: Although the child may have an infectious disease, his symptoms and the timing of them (both in terms of his age and the time of symptom onset) are classic for asthma. They are not as closely associated with RSV, influenza, or pneumonia.

16. A teenager, exposed to West Nile virus a few weeks ago while camping with friends, is admitted with headache, fever, and nuchal rigidity. The teenager is also displaying some lethargy and disorientation. The nurse knows which of the following medical diagnoses listed below may be associated with these clinical manifestations? A) Rocky Mountain spotted fever B) Lyme disease C) Encephalitis D) Spinal infection

Ans: C Feedback: Encephalitis represents a generalized infection of the parenchyma of the brain or spinal cord. A virus, such as West Nile virus, usually causes encephalitis although it may be caused by bacteria, fungi, and other organisms. Encephalitis is characterized by fever, headache, and nuchal rigidity. However, more often, people also experience neurologic disturbances, such as lethargy, disorientation, seizures, focal paralysis, delirium, and coma. Rocky Mountain spotted fever (answer choice A) is a tick-borne disease caused by the bacterium Rickettsia rickettsii and usually begins with a sudden onset of fever and headache. A rash may occur 2 to 5 days after fever onset. Lyme disease (answer choice B) is also a tick-borne disease. Typical symptoms include fever, headache, fatigue, and a characteristic skin rash called erythema migrans. As the disease progresses, the patient develops bouts of severe joint pain and swelling of the joint. Neurological problems may occur for weeks, months, or even years after the infection and may include inflammation of the membranes surrounding the brain (meningitis). Spinal infections (answer choice D) can be thought of as a spectrum of diseases comprising spondylitis, discitis, spondylodiscitis, pyogenic facet arthropathy, and meningitis.

3. Which of the following individuals would most likely experience global ischemia to his or her brain? A) A male client who has just had an ischemic stroke confirmed by CT of his head B) A woman who has been admitted to the emergency department with a suspected intracranial bleed C) A man who has entered cardiogenic shock following a severe myocardial infarction D) A woman who is being brought to hospital by ambulance following suspected carbon monoxide poisoning related to a faulty portable heater

Ans: C Feedback: Global ischemia is associated with a cessation of blood flow to the entire brain, as often occurs during cardiac arrest or myocardial infarction. Ischemic stroke and intracranial bleeding are likely to cause focal ischemia; carbon monoxide toxicity is associated with hypoxia.

14. A college student has been experiencing frequent headaches that he describes as throbbing and complaining of difficulty concentrating while studying. Upon cerebral angiography, he is found to have an arteriovenous malformation. Which of the following pathophysiological concepts is likely responsible for his symptoms? A) Increased tissue perfusion at the site of the malformation B) Hydrocephalus and protein in the cerebral spinal fluid C) High pressure and local hemorrhage of the venous system D) Localized ischemia with areas of necrosis noted on CT angiography

Ans: C Feedback: In arteriovenous malformations, a tangle of arteries and veins acts as a bypass between the cerebral arterial and venous circulation, in place of the normal capillary bed. However, the capillaries are necessary to attenuate the high arterial blood pressure before this volume drains to the venous system. As a result, the venous channels experience high pressure, making them to hemorrhage and rupture more likely; the lack of perfusion of surrounding tissue causes neurologic deficits such as learning disorders. Headaches are severe, and people with the disorder may describe them as throbbing (synchronous with their heartbeat). Increased tissue perfusion means that more oxygenated blood is brought to the area, which is not the case. The elevated arterial and venous pressures divert blood away from the surrounding tissue, impairing tissue perfusion. Answer choice B is incorrect since arteriovenous malformation is associated with blood vessels and not the fluid within the ventricles of the brain. Answer choice D is incorrect in that there is blood flow to the area. Ischemia is associated with decreased arterial flow resulting in death to brain tissue.

The mother of 6-year-old male and female fraternal twins has brought her son to see a pediatrician because he is nearly 4 inches shorter than his sister. Which of the following phenomena would the physician most likely suspect as contributing factor to the boy's short stature? A) Genetic short stature B) Lack of IGF receptors in epiphyseal long bones C) A shortage of hypothalamic GHRH production D) Excess insulin production resulting in chronically low blood glucose levels

Ans: C Feedback: Inadequate levels of hypothalamic GHRH will result in adequate production but inadequate release of GH by the pituitary. Genetic short stature is less likely given the disparity between his height and his twin's, and a shortage of IGF receptors is not a noted pathology. While poorly controlled diabetes can contribute to short stature, excess insulin production is not a likely factor.

15. Which of the following teaching points would be most appropriate with a client who has a recent diagnosis of von Willebrand disease? A) "It's important that you avoid trauma." B) "Your disease affects your platelet function rather than clot formation." C) "Make sure that you avoid taking aspirin." D) "Clotting factor VIII can help your body compensate for the difficulty in clotting."

Ans: C Feedback: No treatment other than the avoidance of aspirin is normally needed in the case of von Willebrand disease. Avoiding trauma and factor VIII therapy apply to hemophilia. Von Willebrand disease involves both the platelet and coagulation systems.

5. A short, nonsmoking 44-year-old male presents to the emergency room with left-sided chest pain and a cough. He states that the pain started abruptly and worsens with deep breathing and coughing. He denies recent injury. Assessment includes shallow respirations with a rate of 36, normal breath sounds, and no cyanosis. Which condition is most likely causing his symptoms? A) Myocardial infarction B) Spontaneous pneumothorax C) Pleuritis related to infection D) Obstructive atelectasis

Ans: C Feedback: Pleuritis, which frequently accompanies infections that cause cough, is unilateral, starts abruptly, and is worsened by coughing or deep breathing. The client's shallow, rapid breathing may be due to anxiety but also is a way of maintaining adequate air intake while avoiding deep breathing, which exacerbates the pain of pleuritis. His cough may be an indication of infection, especially as he is not a smoker. The pain of myocardial infarction is not worsened by deep breathing or coughing. Spontaneous pneumothorax would be very unlikely in a short, nonsmoking middle-aged man. Tachypnea might indicate obstructive atelectasis, but normal breath sounds and lack of cyanosis argue against it.

10. While assessing a premature infant born at 25 weeks' gestation, the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) nurse would suspect which diagnosis when the infant displays poor muscle tone, apnea, and a new onset of somnolence? A) Hydrocephalus B) Airway obstruction C) Intraventricular hemorrhage D) Sepsis

Ans: C Feedback: Prematurity is a risk for IVH. Clinical manifestations are determined by the level of involvement. The most common symptoms are poor muscle tone, lethargy, apnea, decreased hematocrit, and somnolence.

10. Which of the following residents of a long-term care facility is most likely to be exhibiting the signs and symptoms of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? A) A 79-year-old lifetime smoker who is complaining of shortness of breath and pain on deep inspiration B) An 81-year-old smoker who has increased exercise intolerance, a fever, and increased white blood cells C) An 81-year-old who has a productive cough and recurrent respiratory infections D) An 88-year-old female who experiences acute shortness of breath and airway constriction when exposed to tobacco smoke

Ans: C Feedback: Productive cough and recurrent respiratory infections are associated with COPD, while pain, fever, and increased white cells are not common signs and symptoms of COPD. Acute shortness of breath and bronchoconstriction are associated with asthma.

20. Which of the following statements made by parents of high schoolers would be a cause for the concern the child may be thinking about suicide? A) "My child seems to eat all the time. He tells me that all of his friends are eating a lot as well." B) "My child seems to go shopping at the mall every day after school with her friends. I think they hang out at the mall." C) "My child has never had problems in school until now. He is failing classes and getting in trouble." D) "My child used to talk to me about anything. Now she spends most of her time in her room texting friends."

Ans: C Feedback: Risk factors for suicide in adolescents include substance abuse, personal or family history of depression, anxiety disorders, problems at school, problems communicating with parents, having a friend who committed suicide, and family ownership of a handgun.

19. Which of the following clients may be experiencing a sensory focal seizure that has sent an abnormal cortical discharge to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)? A) A 44-year old patient complaining of constant movement and pain in the legs that gets worse when he tries to sleep. B) An 85-year-old patient experiencing drooping of the right side of the face and numbness in the right arm and leg C) A 56-year-old complaining of tingling sensations and has both an elevated pulse and BP D) A 22-year-old complaining of a stiff neck and achiness, along with some nausea and vomiting

Ans: C Feedback: Sensory symptoms correlate with the location of seizure activity on the contralateral side of the brain and may involve somatic sensory disturbance (tingling). With abnormal cortical discharge stimulating ANS, tachycardia, diaphoresis, hypo- or hypertension, or papillary changes may be evident. Distracter A is associated with restless legs syndrome (RLS). Distracter B is associated with stroke (CVA). Distracter D is associated with meningitis.

11. A nurse at a long-term care facility provides care for an 85-year-old man who has had recent transient ischemic attacks (TIAs). Which of the following statements best identifies future complications associated with TIAs? TIAs A) are an accumulation of small deficits that may eventually equal the effects of a full CVA. B) are a relatively benign sign that necessitates monitoring but not treatment. C) resolve rapidly but may place the client at an increased risk for stroke. D) are caused by small bleeds that can be a warning sign of an impending stroke.

Ans: C Feedback: TIAs can be considered a warning sign for future strokes. They are not hemorrhagic in nature, and their effects are not normally cumulative. They may require treatment medically or surgically.

13. Two nursing students are attempting to differentiate between the presentations of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). Which of the students' following statements best captures an aspect of the two health problems? A) "Both diseases can result from inadequate production of thrombopoietin by megakaryocytes." B) "ITP can be either inherited or acquired, and if it's acquired, it involves an enzyme deficiency." C) "Both of them involve low platelet counts, but in TTP, there can be more, not less, hemostasis. D) "TTP can be treated with plasmapheresis, but ITP is best addressed with transfusion of fresh frozen plasma."

Ans: C Feedback: TTP is marked by sudden and severe thrombotic involvement. Neither disease has an etiology of low thrombopoietin production, and TTP, not ITP, is rooted in an enzyme deficiency. ITP is normally treated with corticosteroids and/or immunoglobulins.

15. Due to rapid neural growth, a child can begin to control the bowel and bladder sphincters by what age? A) 12 months B) 18 months C) 2 years D) 4 years

Ans: C Feedback: The cephalocaudal proximodistal principle is followed as myelinization of the cortex, brain stem, and spinal cord is completed. The spinal cord is usually completely myelinated by 2 years of age. At that time, control of anal and urethral sphincters and motor skills of locomotion can be achieved.

1. New parents were just told by their physician that their son is two standard deviations above the mean. The parents later asked the nurse what that means. The nurse will explain by stating, A) "If your child is one standard deviation from the norm that translates to mean, he will be taller than 50% of his peers." B) "This is great news since it means you will have a larger baby than most." C) "Being two standard deviations above the mean translates into that your child will likely be taller than 95% of children in the population." D) "With the mean being average at 50%, two standard deviations means that your child will be at least 99.7% taller than his brother."

Ans: C Feedback: The standard deviation determines how far a value varies or deviates from the mean. The points one standard deviation above or below the mean should include 68% of all values and two standard deviations 95% of all values. If a child's height is within one standard deviation of the mean, he is as tall as 68% of children in the population.

5. A nurse is performing a 5-minute Apgar score on a newborn female. Which of the following characteristics of the infant's current condition would not be reflected in the child's Apgar score? A) The baby's heart rate is 122 beats/minute. B) The infant displays a startle reflex when the crib is accidentally kicked. C) The child's temperature is 35.0°C (95°F) by axilla. D) The infant's skin is pink in color.

Ans: C Feedback: While heart rate, color, and presence or absence of crying are all assessment criteria in the determination of an Apgar score, temperature is not a parameter that is measured.

4. Which of the following assessment findings of a male infant 14 hours postpartum would be considered abnormal and would require further assessment and possible intervention? A) The baby's first stool appears to contain blood. B) The child is unable to breathe through his mouth. C) The baby's skin has a yellowish orange hue. D) The child's suck is weak when placed at his mother's breast.

Ans: C Feedback: While not an uncommon event early in life, jaundice requires further assessment and possibly intervention. Meconium often contains blood, and young infants are exclusive nose breathers. A child's suck is frequently weak before it becomes established in the days to follow.

5. Following a car accident of a male teenager who did not have his seatbelt on, he arrived in the emergency department with a traumatic brain injury. He has severe cerebral edema following emergent craniotomy. Throughout the night, the nurse has been monitoring and reporting changes in his assessment. Which of the following assessments correspond to a supratentorial herniation that has progressed to include midbrain involvement? Select all that apply. A) Clouding of consciousness B) Decorticate posturing with painful stimulation C) Pupils fixed at approximately 5 mm in diameter D) Respiration rate of 40 breaths/minute E) Decerebrate posturing following painful stimulation of the sternum

Ans: C, D, E Feedback: With midbrain involvement, pupils are fixed and midsized (5 mm in diameter), and reflex adduction of the eyes is impaired; pain elicits decerebrate posturing; and respirations change from Cheyne-Stokes respiration to neurogenic hyperventilation. Cloudiness of consciousness occurs in early diencephalic stages. Decorticate posturing with pain occurs in the diencephalic stage

13. A physician is providing care for a child who has a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis (CF). Place the following events in the etiology of CF in ascending chronological order. Use all the options. A) Airway obstruction B) Recurrent pulmonary infections C) Impaired Cl- transport D) Decreased water content of mucociliary blanket E) Increased Na+ absorption

Ans: C, E, D, A, B Feedback: CF is associated with impaired Cl- transport and a consequent increase in Na+ absorption. These result in a lowered water content of the mucociliary blanket making it more viscid. These changes to the mucociliary blanket cause airway obstruction and, ultimately, pulmonary infections.

A patient is admitted to the hospital in adrenal crisis 1 month after a diagnosis of Addison disease. The nurse knows which of the following clinical manifestations would support this diagnosis? A) Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes and slow, shallow breathing B) Cerebral spinal fluid leakage and impaired swallowing C) Irregular heart rate and decreased temperature D) Change in the level of consciousness and profound hypotension

Ans: D Feedback: Acute adrenal crisis is a life-threatening situation. Exposure to even a minor illness or stress can cause a client with Addison disease to develop nausea, vomiting, muscular weakness, hypotension, dehydration, and vascular collapse (which causes a change in LOC). Hemorrhage (low BP) can be caused by septicemia, adrenal trauma, anticoagulant therapy, adrenal vein thrombosis, or adrenal metastases. A hyperactive reflex may indicate disease of the pyramidal tract above the level of the reflex arc being tested. Generalized hyperactivity of DTRs may be caused by hyperthyroidism. Any tear or hole in the membrane that surrounds the brain and spinal cord (dura) can allow the fluid that surrounds those organs to leak. This fluid is called the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). When it leaks out, the pressure around the brain and spinal cord drops. Causes of leakage through the dura include certain head, brain, or spinal surgeries; head injury; placement of tubes for epidural anesthesia or pain medications; or lumbar puncture. Irregular heart rates (arrhythmias) may be caused by many different factors, including coronary artery disease; electrolyte imbalances in your blood (such as sodium or potassium); changes in your heart muscles from a heart attack.

18. A 10-year-old boy has a body mass index that places him in the 96th percentile for his age and gender. While educating the parents about obesity, the nurse should emphasize that his weight may predispose him to the development of A) scoliosis. B) respiratory infections. C) gastrointestinal disorders. D) type 2 diabetes.

Ans: D Feedback: Adolescent obesity is associated with an increased risk of type 2 diabetes. He is less likely to face a heightened risk of scoliosis, respiratory infections, or GI disorders.

Following the identification of low levels of T3 and T4 coupled with the presence of a goiter, a 28-year-old female has been diagnosed with Hashimoto thyroiditis. In light of this diagnosis, which of the following assessment results would constitute an unexpected finding? A) The presence of myxedema in the woman's face and extremities B) Recent weight gain despite a loss of appetite and chronic fatigue C) Coarse, dry skin and hair with decreased sweat production D) Increased white cell couNnUtRanSdIaNudGiTblBe.crCacOkMles on chest auscultation

Ans: D Feedback: An increased white cell count and the presence of adventitious fluid in the lungs are not classic findings associated with hypothyroidism. Myxedema, weight gain, lethargy, and dry skin and nails are commonly associated with low levels of thyroid hormones.

20. While rock climbing, a 22-year-old male has endured a severe head injury. Which of the following statements best captures expected clinical manifestations and treatments for his immediate condition? A) Oxygen therapy is likely to decrease his respiratory drive and produce an increase in PCO2. B) Cheyne-Stokes breathing is likely but will respond to bronchodilators. C) The client is unlikely to respond to supplemental oxygen therapy due to impaired diffusion. D) Hypoventilation may exist, resulting in increased PCO2 and hypoxemia that may require mechanical ventilation.

Ans: D Feedback: Brain injuries and accompanying hypoventilation are often associated with increased PCO2 and by hypoxemia that responds to oxygen therapy. Persons with COPD are more vulnerable to diminished respiratory drive secondary to oxygen therapy, while Cheyne-Stokes breathing is not identified as a likely consequence of brain injury. Impaired alveolar diffusion is not an aspect of the client's injury.

5. In which of the following patients, would diagnostic investigations least likely reveal increased thrombopoietin production? A) An 81-year-old woman with diagnoses of rheumatoid arthritis and failure to thrive B) A 55-year-old man with dehydration secondary to Crohn disease C) A 66-year-old woman with a diagnosis of lung cancer with bone metastases D) A 21-year-old woman awaiting bone marrow transplant for myelogenous leukemia

Ans: D Feedback: Diseases such as myelogenous leukemia and other cases of primary thrombocytosis result in abnormalities in the thrombopoietin receptor and platelet binding. Cases of secondary thrombocytosis have an etiology rooted in increased thrombopoietin production. The common underlying causes of secondary thrombocytosis include tissue damage due to surgery, infection, cancer, and chronic inflammatory conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn disease.

8. A 36-year-old woman with a diagnosis of antiphospholipid syndrome is receiving a scheduled checkup from her nurse practitioner. Which of the following teaching points would the nurse most likely prioritize? A) "It's important for you to do regular physical activity and maintain a healthy body weight." B) "Good nutrition and blood sugar control are important in your case." C) "You'll need to avoid taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs when you have menstrual cramps." D) "You need to ensure your birth control pills don't contain estrogen."

Ans: D Feedback: Estrogen-containing birth control pills can predispose individuals with antiphospholipid syndrome to a thrombotic event. Exercise, nutrition, and blood sugar control are not particularly associated with management of antiphospholipid syndrome, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs have no noted relevance to the disease.

An endocrinologist is providing care for a 30-year-old male who has lived with the effects of increased levels of growth hormone (GH). Which of the following teaching points about the client's future health risks is most accurate? A) "It's not unusual for high GH levels to cause damage to your hypothalamus." B) "GH excess inhibits your pancreas from producing enough insulin." C) "The high levels of GH that circulate in your body can result in damage to your liver." D) "When your pituitary gland is enlarged, there's a real risk that you'll develop some sight deficiencies."

Ans: D Feedback: GH excess is associated with tumor formation and consequent compression of cranial nerves responsible for vision. Damage to the hypothalamus and liver is not common sequelae. While the beta cells of the pancreas can "burn out," the primary effect of excess GH is to increase insulin secretion.

Growth hormone (GH) secretion is inhibited by A) hypoglycemia. B) starvation. C) heavy exercise. D) obesity.

Ans: D Feedback: GH is inhibited by increased glucose levels, free fatty acid release, cortisol, and obesity. it is stimulated by hypoglycemia, fasting starvation, increased blood levels of amino acids, and stress conditions such as trauma, excitement, emotional stress, and heavy exercise.

After receiving change-of-shift report about the following four patients, which patient should the nurse assess first? A) A 22-year-old admitted with SIADH who has a serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L B) A 31-year-old who has iatrogenic Cushing syndrome with a capillary blood glucose level of 204 mg/dL C) A 53-year-old who has Addison disease and is due for a scheduled dose of hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) D) A 70-year-old returning from PACU following partial thyroidectomy who is extremely agitated, has an irregular pulse rate of 134, and has an elevated temperature of 103.2°F

Ans: D Feedback: Manipulation of a hyperactive thyroid gland during thyroidectomy can cause thyroid storm. It is manifested by very high fever, extreme cardiovascular effects (tachycardia, HF, angina), and severe CNS effects (agitation, restlessness, and delirium). Answer choice A refers to normal sodium levels. Answer choice B refers to high blood glucose level but not critical level. Answer choice C refers to lower priority. It is always preferred to give medications in a timely manner; however, thyroid storm signs and symptoms are the priority for this group of patients.

16. The school nurse knows several children with hemophilia A. After recess, one student with hemophilia comes to the school nurse complaining of pain in his knee from falling on the playground. The nurse notes there is swelling in the knee and pain on palpation. The nurse should A) administer some NSAIDs to relieve the pain. B) wrap the knee in an ace bandage for compression. C) apply some warm compresses to the knee. D) notify parents to pick up the child and possibly administer factor VIII.

Ans: D Feedback: Prevention of trauma is important. ASA and other NSAIDs that affect platelet function should be avoided. Factor VIII replacement therapy administered at home has reduced the typical musculoskeletal damage. Wrapping with a bandage will not prevent damage. Warm compression will extend the bleed.

7. A medical student is familiarizing herself with recent overnight admissions to an acute medical unit of a university hospital. Which of the following patients would the student recognize as least likely to have a diagnosis of antiphospholipid syndrome in his or her medical history? A) A 66-year-old obese male with left-sided hemiplegia secondary to a cerebrovascular accident B) A 90-year-old female resident of a long-term care facility who has been experiencing transient ischemic attacks C) A 30-year-old female with a diagnosis of left leg deep vein thrombosis and a pulmonary embolism D) A 21-year-old male with a diagnosis of cellulitis and suspected endocarditis secondary to intravenous drug use

Ans: D Feedback: Stroke, transient ischemic attacks, deep vein thrombosis, and pulmonary emboli are all common manifestations of the hypercoagulability associated with antiphospholipid syndrome. Cellulitis, endocarditis, and other infectious processes are less likely to be correlated with antiphospholipid syndrome.

13. The nurse knows that which of the following treatment plans listed below is most likely to be prescribed after a computed tomography (CT) scan of the head reveals a new-onset aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage? A) Stat administration of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) B) Administration of a diuretic such as mannitol to reduce cerebral edema and ICP C) Monitoring in the ICU for signs and symptoms of cerebral insult D) Craniotomy and clipping of the affected vessel

Ans: D Feedback: Surgery for treatment of aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage involves craniotomy and inserting a specially designed silver clip that is tightened around the neck of the aneurysm. Administration of tPA would exacerbate bleeding, and a diuretic would not address the issue of bleeding. Monitoring alone would be an insufficient response given the severity of the problem.

13. The exasperated parents of a 4-month-old infant with colic have asked their health care provider what they can do to alleviate their child's persistent crying. Based on their concerns, the nurse should educate/discuss with the parents which of the following? A) Encouraging them to walk away from the infant when they can no longer tolerate it B) Recommending them to reduce the amount of commercial formula and increase breast-feeding C) Discussing the use of prescribed antiflatulent medication that will help more than changing the formula D) Demonstrating how to use a soothing voice and slow rocking back and forth as a way to calm the infant

Ans: D Feedback: The lack of a single etiologic factor makes treatment of colic difficult. The incidence is similar with both breast-feeding and formula, and while antiflatulents are sometimes used, the problem is not always attributable to intestinal gas. Even though it is a common problem that does resolve with time, parents need support. Nonpharmacologic interventions include soothing voices, singing, swaddling, and slow rhythmic rocking.

6. A patient in the intensive care unit who has a brain tumor has experienced a sharp decline. The care team suspects that water and protein have crossed the blood-brain barrier and been transferred from the vascular space into the client's interstitial space. Which of the following diagnNosUeRs SbeIstNcGapTtBur.esCtOhiMs pathophysiology? A) Focal hypoxia B) Cytotoxic edema C) Hydrocephalus D) Vasogenic edema

Ans: D Feedback: Vasogenic edema occurs with conditions that impair the function of the blood-brain barrier and allow transfer of water and protein from the vascular into the interstitial space. It occurs in conditions such as tumors, prolonged ischemia, hemorrhage, brain injury, and infectious processes. Focal hypoxia is associated with localized delivery of blood with inadequate oxygen, and cytotoxic edema is an absolute increase in intracellular fluid. Hydrocephalus is an abnormal increase in CSF volume in any part or all of the ventricular system.

8. Which of the following infants most likely requires medical intervention? A) A 2-day-old baby boy who has caput succedaneum B) An infant 4 hours postpartum who has visible coning of his head following vaginal delivery C) A girl 3 days postpartum with noticeable unilateral cephalhematoma D) A male infant whose vertex delivery resulted in a brachial plexus injury

Ans: D Feedback: While caput succedaneum, cephalhematoma, and head coning are all frequently able to resolve independently, a brachial plexus injury is likely to require treatment and rehabilitation

2. A woman has recently determined that she is pregnant, and her clinician believes that the conception occurred around 8 weeks prior. Since the embryo is in the third stage of embryonic development, which of the following events and processes in growth and development would be expected to be taking place? A) Transition from a morula to a blastocyst B) Ossification of the skeleton and acceleration of body length growth C) Rapid eye movement and early support of respiration D) Formation of upper limbs and opening of the eyes

Ans: D Feedback: Limb formation and eye opening are associated with the third stage of the embryonic stage of development. The transition from a morula to a blastocyst occurs before the second week of gestation, while ossification of the skeleton and acceleration of body length growth do not take place until the early fetal period. Rapid eye movement and early pulmonary function emerge during the 26th through 29th weeks.

7. Which of the following statements best captures the etiology of the acute response phase of extrinsic (atopic) asthma? A) IgG production is heightened as a consequence of exposure to an allergen. B) Airway remodeling results in airflow limitations. C) Epithelial injury and edema occur along with changes in mucociliary function. D) Chemical mediators are released from presensitized mast cells.

Ans: D Feedback: The acute response phase of extrinsic asthma is characterized by the release of chemical mediators from mast cells that have been sensitized. Epithelial injury and edema, as well as airway remodeling, are not associated with the acute phase, and IgE, not IgG, is primarily involved in asthma.