Pathophysiology Exam 3
A 12 year old male is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. Which of the following tests should the nurse prepare the patient to best confirm the diagnosis? A. Fasting plasma glucose levels B. Random serum glucose levels C. Genetic testing D. Glycosylated hemoglobin measurements
A
To prepare a client for surgery, which explanation by a nurse would be accurate related to pneumatic compression devices? A. They help the venous blood return to the heart. B. They will not cause discomfort, but gently massage the legs. C. They are used instead of anticoagulant therapy. D. They must be worn until the first time the client gets out of bed
A
Which statement regarding obstructive sleep apnea syndrome (OSAS) is TRUE? Select all that apply. A. Children between the ages of 3 and 6 years of age often show symptoms. B. It is a result of partial or intermittent complete airway obstruction. C. Exposure to passive smoke is considered a risk factor for this disorder. D. Socioeconomic status does not appear to be a risk factor. E. BIt is more commonly observed in males
A, B, C
Which enzyme is released by damaged myocardial muscle tissue? Select all that apply. A. CK-MB B. LDH C. AST D. Troponin I E. ALT
A, B, D
A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition solution. Potassium has not been added to the solution. The nurse monitors the client for which signs of hypokalemia? (Select all that apply.) A. Muscle weakness B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Cardiac dysrhythmias D. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L E. Respiratory rate of 24 or higher
A, C
What situation is characteristic of tricuspid atresia? Select all that apply. A. No pathway between the right health chambers B. A decrease in pulmonary blood flow C. The mixing of unoxygenated and oxygenated bloods D. Cyanosis in the newborn experiencing this disorder E. Children at a risk for endocarditis
A, C, D, E
The posterior pituitary is composed of the: (Select all that apply) A. Median eminence B. Isthmus C. Stalk D. Pars distallis E. Infundibular process
A, C, E
A client develops internal bleeding after an abdominal surgery. Which signs and symptoms of hemorrhage should the nurse expect the client to exhibit? (Select all that apply.) A. Pallor B. Polyuria C. Bradypnea D. Tachycardia E. Hypertension
A, D
A client has surgery to replace a prolapsed mitral valve. What should the nurse teach the client? A. The signs and symptoms of pericarditis B. The possible need for prophylactic antibiotic therapy before dental work C. That cardiac surgery will have to be done eventually for the other valves D. That pregnancy and childbirth are too stressful when one has this problem
B
A client with small-cell lung cancer is receiving chemotherapy. A complete blood count is prescribed before each round of chemotherapy. The component of the complete blood count that the nurse is concerned about most is: A. Red blood cells (RBCs) B. White blood cells (WBCs) C. Platelets D. Hematocrit
B
A nurse is caring for two clients; one has polycythemia and the other has prolonged anemia. What do these clients have in common? A. Increased urinary output B. Increased cardiac workload C. Decreased oxygen saturation D. Decreased arterial blood pressure
B
A patient presents with chest pain that occurs at rest. Abnormal vasospasm of the coronary arteries is detected. Which is the most likely cause of the chest pain? A. Stable angina B. Prinzmetal angina C. Silent ischemia D. Angina pectoris
B
What is the best method for minimizing the spread of tuberculosis from person to person? A. Safe sex practices B. Wearing a face mask C. Good hand washing technique D. Frequent rinsing of the nasal mucosa
B
Which hormone is secreted by the anterior pituitary? A. Androgen B. Prolactin C. Thyroid D. Oxytocin
B
Which structure is a part of the upper airway? A. Trachea B. Nasopharynx C. Larynx D. Bronchi
B
Which term describes the occlusion of a blood vessel from a bolus of circulating matter in the bloodstream? A. Thrombus B. Embolus C. Thrombophlebitis D. Foam cell
B
While checking the lab results for a patient with Graves disease, the nurse would check the T3 level to be abnormally: A. Low B. High C. Variable D. Absent
B
A client's laboratory report indicates the presence of hypokalemia. For which clinical manifestations associated with hypokalemia should the nurse assess the client? (Select all that apply.) A. Thirst B. Anorexia C. Leg cramps D. Rapid, thready pulse E. Dry mucous membranes
B, C
A nurse is caring for a client who had pelvic surgery. The nurse should monitor for which clinical manifestations of thrombophlebitis? (Select all that apply.) A. Pruritus of the calf B. Tender area on the leg C. Warm area over the calf D. Pitting edema of the ankle E. Reddened area at the ankle
B, C
What information will the nurse include when educating a client regarding their diagnosis of empyema? Select all that apply. A. Symptoms include bloody sputum. B. It is the presence of pus in the pleural space. C. A complication of respiratory infection often occurs. D. Diagnosis is made by thoracentesis and sputum culture. E. Breath sounds are increased directly over affected area.
B, C, D
Which responses should a nurse expect a client experiencing hypoglycemia to exhibit? (Select all that apply.) A. Nausea B. Palpitations C. Tachycardia D. Nervousness E. Warm, dry skin F. Increased respirations
B, C, D
A patient is being transferred from another medical facility with a diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Which symptom is typically observed with the presences of an AMI? Select all that apply. A. Cough B. Fever C. Diaphoresis D. Substernal pain E. Cool, clammy skin
B, C, D, E
A client with chronic heart failure is taking a diuretic twice a day. The health care provider prescribes a diet that includes the intake of dietary potassium. What foods that have a higher amount of potassium should the nurse instruct the client to consume? (Select all that apply.) A. Corn B. Bananas C. Strawberries D. Cucumber salad E. Mashed sweet potatoes F. Baked potatoes with skins
B, F
Which statement regarding bronchiolitis is TRUE? A. In adults, it is usually caused by a virus. B. It is most common in chronic bronchitis. C. An inflammatory obstruction of small airways occurs. D. Bacterial infection is a causative agent.
C
Which statement regarding cellular injury of the myocardium is correct? A. Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions for about 40 minutes. B. ECG changes are visible after approximately 120 seconds. C. Myocardial cells remain viable if blood flow returns within 20 minutes. D. After 20 seconds of decreased blood flow, myocardial cells become cooler.
C
Which symptom would a patient diagnosed with pheochromocytoma also experience? A. Hypotension B. Bradycardia C. Headaches D. Increased insulin secretion
C
A 25 year old female with Graves disease is admitted to a medical surgical unit. Palpation of her neck would most likely reveal: A. A normal sized thyroid B. A small discrete thyroid nodule C. Multiple discrete thyroid nodules D. Diffuse thyroid enlargement
D
A client has untreated stage 1 hypertension. What is the minimum systolic pressure the nurse expects when obtaining this client's blood pressure? A. 110 to 119 mm Hg B. 120 to 129 mm Hg C. 130 to 139 mm Hg D. 140 to 159 mm Hg
D
A client takes isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil) daily. The client states, "I would like to start taking sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. I was told I can't take sildenafil and isosorbide dinitrate at the same time." The nurse explains that taking both of these medications concurrently may result in severe: A. Nausea B. Tachypnea C. Constipation D. Hypotension
D
A client with impaired peripheral pulses and signs of chronic hypoxia in a lower extremity is scheduled for a femoral angiogram. What would be appropriate for the nurse to include in the postprocedure plan of care? A. Elevate the foot of the bed B. Perform urinary catheter care every 12 hours C. Place in the high-Fowler position D. Perform a neurovascular assessment every two hours
D
A patient has rheumatic fever. Which valve is most commonly affected? A. Aortic B. Tricuspid C. Pulmonic D. Mitral
D
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a result of: A. an increase in insulin production. B. a decrease in catecholamine secretion. C. impaired metabolism seen in the elderly. D. increased fat mobilization.
D
During a client's routine physical examination, an abdominal aortic aneurysm is diagnosed. The client is admitted to the hospital immediately, and surgery is scheduled for the next morning. Which clinical finding should the nurse expect when completing the admission assessment? A. Signs of shock B. Visible peristaltic waves C. Radiating abdominal pain D. Pulsating abdominal mass
D
What client response indicates to the nurse that a vasodilator medication is effective? A. Pulse rate decreases from 110 to 75 B. Absence of adventitious breath sounds C. Increase in the daily amount of urine produced D. Blood pressure changes from 154/90 to 126/72
D
Which hormone is released from heart tissue in response to increases in blood volume? A. Epinephrine B. Norepinephrine C. Thyroid hormone D. Natriuretic peptide
D
Which peptide has the function of regulating sodium and water balance? A. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) B. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) C. C-type natriuretic peptide D. Urodilantin peptide
D
Which significant risk factors for coronary heart disease carry a greater risk for women than for men? (Select all that apply.) A. Obesity B. Smoking C. Hypertension D. Diabetes mellitus E. Low levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol
D, E
A nurse reviews the laboratory test results of a client with emphysema who is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The nurse obtains the client's vital signs and performs a physical assessment. Which prescribed medication should the nurse consider the priority at this time? A. Albuterol (Proventil) B. Warfarin (Coumadin) C. Metoprolol (Lopresor) D. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
Metoprolol
A 23-year-old patient presents with severe chest pain that worsens with respiratory movements and with lying down. Which is the most appropriate intervention for this condition? A. Administer analgesics B. Percutaneous coronary intervention C. Total bedrest D. Give beta blockers
A
A 3 year old male was diagnosed with congenital hypothyroidism. The parents ask the nurse if left untreated what will happen. What is the nurse's best response? If left untreated, the child would have: A. Mental retardation and stunted growth B. Increased risk of childhood thyroid cancer C. Hyperactivity and attention deficit disorder D. Liver, kidney, and pancreas failure
A
A 50 year old male patient presents with polyuria and extreme thirst. He was given exogenous ADH. For which of the following conditions would this treatment be effective? A. Neurogenic diabetes insipidus B. Psychogenic diabetes insipidus C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. SIADH
A
A client develops iron deficiency anemia. Which of the client's laboratory test results should the nurse expect to be decreased? A. Ferritin level B. Platelet count C. White blood cell count D. Total iron-binding capacity
A
A client is diagnosed with Hodgkin disease. Which lymph nodes does the nurse expect to be affected first? A. Cervical B. Axillary C. Inguinal D. Mediastinal
A
A client is discharged with a prescription for sustained-release nitroglycerin. What should the nurse teach the client about sustained-release nitroglycerin? A. Swallow the capsule whole B. Take milk with the medication C. Hold the tablet under the tongue D. Note a stinging feeling when the drug is under the tongue
A
A client with a history of severe intermittent claudication has a femoral-popliteal bypass graft. What is an appropriate postoperative nursing intervention on the day after surgery? A. Assist the client with walking. B. Help the client to sit in a chair. C. Maintain the client on bed rest. D. Encourage the client to keep the legs elevated.
A
A client with rheumatoid arthritis has been taking a steroid medication for the past year. For which complication of prolonged use of this medication should the nurse assess the client? A. Decreased white blood cells B. Increased C-reactive protein C. Increased sedimentation rate D. Decreased serum glucose levels
A
A nurse has administered sublingual nitroglycerine. Which parameter should the nurse use to determine the effectiveness of sublingual nitroglycerin? A. Relief of anginal pain B. Improved cardiac output C. Decreased blood pressure D. Dilation of superficial blood vessels
A
A nurse in the postanesthesia care unit identifies a progressive decrease in blood pressure in a client who had major abdominal surgery. What clinical finding supports the conclusion that the client is experiencing internal bleeding? A. Oliguria B. Bradypnea C. Pulse deficit D. High potassium levels
A
A nurse is discussing endocrine system dysfunction with a patient. Which statement indicates the patient understood? "Endocrine system dysfunction can result from hyposecretion, hypersecretion, or from": A. Abnormal receptor activity B. Abnormal hormone levels C. Increased synthesis of second messengers D. Extracellular electrolyte alterations
A
A patient develops severe dehydration and hyperglycemia in the absence of ketosis. Which of the following conditions does this patient have? A. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNKS) B. DKA C. Hypoglycemia D. Somogyi effect
A
A patient experiences retinopathy due to diabetes. There is venous dilation, microaneurysm formation, and blot hemorrhages. Which stage of retinopathy is this patient experiencing? A. Stage I B. Stage II C. Stage III D. Stage IV
A
A patient has impaired blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. Which valvular problems does this describe? A. Mitral stenosis B. Mitral regurgitation C. Aortic stenosis D. Aortic regurgitation
A
A patient is diagnosed with inflammation of the endocardium by staphylococcus aureus. Which is the most likely medical diagnosis? A. Infective endocarditis B. Pericardial effusion C. Chronic pericarditis D. Cardiomyopathy
A
A patient is diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and is unable to produce insulin. The pancreatic cells that are most likely damaged are the: A. Beta B. Alpha C. C-peptide D. Delta
A
A symptom of SIADH is: A. hyponatremia. B. hypernatremia. C. hyperosmolality (serum). D. hypoosmolality (urine).
A
A symptom of a prolactinoma would include: A. galactorrhea. B. Alopecia. C. Excessive menses. D. Pregnancy.
A
A young woman presents with pallor, numbness, and a sensation of cold temperature of her digits. Which condition is the most likely cause for these symptoms? A. Raynaud phenomenon B. Thromboangiitis obliterans C. Peripheral vascular disease D. Varicose veins
A
An infant born with a congenital heart defect experiences sudden onset of dyspnea, cyanosis, and restlessness. Which condition will be considered as the cause of these symptoms? A. Tet spell associated with tetralogy of Fallot B. VSD C. Onset of Eisenmenger syndrome D. Atrial septal defect
A
How should the nurse make the bed of a client who is in the acute phase after a myocardial infarction? A. Replace the top linen and only the necessary bottom linen. B. Lift the client from side to side while changing the bed linen. C. Change the linen from top to bottom without lowering the head of the bed. D. Slide the client onto a stretcher to remake the bed and then slide the client back to the bed.
A
Medication used to threat thyrotoxic crisis includes: A. iodine. B. epinephrine. C. thyroid hormone. D. synthroid.
A
The nurse is assessing a client with the diagnosis of chronic heart failure. Which clinical finding should the nurse expect the client to experience? A. Dependent edema in the evening B. Chest pain that decreases with rest C. Palpitations in the chest when resting D. Frequent coughing with yellow sputum
A
The nurse provides discharge medication education to a client who has been switched from a prescription for heparin to a prescription for warfarin sodium (Coumadin). The nurse concludes that the teaching was effective when the client states, "I will: A. Take acetaminophen (Tylenol) for my occasional headaches." B. Spend most of the day working at my desk." C. Ask my health care provider for antibiotics before going to the dentist." D. Make an appointment to have a complete blood count drawn."
A
The only action that would not cause a release on renin is the: A. increase in blood pressure at the renal artery. B. decrease in the amount of sodium delivered to the kidney. C. beta-adrenergic stimuli. D. low potassium concentration.
A
What is the appropriate term for the "thick filaments of myosin that constitute a central dark band"? A. A band B. I band C. Z line D. M line
A
What is the most objective way that a nurse can assess the extent of edema in a client? A. Weighing the client B. Monitoring the intake and output C. Performing the Trendelenburg test D. Assessing the extent of pitting edema
A
When a patient is diagnosed with thyroid carcinoma, patient education concerning the disease should include the information that: A. thyroid carcinoma is the most common endocrine malignancy. B. Americans frequently have thyroid carcinoma as a diagnosis. C. heredity is the most common risk factor for thyroid carcinoma. D. most thyroid carcinoma tumors are undifferentiated.
A
Which drugs have a major effect in decreasing the strength of cardiac contraction? A. Calcium channel blockers B. Narcotics (morphine) C. Adenosine D. Aspirin
A
Which equation is used to determine mean arterial pressure (MAP)? A. MAP = diastolic + 1/3 (systolic - diastolic) B. MAP = VP C. MAP = (P1 - P2) /resistance D. MAP = pressure ¿ radius/wall thickness
A
Which instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client with hyperlipidemia who is being discharged with a prescription for cholestyramine (Questran)? A. "Increase your intake of fiber and fluid." B. "Take the medication before you go to bed." C. "Check your pulse before taking the medication." D. "Contact your health care provider if your skin or sclera turn yellow."
A
Which items are related in the Frank-Starling law of the heart? A. Resting sarcomere length to tension generation B. Resting sarcomere length to end-diastolic volume C. Tension generation and left ventricular pressure D. Tension generation and diastolic filling pressures
A
Which of the following is the appropriate name for the connection between the aorta and pulmonary artery? A. Ductus arteriosus B. Ligamentum venosum C. Foramen ovale D. Bulbus cordis
A
Which of the following represents the measure of time from the onset of atrial activation to the onset of ventricular activation? A. PR interval B. QRS complex C. ST interval D. QT interval
A
Which statement appropriately defines hypoventilation? Hypoventilation is: A. inadequate alveolar ventilation in relation to metabolic demands. B. rapid breathing with little to no expiratory pause. C. difficulty breathing due to body position. D. the feeling of not getting enough air.
A
Which statement regarding chronic bronchitis is TRUE? A. Hypersecretion of mucus is a characteristic. B. It features a chronic productive cough that lasts at least 6 months. C. Symptoms occur for at least 5 consecutive years. D. Is one of the few respiratory diseases not exacerbated by smoking.
A
Which statement regarding croup is TRUE? A. Children between the ages of 6 months and 5 years of age are at greatest risk. B. It is generally a result of a bacterial infection. C. There is no research data to show any relationship to a family history of the disorder. D. It is seen more frequently in female children.
A
A woman comes to the emergency department reporting signs and symptoms determined by the health care provider to be caused by a myocardial infarction. The nurse obtains a health history. Which reported symptoms does the nurse determine are specifically related to a myocardial infarction in women? (Select all that apply.) A. Severe fatigue B. Sense of unease C. Choking sensation D. Chest pain relieved by rest
A, B
A client comes to the ambulatory surgery unit on the morning of an elective surgical procedure. The client reports shortness of breath, dizziness, and palpitations. The nurse observes profuse diaphoresis and is concerned that the client may be having either a panic attack or a myocardial infarction. Which assessments support the conclusion that the client may be experiencing a myocardial infarction? (Select all that apply.) A. Anxiety B. Chest pain C. Irregular pulse D. Fear of losing control E. Feelings of depersonalization
A, B, C
A client with a history of heart failure is admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis of pulmonary edema. For which signs and symptoms specific to pulmonary edema should the nurse assess the client? (Select all that apply.) A. Coughing B. Orthopnea C. Diaphoresis D. Yellow sputum E. Dependent edema
A, B, C
A nurse is caring for a client with right-sided heart failure. Which are key features of right-sided heart failure? (Select all that apply.) A. Dependent edema B. Distended abdomen C. Polyuria at night D. Collapsed neck veins E. Cool extremities
A, B, C
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH) may result from: Select all that apply. A. ectopic production of ADH by tumors. B. pulmonary disorders like asthma. C. central nervous system disorders such as encephalitis. D. psychiatric disease treated with antidepressants or antipsychotics. E. pancreatic disorders such as diabetes insipidus (DI).
A, B, C, D
Which disorder can be the cause of pulmonary fibrosis? Select all that apply. A. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) B. Tuberculosis C. Inhalation of excessive amounts of coal dust D. Rheumatoid arthritis E. Upper respiratory infections
A, B, C, D
Which statement regarding respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn is TRUE? Select all that apply. A. The major predisposing factor is birth prior to 36 weeks. B. There is increased incidence in American newborns. C. It is more frequently seen in infants of diabetic mothers. D. Birth by elective cesarean section increases risk. E. It is more commonly observed in newborn females.
A, B, C, D
Identify the pathway that deoxygenated blood returning through the superior and inferior venae cavae takes to the lung of re-oxygenation? A. Right atrium B. Tricuspid valve C. Right ventricle D. Semiluar valve E. Pulmonary artery
A, B, C, D, E
Complications experienced by patients with chronic uncontrolled type 2 diabetes are: Select all that apply. A. peripheral vascular disease. B. orthostatic hypotension. C. thickened capillary membranes. D. increased glomerular E. filtration rate (GFR). F. visual difficulties.
A, B, C, E
What factor will be influential in the development of aspiration pneumonia? Select all that apply. A. The amount of aspirate B. pH of the material aspirated C. Size of the particles aspirated D. Protein content of the aspirate E. Bacterial content present in the aspirate
A, B, C, E
Which is a function of the pericardium? The pericardium: (Select all that apply) A. prevents displacement of the heart during gravitational acceleration/deceleration. B. acts as a physical barrier that protects the heart against infection and inflammation. C. contains pain receptors and mechanoreceptors that affect blood pressure. D. provides a continuous lining of the arteries, veins, and capillaries of the body. brings about the force required to normalize blood pressure
A, B, C, E
Which items are components of the heart's anatomy? (Select all that apply) A. Two atria B. Two atrioventricular valves C. Two ventricles D. Two-layer heart wall E. Two semilunar valves
A, B, C, E
When a patient asks about secondary lymph organs, how should the nurse respond? Secondary lymph organs include: (Select all that apply) A. Spleen B. Peyer patches C. Adenoids D. Liver E. Bone marrow F. Appendix
A, B, C, F
A client with end-stage renal disease is hospitalized. For what signs and symptoms of complications should the nurse monitor the client? (Select all that apply) A. Anemia B. Dyspnea C. Jaundice D. Anasarca E. Hyperexcitability
A, B, D
An adult is diagnosed with a chronic cough resulting from a viral infection. What nursing intervention is appropriate for this client? Select all that apply. A. Encourage the client to return for treatment if the cough has not resolved in 8 weeks B. Assess for a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) C. Educate the client to strategies to prevent upper respiratory tract infections D. Assess for a history of allergic rhinitis E. Determine whether the client is a smoker
A, B, D
Which factors should the nurse identify that can precipitate hyponatremia? (Select all that apply.) A. Gastrointestinal (GI) suction B. Diuretic therapy C. Inadequate antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion D. Continuous bladder irrigation E. Parenteral infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride
A, B, D
Hypoxemia and cyanosis are generally caused by: Select all that apply. A. lesions that cause right ventricular outflow tract obstruction. B. defects involving mixing of saturated and unsaturated blood. C. constriction of the ductus arteriosus. D. transposition of the great arteries. E. deoxygenated blood flowing into systemic circulation.
A, B, D, E
Risk factors for insulin resistance include: Select all that apply. A. obesity. B. inactivity. C. low-fat diet. D. age. E. medications.
A, B, D, E
The respiratory center is correctly identified as: Select all that apply. A. being located in the brain stem. B. affecting the respiratory muscles' ability to contract and relax. C. containing one major type of neuron. D. transmitting impulses that bring about the physical act of breathing. E. being influenced by emotions and pain.
A, B, D, E
Which client has an increased risk for developing a pulmonary embolus (PE)? Select all that apply. A. The adult in traction for a fractured femur B. The woman taking birth control pills C. The child with exercise-induced asthma D. The teenager receiving intravenous chemotherapy E. The man with a prothrombin gene mutation
A, B, D, E
Which condition can cause of hypercapnia? Select all that apply. A. Disease of the medulla B. Large airway obstruction C. Increased respiratory drive D. Thoracic cage abnormalities E. Depression of the respiratory center
A, B, D, E
Which statement regarding autoregulation is TRUE? (Select all that apply) A. Blood vessels regulate their own blood flow. B. In coronary circulation, pressure is between 60 mmHg and 180 mmHg. C. Mechanism is well documented and is related to the sympathetic system. D. Autoregulation ensures constant coronary blood flow. E. It is proposed that this process originates in vascular smooth muscles of the arterioles.
A, B, D, E
Which symptom would be characteristic of cystic fibrosis (CF)? Select all that apply. A. Persistent cough B. Pneumonia C. Meconium stool D. Barrel chest E. Wheezing
A, B, D, E
Which of the following symptoms indicates to the nurse that the client has an inadequate fluid volume? (Select all that apply.) A. Decreased urine B. Hypotension C. Dyspnea D. Dry mucous membranes E. Pulmonary edema F. Poor skin turgor
A, B, D, F
A beta-blocker, atenolol (Tenormin), is prescribed for a client with moderate hypertension. What information should the nurse include when teaching the client about this medication? (Select all that apply.) A. Change positions slowly B. Take the medication before going to bed C. Count the pulse before taking the medication D. Mild weakness and fatigue are common side effects E. It is safe to take concurrent over-the-counter (OTC) medications
A, C, D
A newly diagnosed diabetic patient will exhibit symptoms of: Select all that apply. A. polydipsia. B. anuria. C. polyphagia. D. weight loss. E. loss of muscle mass.
A, C, D
Which are steps in the process of gas exchange? Select all that apply. A. Ventilation B. Sighing C. Diffusion D. Perfusion E. Rebreathing
A, C, D
Which childhood population is associated with a high risk for asthma? Select all that apply. A. African-American B. Females C. Hispanic D. Urban dwellers E. Middle socioeconomic class
A, C, D
Which statement is correct and should be included in information regarding the function of surfactant? Surfactant: Select all that apply. A. is a lipid protein mix produced by type II cells. B. functions to inhibit normal gas exchange. C. is found in the lining of the alveoli. D. reduces surface tension. E. prevents the collapse of air cells during inhalation.
A, C, D
Which characteristic is associated with hypertension? (Select all that apply) A. Family history positive for hypertension B. Asian race C. High dietary sodium D. Glucose intolerance E. Obesity
A, C, D, E
When assessing the client with peripheral arterial disease, the nurse anticipates the presence of which clinical manifestations? (Select all that apply.) A. Dependent rubor B. Warm extremities C. Ulcers on the toes D. Thick, hardened skin E. Delayed capillary refill
A, C, E
A client comes to the emergency department reporting symptoms of the flu. When the health history reveals intravenous drug use and multiple sexual partners, acute retroviral syndrome is suspected, and a test for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is performed. Which clinical responses are associated most commonly with this syndrome? (Select all that apply.) A. Malaise B. Confusion C. Constipation D. Swollen lymph glands E. Oropharyngeal candidiasis
A, D
A client has a low hemoglobin level, which is attributed to nutritional deficiency, and the nurse provides dietary teaching. Which food choices by the client indicate that the nurse's instructions are effective? (Select all that apply.) A. Raisins B. Squash C. Carrots D. Spinach E. Apricots
A, D
A client with hypertension is to begin a 2-gram sodium diet. The nurse should teach the client to avoid which foods? (Select all that apply.) A. Celery sticks B. Ground beef C. Fresh salmon D. Luncheon meat E. Cooked broccoli
A, D
A nurse is completing the admission assessment of a client with peripheral arterial disease. What assessments are consistent with this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.) A. Absence of hair on the toes B. Superficial ulcer with irregular edges C. Pitting edema of the lower extremities D. Reports of pain associated with exercising E. Increased pigmentation of the medial malleolus area
A, D
What clinical indicators are the nurse most likely to identify when taking the admission history of a client with right ventricular failure? (Select all that apply.) A. Edema B. Vertigo C. Polyuria D. Dyspnea E. Palpitations
A, D
A client's diet is modified to eliminate foods that act as cardiac stimulants. The nurse should teach the client to avoid what foods? (Select all that apply.) A. Iced tea B. Red meat C. Club soda D. Hot cocoa E. Chocolate pudding
A, D, E
A client is admitted with thrombocytopenia. What specific nursing actions are appropriate to include in the plan of care for this client? (Select all that apply.) A. Avoid intramuscular injections. B. Institute neutropenic precautions. C. Monitor the white blood cell count. D. administer prescribed anticoagulants. E. Examine the skin for ecchymotic areas
A, E
Laboratory results of a client's blood after chemotherapy indicate bone marrow depression. What should the nurse encourage the client to do? (Select all that apply.) A. Use a soft toothbrush. B. Sleep with the head of the bed elevated. C. Increase activity levels and take frequent walks. D. Drink more citrus juices and eat more citrus fruits. E. Read the ingredients in over-the-counter drugs before taking them
A, E
Which medical condition places a client at a higher risk for developing chronic upper airway obstruction? Select all that apply. A. Congenital malformation B. Infection C. Angioedema D. Facial trauma E. Subglottic stenosis
A, E
Which medical condition places a client at high risk for developing chronic upper airway obstruction? Select all that apply. A. Congenital malformation B. Infection C. Angioedema D. Facial trauma E. Subglottic stenosis
A, E
A 22 year old female has a low level of TSH. What condition does the nurse expect the patient is experiencing? A. Primary hypothyroidism B. Secondary hypothyroidism C. Autoimmune hypothyroidism D. Atypical hypothyroidism
B
A client has coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery for the second time via a sternal incision. What should the nurse teach the client to expect when returning home? A. No further drainage from the incisions B. Increased edema in the leg that provided the donor graft C. Mild incisional pain and tenderness for three to four weeks D. Extreme fatigue and a mild fever occurring for several weeks
B
A client is admitted to the postanesthesia care unit after surgery and electronic blood pressure monitoring is to be performed. The nurse should assess the client's blood pressure every: A. 3 to 5 minutes B. 10 to 15 minutes C. 20 to 30 minutes D. 40 to 60 minutes
B
A client with a history of type 1 diabetes is diagnosed with heart failure. Digoxin (Lanoxin) is prescribed. When administering the medication, the nurse should: A. Administer the medication with 8 ounces of orange juice B. Monitor the client for atrial fibrillation and first-degree heart block C. Administer the digoxin one hour after the client's morning insulin D. Withhold the medication if the apical pulse rate is greater than 60 beats/min
B
A client with stage III-B Hodgkin disease is started on chemotherapy. The nurse teaches the client to notify the health care provider to seek treatment for which response to chemotherapy? A. Fever of 100° F B. Sores in the mouth C. Moderate diarrhea after treatment D. Nausea for six hours after treatment
B
A client with varicose veins is scheduled for sclerotherapy. What clinical finding does the nurse expect to identify when assessing the lower extremities of this client? A. Pallor B. Ankle edema C. Yellowed toenails D. Diminished pedal pulses
B
A nurse provides instruction when the beta-blocker atenolol (Tenormin) is prescribed for a client with moderate hypertension. What action identified by the client indicates to the nurse that the client needs further teaching? A. Move slowly when changing positions. B. Take the medication before going to bed. C. Expect to feel drowsy when taking this drug. D. Count the pulse before taking the medication.
B
A patient experiences nausea, vomiting, loss of body hair, fatigue, weakness, and hypoglycemia. The hormone deficiency the patient is most likely experiencing is that of: A. TSH. B. ACTH. C. FSH. D. LH.
B
A patient experiences spinal cord damage following a motorcycle accident. Which type of shock would most likely result? A. Hypovolemic B. Vasogenic C. Anaphylactic D. Septic
B
A patient has a loud pansystolic murmur that radiates to the back and axilla. Which valvular abnormality is this describing? A. Mitral stenosis B. Mitral regurgitation C. Aortic stenosis D. Aortic regurgitation
B
A patient has been diagnosed with a pericardial effusion resulting in the presence of frank blood. Which condition is associated with a bloody effusion? A. Tuberculosis B. Coagulation defect C. Neoplasm D. Left heart failure
B
A patient is born with a α-antitrypsin deficiency. Which of the following conditions will most likely manifest? A. Asthma B. Primary emphysema C. Pulmonary fibrosis D. ARDS
B
It is correct to assume that acromegaly: A. occurs due to excessive levels of ACTH. B. is the result of a GH-secreting pituitary adenoma. C. occurs more frequently in men. D. is a relatively common condition.
B
It is true that DI: A. results from low levels of ADH. B. occurs with organic lesion of the hypothalamus or pituitary. C. may be demonstrated by excessively concentrated urine. D. is caused by low levels of ADH.
B
Symptoms of Graves disease includes: A. hypothyroid. B. goiter. C. sunken eyeballs. D. atrial fibrillation.
B
The auscultation of a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur heard during the routine physical examination of a child entering grade school is most likely a result of: A. mitral valve prolapse. B. atrial septal defect. C. ventricular septal defect (VSD). D. congestive heart failure
B
The nurse is reviewing a teaching plan for a client that has been prescribed a 2-gram sodium diet. The plan should include which foods that are low in sodium? A. Meat and fish B. Fruits and juices C. Milk and cheese D. Dry cereals and grains
B
Two siblings are diagnosed with a thyroid disorder due to destruction of thyroid tissue by lymphocytes and circulating thyroid autoantibodies. This pathology is likely the result of: A. subacute thyroiditis. B. Hashimoto disease. C. painless thyroiditis. D. postpartum thyroiditis.
B
What is the effect of angiotensin II? A. Vasodilation B. Vasoconstriction C. Inhibition of aldosterone D. Excretion of sodium at the kidney
B
What is the process called where carbon dioxide (CO2) is exchanged for oxygen? A. Ventilation B. Respiration C. Circulation D. Alveolar ventilation
B
What should the nurse identify as the primary cause of the pain experienced by a client with a coronary occlusion? A. Arterial spasm B. Heart muscle ischemia C. Blocking of the coronary veins D. Irritation of nerve endings in the cardiac plexus
B
Which artery travels in the coronary sulcus between the left atrium and the left ventricle? A. Left anterior descending B. Circumflex C. Right coronary D. Left coronary
B
Which conditions are associated with dyslipidemia? A. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) - triglycerides and fat packages B. Very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL) - triglycerides and proteins C. Low-density lipoproteins (LDL) - phospholipids and proteins D. Chylomicrons - triglycerides and phospholipids
B
Which describes the cardio-inhibitory center? A. Sympathetic excitatory neurons B. Parasympathetic excitatory neurons C. Bainbridge reflex D. Baroreceptor reflex
B
Which is a sign of left ventricular heart failure in an infant? A. Nasal flaring B. Failure to thrive C. Coughing D. Mottled skin
B
Which is the MOST common complication of an AMI? A. Dressler syndrome B. Arrhythmia C. Pericarditis D. Heart failure
B
Which of the following would shift the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the left? A. Acidosis B. Hypocapnia C. Increased H+ ion D. Increased metabolic activity
B
Which part of the heart is responsible for electrical impulse stimulation? A. Atrioventricular (AV) node B. Sinoatrial (SA) node C. Bundle of His D. Right bundle branch
B
Which pathology most commonly results in pulmonary edema? A. The inhalation of organic particles causing an inflammatory response B. Increasing pressure in the left chambers of the heart C. Inflammatory obstruction of small airways D. The permanent enlargement of acini
B
Which statement regarding arteriosclerosis is TRUE? Arteriosclerosis is: A. an acute process of heart muscle degeneration. B. thickening and hardening of the vessel wall. C. plaque caused by neutrophils. D. fatty streaks and foam cells that are identical
B
Which statement regarding stridor is supported by medical research? A. Inspiratory stridor occurs with obstruction of the intrathoracic airway. B. Expiratory stridor is also called a monophonic wheeze. C. Intrathoracic airway is above the thoracic inlet. D. Biphasic stridor is often caused at the lower trachea.
B
Which statement regarding the airway of an infant is TRUE? A. Airway obstruction is most likely to occur in an infant. B. An infant's cartilage is less likely to collapse. C. Comparatively speaking, infants' airways have large diameters. D. Coughing in an infant is generally a benign condition.
B
Which statement regarding the epidemiology of congenital heart defects in children is TRUE? A. There are 95 types of congenital heart disease. B. Congenital heart disease is the leading cause of death. C. Fifty percent of deaths due to congenital heart disease occur in the first year of life. D. The underlying cause of congenital heart defect is known in 90% of cases.
B
Which statement regarding the thoracic duct is TRUE? The thoracic duct: A. is a major source of venous return to the heart. B. receives lymph from most of the body. C. collects lymph from the right arm, head, and thorax. D. dumps blood into the right atrium.
B
A nurse provides dietary instruction to a client who has iron deficiency anemia. Which food choices by the client does the nurse consider most desirable? (Select all that apply.) A. Raw carrots B. Boiled spinach C. Sweet potatoes D. Brussels sprouts E. Asparagus spears
B, C
A client has been experiencing extreme fatigue lately. The nurse suspects anemia and examines the client to identify additional clinical manifestations to support this inference. What locations on the client's body should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) A. Sclera B. Nail beds C. Lining of eyelids D. Palms of hands E. Bony prominences
B, C, D
A nurse assesses a client's intravenous site. What clinical finding leads the nurse to conclude that the intravenous (IV) site has been infiltrated? (Select all that apply.) A. Redness along the vein B. Coolness of skin near the insertion site C. Swelling around the insertion site D. Cessation in flow of solution E. Vein feels hard and cordlike
B, C, D
Which structures are considered part of the acinus? Select all that apply. A. Trachea B. Respiratory bronchioles C. Alveolar ducts D. Alveoli E. Nare
B, C, D
Children with tetralogy of Fallot will present with: Select all that apply. A. atrial septal defect. B. VSD. C. pulmonary stenosis. D. right ventricular hypertrophy. E. an aorta that straddles the ventricular septum.
B, C, D, E
A nurse asks a client with ischemic heart disease to identify the foods that are most important to restrict. The nurse determines that the client understands the dietary instructions when the client identifies the following foods. (Select all that apply.) A. Olive oil B. Chicken broth C. Enriched whole milk D. Red meats, such as beef E. Vegetables and whole grains F. Liver and other glandular organ meats
B, C, D, F
The nurse is providing postoperative care for a client who has received a prescription for nalbuphine (Nubain) for pain. For which side effects or adverse reactions should the nurse assess this client after administering this medication? (Select all that apply.) A. Oliguria B. Dry mouth C. Palpitations D. Constipation E. Urinary retention F. Orthostatic hypotension
B, C, D, F
What should the nurse include in a teaching plan for a client taking calcium channel blockers such as Nifedipine (Procardia)? (Select all that apply.) A. Reduce calcium intake. B. Change positions slowly. C. Report peripheral edema. D. Expect temporary hair loss. E. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
B, C, E
A client's serum potassium level is below the expected range. Which clinical indicators should the nurse determine are consistent with hypokalemia? (Select all that apply.) A. Abdominal cramps B. Decreased heart rate C. Peripheral paresthesia D. Decreased bowel sounds E. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
B, D
A client's laboratory report indicates hyperkalemia. Which responses should the nurse expect the client to exhibit? (Select all that apply.) A. Anorexia B. Vomiting C. Constipation D. Muscle weakness E. Irregular heart rate
B, D, E
Which statement regarding hypocapnia is TRUE? Select all that apply. A. Severe cases sometimes result in disorientation B. Should be assessed for in clients experiencing severe anxiety C. Caused by inadequate alveolar ventilation D. Results in respiratory alkalosis E. The condition confirmed by a PaCO2 less than 36 mm Hg
B, D, E
A nurse is caring for a client whose laboratory values indicate the presence of hyponatremia. For which risk factors should the nurse assess the client that most likely may have caused the hyponatremia? (Select all that apply.) A. Diabetes insipidus B. Profuse diaphoresis C. Excess sodium intake D. Removal of the parathyroid glands E. Rapid IV infusion of 5% dextrose in water
B, E
When monitoring a client for hyponatremia, what clinical findings should the nurse consider significant? (Select all that apply.) A. Thirst B. Confusion C. Tachycardia D. Pale coloring E. Poor tissue turgor
B, E
A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of varicose veins. Which clinical findings can the nurse expect to identify when assessing this client? (Select all that apply.) A. Discolored toenails B. Reports of leg fatigue C. Localized heat in a calf D. Reddened areas on a leg E. Tortuous veins in the legs F. Pain in lower extremities when standing
B, E, F
A client complains of foot pain and is diagnosed with arterial insufficiency. The nurse provides teaching about what the client can do to increase arterial dilation and to decrease foot pain. The nurse concludes that further teaching is needed when the client states what? A. "I will wear socks." B. "I will quit smoking." C. "I will elevate my foot." D. "I will increase fluid intake."
C
A client experiences an increased pressure in the chest cavity with resulting collapse of the right lung and is diagnosed with a secondary pneumothorax. This diagnosis is based on what criterion? A. Tracheal deviation away from the affected lung is present. B. The exact cause of the pathology is not known. C. The client experienced some type of chest trauma resulting in the symptoms. D. The rupture of blebs on the visceral pleura resulted in the symptoms.
C
A client who had a myocardial infarction receives a prescription for a beta-blocker and a nitroglycerin patch. The nurse determines that the purpose of the nitroglycerin patch is to decrease the: A. Pulse rate, thereby strengthening cardiac contractility B. Cardiac output, thereby reducing the cardiac workload C. Preload of the heart, thereby reducing the cardiac workload D. Coronary artery lumens, thereby reducing peripheral resistance
C
A condition in which blood has pooled, producing distended and palpable vessels, is referred to as a: A. thrombus. B. venous stasis ulcers. C. varicose veins. D. deep vein thrombosis.
C
A health care provider in the emergency department identifies that a client is in mild hypovolemic shock. Which type of drug should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed? A. Loop diuretic B. Cardiac glycoside C. Sympathomimetic D. Alpha-adrenergic blocker
C
A macrophage was isolated and analyzed for major histocompatibility complex. Which of the following would be expected? A. MHC I only B. MHC II only C. MHC I and II D. Neither MHC I or MHC II
C
A nurse begins to develop a plan of care with a client who has left ventricular heart failure that resulted from a myocardial infarction (MI). What should be the primary focus of the plan during the acute phase of recovery? A. Increasing activity tolerance B. Preventing cardiac dysrhythmias C. Promoting physical and emotional rest D. Maintaining potassium and sodium intake
C
A nurse observes the following dysrhythmia on a client's cardiac monitor. What rhythm does the nurse identify? A. Atrial flutter B. Atrial fibrillation C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Ventricular tachycardia
C
A nurse providing care to a client who had major abdominal surgery monitors the client for postoperative complications. Which clinical findings are indicators of impending hypovolemic shock? A. Diuresis, irritability, and fever B. Lethargy, cold skin, and hypertension C. Thirst, cool skin, and orthostatic hypotension D. Bounding pulse, restlessness, and slurred speech
C
A patient has symmetrically dilated airways. Which type of bronchial dilation is this? A. Saccular B. Varicose C. Cylindrical D. Bronchiectasis
C
Abnormalities in endocrine function may be caused by a(n): A. Decrease in hormone levels. B. Altered metabolism of the hormones. C. Absence of antibodies against specific receptors. D. Faulty feedback systems. E. Hormone production by nonendocrine tissue.
C
It is correct to assume that pituitary adenomas: A. will experience rapid growth. B. are generally metastatic. C. arise from the anterior pituitary. D. have a pathogenesis due to infarction.
C
It is correct to assume that primary hypothyroidism: A. is commonly observed. B. occurs in children aged 5 to 10 years. C. is the result of absent thyroid tissue. D. occurs more frequently in male infants.
C
Myxedema coma is generally associated with: A. hyperthyroidism. B. hyperthermia. C. lactic acidosis. D. Hyperglycemia.
C
The nurse is providing teaching to a client who is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization via the femoral approach. The teaching includes that the client will be: A. Ambulated shortly after being transferred to the inpatient room after the procedure. B. Given a general anesthesia and therefore will be asleep during the procedure. C. In the supine position with the affected leg extended for several hours postprocedure. D. Given only clear liquids for the remainder of the procedure day.
C
The term that describes "obvious changes in cell function that result from stimulation by a particular hormone" is: A. Upregulation B. Downregulation C. Direct effects D. Permissive effects
C
What is the cause of the hyperpigmentation seen in people with Cushing syndrome? A. Abnormal levels of cortisol B. Permissive effects of aldosterone with cortisol levels are altered C. Elevated levels of ACTH D. Hypersensitivity of melanocytes with sun exposure
C
What should a nurse do to decrease or control the sensory and cognitive disturbances that can occur after a client has open-heart surgery? A. Restrict family visits B. Withhold analgesic medications C. Plan for maximum periods of rest D. Keep the room light on most of the time
C
What two factors determine cardiac output? A. Parasympathetic and sympathetic activity B. Preload and afterload C. Heart rate and stroke volume D. Right and left atrial pressure
C
Which client should a nurse consider the greatest risk for developing hypernatremia? A. 52-year-old who is receiving 0.45% NaCl intravenously B. 76-year-old who developed syndrome of inappropriate antidiurectic hormone secretion (SIADH) as a result of head trauma C. 63-year-old who has had watery diarrhea since traveling abroad D. 48-year-old who is admitted with a diagnosis of Addison disease
C
Which complication occurs secondary to hypertension? A. Cardiovascular muscle atrophy B. Hypoglycemia C. Congestive heart failure D. Decreased demand for coronary perfusion
C
Which statement correctly defines Eisenmenger syndrome? A. Left-to-right shunt B. Oxygenated blood flows into pulmonary circulation C. Deoxygenated blood flows into systemic circulation D. Correction of the VSD
C
Which statement is TRUE regarding sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)? A. Peak age is 6 months of age. B. Higher frequency occurs during summer months. C. Young maternal age increases incidence. D. Incidence is unaffected by prenatal care received.
C
Which statement is correct regarding features of cardiac function of the newborn? A. Heart rate is 220 to 280. B. Cardiac output is low. C. Oxygen consumption doubles. D. Cardiovascular system is small compared with body surface area.
C
Which statement regarding an atrial septal defect is accurate? A. A sinus venosus defect is an opening in the center of the septum. B. An ostium secundum defect is found low in the septum. C. An ostium primum defect is found low in the septum. D. An ostium primum is the most common defect found.
C
Which statement regarding cigarette smoke is correct? Cigarette smoking produces: A. decreased LDL . B. increased HDL . C. increased thrombotic state. D. decreased inflammatory state.
C
Which statement regarding the lower airway is accurate? A. The trachea bifurcates at the larynx. B. The trachea has no supportive structure. C. The right and left main bronchi enter the lungs at the hila. D. The goblet cells are air-filled cells.
C
While obtaining a health history, a nurse expects a client admitted to the hospital with chronic heart failure to report: A. Tingling in the upper extremities B. Feeling bloated after eating C. A need to use three pillows at night to sleep D. Swelling of the ankles that is more apparent in the morning
C
Which muscle has a major role in respiration? Select all that apply. A. Sternocleidomastoid B. Trapezius C. External intercostal D. Diaphragm E. Scalene
C, D
The nurse is making rounds on a patient who has developed severe bone marrow depression after receiving chemotherapy for cancer. Which of these actions by the nurse is appropriate? (Select all that apply.) A. Monitor for signs of alopecia. B. Encourage an increase in fluids. C. Wash hands before entering the client's room. D. Advise use of a soft toothbrush for oral hygiene. E. Report an elevation in temperature immediately. F. Encourage the client to eat raw, fresh fruits and vegetables
C, D, E
A nurse is teaching a client who had a myocardial infarction about the prescribed 1500-calorie, 2-gram-sodium, weight-reducing diet. Which low-sodium, low-calorie nutrients should the nurse recommend that the client include in the diet? (Select all that apply.) A. Lean steak B. Celery sticks C. Baked chicken D. Tuna fish salad E. Mashed potatoes
C, E
Valsartan (Diovan), an angiotensin II receptor antagonist, is prescribed for a client. For which possible side effects should the nurse monitor the client? (Select all that apply.) A. Constipation B. Hypokalemia C. Irregular pulse rate D. Change in visual acuity E. Orthostatic hypotension
C, E
A 49 year old female is diagnosed with hypercortisolism. Which of the following would the nurse expect? A. Weight loss B. Hypoglycemia C. Decreased urination D. Osteoporosis
D
A child has been noted to have hypertension with decreased pulses in the lower extremities. Which condition is the most likely congenital cause for this finding? A. Tricuspid atresia B. Atrial septal defect C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Coarctation of the aorta
D
A client with a long history of bilateral varicose veins questions a nurse about the brownish discoloration of the skin on the lower extremities. What should the nurse include in the response to the client's question? A. The arterial blood supply is inadequate. B. There is delayed healing in the area after an injury. C. The production of melanin in the area has increased. D. There is leakage of red blood cells (RBCs) through the vascular wall.
D
A client with bilateral varicose veins of the lower extremities questions the nurse about the brownish discoloration of the lower legs. The best response by the nurse is, "This is probably the result of: A. Inadequate arterial blood supply." B. Delayed healing of tissues after an injury." C. Increased production of melanin in the area." D. Leakage of red blood cells through the vascular wall."
D
A health care provider prescribes a dose of medication that is much higher than is recommended for the clinical situation, and directs the nurse to give the medication immediately. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? A. "The dose is too high. I do not feel comfortable administering this dose." B. "Please tell me how you arrived at this dose. I think your calculations are incorrect." C. "You're probably thinking of another drug. This is beyond the safe dosage limits indicated for this drug." D. "That dose is more than I can give legally. However, if the dose is medically indicated, please administer it yourself."
D
A nurse witnesses a person fall. The person becomes unresponsive and pulseless. The nurse plans to use an automated external defibrillator (AED) that is available on site. What should the nurse do first? A. Remove all jewelry B. Wash the chest area C. Use a grounded electric source D. Remove any medication patches
D
A patient experiences an elevated systolic pressure accompanied by normal diastolic pressure (below 90 mmHg). Which is the correct term for this condition? A. Primary hypertension B. Secondary hypertension C. Tertiary hypertension D. Isolated systolic hypertension
D
A patient is diagnosed with an antidiuretic hormone-producing lung tumor. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Adenocarcinoma C. Undifferentiated large cell carcinoma D. Small cell carcinoma
D
A patient with visual changes that begin in one eye then progress to the second eye is likely experiencing: A. pituitary infarct. B. ACTH insufficiency. C. Growth hormone (GH) insufficiency. D. pituitary adenoma.
D
Amlodipine (Norvasc) is prescribed for a client with hypertension. Which response to the medication should the nurse instruct the client to report to the health care provider? A. Blurred vision B. Dizziness on rising C. Excessive urination D. Difficulty breathing
D
Digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix) are prescribed for a client with the diagnosis of pulmonary edema. What client response to digoxin is unrelated to toxicity? A. Nausea B. Yellow vision C. Irregular pulse D. Pulse of 64
D
When a client has a myocardial infarction, one of the major manifestations is a decrease in conductive energy provided to the heart. What is most important for the nurse to assess that has a direct relationship to the action potential of the heart? A. Heart rate B. Refractory period C. Pulmonary pressure D. Strength of contractions
D
Which classic breathing pattern is generally identified with Cheyne-Stokes respirations? A. A lack of expiratory pause B. Presence of occasional sighs C. Rapid cycle of inspirations and expirations D. Alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing
D
Which diagnosis finding is characteristically present when the parietal pleura is infected? A. Enlarged finger tips B. PaCO2≥50 mm Hg with pH ≤7.25. C. Bloody sputum D. Unique breath sound called a friction rub
D
Which pathogen is consistent associated with nosocomial pneumonia? A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae C. Haemophilus influenzae D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D
Which phrase is the definition of cardiac preload? A. Impedance to ejection of blood from the left ventricle B. Wall tension related to internal blood vessel radius C. A lower than normal tension curve D. Pressure generated by the end-diastolic volume
D
Which receptor monitors pH, PaCO2, and PaO2 of arterial blood? A. Stretch receptors B. Irritant receptor C. J receptors D. Chemoreceptors
D
Which statement regarding the zones of the lung is accurate? A. Zone 1 is above the level of the left atrium. B. In zone 2, alveolar pressure exceeds pulmonary arterial and venous pressures. C. Zone 2 is a small part of the lung at the apex. D. Zone 3 is in the base of the lung.
D
Which structure is the source of nutrients for the blood vessels? A. Tunica intima B. Tunica media C. Adventitia D. Vasa vasorum
D
A client who was admitted with a diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia is receiving chemotherapy. Which assessment findings should alert the nurse to the possible development of the life threatening response of thrombocytopenia? (Select all that apply.) A. Fever B. Diarrhea C. Headache D. Hematuria E. Ecchymosis
D, E
A nurse is caring for a client who just had major abdominal surgery. What client responses indicate the possibility of developing a superficial venous thrombosis? (Select all that apply.) A. Pitting edema of the ankle B. Reddened area at the ankle C. Pruritus on the side of the calf D. Tender area in the posterior lower leg E. Warmth along the course of the involved vessel
D, E
Which statement by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) indicates a correct understanding of the UAP's role? "I will: A. Turn off clients' IVs that have infiltrated." B. Take clients' vital signs after their procedures are over." C. Use unit written materials to teach clients before surgery." D. Help by giving medications to clients who are slow in taking pills.
B
While planning care for a patient with hypothyroidism, which principle should the nurse remember? The basal metabolic rate is unusually ____ with hypothyroidism. A. High B. Low C. Steady D. Variable
B
When assessing a client with heart failure, the nurse asks when the client most notices an increase in symptoms. Which activity should the nurse expect will cause the client the greatest distress? A. Getting up from bed in the morning B. Walking to visit the next-door neighbor C. Climbing a flight of stairs to the bedroom D. Leaving the table immediately after a meal
C
Which of the following diseases should the nurse teach the patient to prevent as it is the ultimate cause of death in the patient with diabetes? A. Renal disease B. Stroke C. Cardiovascular disease D. Cancer
C
The thyroid gland contains: (Select all that apply) A. C-cells B. Follicles C. Isthmus D. Somatostatin E. Chromophils
A, B, C, E
A characteristic of a hormone includes: (Select all that apply) A. Having specific rates and rhythms of secretion B. Operating independently of feedback systems C. Affecting only cells with appropriate receptors D. Being excreted by the kidneys E. Having little integration with the nervous system
A, C, D
A 15 year old female presents with breast discharge, dysmenorrhea, and excessive excitability. Tests reveal that all her pituitary hormones are elevated. What does the nurse suspect as the most likely cause for these assessment findings? A. A pituitary adenoma B. Hypothalamic hypo secretion C. Hypothalamic inflammation D. Pheochromocytoma
A
A 35 year old female with Graves disease is admitted to a medical surgical unit. While the nurse is reviewing the lab tests, which results would the nurse expect to find? A. High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating antibodies B. Ectopic secretion of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) C. Low circulating levels of thyroid hormones D. Increased circulation of iodine
A
A male client receiving hemodialysis undergoes surgery to create an arteriovenous fistula. Before discharge, the nurse discusses care at home with the client and his wife. Which statement by the client's wife indicates that further teaching is required? A. "I must touch the shunt several times a day to feel for the bruit." B. "I have to take his blood pressure every day in the arm with the fistula." C. "He will have to be very careful at night not to lie on the arm with the fistula." D. "We really should check the fistula every day for signs of redness and swelling.
B
A 19 year old female with type 1 DM was admitted to the hospital with altered consciousness and the following lab values: serum glucose 500 mg/dl (high) and serum K+ 2 (low). Her parents state that she has been sick with the flu for a week. The diagnosis is hyperosmolar hyperglycemia nonketotic syndrome (HHNKS). What relationship do these values have with her insulin deficiency? A. Increased glucose utilization causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space B. Decreased insulin causes hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis C. Increased glucose and fatty acid metabolism stimulates renal diuresis and electrolyte loss D. Increased insulin use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, and electrolyte loss
B
A 19 year old female with type 1 DM was admitted to the hospital with the following lab values: glucose 500 mg/dl (high), urine glucose and ketones 4+ (high), and arterial pH 7.2 (low). Her parents state that she has been sick wit the flu for a week. Which of the following statements best explains her acidotic state? A. Increased insulin levels promote protein breakdown and ketone formation B. Her uncontrollable diabetes has led to renal failure C. Low serum insulin promotes lipid storage and a corresponding release of ketones D. Insulin deficiency promotes lipid metabolism and ketone formation
D
A 30 year old female presents with hypertension, headache, tachycardia, impaired glucose tolerance, and weight loss. Which of the following diagnosis will the nurse see documented on the chart? A. Addison disease B. Conn disease C. Cushing disease D. Pheochromocytoma
D
The nurse has taken a client's blood pressure twice, 10 minutes apart, in the same arm while the client is seated. The nurse records the two blood pressures of 172/104 and 164/98. What is the appropriate nursing action in response to these readings? A. Refer the client to a nutritionist after providing health teaching about a low-sodium diet. B. Place the client in a recumbent position and call the paramedics for transport to the hospital. C. Talk with the client to assess whether there is stress in the client's life and refer to a counseling service. D. Take the client's blood pressure in the other arm and then schedule a health care practitioner's appointment for as soon as possible.
D
What problem should the nurse assess for in a patient with chronic hyperparathyroidism? A. Seizure disorders B. Vitamin D malabsorption C. Hyponatremia D. Osteoporosis and pathologic fractures
D
Which of the following alterations would the nurse expect to find in a patient with untreated Cushing disease or syndrome? A. Bradycardia B. Tachypnea C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypertension
D
Which of the following statements indicates more teaching is needed regarding secondary lymph organs? "____ is/are a secondary lymph organ." A. The spleen B. Peyer patches C. Adenoids D. The liver
D
What clinical indicator is the nurse most likely to identify when completing a history and physical assessment of a client with complete heart block? A. Syncope B. Headache C. Tachycardia D. Hemiparesis
A
Which hormone is secreted by the posterior pituitary? A. Oxytocin B. Calcitonin C. Thyroid-stimulating (TSH) D. Parathyroid (PTH)
A
An 11 year old male is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. Which classic symptoms should the nurse assess the patient for? A. Recurrent infections, visual changes, fatigue, and paresthesias B. Polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, and weight loss C. Vomiting, abdominal pain, sweet, fruity breath, dehydration, and kussmaul breathing D. Weakness, vomiting, hypotension, and mental confusion
B
An aide asks the nurse what is the most common cause of elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion. How should the nurse respond? A. Autoimmune disease B. Cancer C. Pregnancy D. Heart failure
B
An older client who lives alone was found unconscious on the floor at home. The client was admitted to the hospital with the diagnoses of a fractured hip, kidney failure, and dehydration. In the 24 hours since admission, the client received 1500 mL of intravenous fluid and the serum electrolyte value demonstrates hyponatremia. The nurse concludes that the element that most likely contributed to the hyponatremia is: A. Salt intake B. Fluid intake C. Sodium absorption D. Glomerular filtration
B
The nurse is providing care for a client that had an endarterectomy one month ago. The nurse explains the reason that clopidogrel (Plavix) is being prescribed. The nurse concludes that the teaching is understood when the client says, "The medication will: A. Limit inflammation around my incision." B. Help prevent further clogging of my arteries." C. Lower the slight fever I have had since surgery." D. Reduce the discomfort I feel at the surgical incision."
B
Visual disturbances are a common occurrence in patients with untreated Graves disease. The endocrinologist explains to the patient that the main cause of these complications is: A. Decreased blood flow to the eye B. Orbital edema and protrusion of the eyeball C. TSH neurotoxicity to retinal cells D. local lactic acidosis
B
What should the nurse expect the health care provider to prescribe if a client exhibits clinical indicators of warfarin (Coumadin) overdose? A. Heparin B. Vitamin K C. Iron dextran (Imferon) D. Protamine sulfate
B
When a nurse is assessing the physical features of individuals with Cushing syndrome, these findings will include: A. Weight loss and muscle wasting B. Truncal obesity and moon face C. Pallor and swollen tongue D. Depigmented skin and eyelid lag
B
When a patient asks what causes hyperglycemia in type 2 DM, how should the nurse respond? Hyperglycemia is a result of: A. Insulin deficiency B. Hyperinsulinemia C. glucagon deficiency D. liver dysfunction
B
When a staff member asks the nurse what causes the chronic complications of DM such as microvascular and macrovascular disease, how should the nurse respond? These complications are primarily related to: A. pancreatic changes B. hyperglycemia C. ketone toxicity D. hyperinsulinemia
B
A 54 year old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis (lung infection) is evaluated for syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH). Which of the following electrolyte imbalances would be expected in this patient? A. Hyponatremia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypernatremia D. Hypokalemia
A
A 55 year old female is admitted to the medical unit for complications of long term, poorly controlled type 2 DM. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in addition to elevated glucose? A. Atherosclerosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Elevated liver enzymes D. Anemia
A
A client comes to the emergency department complaining of weakness and dizziness. The blood pressure is 90/60, pulse is 92 and weak, and body weight reflects a 3-pound loss in two days. The weather has been hot. The nurse concludes that the biggest concern for this client is: A. Deficient fluid volume B. Impaired skin integrity C. Inadequate nutritional intake D. Decreased participation in activities
A
A client is admitted to the hospital with chest pain and a diagnosis of myocardial infarction. The nurse expects the client to describe the chest pain as: A. Severe, intense B. Burning and of short duration C. Mild, radiating toward the abdomen D. Squeezing, relieved by Maalox
A
A client who has always been active is diagnosed with atherosclerosis and hypertension. The client is interested in measures that will help promote and maintain health. What recommendation by the nurse will help the client maintain blood vessel patency? A. Practice relaxation techniques B. Lead a more sedentary lifestyle C. Decrease the amount of exercise D. Increase saturated fats in the diet
A
A client who is receiving multiple medications for a myocardial infarction complains of severe nausea, and the client's heartbeat is irregular and slow. The nurse determines that these signs and symptoms are toxic effects of: A. Digoxin (Lanoxin) B. Captopril (Capoten) C. Morphine sulfate (MS Contin) D. Furosemide (Lasix )
A
A client with esophageal varices is admitted with hematemesis, and two units of packed red blood cells are prescribed. The client complains of flank pain halfway through the first unit of blood. The nurse's first action is to: A. Stop the transfusion B. Obtain the vital signs C. Assess the pain further D. Monitor the hourly urinary output
A
A nurse identifies signs of electrolyte depletion in a client with heart failure who is receiving bumetanide (Bumex) and digoxin (Lanoxin). What does the nurse determine is the cause of the depletion? A. Diuretic therapy B. Sodium restriction C. Continuous dyspnea D. Inadequate oral intake
A
A nurse is collecting data from a client with varicose veins who is to have sclerotherapy. What should the nurse expect the client to report? A. Feeling of heaviness in both legs. B. Intermittent claudication of the legs. C. Calf pain on dorsiflexion of the foot. D. Hematomas of the lower extremities
A
A nurse is taking the blood pressure of a client with hypertension. The first sound is heard at 140 mm Hg, the second sound is a swishing sound heard at 130 mm Hg, a tapping sound is heard at 100 mm Hg, a muffled sound is heard at 90 mm Hg, and the sound disappears at 72 mm Hg. When recording just the systolic and diastolic readings, what is the diastolic pressure? A. 72 mm Hg B. 90 mm Hg C. 100 mm Hg D. 130 mm Hg
A
The posterior pituitary gland secretes: A. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B. Prolactin-releasing factor (PRF) C. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) D. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
A
A woman comes to the emergency department reporting signs and symptoms determined by the health care provider to be caused by a myocardial infarction. The nurse obtains a health history. Which reported symptoms does the nurse determine are specifically related to a myocardial infarction in women? (Select all that apply.) A. Severe fatigue B. Sense of unease C. Choking sensation D. Chest pain relieved by rest E. Pain radiating down the left arm
A, B
A nurse is assessing a patient with hypoparathyroidism. Clinical manifestations of hypoparathyroidism include (select all that apply): A. Tetany B. Chyvostek sign C. Trousseau sign D. Oily skin E. Hair loss
A, B, C, E
The effects of glucocorticoids includes: (Select all that apply) A. Metabolic B. Hypertensive C. Anti-inflammatory D. Growth suppression E. Tumor growth
A, C, D
When two nurses are getting an older adult out of bed, the client reports feeling lightheaded. The nurse identifies that the client's pulse is stable and the client's color has not changed. What should the nurses assist the client to do? A. Slide slowly to the floor to prevent a fall and injury. B. Sit on the edge of the bed while they hold the client upright. C. Bend forward because this will increase blood flow to the brain. D. Lie down quickly so the legs can be raised above the heart level.
B
A 30 year old female with Graves disease is admitted to a hospital unit for the surgical removal of her thyroid gland. During the postoperative period, the nurse notes that the patients serum calcium is low. The nurse should observe the patient for which of the following signs and symptoms? A. Muscle weakness and constipation B. Laryngeal spasms and hyperreflexia C. Abdominal pain and fever D. Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting
B
A client hospitalized for heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and will continue taking the drug after discharge. What should be included in the plan of care for the next few days? A. Monitoring vital signs and encouraging a vigorous aerobic exercise program. B. Taking the apical pulse before drug administration and teaching the client how to count the pulse. C. Contacting Social Services for a home health nursing consultation. D. Providing written material on the adverse effects of the medication.
B
A client is diagnosed with heart failure and is admitted for medical management. Which statement made by the client may indicate worsening heart failure? A. "I am unable to run a mile now." B. "I wake up at night short of breath." C. "My shoes seem larger lately." D. "My wife says I snore very loudly."
B
A client who is suspected of having had a silent myocardial infarction has an electrocardiogram (ECG) prescribed by the health care provider. While the nurse prepares the client for this procedure, the client asks, "Why was this test prescribed?" The best reply by the nurse is, "This test will: A. Detect your heart sounds." B. Reflect any heart damage." C. Help us change your heart's rhythm." D. Tell us how much stress your heart can tolerate."
B
A client with a history of hypertension develops dyspnea on exertion. What does the nurse conclude is the most likely cause of the client's dyspnea? A. Cor pulmonale B. Left heart failure C. Bronchial spasms D. Right ventricular failure
B
A client with a history of hypertension has a blood pressure of 180/102 mm Hg. When the nurse asks whether the client has been taking any medications, the client replies, "I took the blood pressure pills the health care provider prescribed for a few weeks, but I didn't feel any different, so I decided I'd only take them when I feel sick." What is the best initial response by the nurse? A. "I'm glad to hear you have felt well enough to stop the medication." B. "It is important to take your medications daily to achieve optimal results." C. "You must be quite frightened about having high blood pressure." D. "You will need to document daily whether you took your medication or not."
B
A male client with aortic stenosis is scheduled for a valve replacement in two days. He tells the nurse, "I told my wife all she needs to know if I don't make it." What response is most therapeutic? A. "Men your age do very well." B. "You are worried about dying." C. "I know you are concerned, but your surgeon is excellent." D. "I'll get you a sleeping pill tonight because I know you will need it."
B
A nurse is caring for a client who is a victim of trauma and is to receive a blood transfusion. How should the nurse respond when the client expresses fear that acquired immunodeficiency disease (AIDS) may be acquired as a result of the blood transfusion? A. "The blood is treated with radiation to kill the virus." B. "Screening for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibodies has minimized this risk." C. "The ability to directly identify HIV has eliminated this concern." D. "Consideration should be given to donating your own blood for transfusion."
B
A nurse is caring for a client with a history of hypertension and aphasia. A family member states that a complete occlusion of the branches of the middle cerebral artery resulted in the client's aphasia. What is a common cause of this type of occlusion? A. History of hypertensive disease B. Emboli associated with atrial fibrillation C. Developmental defect of the arterial wall D. Inappropriate paroxysmal neural discharge
B
The primary health care provider has prescribed for a client's apical pulse to be taken. Place the steps in the order that the nurse should follow to identify the client's point of maximal impulse when taking the client's apical pulse. A. Move the finger laterally along the fifth intercostal space to the midclavicular line B. Slide the finger down from the sternal notch to the angle of Louis (the bump where the manubrium and sternum meet) C. Slide the finger to the edge of the left sternal border to the second intercostal space D. Place the index finger in the second intercostal space and continue palpating downward to the fifth intercostal space
B, C, D, A
An insulin pump is instituted for a client with type 1 diabetes. The nurse plans discharge instructions. Which short-term goal is the priority for this client? A. "Adhere to the medical regimen." B. "Remain normoglycemic for three weeks." C. "Demonstrate correct use of the insulin pump." D. "List three self-care activities that help control the diabetes."
C
A 12 year old female is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. When the parents ask what causes this, what is the nurse's best response? A. A familial, autosomal dominant gene defect B. Obesity and lack of exercise C. Immune destruction of the pancreas D. Hyperglycemia from eating too many sweets
C
A 13 year old male who uses insulin to control his type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion during gym class. The most probable cause of these symptoms is: A. Hyperglycemia resulting from incorrect insulin administration B. Dawn phenomenon caused by eating a snack before gym class C. Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise D. Somogyi effect caused by insulin sensitivity
C
A 30 year old male was diagnosed with thyroid carcinoma. The lab tests the nurse would most likely find are ____ T3 and T4 levels. A. High B. Low C. Normal D. Variable
C
A 35 year old female with Graves disease is admitted to a medical surgical unit. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to find before treatment? A. Weight gain, cold intolerance B. Slow heart rate, rash C. Skin hot and moist, rapid heart rate D. Constipation, confusion
C
A 35 year old male presents to his primary care provider reporting changes in facial features. CT scan reveals a mass on the anterior pituitary, and lab tests reveal severely elevated growth hormone (GH). Which of the following would the nurse also expect to find? A. Decreased IGF 1 B. Hypotension C. Sexual dysfunction D. Height increases
C
A 45 year old female with Graves disease underwent surgical removal of her thyroid gland. During the postoperative period, her serum calcium was low. The most probable reason for her low serum calcium is: A. Hyperparathyroidism secondary to Graves disease B. Myxedema secondary to surgery C. Hypoparathyroidism caused by surgical injury to the parathyroid glands D. Hypothyroidism resulting from lack of thyroid replacement
C
A client who has bone pain of insidious onset is suspected of having multiple myeloma. The nurse expects that a diagnostic finding specific for multiple myeloma is: A. Occult blood in the stool B. Low serum calcium levels C. Bence Jones protein in the urine D. Positive bacterial culture of sputum
C
A client with a cardiac dysrhythmia is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and verapamil (Calan). Because of the combined effect of these two medications, the nurse assesses the client for: A. Physical agitation B. Reflex stimulation C. Myocardial depression D. Respiratory stimulation
C
A client with an inferior myocardial infarction has a heart rate of 120 beats per minute. What is the goal of the medical regimen for this client? A. Increase left ventricular filling and improve cardiac output. B. Decrease oxygen needs of the vital organs and prevent cardiac dysrhythmias. C. Decrease the workload on the heart and promote maximum coronary artery filling. D. Increase venous return to the right atrium and increase pulmonary arterial blood flow.
C
A nurse checks lab results as both Cushing syndrome and Addison disease can manifest with elevated levels of: A. ADH B. Cortisol C. Adrenocorticotropic hormone level (ACTH) D. Aldosterone
C
A patient with Addison disease has weakness and easy fatigability. A nurse recalls that is due to: A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypoglycemia C. Hypocortisolism D. Metabolic acidosis
C
When a patient wants to know what most commonly causes hypoparathyroidism, how should the nurse reply? It is most commonly caused by: A. Pituitary hyposecretion B. Parathyroid adenoma C. Parathyroid gland injury D. Hypothalamic inactivity
C
A client with hypertension is to follow a 2-gram sodium diet. Which client statement provides evidence that the nurse's dietary instructions are understood? A. "My fluid intake should be restricted." B. "I should limit the number of daily food servings." C. "Salt should not be used during cooking but can be used at the table." D. "Labels on prepackaged food products should be evaluated before purchase."
D
A 45 year old female took corticosteroid therapy for several months. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find? A. Renal toxicity B. Episodes of hypoglycemia C. Hypotension D. Type 2 DM
D
A client has been receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). The client calls the clinic and complains of "yellow vision." What is the nurse's best response? A. "This is related to your illness rather than to your medication." B. "Take the medication because this is not a serious side effect." C. "This side effect is only temporary. You should continue the medication." D. "The medication should be discontinued. Come to the clinic this afternoon."
D
A client who is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction reports not being happy about the lack of salt with meals. Recognizing that adherence to a medical regimen improves with understanding, the nurse explains that the salt must be limited to: A. Prevent an increase in blood pressure from tissue edema. B. Reduce the circulating blood volume via a diuretic effect. C. Reduce the amount of edema present, which interferes with heart action. D. Prevent further accumulation of fluid, which increases the workload of the heart.
D
A client whose total cholesterol level is found to be 210 mg/dL at a screening session at a health fair asks the nurse what to do in light of this result. The nurse responds, "Your level is: A. High and you may need medication." B. Within the acceptable range and no action is required." C. Low and you should eat more foods that contain cholesterol." D. Elevated slightly and a diet low in saturated fats should be followed."
D
A client with type 2 diabetes is taking one glyburide (Micronase) tablet daily. The client asks whether an extra pill should be taken before exercise. What is the nurse's best reply? A. "You will need to decrease how much you are exercising." B. "An extra pill will help your body use glucose when exercising." C. "The amount of medication you need to take is not related to exercising." D. "Do not take an extra pill because you may become hypoglycemic when exercising."
D
A nurse in the post-anesthesia care unit is caring for a client who received a general anesthetic. Which finding should the nurse report to the health care provider? A. Client pushes the airway out. B. Client has snoring respirations. C. Respirations of 16 breaths/min are shallow. D. Systolic blood pressure drops from 130 to 90 mm Hg
D
A nurse is caring for a client with hypertension. Which assessment finding most significantly indicates that a client is hypertensive? A. Tachycardia B. Extended Korotkoff sound C. Sustained systolic pressure ranging from 110 to 120 mm Hg D. Diastolic blood pressure that remains higher than 90 mm Hg
D
Diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus (DM), and SIADH share which of the following assessment manifestations? A. Polyuria B. Edema C. Vomiting and abdominal cramping D. Thirst
D
It is TRUE that the hypothalamus is: A. Divided into two nuclei B. Connected to the anterior pituitary by a single membrane C. Connected to the posterior pituitary by blood vessels D. Made up of neurosecretory neurons that secrete releasing hormones
D
It is TRUE that the parathyroid gland: A. Is made up of at least 6 to 10 pairs of glands B. Is large and makes up the majority of the thyroid gland C. Influences the production of thyroid hormone D. Secretes the most important factor in Ca++ regulation
D
The client is receiving multiple blood transfusions after having extensive abdominal surgery. If the client develops fever, chills, and lower back pain, and seems very nervous, what will be the nurse's first action? A. Notify the blood bank B. Notify the health care provider C. Reduce the rate of the blood transfusion D. Stop the blood and infuse normal saline
D
The day after surgery a client is encouraged to ambulate. The client angrily asks the nurse, "Why am I being made to walk so soon after surgery?" The nurse explains that the primary purpose of early ambulation is to: A. Promote healing of the incision B. Lower the incidence of urinary tract infections C. Use energy to help the client sleep better at night D. Keep blood from pooling in the legs to prevent clots
D