Pathology Final: Part 1

Preexisting polyps

Colon cancer

Compression

Compaction of bone resulting in a decreased length or width

Angioma

Composed of blood vessels

Paget's disease

Demarcated radiolucency representing the destructive phase of this disease process

Osteoid osteoma

Difficult to penetrate, increase factors

Osteopetrosis

Difficult to penetrate, increase factors

Multiple myeloma

Disseminated malignancy of plasma cell

Osteogenesis imperfecta

Easy to penetrate, decrease factors

Osteoporosis (severe)

Easy to penetrate, decrease factors

Giant cell tumor

Eccentric lucent lesion in the metaphysis

Spiral

Encircles the bone shaft

Excessive smoking and alcohol intake

Esophageal cancer

Acute pancreatitis

Excessive alcohol consumption

Undisplaced

Fracture exists without angulation or separation

Adenocarcinoma

Glandular cell malignancy

Cirrhosis

Hepatocellular carcinoma

Congenital hip dysplasia

Hip dislocation superiorly and posteriorly

Cystitis

Inflammation of the urinary bladder

Pancreatic pseudocyst

Inflammation or necrosis

Achondroplasia

Long bones appear short and thick with a widened metaphysis

Ischemic necrosis

Loss of blood supply

Dislocation

Loss of contact with normal articulation

Carcinoma

Malignancy of epithelial cell origin

Comminuted

More than two fragments

Bone metastases

Most common malignant tumors

Osteoma

Most often arise from the outer table of the skull

Osteoarthritis

No change in bone, no change in factors

Glomerulonephritis

Nonsuppurative inflammation of the tuft of capillaries in the Bowman's capsule

Acute cholecystitis

Obstruction of cystic duct by an impacted gallstone

Gout

Occurs primarily in the first metatarsophalangeal joint

Chondrosarcoma

Often contains punctate or amorphous calcifications in its cartilaginous matrix

Osteogenic sarcoma

Osteoblasts producing spicules of calcified bone

Subluxation

Partial loss of joint continuity

Pneumoperitoneum

Perforation of GI tract

Fatigue

Repeated stresses causing a bone response

Psoriatic arthritis

Skin changes caused by psoriasis exist

Avulsion

Small bony fragment pulled from a prominence

Lipoma

Soft, fatty tissue tumor

Pyelonephritis

Suppurative infection of the kidneys and renal pelvis

Rheumatoid arthritis

Symmetric joint involvement, chronic systemic disease

Adenoma

Tumor that grows in a glandlike pattern

toxoid a. Chemically altered poisonous material b. Recognition of foreign substance c. Low dose of dead or deactivated bacteria or virus d. Form in lymphoid tissue e. Body makes harmless f. Binds with foreign substance to make harmless

a. Chemically altered poisonous material

dysplasia a. Loss of uniformity of individual cells b. Reduction in number or size of cells c. Number of cells in the tissue increases d. Failure of normal development causing smaller cells e. Increased size of the cells

a. Loss of uniformity of individual cells

Petechiae a. Minimal bleeding in the skin or mucous membrane b. An accumulation of blood in the tissue c. Larger areas of bleeding into the skin d. Rupture of a blood vessel e. Large (>1 to 2 cm) subcutaneous bruise

a. Minimal bleeding in the skin or mucous membrane

Which of the following complications may occur as a result of central venous catheter insertion or misplacement? (1) Pneumothorax. (2) Air embolism. (3) Puncture of the subclavian artery. a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1 and 2 only

a. 1, 2, and 3

What result can occur when an endotracheal tube is positioned too high? a. Aspiration pneumonia b. Left lung atelectasis c. Pneumothorax d. Pneumomediastinum

a. Aspiration pneumonia

Which of the following is a serious complication of TE fistula? a. Aspiration pneumonia b. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) c. Hiatal hernia d. Esophagitis

a. Aspiration pneumonia

What image is obtained to verify the correct placement of a central venous catheter? a. Chest radiograph b. KUB c. Soft tissue neck d. All of above

a. Chest radiograph

A fracture usually caused by falling on an outstretched hand resulting in posterior displacement of the distal fragment of the radius is a: a. Colles' fracture. b. Monteggia's fracture. c. Smith's fracture. d. Boxer's fracture.

a. Colles' fracture.

What is esophageal atresia? a. Congenital condition in which the esophagus ends in a blind pouch b. Dilated, tortuous veins of the esophagus c. An abnormal communication between the esophagus and the respiratory system d. Functional obstruction causing proximal dilatation

a. Congenital condition in which the esophagus ends in a blind pouch

What is the most common hospital-acquired infection? a. Cystitis b. Tuberculosis c. Vasculitis d. Pyelonephritis

a. Cystitis

What is the most common abnormality found on upper GI exams? a. Hiatal hernia b. Esophageal varices c. Esophageal diverticula d. Gastric ulcer

a. Hiatal hernia

Which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children? a. Intussusception b. Intraluminal neoplasm c. Volvulus d. Abdominal surgery

a. Intussusception

What is a common result of an endotracheal tube that is positioned too low and into the right main stem bronchus? a. Left lung atelectasis b. Right main stem bronchus puncture c. Pneumomediastinum d. Pneumothorax

a. Left lung atelectasis

Which imaging modality is the safest and most accurate in detecting renal calculi? a. Noncontrast helical CT b. Ultrasound c. MRI d. Excretory urography

a. Noncontrast helical CT

Notice the tumor grows parallel to the bone and points away from the adjacent joint. Which common benign bone tumor is demonstrated with this image? a. Osteochondroma b. Osteoid osteoma c. Osteoclastoma d. Osteogenic sarcoma

a. Osteochondroma

Epileptic foci and Alzheimer's disease are best demonstrated by: a. PET. b. MRI. c. CT. d. SPECT.

a. PET.

Which of these is a common symptom of a renal neoplasm? a. Painless hematuria b. Hydronephrosis c. Proteinuria d. Renal neoplasms are asymptomatic

a. Painless hematuria

What is the most common cause of acute gastrointestinal bleeding? a. Peptic ulcer disease b. Gastric cancer c. Esophageal diverticula d. Esophageal varices

a. Peptic ulcer disease

Which of the following are causes of enlarged kidneys? a. Polycystic renal disease b. Renal vein thrombosis c. Polycystic renal disease and renal vein thrombosis d. Nephrosclerosis and Polycystic renal disease

a. Polycystic renal disease

What is the most common unifocal mass of the kidney? a. Renal cyst b. Hypernephroma c. Nephrocalcinosis d. Staghorn calculus

a. Renal cyst

swelling a. Tumor b. Dolor c. Rubor d. Calor

a. Tumor

A condition of diminished air within the lung associated with reduced lung volume is: a. atelectasis. b. septic embolism. c. pleural effusion. d. adult respiratory distress syndrome.

a. atelectasis.

When a reduction in the size or number of cells in an organ occurs, this results in a. atrophy. b. hypoplasia. c. dysplasia. d. aplasia.

a. atrophy.

Permanent abnormal dilation of one or more large bronchi as a result of destruction of the elastic and muscular components of the bronchial wall defines: a. bronchiectasis. b. emphysema. c. atelectasis. d. asthma.

a. bronchiectasis.

The general term used to describe obstruction of the airways leading to an ineffective exchange of respiratory gases is: a. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. b. pulmonary mycosis. c. pneumoconiosis. d. severe acute respiratory syndrome.

a. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

For brittle bone disease, the radiographer should: a. decrease the exposure factors. b. change to high-speed screens. c. make no change in factors. d. increase the exposure factors.

a. decrease the exposure factors.

Difficulty swallowing is termed: a. dysphagia. b. mastication. c. deglutition. d. aphasia.

a. dysphagia.

Localized _____ is produced in an inflammatory reaction as a result of a fluid accumulation a. edema b. filariasis c. elephantiasis d. fibrous adhesions

a. edema

Motor, sensory, and vision neurons (nervous system) can be demonstrated by: a. functional MRI. b. fat-suppressed images. c. perfusion imaging. d. diffusion imaging.

a. functional MRI.

The progression of a loss of oxygen and nutrients resulting in tissue necrosis, especially in the diabetic's foot, is called: a. gangrene. b. hemorrhage. c. infarction. d. ischemia.

a. gangrene.

Assessing the aggressiveness or degree of malignancy is referred to as: a. grading. b. metastatic. c. seeding. d. staging.

a. grading.

To best demonstrate pulmonary emboli, the noninvasive modality of choice is: a. high-resolution CT. b. Doppler ultrasound. c. PET lung scan. d. nuclear medicine lung scan.

a. high-resolution CT.

Increased radionuclide uptake produces a _____ on the image. a. hot spot b. cold spot c. blank spot d. homogeneous area

a. hot spot

The newborn who experiences underaeration of the lungs resulting from a lack of surfactant has: a. hyaline membrane disease. b. croup. c. pneumonia. d. cystic fibrosis.

a. hyaline membrane disease.

The healing of fracture fragments in a faulty position is: a. malunion. b. nonunion. c. external reduction. d. delayed union.

a. malunion.

Asbestos fibers cause major fibrosis resulting in: a. pleural plaques. b. pleural effusion. c. pulmonary edema. d. black lung.

a. pleural plaques.

The disease that attacks the lower respiratory system causing necrosis of the respiratory epithelium of the bronchi and bronchioles leading to bronchiolitis is called: a. respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). b. pulmonary mycosis. c. pneumoconiosis. d. anthrax.

a. respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).

The disease process that begins as an inflammation of the synovial membrane causing synovial proliferation is called: a. rheumatoid arthritis. b. Reiter syndrome. c. osteoarthritis. d. psoriatic arthritis.

a. rheumatoid arthritis.

A cystic dilatation of the distal ureter near its insertion into the urinary bladder is called a: a. ureterocele. b. pyelonephritis. c. renal cyst. d. ureteral aneurysm

a. ureterocele.

Hematoma a. Minimal bleeding in the skin or mucous membrane b. An accumulation of blood in the tissue c. Larger areas of bleeding into the skin d. Rupture of a blood vessel e. Large (>1 to 2 cm) subcutaneous bruise

b. An accumulation of blood in the tissue

Antigen a. Chemically altered poisonous material b. Recognition of foreign substance c. Low dose of dead or deactivated bacteria or virus d. Form in lymphoid tissue e. Body makes harmless f. Binds with foreign substance to make harmless

b. Recognition of foreign substance

Atrophy a. Loss of uniformity of individual cells b. Reduction in number or size of cells c. Number of cells in the tissue increases d. Failure of normal development causing smaller cells e. Increased size of the cells

b. Reduction in number or size of cells

The Coronavirus of unknown origin that causes upper and lower respiratory infections that begin with a nonproductive cough is: a. adult respiratory distress syndrome. b. severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS). c. respiratory syncytial virus. d. idiopathic respiratory distress syndrome.

b. severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS).

Which of the following is one of the most typical forms of primary colon cancer? a. Ulcerative b. Annular c. Polypoid d. Fungating

b. Annular

What is a common complication of cirrhosis? a. Portal hypertension b. Ascites c. Biliary obstruction d. Acute pancreatitis

b. Ascites

What condition is associated with severe reflux esophagitis? a. TE fistula b. Barrett's esophagus c. Traction diverticula d. Varices

b. Barrett's esophagus

A chronic inflammatory disorder of unknown cause that often affects the terminal ileum is called: a. diverticulosis. b. Crohn's disease. c. gastritis. d. malabsorption syndrome

b. Crohn's disease.

pain a. Tumor b. Dolor c. Rubor d. Calor

b. Dolor

What esophageal pathologic condition is demonstrated? a. Hiatal hernia. b. Esophageal diverticulum. c. Varices. d. Barrett's esophagus

b. Esophageal diverticulum.

What developmental anomaly is demonstrated? a. Crossed ectopia b. Horseshoe kidney c. Unilateral renal agenesis d. Supernumerary kidney

b. Horseshoe kidney

What term is used to denote a disease in which the underlying cause is unknown? a. Antietiologic b. Idiopathic c. Nosocomial d. Iatrogenic

b. Idiopathic

The modality of choice to demonstrate the multiple manifestations of AIDS in the central nervous system is: a. ultrasound. b. MRI. c. nuclear medicine. d. CT.

b. MRI.

The modality of choice to image the central nervous system is: a. CT. b. MRI. c. PET. d. ultrasound.

b. MRI.

Which urinary disease occurs almost exclusively in males and is defined as a thin transverse membrane that causes bladder outlet obstruction and may lead to severe hydronephrosis, hydroureter, and renal damage? a. Ureterocele b. Posterior urethral valves c. Polycystic kidney disease d. Benign prostatic hyperplasia

b. Posterior urethral valves

What term is applied to a renal calculus that completely fills the renal pelvis? a. Pelvocalcinosis b. Staghorn calculus c. Nephrocalcinosis d. Pelvolithiasis

b. Staghorn calculus

Which type of internal device is used for measurements of cardiac output and pulmonary capillary wedge and central venous pressures? a. Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) b. Swan-Ganz catheter c. Endotracheal tube d. Central venous catheter

b. Swan-Ganz catheter

For what purpose is a chest radiograph obtained after endotracheal tube insertion? a. To check for pneumonia b. To ensure proper placement/position c. To check for puncture of the trachea d. All of these are reasons to obtain a chest radiograph after endotracheal tube insertion

b. To ensure proper placement/position

This esophageal pathologic condition is described as resembling beads on a rosary. What pathologic condition is evident? a. Gastric ulcer b. Varices c. Esophageal diverticula d. Hiatal hernia

b. Varices

Which type of diverticulum arises from the posterior wall of the cervical esophagus? a. Epiphrenic b. Zenker's c. Pulsion d. Traction

b. Zenker's

Common allergens causing a widespread narrowing of the airways are: a. bronchitis. b. asthma. c. pneumonia. d. histoplasmosis.

b. asthma.

The blood supply to nourish and support lung tissue is the: a. low-pressure system. b. bronchial circulation. c. pulmonary circulation. d. low-resistance system.

b. bronchial circulation.

The fluid-filled sacs located near joints may become inflamed, which results in: a. arthritis. b. bursitis. c. tendonitis. d. osteomyelitis

b. bursitis.

Progressive shortening and rigidity of the colon and absent haustral patterns are radiographic evidence of: a. diverticulosis. b. chronic ulcerative colitis. c. diverticulitis. d. appendicitis.

b. chronic ulcerative colitis.

The hereditary disease process characterized by the excretion of viscous mucus blocking the air passages is: a. histoplasmosis. b. cystic fibrosis. c. pleurisy. d. pneumonia.

b. cystic fibrosis.

This typical saw-tooth configuration demonstrated on a barium enema exam is evidence of: a. intussusception. b. diverticulosis. c. ulcerative colitis. d. appendicitis.

b. diverticulosis.

A rare congenital abnormality in which one diaphragm is poorly developed and too weak to permit abdominal contents' upward movement is: a. obesity. b. eventration. c. diaphragmatic paralysis. d. ascites.

b. eventration.

The most common cause of a mechanical small bowel obstruction is: a. lack of peristalsis. b. fibrous adhesions. c. intussusception. d. volvulus.

b. fibrous adhesions.

The hallmark of pulmonary overinflation in cases of emphysema is: a. widened mediastinum. b. flattened diaphragms. c. pleural effusion. d. calcification of the hilar region.

b. flattened diaphragms.

By selecting different pulses, sequences, and frequencies, the MRI T1-weighted image produces images with a: a. high signal intensity (bright) water. b. high signal intensity (bright) fat, subacute hemorrhage, and contrast material. c. low signal intensity (very dark) bone and air. d. low signal intensity (intermediate to dark) fat.

b. high signal intensity (bright) fat, subacute hemorrhage, and contrast material.

The major metastatic route of carcinomas is: a. hematopoietic spread. b. lymphatic spread. c. undifferentiated spread. d. hematogenous spread.

b. lymphatic spread.

Tumors that contain muscle cells are called: a. myelomas. b. myomas. c. papilloma. d. hypertrophic.

b. myomas.

The most common initial site of Paget's disease is the: a. vertebral body. b. pelvis. c. skull. d. lower extremities.

b. pelvis

Inhaled foreign substances retained permanently in the acini causing irreversible damage is: a. pulmonary mycosis. b. pneumoconiosis. c. pneumonia. d. bronchitis.

b. pneumoconiosis.

Air in the cavity surrounding the lung is known as: a. atelectasis. b. pneumothorax. c. pleural effusion. d. hemothorax.

b. pneumothorax.

Thrombi that develop in the deep venous system of the lower extremity and are trapped in the lung circulation are: a. bronchial emboli. b. pulmonary emboli. c. alveolar emboli. d. pulmonary arteriovenous fistulas.

b. pulmonary emboli

Rod-shaped bacteria that have a waxy coat permitting existence outside the host for long periods cause: a. bronchopneumonia. b. tuberculosis. c. chronic bronchitis. d. bacterial pneumonia.

b. tuberculosis.

A twisting of the bowel on itself that may lead to obstruction is termed: a. colitis. b. volvulus. c. intussusception. d. appendicitis.

b. volvulus.

vaccine a. Chemically altered poisonous material b. Recognition of foreign substance c. Low dose of dead or deactivated bacteria or virus d. Form in lymphoid tissue e. Body makes harmless f. Binds with foreign substance to make harmless

c. Low dose of dead or deactivated bacteria or virus

hyperplasia a. Loss of uniformity of individual cells b. Reduction in number or size of cells c. Number of cells in the tissue increases d. Failure of normal development causing smaller cells e. Increased size of the cells

c. Number of cells in the tissue increases

Purpura a. Minimal bleeding in the skin or mucous membrane b. An accumulation of blood in the tissue c. Larger areas of bleeding into the skin d. Rupture of a blood vessel e. Large (>1 to 2 cm) subcutaneous bruise

c. Larger areas of bleeding into the skin

What is the cause of hydronephrosis? a. Staghorn calculus b. Aldosterone deficiency c. Blockage above the level of the bladder d. Chronic glomerulonephritis

c. Blockage above the level of the bladder

Which term is used to describe an increase in the size of an organ or tissue in response to an increase in function? a. Neoplastic b. Hyperplasia c. Hypertrophy d. Hypotrophy

c. Hypertrophy

Which of the following is appropriate when imaging a patient with known liver cirrhosis complicated by ascites? a. Increase in kVp and decrease in mAs by half b. Decrease in kVp c. Increase in kVp d. Double mAs

c. Increase in kVp

A fracture resulting from a weakness in the bone caused by a tumor or infection is known as what type of fracture? a. Greenstick b. Stress c. Pathologic d. Fatigue

c. Pathologic

The earliest sign of this disease process is blunting of the normal sharp angle between the diaphragm and the rib cage. a. Pneumothorax b. Pleurisy c. Pleural effusion d. Pulmonary emboli

c. Pleural effusion

What condition results from chronic cholecystitis in which the gallbladder becomes fibrotic and calcified? a. Pseudocyst b. Biliary carcinoma c. Porcelain gallbladder d. Cholecystectomy

c. Porcelain gallbladder

redness a. Tumor b. Dolor c. Rubor d. Calor

c. Rubor

Which of the following specialized imaging techniques provides cross-sectional images at a low cost, is readily available, and has the ability to differentiate cystic, solid, and complex tissue? a. PET b. CT c. Sonography d. MRI

c. Sonography

In nuclear medicine, the patient is injected or ingests the ionizing radiation through: a. gadolinium. b. an iodinated contrast agent. c. a radiopharmaceutical. d. barium.

c. a radiopharmaceutical.

Fluid-filled structures transmitting sound waves easily and appearing as a dark region on the image are _____ tissue. a. hyperechoic b. isoechoic c. anechoic d. hypoechoic

c. anechoic

The lung disease that is a highly volatile microbe because of its ease of transmission and high fatality rate is: a. histoplasmosis. b. epiglottitis. c. anthrax. d. coccidioidomycosis.

c. anthrax.

A gene always producing an effect regardless of whether the person is homozygous or heterozygous is named: a. autosomal recessive. b. autosomal dominant. c. dominant. d. recessive.

c. dominant.

A crippling and debilitating condition resulting from trapped air causing a loss of elasticity in the alveoli is called: a. pneumoconiosis. b. asthma. c. emphysema. d. bronchitis.

c. emphysema.

Connective tissue fibers replacing dead tissue and then contracting in the abdomen are known as: a. suppurative inflammation. b. keloids. c. fibrous adhesions. d. hyperemia

c. fibrous adhesions.

Blood levels with an increased uric acid leading to deposits of crystals in the joints and cartilage is: a. rheumatoid arthritis. b. Paget's disease. c. gout. d. osteomalacia.

c. gout.

An accumulation of blood trapped within the body tissues is known as a(an): a. pleural effusion. b. petechiae. c. hematoma. d. ecchymosis.

c. hematoma.

Blockage above the level of the bladder causes dilatation of the renal pelvicalyceal system, which is called: a. glomerulonephritis. b. hypernephroma. c. hydronephrosis. d. cystitis.

c. hydronephrosis.

A disease process caused by physicians or their treatment is: a. idiopathic. b. neoplasia. c. iatrogenic. d. community acquired.

c. iatrogenic.

A localized area of ischemic necrosis within a tissue or organ produced by vascular occlusion is a(n): a. purpura. b. gangrene. c. infarct. d. ecchymosis.

c. infarct.

Viral and fungal infections causing a thickened interstitium appearing on CT as a "honeycomb lung" is: a. pleurisy. b. coccidioidomycosis. c. interstitial pneumonia. d. aspiration pneumonia.

c. interstitial pneumonia.

The Latin word for "new growth" is: a. seeding. b. ecchymosis. c. neoplasia. d. tumor.

c. neoplasia.

A polyp is a: a. cancer. b. benign cartilaginous tumor. c. projecting mass from an inner mucous membrane. d. malignant epithelial neoplasm.

c. projecting mass from an inner mucous membrane.

A suppurative inflammatory process of the kidney and renal pelvis is termed: a. papillary necrosis. b. cystitis. c. pyelonephritis. d. glomerulonephritis.

c. pyelonephritis.

Diffusion imaging relies on _____ aiding in diagnosis of early stroke. a. tissue diffused with contrast material b. decreased microcirculation demonstrating less blood volume c. random movement of water d. Both A and C

c. random movement of water

Croup is a(n): a. infection involving the pleural lining of the lung. b. trapping of air in the alveolar sacs. c. viral infection of the subglottic region of the trachea. d. bronchial spasm narrowing the bronchi.

c. viral infection of the subglottic region of the trachea.

immunoglobin a. Chemically altered poisonous material b. Recognition of foreign substance c. Low dose of dead or deactivated bacteria or virus d. Form in lymphoid tissue e. Body makes harmless f. Binds with foreign substance to make harmless

d. Form in lymphoid tissue

Hemorrhage a. Minimal bleeding in the skin or mucous membrane b. An accumulation of blood in the tissue c. Larger areas of bleeding into the skin d. Rupture of a blood vessel e. Large (>1 to 2 cm) subcutaneous bruise

d. Rupture of a blood vessel

Stomach, thyroid, and pancreas carcinomas metastasize to the lung by: a. hematogenous spread. b. random nature. c. direct connection. d. lymphangitic spread.

d. lymphangitic spread.

What is nephrocalcinosis? a. Excretion of calcium ions in the urine b. A severe infection of the renal parenchyma c. A renal calculus that fills the entire renal pelvis d. A condition of calcium deposits within the renal parenchyma

d. A condition of calcium deposits within the renal parenchyma

This disorder is caused by a loss of bowel motility. What disorder is demonstrated in this abdominal radiograph? a. Mechanical obstruction b. Intussusception c. Volvulus d. Adynamic ileus

d. Adynamic ileus

The complexity of technology requires the radiographer to: a. have a more specific skill set. b. have an extensive knowledge of anatomy. c. have computer networking classes. d. Both A and B.

d. Both A and B.

Which imaging modality is used to stage esophageal carcinoma? a. Nuclear medicine b. Double-contrast barium swallow c. Ultrasound d. CT

d. CT

heat a. Tumor b. Dolor c. Rubor d. Calor

d. Calor

Which of the following technical adjustments is required when imaging a patient with known obstruction of the large bowel? a. Increase in kVp b. Increase in kVp and double mAs c. Decrease in kVp and half mAs d. Decrease in kVp

d. Decrease in kVp

Which imaging procedure is used to demonstrate dilated veins in the walls of the esophagus? a. Barium enema b. Upper GI c. MRI d. Double-contrast barium swallow

d. Double-contrast barium swallow

Which imaging procedure is used to detect esophageal carcinoma? a. US b. NM c. CT d. Double-contrast barium swallow

d. Double-contrast barium swallow

What term is used to describe an abnormally positioned kidney? a. Kidney aplasia b. Hypertrophic kidney c. Kidney agenesis d. Ectopic kidney

d. Ectopic kidney

What population is most likely to develop stones in the urinary bladder? a. Diabetic persons b. Young adults c. Children d. Elderly males

d. Elderly males

Primary malignant tumors arising from the bone marrow of long bones in children and young adults usually causing localized pain are indicative of: a. osteogenic sarcoma. b. fibrosarcoma. c. chondrosarcoma. d. Ewing's sarcoma.

d. Ewing's sarcoma.

hypoplasia a. Loss of uniformity of individual cells b. Reduction in number or size of cells c. Number of cells in the tissue increases d. Failure of normal development causing smaller cells e. Increased size of the cells

d. Failure of normal development causing smaller cells

What is the most common cause of acute esophagitis? a. Malignancy b. TE fistula c. Infection d. Gastroesophageal reflux

d. Gastroesophageal reflux

A fracture of the arch of C2 anterior to the inferior facet usually associated with anterior subluxation of C2 and C3 is known as a: a. Jefferson's fracture. b. clay shoveler's fracture. c. seat belt fracture. d. Hangman's fracture.

d. Hangman's fracture.

Where in the colon do most primary cancers arise? a. In diverticula b. In the ileocecal valve c. In the perianal area d. In preexisting polyps

d. In preexisting polyps

An air/fluid level within an encapsulated, opaque mass is seen on a chest radiograph. Which respiratory disease demonstrates this characteristic? a. SARS b. Tuberculosis c. Pulmonary metastasis d. Lung abscess

d. Lung abscess

Which condition is most commonly found in children with ureteral duplication? a. Staghorn calculus b. Papillary necrosis c. Renal cyst d. Ureterocele

d. Ureterocele

What is the most common abdominal neoplasm of infancy and childhood? a. Polycystic kidneys b. Renal cell carcinoma c. Hypernephroma d. Wilms' tumor

d. Wilms' tumor

To demonstrate stenoses, blood clots, plaques, and emboli requires: a. a multifrequency transducer. b. harmonic imaging. c. sono CT real-time compound imaging. d. a color-flow duplex system.

d. a color-flow duplex system.

Hypotension and vascular collapse with urticaria, bronchiolar spasm, and laryngeal edema are characteristics of: a. delayed reactions. b. cytotoxic reactions. c. histamine release. d. anaphylactic reactions.

d. anaphylactic reactions.

A cystlike lesion causing ballooning and possibly having internal septations is a(n) a. osteosarcoma b. multiple myeloma c. giant cell tumor d. aneurysmal bone cyst

d. aneurysmal bone cyst

The posterior mediastinum is the location of: a. bronchogenic cysts. b. lymph node disorders. c. teratomas. d. aneurysms of the descending aorta.

d. aneurysms of the descending aorta.

Symptoms suggestive of esophageal or stomach cancer are: a. anasarca and dysphagia. b. anaplasia and anorexia. c. aplasia and gangrene. d. anorexia and dysphagia

d. anorexia and dysphagia

Tumors closely resembling their cells of origin in structure and function are called: a. malignant. b. dysplastic. c. cancerous. d. benign.

d. benign.

Pulmonary metastatic disease most commonly originates from a carcinoma in the a. brain. b. prostate. c. spine. d. breast.

d. breast.

Infected fluid in the pleural cavity is a(n): a. atelectasis. b. pleural effusion. c. lung abscess. d. empyema.

d. empyema.

Swelling of the epiglottic tissue commonly caused by the flu is: a. pleurisy. b. croup. c. pneumonia. d. epiglottitis.

d. epiglottitis.

A miniature replica of a kidney is termed: a. supernumerary kidney. b. ectopic kidney. c. compensatory hypertrophy. d. hypoplastic kidney.

d. hypoplastic kidney.

Depriving tissues of oxygen and nutrients caused by an arterial vessel narrowing is referred to as: a. gangrene. b. filariasis. c. petechiae. d. ischemia.

d. ischemia.

Squamous carcinoma typically arises from the _____ causing gradual narrowing of the bronchial lumen. a. pleural lining b. lung parenchyma c. glandular structures d. major central bronchi

d. major central bronchi

New growths that invade and destroy adjacent structures and have the ability to spread are considered: a. neoplastic. b. benign. c. cachexia. d. malignant.

d. malignant.

A lung abscess is a(n): a. fungus settled in the lung parenchyma. b. encapsulated area containing water. c. is similar to a blood clot. d. necrotic area containing purulent material.

d. necrotic area containing purulent material.

To best demonstrate a physiologic map, the modality of choice is: a. MRI. b. ultrasound. c. CT. d. nuclear medicine.

d. nuclear medicine.

Pyloric stenosis usually results in: a. perforation of the pylorus. b. malabsorption syndrome. c. atrophy of the gastric mucosa. d. obstruction that prevents food from entering the duodenum.

d. obstruction that prevents food from entering the duodenum.

Prolonged exposure to quartz dust found in the earth's crust causes: a. anthracosis. b. pneumoconiosis. c. asbestosis. d. silicosis.

d. silicosis.

To determine the most appropriate therapy, the disease process must be: a. graded. b. phased. c. seeded. d. staged.

d. staged.

Chronic histoplasmosis has a radiographic appearance similar to: a. pneumonia. b. pneumoconiosis. c. pleural effusion. d. tuberculosis.

d. tuberculosis.

immune a. Chemically altered poisonous material b. Recognition of foreign substance c. Low dose of dead or deactivated bacteria or virus d. Form in lymphoid tissue e. Body makes harmless f. Binds with foreign substance to make harmless

e. Body makes harmless

Ecchymosis a. Minimal bleeding in the skin or mucous membrane b. An accumulation of blood in the tissue c. Larger areas of bleeding into the skin d. Rupture of a blood vessel e. Large (>1 to 2 cm) subcutaneous bruise

e. Large (>1 to 2 cm) subcutaneous bruise

hypertrophy a. Loss of uniformity of individual cells b. Reduction in number or size of cells c. Number of cells in the tissue increases d. Failure of normal development causing smaller cells e. Increased size of the cells.

e. Increased size of the cells

Antibody a. Chemically altered poisonous material b. Recognition of foreign substance c. Low dose of dead or deactivated bacteria or virus d. Form in lymphoid tissue e. Body makes harmless f. Binds with foreign substance to make harmless

f. Binds with foreign substance to make harmless

Papillary necrosis

A destructive condition involving the terminal portion of the renal pyramids

Sarcoma

A malignant tumor arising from connective tissue

Oblique

Approximately 45 degree to the long axis of the bone

Transverse

At a right angle to the long axis of the bone

GERD

Barrett's esophagus

Osteochondroma

Benign projection with a cartilaginous cap

Fibroma

Benign tumor consisting of fibrous tissue

Enchondroma

Cartilaginous tumor arising from the medullary canal

Chondroma

Cartilaginous tumor that is benign