PEDS EX 2

The nurse is teaching the parents of a 1-month-old infant with developmental dysplasia of the hip about preventing skin breakdown under the Pavlik harness. What statement by the parent would indicate a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I should gently massage the skin under the straps once a day to stimulate circulation." b. "I will apply a lotion for sensitive skin under the straps after my baby has been given a bath to prevent skin irritation." c. "I should remove the harness several times a day to prevent contractures." d. "I will place the diaper over the harness, preferably using a superabsorbent disposable diaper that is relatively thin."

a. "I should gently massage the skin under the straps once a day to stimulate circulation." To prevent skin breakdown with an infant who has developmental dysplasia of the hip and is in a Pavlik harness, the parent should gently massage the skin under the straps once a day to stimulate circulation. The parent should not apply lotions or powder because this could irritate the skin. The parent should not remove the harness, except during a bath, and should place the diaper under the straps.

Surgery is performed on a child to correct cryptorchidism. The parents understand the reason for the surgery if they tell the nurse this was done to do what? a. "Prevent damage to the undescended testicle." b. "Prevent urinary tract infections." c. "Prevent prostate cancer." d. "Prevent an inguinal hernia."

a. "Prevent damage to the undescended testicle." If the testes do not descend spontaneously, orchiopexy is performed before the child's second birthday, preferably between 1 and 2 years of age. Surgical repair is done to (1) prevent damage to the undescended testicle by exposure to the higher degree of body heat in the undescended location, thus maintaining future fertility; (2) decrease the incidence of malignancy formation, which is higher in undescended testicles; (3) avoid trauma and torsion; (4) close the processus vaginalis; and (5) prevent the cosmetic and psychologic disability of an empty scrotum. Parents understand the teaching if they respond the surgery is done to prevent damage.

The nurse is preparing to admit a child to the hospital with a diagnosis of minimal change nephrotic syndrome. The nurse understands that the peak age at onset for this disease is what? a. 2 to 3 years b. 4 to 5 years c. 6 to 7 years d. 8 to 9 years

a. 2 to 3 years The peak age at onset for minimal change nephrotic syndrome is 2 to 3 years of age.

A 1-year-old child has acute otitis media (AOM) and is being treated with oral antibiotics. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching to the infant's parents? a. A follow-up visit should be done after all medicine has been given. b. After an episode of acute otitis media, hearing loss usually occurs. c. Tylenol should not be given because it may mask symptoms. d. The infant will probably need a myringotomy procedure and tubes.

a. A follow-up visit should be done after all medicine has been given. Children with AOM should be seen after antibiotic therapy is complete to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment and to identify potential complications, such as effusion or hearing impairment. Hearing loss does not usually occur with acute otitis media. Tylenol should be given for pain, and the infant will not necessarily need a myringotomy procedure.

An 18-month-old child is seen in the clinic with otitis media (OM). Oral amoxicillin is prescribed. What instructions should be given to the parent? a. Administer all of the prescribed medication. b. Continue medication until all symptoms subside. c. Immediately stop giving medication if hearing loss develops. d. Stop giving medication and come to the clinic if fever is still present in 24 hours.

a. Administer all of the prescribed medication. Antibiotics should be given for their full course to prevent recurrence of infection with resistant bacteria. Symptoms may subside before the full course is given. Hearing loss is a complication of OM; antibiotics should continue to be given. Medication may take 24 to 48 hours to make symptoms subside.

An infant has been diagnosed with staphylococcal pneumonia. Nursing care of the child with pneumonia includes which intervention? a. Administration of antibiotics b. Frequent complete assessment of the infant c. Round-the-clock administration of antitussive agents d. Strict monitoring of intake and output to avoid congestive heart failure

a. Administration of antibiotics Antibiotics are indicated for bacterial pneumonia. Often the child has decreased pulmonary reserve, and clustering of care is essential. The child's respiratory rate and status and general disposition are monitored closely, but frequent complete physical assessments are not indicated. Antitussive agents are used sparingly. It is desirable for the child to cough up some of the secretions. Fluids are essential to kept secretions as liquefied as possible.

What strategies should the nurse implement to increase nutritional intake for the child receiving chemotherapy? (Select all that apply.) a. Allow the child any food tolerated. b. Fortify foods with nutritious supplements. c. Allow the child to be involved in food selection. d. Encourage the parents to place pressure on the importance of eating. e. Encourage the child to eat favorite foods during infusion of chemotherapy medications.

a. Allow the child any food tolerated. b. Fortify foods with nutritious supplements. c. Allow the child to be involved in food selection. To increase nutritional intake for the child receiving chemotherapy, the nurse should allow the child any food tolerated, fortify foods with nutritious supplements, and allow the child to be involved in food selection. The parents should be encouraged to reduce pressure placed on eating. Some children develop aversions to certain foods if they are eaten during chemotherapy. It is best to refrain from offering the child's favorite foods while the child is receiving chemotherapy.

A young child's parents call the nurse after their child is bitten by a raccoon in the woods. The nurse's recommendation should be based on what knowledge? a. Antirabies prophylaxis must be initiated immediately. b. The child should be hospitalized for close observation. c. No treatment is necessary if thorough wound cleaning is done. d. Antirabies prophylaxis must be initiated as soon as clinical manifestations appear.

a. Antirabies prophylaxis must be initiated immediately. Current therapy for a rabid animal bite consists of a thorough cleansing of the wound and passive immunization with human rabies immunoglobulin (HRIG) as soon as possible. Hospitalization is not necessary. The wound cleansing, passive immunization, and immunoglobulin administration can be done as an outpatient. The child needs to receive both HRIG and rabies vaccine.

What condition is the leading cause of chronic illness in children? a. Asthma b. Pertussis c. Tuberculosis d. Cystic fibrosis

a. Asthma Asthma is the most common chronic disease of childhood, the primary cause of school absences, and the third leading cause of hospitalization in children younger than the age of 15 years. Pertussis is not a chronic illness. Tuberculosis is not a significant factor in childhood chronic illness. Cystic fibrosis is the most common lethal genetic illness among white children.

A child has a chronic cough and diffuse wheezing during the expiratory phase of respiration. This suggests what condition? a. Asthma b. Pneumonia c. Bronchiolitis d. Foreign body in trachea

a. Asthma Asthma may have these chronic signs and symptoms. Pneumonia appears with an acute onset, fever, and general malaise. Bronchiolitis is an acute condition caused by respiratory syncytial virus. Foreign body in the trachea occurs with acute respiratory distress or failure and maybe stridor.

The nurse is caring for a child with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). What interventions should the nurse plan for this child? (Select all that apply.) a. Avoid jarring the bed. b. Keep the room brightly lit. c. Keep the bed in a flat position. d. Administer prescribed stool softeners. e. Administer a prescribed antiemetic for nausea.

a. Avoid jarring the bed. d. Administer prescribed stool softeners. e. Administer a prescribed antiemetic for nausea. Other measures to relieve discomfort for a child with ICP include providing a quiet, dimly lit environment; limiting visitors; preventing any sudden, jarring movement, such as banging into the bed; and preventing an increase in ICP. The latter is most effectively achieved by proper positioning and prevention of straining, such as during coughing, vomiting, or defecating. An antiemetic should be administered to prevent vomiting, and stool softeners should be prescribed to prevent straining with bowel movements. The head of the bed should be elevated 15 to 30 degrees.

An infant's parents ask the nurse about preventing otitis media (OM). What information should be provided? a. Avoid tobacco smoke. b. Use nasal decongestants. c. Avoid children with OM. d. Bottle- or breastfeed in a supine position.

a. Avoid tobacco smoke. Eliminating tobacco smoke from the child's environment is essential for preventing OM and other common childhood illnesses. Nasal decongestants are not useful in preventing OM. Children with uncomplicated OM are not contagious unless they show other symptoms of upper respiratory tract infection. Children should be fed in a semivertical position to prevent OM.

A 2-year-old child has a chronic history of constipation and is brought to the clinic for evaluation. What should the therapeutic plan initially include? a. Bowel cleansing b. Dietary modification c. Structured toilet training d. Behavior modification

a. Bowel cleansing The first step in the treatment of chronic constipation is to empty the bowel and allow the distended rectum to return to normal size. Dietary modification is an important part of the treatment. Increased fiber and fluids should be gradually added to the child's diet. A 2-year-old child is too young for structured toilet training. For an older child, a regular schedule for toileting should be established. Behavior modification is part of the overall treatment plan. The child practices releasing the anal sphincter and recognizing cues for defecation.

The nurse is preparing to admit a 10-year-old child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. What clinical features of Duchenne muscular dystrophy should the nurse recognize? (Select all that apply.) a. Calf muscle hypertrophy b. Late onset, usually between 6 and 8 years of age c. Progressive muscular weakness, wasting, and contractures d. Loss of independent ambulation by 9 to 12 years of age e. Slowly progressive, generalized weakness during adolescence

a. Calf muscle hypertrophy c. Progressive muscular weakness, wasting, and contractures d. Loss of independent ambulation by 9 to 12 years of age e. Slowly progressive, generalized weakness during adolescence Clinical features of Duchenne muscular dystrophy include calf muscle hypertrophy; progressive muscular weakness; wasting and contractures; loss of independent ambulation by 9 to 12 years of age; and slowly progressive, generalized weakness during adolescence. The onset is early, not late, usually between 3 and 5 years of age.

A child has been diagnosed with a Wilms tumor. What should preoperative nursing care include? a. Careful bathing and handling b. Monitoring of behavioral status c. Maintenance of strict isolation d. Administration of packed red blood cells

a. Careful bathing and handling Careful bathing and handling are important in preventing trauma to the Wilms tumor site.

The nurse is teaching parents of a child with gastroesophageal reflux (GER) disease foods that can exacerbate acid reflux. What foods should be included in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Citrus b. Bananas c. Spicy foods d. Peppermint e. Whole wheat bread

a. Citrus c. Spicy foods d. Peppermint Avoidance of certain foods that exacerbate acid reflux (e.g., caffeine, citrus, tomatoes, alcohol, peppermint, spicy or fried foods) can improve mild GER symptoms. Bananas and whole wheat bread will not exacerbate acid reflux.

What is a major goal for the therapeutic management of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA)? a. Control pain and preserve joint function. b. Minimize use of joint and achieve cure. c. Prevent skin breakdown and relieve symptoms. d. Reduce joint discomfort and regain proper alignment.

a. Control pain and preserve joint function. The goals of therapy are to control pain, preserve joint range of motion and function, minimize the effects of inflammation, and promote normal growth and development. There is no cure for JIA at this time. Skin breakdown is not an issue for most children with JIA. Symptom relief and reduction in discomfort are important. When the joints are damaged, it is often irreversible.

The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old child who has an acute head injury, has a pediatric Glasgow Coma Scale score of 9, and is unconscious. What intervention should the nurse include in the child's care plan? a. Elevate the head of the bed 15 to 30 degrees with the head maintained in midline. b. Maintain an active, stimulating environment. c. Perform chest percussion and suctioning every 1 to 2 hours. d. Perform active range of motion and nontherapeutic touch every 8 hours.

a. Elevate the head of the bed 15 to 30 degrees with the head maintained in midline. Nursing activities for children with head trauma and increased intracranial pressure (ICP) include elevating the head of the bed 15 to 30 degrees and maintaining the head in a midline position. The nurse should try to maintain a quiet, nonstimulating environment for a child with increased ICP. Chest percussion and suctioning should be performed judiciously because they can elevate ICP. Range of motion should be passive and nontherapeutic touch should be avoided because both of these activities can increase ICP.

The nurse is caring for a child with a urinary tract infection who is on intravenous gentamicin (Garamycin). What interventions should the nurse plan for this child with regard to this medication? (Select all that apply.) a. Encourage fluids. b. Monitor urinary output. c. Monitor sodium serum levels. d. Monitor potassium serum levels. e. Monitor serum peak and trough levels.

a. Encourage fluids. b. Monitor urinary output. e. Monitor serum peak and trough levels. Garamycin can cause renal toxicity and ototoxicity. Fluids should be encouraged and urinary output and serum peak and trough levels monitored. It is not necessary to monitor potassium sodium levels for patients taking this medication.

A 12-year-old girl is newly diagnosed with diabetes when she develops ketoacidosis. How should the nurse structure a successful education program? a. Essential information is presented initially. b. Teaching should take place in the child's semiprivate room. c. Education is focused toward the parents because the child is too young. d. All information needed for self-management of diabetes is taught at once.

a. Essential information is presented initially. Diagnosis of type 1 diabetes can be traumatic for the child and family. Most families are not psychologically ready for the complex teaching that is needed for self-management. Most structured diabetes education programs begin with essential or survival information followed by the complex background material when the family is better able to learn. Teaching can take place either as an outpatient or as an inpatient. The actual teaching area should be free from distractions that would interfere with learning. A semiprivate room would have many individuals entering and leaving the room, causing distraction. A 12-year-old child who is cognitively age appropriate needs to be included in the educational process. Most children older than the age of 8 years can be involved in blood glucose monitoring and insulin administration. Teaching all information needed for self-management of diabetes at once would be too overwhelming for a family in crisis.

As part of the diagnostic evaluation of a child with cancer, biopsies are important for staging. What statement explains what staging means? a. Extent of the disease at the time of diagnosis b. Rate normal cells are being replaced by cancer cells c. Biologic characteristics of the tumor or lymph nodes d. Abnormal, unrestricted growth of cancer cells producing organ damage

a. Extent of the disease at the time of diagnosis Staging is a description of the extent of the disease at the time of diagnosis. Staging criteria exist for most tumors. The stage usually relates directly to the prognosis; the higher the stage, the poorer the prognosis. The rate that normal cells are being replaced by cancer cells is not a definition of staging. Classification of the tumor refers to the biologic characteristics of the tumor or lymph nodes. Abnormal, unrestricted growth of cancer cells producing organ damage describes how cancer cells grow and can cause damage to an organ.

The nurse is preparing to admit an adolescent with bacterial meningitis. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Fever b. Chills c. Headache d. Poor tone e. Drowsiness

a. Fever b. Chills c. Headache e. Drowsiness Clinical manifestations of bacterial meningitis in an adolescent include, fever, chills, headache, and drowsiness. Hyperactivity is present, not poor tone.

A 5-year-old child is admitted with bacterial pneumonia. What signs and symptoms should the nurse expect to assess with this disease process? a. Fever, cough, and chest pain b. Stridor, wheezing, and ear infection c. Nasal discharge, headache, and cough d. Pharyngitis, intermittent fever, and eye infection

a. Fever, cough, and chest pain Children with bacterial pneumonia usually appear ill. Symptoms include fever, malaise, rapid and shallow respirations, cough, and chest pain. Ear infection, nasal discharge, and eye infection are not symptoms of bacterial pneumonia.

A child develops syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) as a complication to meningitis. What action should be verified before implementing? a. Forcing fluids b. Daily weights with strict input and output (I and O) c. Strict monitoring of urine volume and specific gravity d. Close observation for signs of increasing cerebral edema

a. Forcing fluids The treatment of SIADH consists of fluid restriction until serum electrolytes and osmolality return to normal levels. SIADH often occurs in children who have meningitis. Monitoring weights, keeping I and O and specific gravity of urine, and observing for signs of increasing cerebral edema are all part of the nursing care for a child with SIADH.

The nurse is preparing to admit a 6-month-old infant with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe in this infant? (Select all that apply.) a. High-pitched cry b. Poor feeding c. Setting-sun sign d. Sunken fontanel e. Distended scalp veins

a. High-pitched cry b. Poor feeding c. Setting-sun sign e. Distended scalp veins Clinical manifestations of increased ICP in an infant include a high-pitched cry, poor feeding, setting-sun sign, and distended scalp veins. The infant would have a tense, bulging fontanel and an increased head circumference.

After chemotherapy is begun for a child with acute leukemia, prophylaxis to prevent acute tumor lysis syndrome includes which therapeutic intervention? a. Hydration b. Oxygenation c. Corticosteroids d. Pain management

a. Hydration Acute tumor lysis syndrome results from the release of intracellular metabolites during the initial treatment of leukemia. Hyperuricemia, hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hyperkalemia can result. Hydration is used to reduce the metabolic consequences of the tumor lysis. Oxygenation is not helpful in preventing acute tumor lysis syndrome. Allopurinol, not corticosteroids, is indicated for pharmacologic management. Pain management may be indicated for supportive therapy of the child, but it does not prevent acute tumor lysis syndrome.

The nurse is teaching the family with a child with cerebral palsy (CP) strategies to prevent constipation. What should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Increase fluid intake. b. Increase fiber in the diet. c. Administer stool softeners daily as prescribed. d. Increase the amount of dairy products in the diet. e. Allow the child to decide when to try to have a bowel movement.

a. Increase fluid intake. b. Increase fiber in the diet. c. Administer stool softeners daily as prescribed. A variety of factors, including decreased mobility, decreased fluid intake, a fear of toileting, poor positioning on the toilet, and lack of fiber intake may be responsible for constipation for a child with CP. Stool softeners, laxatives, and a bowel management program may be required to prevent chronic constipation. The child should be placed on the toilet or encouraged to have a bowel movement at the same time each day. Dairy products can cause constipation.

What is an effective strategy to reduce the stress of burn dressing procedures? a. Involve the child and give choices as feasible. b. Explain to the child why analgesics cannot be used. c. Reassure the child that dressing changes are not painful. d. Encourage the child to master stress with controlled passivity.

a. Involve the child and give choices as feasible. Children who have an understanding of the procedure and some perceived control demonstrate less maladaptive behavior. They respond well to participating in decisions and should be given as many choices as possible. Analgesia and sedation can and should be used. The dressing change procedure is very painful and stressful. Misinformation should not be given to the child. Encouraging the child to master stress with controlled passivity is not a positive coping strategy.

The nurse is preparing to admit a neonate with bacterial meningitis. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Jaundice b. Cyanosis c. Poor tone d. Nuchal rigidity e. Poor sucking ability

a. Jaundice b. Cyanosis c. Poor tone e. Poor sucking ability Clinical manifestations of bacterial meningitis in a neonate include jaundice, cyanosis, poor tone, and poor sucking ability. The neck is usually supple in neonates with meningitis, and there is no nuchal rigidity.

The nurse is planning care for a school-age child with bacterial meningitis. What intervention should be included? a. Keep environmental stimuli to a minimum. b. Have the child move her head from side to side at least every 2 hours. c. Avoid giving pain medications that could dull sensorium. d. Measure head circumference to assess developing complications.

a. Keep environmental stimuli to a minimum. The room is kept as quiet as possible and environmental stimuli are kept to a minimum. Most children with meningitis are sensitive to noise, bright lights, and other external stimuli. The nuchal rigidity associated with meningitis would make moving the head from side to side a painful intervention. If pain is present, the child should be treated appropriately. Failure to treat can cause increased intracranial pressure. In this age group, the head circumference does not change. Signs of increased intracranial pressure would need to be assessed.

The nurse is assisting with application of a synthetic cast on a child with a fractured humerus. What are the advantages of a synthetic cast over a plaster of Paris cast? (Select all that apply.) a. Less bulky b. Drying time is faster c. Molds readily to body part d. Permits regular clothing to be worn e. Can be cleaned with small amount of soap and water

a. Less bulky b. Drying time is faster d. Permits regular clothing to be worn e. Can be cleaned with small amount of soap and water The advantages of synthetic casts over plaster of Paris casts are that they are less bulky, dry faster, permit regular clothes to be worn, and can be cleaned. Plaster of Paris casts mold readily to a body part, but synthetic casts do not mold easily to body parts.

A child has been admitted with status epilepticus. An emergency medication has been ordered. What medication should the nurse expect to be prescribed? a. Lorazepam (Ativan) b. Phenytoin (Dilantin) c. Topiramate (Topamax) d. Ethosuximide (Zarontin)

a. Lorazepam (Ativan) For in-hospital management of status epilepticus, intravenous diazepam or lorazepam (Ativan) is the first-line drug of choice. Lorazepam is the preferred agent because of its rapid onset (2-5 minutes) and long half-life (12-24 hours) with few side effects.

The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) increases secretion in response to which hormone? a. Low levels of circulating thyroid hormone b. High levels of circulating thyroid hormone c. Low levels of circulating adrenocorticotropic hormone d. High levels of circulating adrenocorticotropic hormone

a. Low levels of circulating thyroid hormone As blood concentrations of the target hormones reach normal levels, a negative message is sent to the anterior pituitary to inhibit release of the tropic hormone. For example, TSH responds to low levels of circulating TH. As blood levels of TH reach normal concentrations, a negative feedback message is sent to the anterior pituitary, resulting in diminished release of TSH. Adrenocorticotropic stimulates the adrenals to secrete glucocorticoids.

A school-age child with diabetes gets 30 units of NPH insulin at 0800. According to when this insulin peaks, the child should be at greatest risk for a hypoglycemic episode between when? a. Lunch and dinner b. Breakfast and lunch c. 0830 to his midmorning snack d. Bedtime and breakfast the next morning

a. Lunch and dinner Intermediate-acting (NPH and Lente) insulins reach the blood 2 to 6 hours after injection. The insulins peak 4 to 14 hours later and stay in the blood for about 14 to 20 hours.

What is the earliest recognizable clinical manifestation(s) of cystic fibrosis (CF)? a. Meconium ileus b. History of poor intestinal absorption c. Foul-smelling, frothy, greasy stools d. Recurrent pneumonia and lung infections

a. Meconium ileus The earliest clinical manifestation of CF is a meconium ileus, which is found in about 10% of children with CF. Clinical manifestations include abdominal distention, vomiting, failure to pass stools, and rapid development of dehydration. History of malabsorption is a later sign that manifests as failure to thrive. Foul-smelling stools and recurrent respiratory infections are later manifestations of CF.

An adolescent is being placed on a beta-blocker. What should the nurse inform the adolescent with regard to this medication? (Select all that apply.) a. Medication may cause fatigue. b. Side effects may include impotence. c. Side effects may include bradycardia. d. Take the medication 1 hour before meals. e. Side effects may include peripheral edema.

a. Medication may cause fatigue. b. Side effects may include impotence. c. Side effects may include bradycardia. The adolescent should be instructed that the medication may cause fatigue, impotence, and bradycardia. The medications should be taken with meals and side effects do not include peripheral edema.

The nurse is caring for a child immobilized because of Russel traction. What interventions should the nurse implement to prevent renal calculi? (Select all that apply.) a. Monitor output. b. Encourage the patient to drink apple juice. c. Encourage milk intake. d. Ensure adequate fluids. e. Encourage the patient to drink cranberry juice.

a. Monitor output. d. Ensure adequate fluids. e. Encourage the patient to drink cranberry juice. To prevent renal calculi in a child who is immobilized, a nurse should monitor output; ensure adequate fluids; and encourage cranberry juice, which acidifies urine. Apple juice and milk alkalize the urine, so they should not be encouraged.

What is appropriate mouth care for a toddler with mucosal ulceration related to chemotherapy? a. Mouthwashes with plain saline b. Lemon glycerin swabs for cleansing c. Mouthwashes with hydrogen peroxide d. Swish and swallow with viscous lidocaine

a. Mouthwashes with plain saline Administering mouth care is particularly difficult in infants and toddlers. A satisfactory method of cleaning the gums is to wrap a piece of gauze around a finger; soak it in saline or plain water; and swab the gums, palate, and inner cheek surfaces with the finger. Mouth rinses are best accomplished with plain water or saline because the child cannot gargle or spit out excess fluid. Avoid agents such as lemon glycerin swabs and hydrogen peroxide because of the drying effects on the mucosa. Lidocaine should be avoided in young children.

The nurse is doing a neurologic assessment on a 2-month-old infant after a car accident. Moro, tonic neck, and withdrawal reflexes are present. How should the nurse interpret these findings? a. Neurologic health b. Severe brain damage c. Decorticate posturing d. Decerebrate posturing

a. Neurologic health Moro, tonic neck, and withdrawal reflexes are three reflexes that are present in a healthy 2-month-old infant and are expected in this age group.

After surgery yesterday for gastroesophageal reflux, the nurse finds that the infant has somehow removed the nasogastric (NG) tube. What nursing action is most appropriate to perform at this time? a. Notify the practitioner. b. Insert the NG tube so feedings can be given. c. Replace the NG tube to maintain gastric decompression. d. Leave the NG tube out because it has probably been in long enough.

a. Notify the practitioner. When surgery is performed on the upper gastrointestinal tract, usually the surgical team replaces the NG tube because of potential injury to the operative site. The decision to replace the tube or leave it out is made by the surgical team. Replacing the tube is also usually done by the practitioner because of the surgical site.

The nurse is preparing to admit a 7-year-old child with type 2 diabetes. What clinical features of type 2 diabetes should the nurse recognize? (Select all that apply.) a. Oral agents are effective. b. Insulin is usually needed. c. Ketoacidosis is infrequent. d. Diet only is often effective. e. Chronic complications frequently occur.

a. Oral agents are effective. c. Ketoacidosis is infrequent. d. Diet only is often effective. The clinical features of type 2 diabetes include the following: oral agents are effective, ketoacidosis is infrequent, and diet only is often effective. Insulin is only needed in 20% to 30% of cases and chronic complications occur infrequently.

The parent of a child with cystic fibrosis (CF) calls the clinic nurse to report that the child has developed tachypnea, tachycardia, dyspnea, pallor, and cyanosis. The nurse should tell the parent to bring the child to the clinic because these signs and symptoms are suggestive of what condition? a. Pneumothorax b. Bronchodilation c. Carbon dioxide retention d. Increased viscosity of sputum

a. Pneumothorax Usually the signs of pneumothorax are nonspecific. Tachypnea, tachycardia, dyspnea, pallor, and cyanosis are significant signs and symptoms and are indicative of respiratory distress caused by pneumothorax. If the bronchial tubes were dilated, the child would have decreased work of breathing and would most likely be asymptomatic. Carbon dioxide retention is a result of the chronic alveolar hypoventilation in CF. Hypoxia replaces carbon dioxide as the drive for respiration progresses. Increased viscosity would result in more difficulty clearing secretions.

A 17-year-old patient is returning to the surgical unit after Luque instrumentation for scoliosis repair. In addition to the usual postoperative care, what additional intervention will be needed? a. Position changes are made by log rolling. b. Assistance is needed to use the bathroom. c. The head of the bed is elevated to minimize spinal headache. d. Passive range of motion is instituted to prevent neurologic injury.

a. Position changes are made by log rolling. After scoliosis repair using a Luque procedure, the adolescent is turned by log rolling to prevent damage to the fusion and instrumentation. The patient is kept flat in bed for the first 12 hours and is not ambulatory until the second or third postoperative day. A urinary catheter is placed. The head of the bed is not elevated until the second postoperative day. Range of motion exercises are begun on the second postoperative day.

What structural defects constitute tetralogy of Fallot? a. Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy b. Aortic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy c. Aortic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy d. Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, aortic hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy

a. Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy Tetralogy of Fallot has these four characteristics: pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy.

The nurse is caring for a child with a urinary tract infection who is on trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim). What side effects of this medication should the nurse teach to the parents and the child? (Select all that apply.) a. Rash b. Urticaria c. Pneumonitis d. Renal toxicity e. Photosensitivity

a. Rash b. Urticaria e. Photosensitivity Side effects of Bactrim are rash, urticaria, and photosensitivity. Pneumonitis and renal toxicity are not side effects of Bactrim.

A young child with leukemia has anorexia and severe stomatitis. What approach should the nurse suggest that the parents try? a. Relax any eating pressures. b. Firmly insist that the child eat normally. c. Serve foods that are either hot or cold. d. Provide only liquids because chewing is painful.

a. Relax any eating pressures. A multifaceted approach is necessary for children with severe stomatitis and anorexia. First, the parents should relax eating pressures. The nurse should suggest that the parents try soft, bland foods; normal saline or bicarbonate mouthwashes; and local anesthetics. Insisting that the child eat normally is not suggested. For some children, not eating may be a way to maintain some control. This can set the child and caregiver in opposition to each other. Hot and cold foods can be painful on ulcerated mucosal membranes. Substitution of high-calorie foods that the child likes and can eat should be used.

What diagnostic test allows visualization of renal parenchyma and renal pelvis without exposure to external-beam radiation or radioactive isotopes? a. Renal ultrasonography b. Computed tomography c. Intravenous pyelography d. Voiding cystourethrography

a. Renal ultrasonography The transmission of ultrasonic waves through the renal parenchyma allows visualization of the renal parenchyma and renal pelvis without exposure to external-beam radiation or radioactive isotopes. Computed tomography uses external radiation, and sometimes contrast media are used. Intravenous pyelography uses contrast medium and external radiation for radiography. Contrast medium is injected into the bladder through the urethral opening. External radiation for radiography is used before, during, and after voiding in voiding cystourethrography.

The nurse is caring for a child with meningitis. What acute complications of meningitis should the nurse continuously assess the child for? (Select all that apply.) a. Seizures b. Cerebral palsy c. Cerebral edema d. Hydrocephalus e. Cognitive impairments

a. Seizures c. Cerebral edema e. Cognitive impairments Acute complications of meningitis include syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), subdural effusions, seizures, cerebral edema and herniation, and hydrocephalus. Long-term complications include cerebral palsy, cognitive impairments, learning disorder, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, and seizures.

What is the most immediate threat to life in children with thermal injuries? a. Shock b. Anemia c. Local infection d. Systemic sepsis

a. Shock The immediate threat to life in children with thermal injuries is airway compromise and profound shock. Anemia is not of immediate concern. During the healing phase, local infection or sepsis is the primary complication.

A child is upset because, when the cast is removed from her leg, the skin surface is caked with desquamated skin and sebaceous secretions. What technique should the nurse suggest to remove this material? a. Soak in a bathtub. b. Vigorously scrub the leg. c. Carefully pick material off the leg. d. Apply powder to absorb the material.

a. Soak in a bathtub. Simply soaking in the bathtub is usually sufficient for removal of the desquamated skin and sebaceous secretions. Several days may be required to eliminate the accumulation completely. The parents and child should be advised not to scrub the leg vigorously or forcibly remove this material because it may cause excoriation and bleeding. Oil or lotion, but not powder, may provide comfort for the child.

The nurse is preparing to admit a 6-month-old child with gastroesophageal reflux disease. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Spitting up b. Bilious vomiting c. Failure to thrive d. Excessive crying e. Respiratory problems

a. Spitting up c. Failure to thrive d. Excessive crying e. Respiratory problems Clinical manifestations of gastroesophageal reflux disease include spitting up, failure to thrive, excessive crying, and respiratory problems. Hematemesis, not bilious vomiting, is a manifestation.

An adolescent is being placed on an ACE inhibitor. What should the nurse inform the adolescent with regard to this medication? (Select all that apply.) a. Stay well hydrated. b. Increase intake of potassium. c. Avoid rapid position changes. d. Take the medication with meals. e. Side effects may include a cough.

a. Stay well hydrated. c. Avoid rapid position changes. e. Side effects may include a cough. The adolescent should be instructed to stay well hydrated and avoid rapid position changes and that side effects may include a cough when on ACE inhibitors. ACE inhibitors do not deplete potassium, and they should be taken 1 hour before meals to increase absorption.

What tests aid in the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis (CF)? a. Sweat test, stool for fat, chest radiography b. Sweat test, bronchoscopy, duodenal fluid analysis c. Sweat test, stool for trypsin, biopsy of intestinal mucosa d. Stool for fat, gastric contents for hydrochloride, radiography

a. Sweat test, stool for fat, chest radiography A sweat test result of greater than 60 mEq/L is diagnostic of CF, a high level of fecal fat is a gastrointestinal manifestation of CF, and a chest radiograph showing patchy atelectasis and obstructive emphysema indicates CF. Bronchoscopy, duodenal fluid analysis, stool tests for trypsin, and intestinal biopsy are not helpful in diagnosing CF. Gastric contents normally contain hydrochloride; it is not diagnostic.

Ongoing fluid losses can overwhelm the child's ability to compensate, resulting in shock. What early clinical sign precedes shock? a. Tachycardia b. Slow respirations c. Warm, flushed skin d. Decreased blood pressure

a. Tachycardia Shock is preceded by tachycardia and signs of poor tissue perfusion and decreased pulse oximetry values. Respirations are increased as the child attempts to compensate. As a result of the poor peripheral circulation, the child has skin that is cool and mottled with decreased capillary refilling after blanching. In children, lowered blood pressure is a late sign and may accompany the onset of cardiovascular collapse.

A 3-month-old infant is admitted to the pediatric unit for treatment of bronchiolitis. The infant's vital signs are T, 101.6° F; P, 106 beats/min apical; and R, 70 breaths/min. The infant is irritable and fussy and coughs frequently. IV fluids are given via a peripheral venipuncture. Fluids by mouth were initially contraindicated for what reason? a. Tachypnea b. Paroxysmal cough c. Irritability d. Fever

a. Tachypnea Fluids by mouth may be contraindicated because of tachypnea, weakness, and fatigue. Therefore, IV fluids are preferred until the acute stage of bronchiolitis has passed. Infants with bronchiolitis may have paroxysmal coughing, but fluids by mouth would not be contraindicated. Irritability or fever would not be reasons for fluids by mouth to be contraindicated.

The nurse is preparing a presentation on compensated, decompensated, and irreversible shock in children. What clinical manifestations related to decompensated shock should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Tachypnea b. Oliguria c. Confusion d. Pale extremities e. Hypotension f. Thready pulse

a. Tachypnea b. Oliguria c. Confusion d. Pale extremities As shock progresses, perfusion in the microcirculation becomes marginal despite compensatory adjustments, and the signs are more obvious. Signs include tachypnea, oliguria, confusion, and pale extremities, as well as decreased skin turgor and poor capillary filling. Hypotension and a thready pulse are clinical manifestations of irreversible shock.

Nursing care of the child with Kawasaki disease is challenging because of which occurrence? a. The child's irritability b. Predictable disease course c. Complex antibiotic therapy d. The child's ongoing requests for food

a. The child's irritability Patient irritability is a hallmark of Kawasaki disease and is the most challenging problem. A quiet environment is necessary to promote rest. The diagnosis is often difficult to make, and the course of the disease can be unpredictable. Intravenous gamma globulin and salicylates are the therapy of choice, not antibiotics. The child often is reluctant to eat. Soft foods and fluids should be offered to prevent dehydration.

What statement best describes Hirschsprung disease? a. The colon has an aganglionic segment. b. It results in frequent evacuation of solids, liquid, and gas. c. The neonate passes excessive amounts of meconium. d. It results in excessive peristaltic movements within the gastrointestinal tract.

a. The colon has an aganglionic segment. Mechanical obstruction in the colon results from a lack of innervation. In most cases, the aganglionic segment includes the rectum and some portion of the distal colon. There is decreased evacuation of the large intestine secondary to the aganglionic segment. Liquid stool may ooze around the blockage. The obstruction does not affect meconium production. The infant may not be able to pass the meconium stool. There is decreased movement in the colon.

What is the purpose in using cimetidine (Tagamet) for gastroesophageal reflux? a. The medication reduces gastric acid secretion. b. The medication neutralizes the acid in the stomach. c. The medication increases the rate of gastric emptying time. d. The medication coats the lining of the stomach and esophagus.

a. The medication reduces gastric acid secretion. Pharmacologic therapy may be used to treat infants and children with gastroesophageal reflux disease. Both H2-receptor antagonists (cimetidine [Tagamet], ranitidine [Zantac], or famotidine [Pepcid]) and proton pump inhibitors (esomeprazole [Nexium], lansoprazole [Prevacid], omeprazole [Prilosec], pantoprazole [Protonix], and rabeprazole [Aciphex]) reduce gastric hydrochloric acid secretion.

The nurse is preparing to admit a 5-year-old child with hepatitis A. What clinical features of hepatitis A should the nurse recognize? (Select all that apply.) a. The onset is rapid. b. Fever occurs early. c. There is usually a pruritic rash. d. Nausea and vomiting are common. e. The mode of transmission is primarily by the parenteral route

a. The onset is rapid. b. Fever occurs early. d. Nausea and vomiting are common. Clinical features of hepatitis A include a rapid onset, fever occurring early, and nausea and vomiting. A rash is rare, and the mode of transmission is by the fecal-oral route, rarely by the parenteral route.

The nurse is teaching the family of an infant with cerebral palsy how to administer a diazepam (Valium) pill by gastrostomy tube. What should the nurse include in the teaching session? a. The pill should be crushed and mixed with a small amount of water. b. The pill should be crushed and mixed with the infant's formula. c. After administering the medication, flush the tube with air. d. Before administering the medication, check the placement of the tube.

a. The pill should be crushed and mixed with a small amount of water. Pills may be crushed and mixed with small amounts of water but not other liquids, such as formula or elixir medications, because these may act together to form a sludge that can interfere with gastrostomy tube function. When crushed pills or tablets are administered, flush the feeding tube with more water after instilling the dissolved pill in water. The tube should not be flushed with air, and placement does not need to be checked because it is directly into the stomach.

A child with asthma is having pulmonary function tests. What rationale explains the purpose of the peak expiratory flow rate? a. To assess severity of asthma b. To determine cause of asthma c. To identify "triggers" of asthma d. To confirm diagnosis of asthma

a. To assess severity of asthma Peak expiratory flow rate monitoring is used to monitor the child's current pulmonary function. It can be used to manage exacerbations and for daily long-term management. The cause of asthma is known. Asthma is caused by a complex interaction among inflammatory cells, mediators, and the cells and tissues present in the airways. The triggers of asthma are determined through history taking and immunologic and other testing. The diagnosis of asthma is made through clinical manifestations, history, physical examination, and laboratory testing.

The clinic nurse is assessing infant reflexes. What assessment indicates a persistence of primitive reflexes? a. Tonic neck reflex at 8 months of age b. Palmar grasp at 4 months of age c. Plantar grasp at 9 months of age d. Rooting reflex at 3 months of age

a. Tonic neck reflex at 8 months of age Persistence of primitive reflexes is one of the earliest clues to CP (e.g., obligatory tonic neck reflex at any age or nonobligatory persistence beyond 6 months of age and the persistence or even hyperactivity of the Moro, plantar, and palmar grasp reflexes). The palmar grasp disappears by 6 months, the plantar grasp disappears by 12 months, and the rooting reflex disappears at 4 months, so these are normal findings.

The nurse is planning to admit a 14-year-old adolescent with Cushing syndrome. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe in this child? (Select all that apply.) a. Truncal obesity b. Decreased pubic hair c. Petechial hemorrhage d. Hyperpigmentation of elbows e. Facial plethora f. Headache and weakness

a. Truncal obesity c. Petechial hemorrhage e. Facial plethora Clinical manifestations of Cushing syndrome include truncal obesity, petechial hemorrhage, and facial plethora. Decreased pubic and axillary hair; hyperpigmentation of elbows, knees, and wrists; and headache and weakness are clinical manifestations of adrenocortical insufficiency.

The nurse is preparing a community outreach program for adolescents about the characteristic differences between type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM). What concepts should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Type 1 DM has an abrupt onset. b. Type 1 DM is often controlled with oral glucose agents. c. Type 1 DM occurs primarily in whites. d. Type 2 DM always requires insulin therapy. e. Type 2 DM frequently has a familial history. f. Type 2 DM occurs in people who are overweight.

a. Type 1 DM has an abrupt onset. c. Type 1 DM occurs primarily in whites. e. Type 2 DM frequently has a familial history. f. Type 2 DM occurs in people who are overweight. Characteristics of type 1 DM include having an abrupt onset, primarily occurring in whites, and not being controlled with oral glucose agents (insulin is required for therapy). Type 2 DM frequently has a familial history, occurs in people who are overweight, and does not always require insulin therapy (it is used in 20% to 30% of patients).

What form of diabetes is characterized by destruction of pancreatic beta cells, resulting in insulin deficiency? a. Type 1 diabetes b. Type 2 diabetes c. Gestational diabetes d. Maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY)

a. Type 1 diabetes Type 1 diabetes is characterized by the destruction of the pancreatic beta cells, which leads to absolute insulin deficiency. Type 2 diabetes results usually from insulin resistance. The pancreatic beta cells are not destroyed in gestational diabetes. MODY is an autosomal dominant monogenetic defect in beta cell function that is characterized by impaired insulin secretion with minimum or no defects in insulin action.

What are some of the associated disabilities seen with cerebral palsy? (Select all that apply.) a. Visual impairment b. Hearing impairment c. Speech difficulties d. Intellectual impairment e. Associated heart defects

a. Visual impairment b. Hearing impairment c. Speech difficulties d. Intellectual impairment Some of the disabilities associated with CP are visual impairment, hearing impairment, behavioral problems, communication and speech difficulties, seizures, and intellectual impairment. Additional sensory deficits such as hypersensitivity, hyposensitivity, and balance difficulties may occur in children with CP.

A lumbar puncture (LP) is being done on an infant with suspected meningitis. The nurse expects which results for the cerebrospinal fluid that can confirm the diagnosis of meningitis? a. WBCs; ¯glucose b. RBCs; normal WBCs c. glucose; normal RBCs d. Normal RBCs; normal glucose

a. WBCs; ¯glucose A lumbar puncture is the definitive diagnostic test. The fluid pressure is measured and samples are obtained for culture, Gram stain, blood cell count, and determination of glucose and protein content. The findings are usually diagnostic. The patient generally has an elevated white blood cell count, often predominantly polymorphonuclear leukocytes. The glucose level is reduced, generally in proportion to the duration and severity of the infection.

The nurse is preparing to admit a 2-month-old child with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Weight loss b. Bilious vomiting c. Abdominal pain d. Projectile vomiting e. The infant is hungry after vomiting

a. Weight loss d. Projectile vomiting e. The infant is hungry after vomiting Clinical manifestations of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis include weight loss, projectile vomiting, and hunger after vomiting. The vomitus is nonbilious, and there is no evidence of pain or discomfort, just chronic hunger.

The nurse is preparing to admit a 7-year-old child with ataxic cerebral palsy. What clinical manifestations of ataxic cerebral palsy should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Wide-based gait b. Rapid, repetitive movements performed poorly c. Slow, twisting movements of the trunk or extremities d. Hypertonicity with poor control of posture, balance, and coordinated motion e. Disintegration of movements of the upper extremities when the child reaches for objects

a. Wide-based gait b. Rapid, repetitive movements performed poorly e. Disintegration of movements of the upper extremities when the child reaches for objects Clinical manifestations of ataxic cerebral palsy include a wide-based gait; rapid, repetitive movements performed poorly; and disintegration of movements of the upper extremities when the child reaches for objects. Slow, twisting movements of the trunk are seen with dyskinetic cerebral palsy, and hypertonicity with poor control of posture, balance, and coordinated motion are seen with spastic cerebral palsy.

What urine test result is considered abnormal? a. pH 4.0 b. WBC 1 or 2 cells/ml c. Protein level absent d. Specific gravity 1.020

a. pH 4.0 The expected pH ranges from 4.8 to 7.8. A pH of 4.0 can be indicative of urinary tract infection or metabolic alkalosis or acidosis. Less than 1 or 2 white blood cells per milliliter is the expected range. The absence of protein is expected. The presence of protein can be indicative of glomerular disease. A specific gravity of 1.020 is within the anticipated range of 1.001 to 1.030. Specific gravity reflects level of hydration in addition to renal disorders and hormonal control such as antidiuretic hormone.

A parent tells the nurse that 80% of children with the same type of leukemia as his son's have a 5-year survival. He believes that because another child on the same protocol as his son has just died, his son now has a better chance of success. What is the best response by the nurse? a. "It is sad for the other family but good news for your child." b. "Each child has an 80% likelihood of 5-year survival." c. "The data suggest that 20% of the children in the clinic will die. There are still many hurdles for your son." d. "You should avoid the grieving family because you will be benefiting from their loss."

b. "Each child has an 80% likelihood of 5-year survival." This is a common misconception for parents. The success data are based on numerous factors, including the effectiveness of the protocol and the child's response. These are aggregate data that apply to each child and do not depend on the success or failure in other children. The failure of one child in a protocol does not improve the success rate for other children. Although the son does face more hurdles, these are aggregate data, not specific to the clinic. It may be difficult for this family to be supportive given their concerns about their child. Families usually form support groups in pediatric oncology settings, and support during bereavement is common.

The nurse is conducting discharge teaching with the parent of a 7-year-old child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS). What statement by the parent indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "My child needs to stay home from school for at least 1 more month." b. "I should not add additional salt to any of my child's meals." c. "My child will not be able to participate in contact sports while receiving corticosteroid therapy." d. "I should measure my child's urine after each void and report the 24-hour amount to the health care provider."

b. "I should not add additional salt to any of my child's meals." Children with MCNS can be treated at home after the initial phase with appropriate discharge instructions, including a salt restriction of no additional salt to the child's meals. The child may return to school but should avoid exposure to infected playmates. Participation in contact sports is not affected by corticosteroid therapy. The parent does not need to measure the child's urine on a daily basis but may be instructed to test for albumin.

The nurse is teaching the parent of a 4-year-old child with a cast on the arm about care at home. What statement by the parent indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I should have the affected limb hang in a dependent position." b. "I will use an ice pack to relieve the itching." c. "I should avoid keeping the injured arm elevated." d. "I will expect the fingers to be swollen for the next 3 days."

b. "I will use an ice pack to relieve the itching." Teaching the parent to use an ice pack to relieve the itching is an important aspect when planning discharge for a child with a cast. The affected limb should not be allowed to hang in a dependent position for more than 30 minutes. The affected arm should be kept elevated as much as possible. If there is swelling or redness of the fingers, the parent should notify the health care provider.

The nurse should suspect a child has cerebral palsy (CP) if the parent says what? a. "My 6-month-old baby is rolling from back to prone now." b. "My 4-month-old doesn't lift his head when on his tummy." c. "My 8-month-old can sit without support." d. "My 10-month-old is not walking."

b. "My 4-month-old doesn't lift his head when on his tummy." Delayed gross motor development is a universal manifestation of CP. The child shows a delay in all motor accomplishments, and the discrepancy between motor ability and expected achievement tends to increase with successive developmental milestones as growth advances. The infant who does not lift his head when on the tummy is showing a gross motor delay, as that is seen at 0 to 3 months. The other statements are within normal growth and development expectations.

The nurse is caring for a 6-year-old child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). The parent states, "My child has a low platelet count, and we are being discharged this afternoon. What do I need to do at home?" What statement is most appropriate for the nurse to make? a. "You should give your child aspirin instead of acetaminophen for fever or pain." b. "Your child should avoid contact sports or activities that could cause bleeding." c. "You should feed your child a bland, soft, moist diet for the next week." d. "Your child should avoid large groups of people for the next week."

b. "Your child should avoid contact sports or activities that could cause bleeding." A child with a low platelet count needs to avoid activities that could cause bleeding such as playing contact sports, climbing trees, using playground equipment, or bike riding. The child should be given acetaminophen, not aspirin, for fever or pain; the child does not need to be on a soft, bland diet or avoid large groups of people because of the low platelet count.

A 3-year-old child has a femoral shaft fracture. The nurse recognizes that the approximate healing time for this child is how long? a. 2 weeks b. 4 weeks c. 6 weeks d. 8 weeks

b. 4 weeks The approximate healing times for a femoral shaft fracture are as follows: neonatal period, 2 to 3 weeks; early childhood, 4 weeks; later childhood, 6 to 8 weeks; and adolescence, 8 to 12 weeks.

The nurse is preparing to admit a child to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis. The nurse understands that the peak age at onset for this disease is what? a. 2 to 4 years b. 5 to 7 years c. 8 to 10 years d. 11 to 13 years

b. 5 to 7 years The peak age at onset for acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is 5 to 7 years of age.

What amount of fluid loss occurs with moderate dehydration? a. <50 ml/kg b. 50 to 90 ml/kg c. <5% total body weight d. >15% total body weight

b. 50 to 90 ml/kg Moderate dehydration is defined as a fluid loss of between 50 and 90 ml/kg. Mild dehydration is defined as a fluid loss of less than 50 ml/kg. Weight loss up to 5% is considered mild dehydration. Weight loss over 15% is severe dehydration.

A school-age child has asthma. The nurse should teach the child that if a peak expiratory flow rate is in the yellow zone, this means that the asthma control is what? a. 80% of a personal best, and the routine treatment plan can be followed. b. 50% to 79% of a personal best and needs an increase in the usual therapy. c. 50 % of a personal best and needs immediate emergency bronchodilators. d. Less than 50% of a personal best and needs immediate hospitalization.

b. 50% to 79% of a personal best and needs an increase in the usual therapy. The interpretation of a peak expiratory flow rate that is yellow (50%-79% of personal best) signals caution. Asthma is not well controlled. An acute exacerbation may be present. Maintenance therapy may need to be increased. Call the practitioner if the child stays in this zone.

A 2-year-old child is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should notify the practitioner and withhold the medication if the apical pulse is less than which rate? a. 60 beats/min b. 90 beats/min c. 100 beats/min d. 120 beats/min

b. 90 beats/min If a 1-minute apical pulse is less than 90 beats/min for an infant or young child, the digoxin is withheld. Sixty beats/min is the cut-off for holding the digoxin dose in an adult. One hundred to 120 beats/min is an acceptable pulse rate for the administration of digoxin.

What are characteristics of diabetic ketoacidosis? (Select all that apply.) a. Pallor b. Acidosis c. Bradypnea d. Dehydration e. Electrolyte imbalance

b. Acidosis d. Dehydration e. Electrolyte imbalance Characteristics of diabetic ketoacidosis include acidosis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Respirations are rapid (Kussmaul respirations), not slow, and flushing, not pallor, would occur.

A preadolescent has maintained good glycemic control of his type 1 diabetes through the school year. During summer vacation, he has had repeated episodes of hypoglycemia. What additional teaching is needed? a. Carbohydrates in the diet need to be replaced with protein. b. Additional snacks are needed to compensate for increased activity. c. The child needs to decrease his activity level to minimize episodes of hypoglycemia. d. Insulin dosage should be increased to compensate for a change in activity level.

b. Additional snacks are needed to compensate for increased activity. Most children have a different schedule during summer vacation. The increased activity and exercise reduce insulin resistance and increase glucose utilization. Additional snacks should be eaten before physical activity to increase carbohydrates and protein and compensate for increased activity. Physical activity should always be encouraged if the child is capable. The benefits include improved glucose utilization and decreased insulin requirements. In consultation with the practitioner, insulin dosage may need to be decreased because of improved glucose utilization.

What signs or symptoms are most commonly associated with the prodromal phase of acute viral hepatitis? a. Bruising and lethargy b. Anorexia and malaise c. Fatigability and jaundice d. Dark urine and pale stools

b. Anorexia and malaise The signs and symptoms most common in the prodromal phase are anorexia, malaise, lethargy, and easy fatigability. Bruising would not be an issue unless liver damage has occurred. Jaundice is a late sign and often does not occur in children. Dark urine and pale stools would occur during the onset of jaundice (icteric phase) if it occurs.

A 6-month-old infant with Hirschsprung disease is scheduled for a temporary colostomy. What should postoperative teaching to the parents include? a. Dilating the stoma b. Assessing bowel function c. Limitation of physical activities d. Measures to prevent prolapse of the rectum

b. Assessing bowel function In the postoperative period, the nurse involves the parents in the care of the child with a temporary colostomy, allowing them to help with feedings and observe for signs of wound infection or irregular passage of stool (constipation or true incontinence). Some children will require daily anal dilatations in the postoperative period to avoid anastomotic strictures but not stoma dilatations. Physical activities should be encouraged. There is not a risk of prolapse of the rectum in Hirschsprung disease, just strictures.

What is an appropriate nursing intervention when caring for a child in traction? a. Removing adhesive traction straps daily to prevent skin breakdown b. Assessing for tightness, weakness, or contractures in uninvolved joints and muscles c. Providing active range of motion exercises to affected extremity three times a day d. Keeping child prone to maintain good alignment

b. Assessing for tightness, weakness, or contractures in uninvolved joints and muscles Traction places stress on the affected bone, joint, and muscles. The nurse must assess for tightness, weakness, or contractures developing in the uninvolved joints and muscles. The adhesive straps should be released or replaced only when absolutely necessary. Active, passive, or active with resistance exercises should be carried out for the unaffected extremity only. Movement is expected with children. Each time the child moves, the nurse should check to ensure that proper alignment is maintained.

A child with cystic fibrosis (CF) receives aerosolized bronchodilator medication. When should this medication be administered? a. After chest physiotherapy (CPT) b. Before chest physiotherapy (CPT) c. After receiving 100% oxygen d. Before receiving 100% oxygen

b. Before chest physiotherapy (CPT) Bronchodilators should be given before CPT to open bronchi and make expectoration easier. These medications are not helpful when used after CPT. Oxygen is administered only in acute episodes, with caution, because of chronic carbon dioxide retention.

What is the most frequent cause of hypovolemic shock in children? a. Sepsis b. Blood loss c. Anaphylaxis d. Heart failure

b. Blood loss Blood loss is the most frequent cause of hypovolemic shock in children. Sepsis causes septic shock, which is overwhelming sepsis and circulating bacterial toxins. Anaphylactic shock results from extreme allergy or hypersensitivity to a foreign substance. Heart failure contributes to hypervolemia, not hypovolemia.

What are favorable prognostic criteria for acute lymphoblastic leukemia? (Select all that apply.) a. Male gender b. CALLA positive c. Early pre-B cell d. 2 to 10 years of age e. Leukocyte count ?7?50,000/mm3

b. CALLA positive c. Early pre-B cell d. 2 to 10 years of age Favorable prognostic criteria for acute lymphoblastic leukemia include CALLA positive, early pre-B cell, and age 2 to 10 years. Leukocyte count less, not greater, than 50,000/mm3 and female, not male, gender are favorable prognostic criteria.

What drug is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor? a. Furosemide (Lasix) b. Captopril (Capoten) c. Chlorothiazide (Diuril) d. Spironolactone (Aldactone)

b. Captopril (Capoten) Captopril is an ACE inhibitor. Furosemide is a loop diuretic. Chlorothiazide works on the distal tubules. Spironolactone blocks the action of aldosterone and is a potassium-sparing diuretic.

The nurse is collecting a 24-hour urine sample on a child with suspected diagnosis of neuroblastoma. What finding in the urine is expected with neuroblastomas? a. Ketones b. Catecholamines c. Red blood cells d. Excessive white blood cells

b. Catecholamines Neuroblastomas, particularly those arising on the adrenal glands or from a sympathetic chain, excrete the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. Urinary excretion of catecholamines is detected in approximately 95% of children with adrenal or sympathetic tumors.

The nurse is caring for a child with Kawasaki disease in the acute phase. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Osler nodes b. Cervical lymphadenopathy c. Strawberry tongue d. Chorea e. Erythematous palms f. Polyarthritis

b. Cervical lymphadenopathy c. Strawberry tongue e. Erythematous palms Clinical manifestations of Kawasaki disease in the acute phase include cervical lymphadenopathy, a strawberry tongue, and erythematous palms. Osler nodes are a clinical manifestation of endocarditis. Chorea and polyarthritis are seen in rheumatic fever.

The nurse is caring for a child with retinoblastoma that was treated with an enucleation. What interventions should the nurse plan for care of an eye socket after enucleation? (Select all that apply.) a. Clean the prosthesis. b. Change the eye pad daily. c. Keep the opposite eye covered initially. d. Irrigate the socket daily with a prescribed solution. e. Apply a prescribed antibiotic ointment after irrigation.

b. Change the eye pad daily. d. Irrigate the socket daily with a prescribed solution. e. Apply a prescribed antibiotic ointment after irrigation. Care of the socket is minimal and easily accomplished. The wound itself is clean and has little or no drainage. If an antibiotic ointment is prescribed, it is applied in a thin line on the surface of the tissues of the socket. To cleanse the site, an irrigating solution may be ordered and is instilled daily or more frequently if necessary before application of the antibiotic ointment. The dressing consists of an eye pad changed daily. The prosthesis is not placed until the socket has healed. The opposite eye is not covered.

The nurse is preparing a staff education in-service session for a group of new graduate nurses who will be working in a long-term care facility for children; many of the children have cerebral palsy (CP). What statement should the nurse include in the training? a. Children with dyskinetic CP have a wide-based gait and repetitive movements. b. Children with spastic pyramidal CP have a positive Babinski sign and ankle clonus. c. Children with hemiplegia CP have mouth muscles and one lower limb affected. d. Children with ataxic CP have involvement of pharyngeal and oral muscles with dysarthria.

b. Children with spastic pyramidal CP have a positive Babinski sign and ankle clonus. CP has a variety of clinical classifications. Spastic pyramidal CP includes manifestations such as a positive Babinski sign and ankle clonus; ataxic CP has a wide-based gait and repetitive movements; hemiplegia CP is characterized by motor dysfunction on one side of the body with upper extremity more affected than lower limbs; and dyskinetic CP involves the pharyngeal and oral muscles, causing drooling and dysarthria.

The nurse is preparing to admit a 3-year-old child with acute spasmodic laryngitis. What clinical features of hepatitis B should the nurse recognize? (Select all that apply.) a. High fever b. Croupy cough c. Tendency to recur d. Purulent secretions e. Occurs sudden, often at night

b. Croupy cough c. Tendency to recur e. Occurs sudden, often at night Clinical features of acute spasmodic laryngitis include a croupy cough, a tendency to recur, and occurring sudden, often at night. High fever is a feature of acute epiglottitis and purulent secretions are seen with acute tracheitis.

What measure of fluid balance status is most useful in a child with acute glomerulonephritis? a. Proteinuria b. Daily weight c. Specific gravity d. Intake and output

b. Daily weight A record of daily weight is the most useful means to assess fluid balance and should be kept for children treated at home or in the hospital. Proteinuria does not provide information about fluid balance. Specific gravity does not accurately reflect fluid balance in acute glomerulonephritis. If fluid is being retained, the excess fluid will not be included. Also proteinuria and hematuria affect specific gravity. Intake and output can be useful but are not considered as accurate as daily weights. In children who are not toilet trained, measuring output is more difficult.

The nurse is teaching the family of a child with type 1 diabetes about insulin. What should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Unopened vials are good for 60 days. b. Diabetic supplies should not be left in a hot environment. c. Insulin can be placed in the freezer if not used every day. d. After it has been opened, insulin is good for up to 28 to 30 days. e. Insulin bottles that have been opened should be stored at room temperature or refrigerated.

b. Diabetic supplies should not be left in a hot environment. d. After it has been opened, insulin is good for up to 28 to 30 days. e. Insulin bottles that have been opened should be stored at room temperature or refrigerated. Insulin bottles that have been "opened" (i.e., the stopper has been punctured) should be stored at room temperature or refrigerated for up to 28 to 30 days. After 1 month, these vials should be discarded. Unopened vials should be refrigerated and are good until the expiration date on the label. Diabetic supplies should not be left in a hot environment. Insulin need not be refrigerated but should be maintained at a temperature between 15° and 29.5° C (59° and 85° F). Freezing renders insulin inactive.

The nurse is preparing to give digoxin (Lanoxin) to a 9-month-old infant. The nurse checks the dose and draws up 4 ml of the drug. The most appropriate nursing action is which? a. Mix the dose with juice to disguise its taste. b. Do not give the dose; suspect a dosage error. c. Check the heart rate; administer digoxin if the rate is greater than 100 beats/min. d. Check the heart rate; administer digoxin if the rate is greater than 80 beats/min.

b. Do not give the dose; suspect a dosage error. Infants rarely receive more than 1 ml (50 mcg, or 0.05 mg) of digoxin in one dose; a higher dose is an immediate warning of a dosage error. To ensure safety, compare the calculation with that of another staff member before giving digoxin.

The nurse is teaching the parent of a preschool child how to administer the child's insulin injection. The child will be receiving 2 units of regular insulin and 12 units of NPH insulin every morning. What should the parent be taught? a. Draw the insulin in separate syringes. b. Draw the regular insulin first and then the NPH into the same syringe. c. Draw the NPH insulin first and then the regular into the same syringe. d. Check blood sugar first, and if below 120, hold the regular insulin and give the NPH.

b. Draw the regular insulin first and then the NPH into the same syringe. To obtain maximum benefit from mixing insulins, the recommended practice is to (1) inject the measured amount of air (equivalent to the dosage) into the long-acting insulin; (2) inject the measured amount of air into the rapid-acting (clear) insulin and, without removing the needle; (3) withdraw the clear insulin; and (4) insert the needle (already containing the clear insulin) into the long-acting (cloudy) insulin and then withdraw the desired amount. The blood sugar may be checked before giving the insulin, but the prescribed dose should not be withheld if the blood sugar is 120.

Hydrotherapy is required to treat a child with extensive partial-thickness burn wounds. What is the purpose of hydrotherapy? a. Provide pain relief b. Débride the wounds c. Destroy bacteria on the skin d. Increase peripheral blood flow

b. Débride the wounds Soaking in a tub or showering once or twice a day acts to loosen and remove sloughing tissue, exudate, and topical medications. The hydrotherapy cleanses the wound and the entire body and helps maintain range of motion. Appropriate pain medications are necessary. Dressing changes are extremely painful. The total bacterial count of the skin is reduced by the hydrotherapy, but this is not the primary goal. There may be an increase in peripheral blood flow, but the primary purpose is for wound débridement.

A child is recovering from Kawasaki disease (KD). The child should be monitored for which? a. Anemia b. Electrocardiograph (ECG) changes c. Elevated white blood cell count d. Decreased platelets

b. Electrocardiograph (ECG) changes The most serious complication of KD is the development of coronary artery aneurysms and the potential for myocardial infarction in children with aneurysm formation. The nurse should monitor any ECG changes.

A 7-year-old child has just had a cast applied for a fractured arm with the wrist and elbow immobilized. What information should be included in the home care instructions? a. No restrictions of activity are indicated. b. Elevate casted arm when both upright and resting. c. The shoulder should be kept as immobile as possible to avoid pain. d. Swelling of the fingers is to be expected. Notify a health professional if it persists more than 48 hours.

b. Elevate casted arm when both upright and resting. The injured extremity should be kept elevated while resting and in a sling when upright. This will increase venous return. The child should not engage in strenuous activity for the first few days. Rest with elevation of the extremity is encouraged. Joints above and below the cast on the affected extremity should be moved. Swelling of the fingers may indicate neurovascular damage and should be reported immediately. Permanent damage can occur within 6 to 8 hours.

A child has had a short-arm synthetic cast applied. What should the nurse teach to the child and parents about cast care? (Select all that apply.) a. Relieve itching with heat. b. Elevate the arm when resting. c. Observe the fingers for any evidence of discoloration. d. Do not allow the child to put anything inside the cast. e. Examine the skin at the cast edges for any breakdown.

b. Elevate the arm when resting. c. Observe the fingers for any evidence of discoloration. d. Do not allow the child to put anything inside the cast. e. Examine the skin at the cast edges for any breakdown. Cast care involves elevating the arm, observing the fingers for evidence of discoloration, not allowing the child to put anything inside the cast, and examining the skin at the edges of the cast for any breakdown. Ice, not heat, should be applied to relieve itching.

A child has just returned from surgery for repair of a fractured femur. The child has a long-leg cast on. The toes on the leg with the cast are edematous, but they have color, sensitivity, and movement. What action should the nurse take? a. Call the health care provider to report the edema. b. Elevate the foot and leg on pillows. c. Apply a warm moist pack to the foot. d. Encourage movement of toes.

b. Elevate the foot and leg on pillows. During the first few hours after a cast is applied, the chief concern is that the extremity may continue to swell to the extent that the cast becomes a tourniquet, shutting off circulation and producing neurovascular complications (compartment syndrome). One measure to reduce the likelihood of this problem is to elevate the body part and thereby increase venous return. The health care provider does not need to be notified because edema is expected and warm moist packs will not decrease the edema. The child should move the toes, but that will not help reduce the edema.

What dietary instructions should the nurse give to parents of a child undergoing chronic hemodialysis? (Select all that apply.) a. High protein b. Fluid restriction c. High phosphorus d. Sodium restriction e. Potassium restriction

b. Fluid restriction d. Sodium restriction e. Potassium restriction Dietary limitations are necessary in patients undergoing chronic dialysis to avoid biochemical complications. Fluid and sodium are restricted to prevent fluid overload and its associated symptoms of hypertension, cerebral manifestations, and congestive heart failure. Potassium is restricted to prevent complications related to hyperkalemia; phosphorus restriction helps prevent parathyroid hyperactivity and its attendant risk of abnormal calcification in soft tissues. Adequate protein, not high intake, is necessary to maximize growth potential. Fluid limitations are determined by residual urinary output and the need to limit intradialytic weight gain.

A recommendation to prevent neural tube defects (NTDs) is the supplementation of what? a. Vitamin A throughout pregnancy b. Folic acid for all women of childbearing age c. Folic acid during the first and second trimesters of pregnancy d. Multivitamin preparations as soon as pregnancy is suspected

b. Folic acid for all women of childbearing age The widespread use of folic acid among women of childbearing age has decreased the incidence NTDs. In the United States, the rates of NTDs have declined from 1.3 per 1000 births in 1990 to 0.3 per 1000 after the introduction of mandatory folic acid supplementation in food in 1998. Vitamin A is not related to the prevention of NTDs. Folic acid supplementation is recommended for the preconceptual period, as well as during the pregnancy. The NTD is a failure of neural tube closure during early development, the first 3 to 5 weeks.

A school-age child with leukemia experienced severe nausea and vomiting when receiving chemotherapy for the first time. What is the most appropriate nursing action to prevent or minimize these reactions with subsequent treatments? a. Administer the chemotherapy between meals. b. Give an antiemetic before chemotherapy begins. c. Have the child bring favorite foods for snacks. d. Keep the child NPO (nothing by mouth) until nausea and vomiting subside.

b. Give an antiemetic before chemotherapy begins. The most beneficial regimen to minimize nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy is to administer a 5-hydroxytryptamine-3 receptor antagonist (e.g., ondansetron) before the chemotherapy is begun. The goal is to prevent anticipatory signs and symptoms. The child will experience nausea with chemotherapy whether or not food is present in the stomach. Because some children develop aversions to foods eaten during chemotherapy, refraining from offering favorite foods is advised. Keeping the child NPO until nausea and vomiting subside will help with this episode, but the child will have discomfort and be at risk for dehydration.

The nurse is teaching parents about administering digoxin (Lanoxin). What instructions should the nurse tell the parents? a. If the child vomits, give another dose. b. Give the medication at regular intervals. c. If a dose is missed, give a give an extra dose. d. Give the medication mixed with the child's formula.

b. Give the medication at regular intervals. The family should be taught to administer digoxin at regular intervals. If a dose is missed, an extra dose should not be given; the same schedule should be maintained. If the child vomits, do not give a second dose. The drug should not be mixed with foods or other fluids because refusal to consume these would result in inaccurate intake of the drug.

A child is on phenytoin (Dilantin). What should the nurse encourage? a. Fluid restriction b. Good dental hygiene c. A decrease in vitamin D intake d. Taking the medication with milk

b. Good dental hygiene Chronic treatment with phenytoin may cause gum hypertrophy. Children taking phenobarbital or phenytoin should receive adequate vitamin D and folic acid because deficiencies of both have been associated with these drugs. The medication should not be taken with milk, and fluids should be encouraged, not restricted.

The nurse is caring for a family whose infant was just born with anencephaly. What is the most important nursing intervention? a.Implement measures to facilitate the attachment process. b. Help the family cope with the birth of an infant with a fatal defect. c. Prepare the family for extensive surgical procedures that will be needed. d. Provide emotional support so the family can adjust to the birth of an infant with problems

b. Help the family cope with the birth of an infant with a fatal defect. Anencephaly is the most serious neural tube defect. The infants have an intact brainstem and, if born alive, may be able to maintain vital functions for a few hours to several weeks. The family requires emotional support and counseling to cope with the birth of an infant with a fatal defect. The parents should be encouraged to hold their infant and provide comfort measures. This facilitates the grieving process because the infant has a limited life expectancy. Infants with anencephaly do not have cerebral hemispheres. There is no surgical correction available for this defect. Emotional support is needed as the family adjusts to the birth of a child who has a fatal defect.

A child is admitted with acute glomerulonephritis. What should the nurse expect the urinalysis during this acute phase to show? a. Bacteriuria and hematuria b. Hematuria and proteinuria c. Bacteriuria and increased specific gravity d. Proteinuria and decreased specific gravity

b. Hematuria and proteinuria Urinalysis during the acute phase characteristically shows hematuria, proteinuria, and increased specific gravity. Proteinuria generally parallels the hematuria but is not usually the massive proteinuria seen in nephrotic syndrome. Gross discoloration of urine reflects its red blood cell and hemoglobin content. Microscopic examination of the sediment shows many red blood cells, leukocytes, epithelial cells, and granular and red blood cell casts. Bacteria are not seen, and urine culture results are negative.

The nurse is teaching a parent of a 6-month-old infant with gastroesophageal reflux (GER) before discharge. What instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Elevate the head of the bed in the crib to a 90-degree angle while the infant is sleeping. b. Hold the infant in the prone position after a feeding. c. Discontinue breastfeeding so that a formula and rice cereal mixture can be used. d. The infant will require the Nissen fundoplication after 1 year of age. e. Prescribed cimetidine (Tagamet) should be given 30 minutes before feedings.

b. Hold the infant in the prone position after a feeding. e. Prescribed cimetidine (Tagamet) should be given 30 minutes before feedings. Discharge instructions for an infant with GER should include the prone position (up on the shoulder or across the lap) after a feeding. Use of the prone position while the infant is sleeping is still controversial. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the supine position to decrease the risk of sudden infant death syndrome even in infants with GER. Prescribed cimetidine or another proton pump inhibitor should be given 30 minutes before the morning and evening feeding so that peak plasma concentrations occur with mealtime. The head of the bed in the crib does not need to be elevated. The mother may continue to breastfeed or express breast milk to add rice cereal if recommended by the health care provider; thickening breast milk or formula with cereal is not recommended by all practitioners. The Nissen fundoplication is only done on infants with GER in severe cases with complications.

What type of dehydration occurs when the electrolyte deficit exceeds the water deficit? a. Isotonic dehydration b. Hypotonic dehydration c. Hypertonic dehydration d. Hyperosmotic dehydration

b. Hypotonic dehydration Hypotonic dehydration occurs when the electrolyte deficit exceeds the water deficit, leaving the serum hypotonic. Isotonic dehydration occurs in conditions in which electrolyte and water deficits are present in balanced proportion. Hypertonic dehydration results from water loss in excess of electrolyte loss. This is the most dangerous type of dehydration. It is caused by feeding children fluids with high amounts of solute. Hyperosmotic dehydration is another term for hypertonic dehydration.

What pathologic process is believed to be responsible for the development of postinfectious glomerulonephritis? a. Infarction of renal vessels b. Immune complex formation and glomerular deposition c. Bacterial endotoxin deposition on and destruction of glomeruli d. Embolization of glomeruli by bacteria and fibrin from endocardial vegetation

b. Immune complex formation and glomerular deposition After a streptococcal infection, antibodies are formed, and immune-complex reaction occurs. The immune complexes are trapped in the glomerular capillary loop. Infarction of renal vessels occurs in renal involvement in sickle cell disease. Bacterial endotoxin deposition on and destruction of glomeruli is not a mechanism for postinfectious glomerulonephritis. Embolization of glomeruli by bacteria and fibrin from endocardial vegetation is the pathology of renal involvement with bacterial endocarditis.

A 3-year-old child with Hirschsprung disease is hospitalized for surgery. A temporary colostomy will be necessary. How should the nurse prepare this child? a. It is unnecessary because of child's age. b. It is essential because it will be an adjustment. c. Preparation is not needed because the colostomy is temporary. d. Preparation is important because the child needs to deal with negative body image.

b. It is essential because it will be an adjustment. The child's age dictates the type and extent of psychologic preparation. When a colostomy is performed, it is necessary to prepare the child who is at least preschool age by telling him or her about the procedure and what to expect in concrete terms, with the use of visual aids. The preschooler is not yet concerned with body image.

A child with cystic fibrosis is receiving recombinant human deoxyribonuclease (DNase). What statement about DNase is true? a. Given subcutaneously b. May cause voice alterations c. May cause mucus to thicken d. Not indicated for children younger than age 12 years

b. May cause voice alterations One of the only adverse effects of DNase is voice alterations and laryngitis. DNase is given in an aerosolized form, decreases the viscosity of mucus, and is safe for children younger than 12 years.

Gingivitis is a common problem in children with cerebral palsy (CP). What preventive measure should be included in the plan of care? a. High-carbohydrate diet b. Meticulous dental hygiene c. Minimum use of fluoride d. Avoidance of medications that contribute to gingivitis

b. Meticulous dental hygiene Meticulous oral hygiene is essential. Many children with CP have congenital enamel defects, high-carbohydrate diets, poor nutritional intake, and difficulty closing their mouths. These, coupled with the child's spasticity or clonic movements, make oral hygiene difficult. Children with CP have high carbohydrate intake and retention, which contribute to dental caries. Use of fluoride should be encouraged through fluoridated water or supplements and toothpaste. Certain medications such as phenytoin do contribute to gingival hyperplasia. If that is the drug of choice, then meticulous oral hygiene must be used.

A 4-year-old child is placed in Buck extension traction for Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease. He is crying with pain as the nurse assesses the skin of his right foot and sees that it is pale with an absence of pulse. What should the nurse do first? a. Reposition the child and notify the practitioner. b. Notify the practitioner of the changes noted. c. Give the child medication to relieve the pain. d. Chart the observations and check the extremity again in 15 minutes.

b. Notify the practitioner of the changes noted. The absence of a pulse and change in color of the foot must be reported immediately for evaluation by the practitioner. This is an emergency condition. Pain medication should be given after the practitioner is notified. The findings should be documented with ongoing assessment.

What is the nursing action related to the applying of biologic or synthetic skin coverings for a child with partial-thickness burns of both legs? a. Splint the legs to prevent movement. b. Observe wounds for signs of infection. c. Monitor closely for manifestations of shock. d. Examine dressings for indications of bleeding.

b. Observe wounds for signs of infection. When applied early to a superficial partial-thickness injury, biologic dressings stimulate epithelial growth and faster wound healing. If the dressing covers areas of heavy microbial contamination, infection occurs beneath the dressing. In the case of partial-thickness burns, such infection may convert the wound to a full-thickness injury. Infection is the primary concern when biologic dressings are used.

A child with acute glomerulonephritis is in the playroom and experiences blurred vision and a headache. What action should the nurse take? a. Check the urine to see if hematuria has increased. b. Obtain the child's blood pressure and notify the health care provider. c. Obtain serum electrolytes and send urinalysis to the laboratory. d. Reassure the child and encourage bed rest until the headache improves.

b. Obtain the child's blood pressure and notify the health care provider. The premonitory signs of encephalopathy are headache, dizziness, abdominal discomfort, and vomiting. If the condition progresses, there may be transient loss of vision or hemiparesis, disorientation, and generalized tonic-clonic seizures. The health care provider should be notified of these symptoms.

What test is never performed on a child who is awake? a. Doll's head maneuver b. Oculovestibular response c. Assessment of pyramidal tract lesions d. Funduscopic examination for papilledema

b. Oculovestibular response The oculovestibular response (caloric test) involves the instillation of ice water into the ear of a comatose child. The caloric test is painful and is never performed on an awake child or one who has a ruptured tympanic membrane. The doll's head maneuver, assessment of pyramidal tract lesions, and funduscopic examination for papilledema are not considered painful and can be performed on awake children.

A child is in the hospital for cystic fibrosis. What health care provider's prescription should the nurse clarify before implementing? a. Dornase alfa (Pulmozyme) nebulizer treatment bid b. Pancreatic enzymes every 6 hours c. Vitamin A, D, E, and K supplements daily d. Proventil (albuterol) nebulizer treatments tid

b. Pancreatic enzymes every 6 hours The principal treatment for pancreatic insufficiency that occurs in cystic fibrosis is replacement of pancreatic enzymes, which are administered with meals and snacks to ensure that digestive enzymes are mixed with food in the duodenum. The enzymes should not be given every 6 hours, so this should be clarified before implementing this prescription. Dornase alfa (Pulmozyme) is given by nebulizer to decrease the viscosity of secretions, vitamin supplements are given daily, and Proventil nebulizer treatments are given to open the bronchi for easier expectoration.

The nurse is preparing to admit a 3-year-old child with intussusception. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Absent bowel sounds b. Passage of red, currant jelly-like stools c. Anorexia d. Tender, distended abdomen e. Hematemesis f. Sudden acute abdominal pain

b. Passage of red, currant jelly-like stools d. Tender, distended abdomen f. Sudden acute abdominal pain Intussusception occurs when a proximal segment of the bowel telescopes into a more distal segment, pulling the mesentery with it and leading to obstruction. Clinical manifestations of intussusception include the passage of red, currant jelly-like stools; a tender, distended abdomen; and sudden acute abdominal pain. Absent bowel sounds, anorexia, and hematemesis are clinical manifestations observed in other types of gastrointestinal dysfunction.

What sign/symptom is a major clinical manifestation of rheumatic fever (RF)? a. Fever b. Polyarthritis c. Osler nodes d. Janeway spots

b. Polyarthritis Polyarthritis, which is swollen, hot, red, and painful joints, is a major clinical manifestation. The affected joints will change every 1 or 2 days. The large joints are primarily affected. Fever is considered a minor manifestation of RF. Osler nodes and Janeway spots are characteristic of bacterial endocarditis.

An infant has tetralogy of Fallot. In reviewing the record, what laboratory result should the nurse expect to be documented? a. Leukopenia b. Polycythemia c. Anemia d. Increased platelet level

b. Polycythemia Persistent hypoxemia that occurs with tetralogy of Fallot stimulates erythropoiesis, which results in polycythemia, an increased number of red blood cells.

The parents of a child with spastic cerebral palsy (CP) state that their child seems to have significant pain. In addition to systemic pharmacologic management, the nurse includes which teaching? a. Patterning b. Positions to reduce spasticity c. Stretching exercises after meals d. Topical analgesics for muscle spasms

b. Positions to reduce spasticity Parents and children are taught positions to assume while sitting and recumbent that reduce spasticity. The American Academy of Pediatrics has stated that patterning should not be used for neurologically disabled children. Patterning attempts to alter abnormal tone and posture and elicit desired movements through positional manipulation or other means of modifying or augmenting sensory output. Stretching should be done after appropriate analgesic medication has been given and is effective. Topical analgesia is not effective for the muscle spasms of spastic CP.

What guidelines should the nurse follow when handling chemotherapeutic agents? (Select all that apply.) a. Use clean technique. b. Prepare medications in a safety cabinet. c. Wear gloves designed for handling chemotherapy. d. Wear face and eye protection when splashing is possible. e. Discard gloves and protective clothing in a special container.

b. Prepare medications in a safety cabinet. c. Wear gloves designed for handling chemotherapy. d. Wear face and eye protection when splashing is possible. e. Discard gloves and protective clothing in a special container. Safe handling of chemotherapeutic agents includes preparing medications in a safety cabinet, wearing gloves designed for handling chemotherapy, wearing face and eye protection when splashing is possible, and discarding gloves and protective clothing in a special container. Aseptic, not clean, technique should be used.

An infant is diagnosed with transposition of the great vessels. Prostaglandin E1 is given intravenously. The parents ask how long the child will remain on the prostaglandin E1. What is the appropriate response by the nurse? a. Prostaglandin E1 will be given intermittently until corrective surgery is performed. b. Prostaglandin E1 will be given continuously until corrective surgery is performed. c. Prostaglandin E1 will be given continuously throughout the preoperative and postoperative periods until the child is stable. d. Prostaglandin E1 will be given intermittently throughout the preoperative and postoperative periods until the child is stable.

b. Prostaglandin E1 will be given continuously until corrective surgery is performed. To provide intracardiac mixing for a child with transposition of the great arteries, intravenous prostaglandin E1 is administered continuously to keep the ductus arteriosus open to temporarily increase blood mixing and provide an oxygen saturation of 75% or to maintain cardiac output until surgery. It is discontinued after surgery.

Fentanyl and midazolam (Versed) are given before débridement of a child's burn wounds. What is the purpose of using these medications? a. Facilitate healing b. Provide pain relief c. Minimize risk of infection d. Decrease amount of débridement needed

b. Provide pain relief Partial-thickness burns require débridement of devitalized tissue to promote healing. The procedure is painful and requires analgesia and sedation before the procedure. Fentanyl and midazolam provide excellent intravenous sedation and analgesia to control procedural pain in children with burns.

What finding is characteristic of fractures in children? a. Fractures rarely occur at the growth plate site because it absorbs shock well. b. Rapidity of healing is inversely related to the child's age. c. Pliable bones of growing children are less porous than those of adults. d. The periosteum of a child's bone is thinner, is weaker, and has less osteogenic potential compared to that of an adult.

b. Rapidity of healing is inversely related to the child's age. Healing is more rapid in children. The younger the child, the more rapid the healing process. Nonunion of bone fragments is uncommon except in severe injuries. The epiphyseal plate is the weakest point of long bones and a frequent site of injury during trauma. Children's bones are more pliable and porous than those of adults. This allows them to bend, buckle, and break. The greater porosity increases the flexibility of the bone and dissipates and absorbs a significant amount of the force on impact. The adult periosteum is thinner, is weaker, and has less osteogenic potential than that of a child.

The nurse is preparing to admit a 7-year-old child with hepatitis B. What clinical features of hepatitis B should the nurse recognize? (Select all that apply.) a. The onset is rapid. b. Rash is common. c. Jaundice is present d. No carrier state exists. e. The mode of transmission is principally by the parenteral route.

b. Rash is common. c. Jaundice is present e. The mode of transmission is principally by the parenteral route. Clinical features of hepatitis B include a rash, jaundice, and the mode of transmission principally by the parenteral route. The onset is insidious, not rapid, and a carrier state does exist.

One of the goals for children with asthma is to maintain the child's normal functioning. What principle of treatment helps to accomplish this goal? a. Limit participation in sports. b. Reduce underlying inflammation. c. Minimize use of pharmacologic agents. d. Have yearly evaluations by a health care provider.

b. Reduce underlying inflammation. Children with asthma are often excluded from exercise. This practice interferes with peer interaction and physical health. Most children with asthma can participate provided their asthma is under control. Inflammation is the underlying cause of the symptoms of asthma. By decreasing inflammation and reducing the symptomatic airway narrowing, health care providers can minimize exacerbations. Pharmacologic agents are used to prevent and control asthma symptoms, reduce the frequency and severity of asthma exacerbations, and reverse airflow obstruction. It is recommended that children with asthma be evaluated every 6 months.

The nurse notes that a child has lost 3.6 kg (8 lb) after 4 days of hospitalization for acute glomerulonephritis. What is the most likely cause of this weight loss? a. Poor appetite b. Reduction of edema c. Restriction to bed rest d. Increased potassium intake

b. Reduction of edema This amount of weight loss in this period is a result of the improvement of renal function and mobilization of edema fluid. Poor appetite and bed rest would not result in a weight loss of 8 lb in 4 days. Foods with substantial amounts of potassium are avoided until renal function is normalized.

What childhood cancer may demonstrate patterns of inheritance that suggest a familial basis? a. Leukemia b. Retinoblastoma c. Rhabdomyosarcoma d. Osteogenic sarcoma

b. Retinoblastoma Retinoblastoma is an example of a pediatric cancer that demonstrates inheritance. The absence of the retinoblastoma gene allows for abnormal cell growth and the development of retinoblastoma. Chromosome abnormalities are present in many malignancies. They do not indicate a familial pattern of inheritance. The Philadelphia chromosome is observed in almost all individuals with chronic myelogenous leukemia. There is no evidence of a familial pattern of inheritance for rhabdomyosarcoma or osteogenic sarcoma cancers.

The mother of an infant tells the nurse that sometimes there is a whitish "glow" in the pupil of his eye. The nurse should suspect which condition? a. Brain tumor b. Retinoblastoma c. Neuroblastoma d. Rhabdomyosarcoma

b. Retinoblastoma When the nurse examines the eye, the light will reflect off of the tumor, giving the eye a whitish appearance. This is called a cat's eye reflex. Brain tumors are not usually visible. Neuroblastoma usually arises from the adrenal medulla and sympathetic nervous system. The most common presentation sites are in the abdomen, head, neck, or pelvis. Supraorbital ecchymosis may be present with distant metastasis. Rhabdomyosarcoma is a soft tissue tumor that derives from skeletal muscle undifferentiated cells.

A child with heart failure is on Lanoxin (digoxin). The laboratory value a nurse must closely monitor is which? a. Serum sodium b. Serum potassium c. Serum glucose d. Serum chloride

b. Serum potassium A fall in the serum potassium level enhances the effects of digoxin, increasing the risk of digoxin toxicity. Increased serum potassium levels diminish digoxin's effect. Therefore, serum potassium levels (normal range, 3.5-5.5 mmol/L) must be carefully monitored.

What effects of an altered pituitary secretion in a child with meningitis indicates syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)? (Select all that apply.) a. Hypotension b. Serum sodium is decreased c. Urinary output is decreased d. Evidence of overhydration e. Urine specific gravity is increased

b. Serum sodium is decreased c. Urinary output is decreased d. Evidence of overhydration e. Urine specific gravity is increased The serum sodium is decreased, urinary output is decreased, evidence of overhydration is present, and urine specific gravity is increased in SIADH. Hypertension, not hypotension, occurs.

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is suspected in a newborn because of ambiguous genitalia. The parents are appropriately upset and concerned about their child's gender. In teaching the parents about CAH, what should the nurse explain? a. Reconstructive surgery as a female is preferred. b. Sexual assignment should wait until genetic sex is determined. c. Prenatal masculinization will strongly influence the child's development. d. The child should be raised as a boy because of the presence of a penis and scrotum.

b. Sexual assignment should wait until genetic sex is determined. It is preferable to raise the child according to genetic sex. With hormone replacement and surgical intervention if needed, genetically female children achieve satisfactory results in reversing virilism and achieving normal puberty and ability to conceive. Reconstructive surgery as a female is only preferred for infants who are genetically female. Infants who are genetically male should be given hormonal supplementation. Sex assignment and rearing depend on psychosocial influences, not on genetic sex hormone influences during fetal life. It is not advised to raise the child as a boy because of the presence of a penis and scrotum unless the child is genetically male. If a genetic female, the child will be sterile and may never be able to function satisfactorily in a heterosexual relationship.

What clinical manifestations should be observed in a 2-year-old child with hypotonic dehydration? (Select all that apply.) a. Thick, doughy feel to the skin b. Slightly moist mucous membranes c. Absent tears d. Very rapid pulse e. Hyperirritability

b. Slightly moist mucous membranes c. Absent tears d. Very rapid pulse Clinical manifestations of hypotonic dehydration include slightly moist mucous membranes, absent tears, and a very rapid pulse. A thick, doughy feel to the skin and hyperirritability are signs of hypertonic dehydration.

The nurse is caring for a 14-year-old child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA). What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) a. Erythema over joints b. Soft tissue contractures c. Swelling in multiple joints d. Morning stiffness of the joints e. Loss of motion in the affected joints

b. Soft tissue contractures c. Swelling in multiple joints d. Morning stiffness of the joints e. Loss of motion in the affected joints Whether single or multiple joints are involved, stiffness, swelling, and loss of motion develop in the affected joints in JIA. The swelling results from soft tissue edema, joint effusion, and synovial thickening. The affected joints may be warm and tender to the touch, but it is not uncommon for pain not to be reported. The limited motion early in the disease is a result of muscle spasm and joint inflammation; later it is caused by ankylosis or soft tissue contracture. Morning stiffness of the joint(s) is characteristic and present on arising in the morning or after inactivity. Erythema is not typical, and a warm, painful, red joint is always suspect for infection.

What type of cerebral palsy (CP) is the most common type? a. Ataxic b. Spastic c. Dyskinetic d. Mixed type

b. Spastic Spastic CP is the most common clinical type. Early manifestations are usually generalized hypotonia, or decreased tone that lasts for a few weeks or may extend for months or as long as 1 year. It is replaced by increased stretch reflexes, increased muscle tone, and weakness. Ataxic, dyskinetic, and mixed type are less common forms of CP.

A child with a hip spica cast is being prepared for discharge. Recognizing that caring for a child at home is complex, the nurse should include what instructions for the parents' discharge teaching? a. Turn every 8 hours. b. Specially designed car restraints are necessary. c. Diapers should be avoided to reduce soiling of the cast. d. Use an abduction bar between the legs to aid in turning.

b. Specially designed car restraints are necessary. Standard seat belts and car seats may not be readily adapted for use by children in some casts. Specially designed car seats and restraints meet safety requirements. The child must have position changes much more frequently than every 8 hours. During feeding and play activities, the child should be moved for both physiologic and psychosocial benefit. Diapers and other strategies are necessary to maintain cleanliness. The abduction bar is never used as an aid for turning. Putting pressure on the bar may damage the integrity of the cast.

A child, age 3 years, has cerebral palsy (CP) and is hospitalized for orthopedic surgery. His mother says he has difficulty swallowing and cannot hold a utensil to feed himself. He is slightly underweight for his height. What is the most appropriate nursing action related to feeding this child? a. Bottle or tube feed him a specialized formula until he gains sufficient weight. b. Stabilize his jaw with caregiver's hand (either from a front or side position) to facilitate swallowing. c. Place him in a well-supported, semireclining position. d. Place him in a sitting position with his neck hyperextended to make use of gravity flow

b. Stabilize his jaw with caregiver's hand (either from a front or side position) to facilitate swallowing. Jaw control is compromised in many children with CP. More normal control is achieved if the feeder stabilizes the oral mechanisms from the front or side of the face. Bottle or tube feeding will not improve feeding without jaw support. The semireclining position and hyperextended neck position increase the chances of aspiration.

The nurse is administering an intravenous chemotherapeutic agent to a child with leukemia. The child suddenly begins to wheeze and have severe urticaria. What nursing action is most appropriate to initiate? a. Recheck the rate of drug infusion. b. Stop the drug infusion immediately. c. Observe the child closely for next 10 minutes. d. Explain to the child that this is an expected side effect.

b. Stop the drug infusion immediately. When an allergic reaction is suspected, the drug is immediately discontinued. Any drug in the line should be withdrawn, and a normal saline infusion begun to keep the line open. The intravenous infusion is stopped to minimize the amount of drug that infuses. The infusion rate can be confirmed at a later time. Observation of the child for 10 minutes is essential, but it is done after the infusion is stopped. These signs are indicative of an allergic reaction, not an expected response.

The nurse is discussing home care with a mother whose 6-year-old child has hepatitis A. What information should the nurse include? a. Advise bed rest until 1 week after the icteric phase. b. Teach infection control measures to family members. c. Inform the mother that the child cannot return to school until 3 weeks after onset of jaundice. d. Reassure the mother that hepatitis A cannot be transmitted to other family members.

b. Teach infection control measures to family members. Hand washing is the single most effective measure in preventing and controlling hepatitis. Hepatitis A can be transmitted through the fecal-oral route. Family members must be taught preventive measures. Rest and quiet activities are essential and adjusted to the child's condition, but bed rest is not necessary. The child is not infectious 1 week after the onset of jaundice and may return to school as activity level allows.

An adolescent is being placed on a calcium channel blocker. What should the nurse inform the adolescent with regard to this medication? (Select all that apply.) a. The medication may cause fatigue. b. The medication may increase heart rate. c. The medication may cause constipation. d. The medication may cause cold extremities. e. The medication may cause peripheral edema.

b. The medication may increase heart rate. c. The medication may cause constipation. e. The medication may cause peripheral edema. Calcium channel blockers may cause an increase in heart rate, constipation, and peripheral edema. Beta-blockers can cause fatigue and cold extremities, but calcium channel blockers do not cause these potential side effects.

Parents of a child who will need hemodialysis ask the nurse, "What are the advantages of a fistula over a graft or external access device for hemodialysis?" What response should the nurse give? (Select all that apply.) a. It is ready to be used immediately. b. There are fewer complications with a fistula. c. There is less restriction of activity with a fistula. d. It produces dilation and thickening of the superficial vessels. e. The fistula does not require a needle insertion at each dialysis.

b. There are fewer complications with a fistula. c. There is less restriction of activity with a fistula. d. It produces dilation and thickening of the superficial vessels. The creation of a subcutaneous (internal) arteriovenous fistula by anastomosing a segment of the radial artery and brachiocephalic vein produces dilation and thickening of the superficial vessels of the forearm to provide easy access for repeated venipuncture. Fewer complications and less restriction of activity are observed with the use of a fistula. Both the graft and the fistula require needle insertion at each dialysis. The fistula cannot be used immediately.

What statement is the most descriptive of asthma? a. It is inherited. b. There is heightened airway reactivity. c. There is decreased resistance in the airway. d. The single cause of asthma is an allergic hypersensitivity.

b. There is heightened airway reactivity. In asthma, spasm of the smooth muscle of the bronchi and bronchioles causes constriction, producing impaired respiratory function. Atopy, or development of an immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated response, is inherited but is not the only cause of asthma. Asthma is characterized by increased resistance in the airway. Asthma has multiple causes, including allergens, irritants, exercise, cold air, infections, medications, medical conditions, and endocrine factors.

What is the rationale for orthopedic surgery for a child with cerebral palsy? a. To cure spasticity b. To improve function c. For cosmetic purposes d. To prevent the need of physical therapy

b. To improve function Orthopedic surgery is used primarily to improve function rather than for cosmetic purposes and is followed by physical therapy. It will not cure spasticity.

What clinical manifestation is a common sign of digoxin toxicity? a. Seizures b. Vomiting c. Bradypnea d. Tachycardia

b. Vomiting Vomiting is a common sign of digoxin toxicity and is often unrelated to feedings. Seizures are not associated with digoxin toxicity. The child will have a slower (not faster) heart rate but not a slower respiratory rate.

What consideration is important for the nurse when changing dressings and applying topical medication to a child's abdomen and leg burns? a. Apply topical medication with clean hands. b. Wash hands and forearms before and after dressing change. c. If dressings have adhered to the wound, soak in hot water before removal. d. Apply dressing so that movement is limited during the healing process.

b. Wash hands and forearms before and after dressing change. Frequent hand and forearm washing is the single most important element of the infection-control program. Topical medications should be applied with a tongue blade or gloved hand. Dressings that have adhered to the wound can be removed with tepid water or normal saline. Dressings are applied with sufficient tension to remain in place but not so tightly as to impair circulation or limit motion.

A toddler is admitted to the pediatric unit with presumptive bacterial meningitis. The initial orders include isolation, intravenous access, cultures, and antimicrobial agents. The nurse knows that antibiotic therapy will begin when? a. After the diagnosis is confirmed b. When the medication is received from the pharmacy c. After the child's fluid and electrolyte balance is stabilized d. As soon as the practitioner is notified of the culture results

b. When the medication is received from the pharmacy Antimicrobial therapy is begun as soon as a presumptive diagnosis is made. The choice of drug is based on the most likely infective agent. Drug choice may be adjusted when the culture results are obtained. Waiting for culture results to begin therapy increases the risk of neurologic damage. Although fluid and electrolyte balance is important, there is no indication that this child is unstable. Antibiotic therapy would be a priority intervention.

A child, age 10 years, has a neuroblastoma and is in the hospital for additional chemotherapy treatments. What laboratory values are most likely this child's? a. White blood cell count, 17,000/mm3; hemoglobin, 15 g/dl b. White blood cell count, 3,000/mm3; hemoglobin, 11.5 g/dl c. Platelets, 450,000/mm3; hemoglobin, 12 g/dl d. White blood cell count, 10,000/mm3; platelets, 175,000/mm3

b. White blood cell count, 3,000/mm3; hemoglobin, 11.5 g/dl Chemotherapy is the mainstay of therapy for extensive local or disseminated neuroblastoma. The drugs of choice are vincristine, doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide, cisplatin, etoposide, ifosfamide, and carboplatin. These cause immunosuppression, so the laboratory values will indicate a low white blood cell count and hemoglobin.

The nurse is teaching a group of female adolescents about toxic shock syndrome and the use of tampons. What statement by a participant indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I can alternate using a tampon and a sanitary napkin." b. "I should wash my hands before inserting a tampon." c. "I can use a superabsorbent tampon for more than 6 hours." d. "I should call my health care provider if I suddenly develop a rash that looks like sunburn."

c. "I can use a superabsorbent tampon for more than 6 hours." Teaching female adolescents about the association between toxic shock syndrome and the use of tampons is important. The teaching should include not using superabsorbent tampons; not leaving the tampon in for longer than 4 to 6 hours; alternating the use of tampons with sanitary napkins; washing hands before inserting a tampon to decrease the chance of introducing pathogens; and informing a health care provider if a sudden high fever, vomiting, muscle pain, dizziness, or a rash that looks like a sunburn appears.

A preadolescent has been diagnosed with scoliosis. The planned therapy is the use of a thoracolumbosacral orthotic. The preadolescent asks how long she will have to wear the brace. What is the appropriate response by the nurse? a. "For as long as you have been told." b. "Most preadolescents use the brace for 6 months." c. "Until your vertebral column has reached skeletal maturity." d. "It will be necessary to wear the brace for the rest of your life."

c. "Until your vertebral column has reached skeletal maturity." Bracing can halt or slow the progress of most curvatures. They must be used continuously until the child reaches skeletal maturity. Telling the child "for as long as you have been told" does not answer the child's question and does not promote involvement in care. Six months is unrealistic because skeletal maturity is not reached until adolescence. When skeletal growth is complete, bracing is no longer effective.

The nurse is teaching a child with a cast about cast removal. What should the nurse teach the child about cast removal? a. "The cast cutter will be a quiet machine." b. "You will feel cold as the cast is removed." c. "You will feel a tickly sensation as the cast is removed." d. "The cast cutter cuts through the cast like a circular saw."

c. "You will feel a tickly sensation as the cast is removed." Cutting the cast to remove it or to relieve tightness is frequently a frightening experience for children. They fear the sound of the cast cutter and are terrified that their flesh, as well as the cast, will be cut. Because it works by vibration, a cast cutter cuts only the hard surface of the cast. The oscillating blade vibrates back and forth very rapidly and will not cut when placed lightly on the skin. Children have described it as producing a "tickly" sensation.

What is the required number of milliliters of fluid needed per day for a 14-kg child? a. 800 b. 1000 c. 1200 d. 1400

c. 1200 For the first 10 kg of body weight, a child requires 100 ml/kg. For each additional kilogram of body weight, an extra 50 ml is needed. 10 kg ´ 100 ml/kg/day = 1000 ml 4 kg ´ 50 ml/kg/day = 200 ml 1000 ml + 200 ml = 1200 ml/day Eight hundred to 1000 ml is too little; 1400 ml is too much.

What child has a cyanotic congenital heart defect? a. An infant with patent ductus arteriosus b. A 1-year-old infant with atrial septal defect c. A 2-month-old infant with tetralogy of Fallot d. A 6-month-old infant with repaired ventricular septal defect

c. A 2-month-old infant with tetralogy of Fallot Tetralogy of Fallot is a cyanotic congenital heart defect. Patent ductus arteriosus, atrial septal defect, and ventricular septal defect are acyanotic congenital heart defects

Chronic otitis media with effusion (OME) differs from acute otitis media (AOM) because it is usually characterized by which signs or symptoms? a. Severe pain in the ear b. Anorexia and vomiting c. A feeling of fullness in the ear d. Fever as high as 40° C (104° F)

c. A feeling of fullness in the ear OME is characterized by a feeling of fullness in the ear or other nonspecific complaints. OME does not cause severe pain. This may be a sign of AOM. Vomiting, anorexia, and fever are associated with AOM.

A toddler with spastic cerebral palsy needs to be transported to the radiology department. What transportation method should the nurse use to take the toddler to the radiology department? a. A stretcher b. A wheelchair c. A wagon with pillows d. Carried in the nurse's arms

c. A wagon with pillows A wagon with pillows would support the child with spastic cerebral palsy better than a stretcher or wheelchair. A wagon would give the child a "wheelchair" experience, so the nurse should not carry the child

The parents of an infant with cerebral palsy (CP) ask the nurse if their child will have cognitive impairment. The nurse's response should be based on which knowledge? a. Affected children have some degree of cognitive impairment. b. Around 20% of affected children have normal intelligence. c. About 45% of affected children have normal intelligence. d. Cognitive impairment is expected if motor and sensory deficits are severe.

c. About 45% of affected children have normal intelligence. Children with CP have a wide range of intelligence, and 40% to 50% are within normal limits. A large percentage of children with CP do not have mental impairment. Many individuals who have severely limiting physical impairment have the least amount of intellectual compromise.

The parent of a child hospitalized with acute glomerulonephritis asks the nurse why blood pressure readings are being taken so often. What knowledge should influence the nurse's reply? a. The antibiotic therapy contributes to labile blood pressure values. b. Hypotension leading to sudden shock can develop at any time. c. Acute hypertension is a concern that requires monitoring. d. Blood pressure fluctuations indicate that the condition has become chronic.

c. Acute hypertension is a concern that requires monitoring. Blood pressure monitoring is essential to identify acute hypertension, which is treated aggressively. Antibiotic therapy is usually not indicated for glomerulonephritis. Hypertension, not hypotension, is a concern in glomerulonephritis. Blood pressure control is essential to prevent further renal damage. Blood pressure fluctuations do not provide information about the chronicity of the disease.

The parents of a child who has just been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes ask about exercise. What effect does exercise have on a type 1 diabetic? a. Exercise increases blood glucose. b. Extra insulin is required during exercise. c. Additional snacks are needed before exercise. d. Excessive physical activity should be restricted.

c. Additional snacks are needed before exercise. Exercise lowers blood glucose levels, decreasing the need for insulin. Extra snacks are provided to maintain the blood glucose levels. Exercise is encouraged and not restricted unless indicated by other health conditions.

What type of chemotherapeutic agent alters the function of cells by replacing a hydrogen atom of a molecule? a. Plant alkaloids b. Antimetabolites c. Alkylating agents d. Antitumor antibiotics

c. Alkylating agents Alkylating agents replace a hydrogen atom with an alkyl group. The irreversible combination of alkyl groups with nucleotide chains, particularly deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), causes unbalanced growth of unaffected cell constituents so that the cell eventually dies. Plant alkaloids arrest the cell in metaphase by binding to proteins needed for spindle formation. Antimetabolites resemble essential metabolic elements needed for growth but are different enough to block further DNA synthesis. Antitumor antibiotics are natural substances that interfere with cell division by reacting with DNA in such a way as to prevent further replication of DNA and transcription of ribonucleic acid (RNA).

A 20-kg (44-lb) child in ketoacidosis is admitted to the pediatric intensive care unit. What order should the nurse not implement until clarified with the physician? a. Weigh on admission and daily. b. Replace fluid volume deficit over 48 hours. c. Begin intravenous line with D5 0.45% normal saline with 20 mEq of potassium chloride. d. Give intravenous regular insulin 2 units/kg/hr after initial rehydration bolus.

c. Begin intravenous line with D5 0.45% normal saline with 20 mEq of potassium chloride. The initial hydrating solution is 0.9% normal saline. Potassium is not given until the child is voiding 25 ml/hr, demonstrating adequate renal function. After initial rehydration and insulin administration, then potassium is given. Dextrose is not given until blood glucose levels are between 250 and 300 mg/dl. An accurate, current weight is essential for determination of the amount of fluid loss and as a basis for medication dosage. Replacing fluid volume deficit over 48 hours is the current recommendation in diabetic ketoacidosis in children. Cerebral edema is a risk of more rapid administration. Intravenous regular insulin 2 units/kg/hr after initial rehydration bolus is the recommended insulin administration for a child of this weight. Only regular insulin can be given intravenously, and it is given after initial fluid volume expansion.

A child with leukemia is receiving intrathecal chemotherapy to prevent which condition? a. Infection b. Brain tumor c. Central nervous system (CNS) disease d. Drug side effects

c. Central nervous system (CNS) disease Children with leukemia are at risk for invasion of the CNS with leukemic cells. CNS prophylactic therapy is indicated. Intrathecal chemotherapy does not prevent infection or drug side effects. A brain tumor in a child with leukemia would be a second tumor, and additional appropriate therapy would be indicated.

A child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is started on a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID). What nursing consideration should be included? a.Monitor heart rate. b. Administer NSAIDs between meals. c. Check for abdominal pain and bloody stools. d. Expect inflammation to be gone in 3 or 4 days.

c. Check for abdominal pain and bloody stools. NSAIDs are the first-line drugs used in JIA. Potential side effects include gastrointestinal (GI), renal, and hepatic side effects. The child is at risk for GI bleeding and elevated blood pressure. The heart rate is not affected by this drug class. NSAIDs should be given with meals to minimize gastrointestinal problems. The antiinflammatory response usually takes 3 weeks before effectiveness can be evaluated.

The nurse is assessing a child with croup in the emergency department. The child has a sore throat and is drooling. Examining the child's throat using a tongue depressor might precipitate what condition? a. Sore throat b. Inspiratory stridor c. Complete obstruction d. Respiratory tract infection

c. Complete obstruction If a child has acute epiglottitis, examination of the throat may cause complete obstruction and should be performed only when immediate intubation can take place. Sore throat and pain on swallowing are early signs of epiglottitis. Stridor is aggravated when a child with epiglottitis is supine. Epiglottitis is caused by Haemophilus influenzae in the respiratory tract.

An infant with bronchiolitis is hospitalized. The causative organism is respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). The nurse knows that a child infected with this virus requires what type of isolation? a. Reverse isolation b. Airborne isolation c. Contact Precautions d. Standard Precautions

c. Contact Precautions RSV is transmitted through droplets. In addition to Standard Precautions and hand washing, Contact Precautions are required. Caregivers must use gloves and gowns when entering the room. Care is taken not to touch their own eyes or mucous membranes with a contaminated gloved hand. Children are placed in a private room or in a room with other children with RSV infections. Reverse isolation focuses on keeping bacteria away from the infant. With RSV, other children need to be protected from exposure to the virus. The virus is not airborne.

In providing nourishment for a child with cystic fibrosis (CF), what factors should the nurse keep in mind? a. Fats and proteins must be greatly curtailed. b. Most fruits and vegetables are not well tolerated. c. Diet should be high in calories, proteins, and unrestricted fats. d. Diet should be low fat but high in calories and proteins.

c. Diet should be high in calories, proteins, and unrestricted fats. Children with CF require a well-balanced, high-protein, high-caloric diet, with unrestricted fat (because of the impaired intestinal absorption).

What finding is a clinical manifestation of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in children? a. Low-pitched cry b. Sunken fontanel c. Diplopia, blurred vision d. Increased blood pressure

c. Diplopia, blurred vision Diplopia and blurred vision are signs of increased ICP in children. A high-pitched cry and a tense or bulging fontanel are characteristic of increased ICP. Increased blood pressure, common in adults, is rarely seen in children.

What sign is one of the first to indicate overwhelming sepsis in a child with burn injuries? a. Seizures b. Bradycardia c. Disorientation d. Decreased blood pressure

c. Disorientation Disorientation in the burn patient is one of the first signs of overwhelming sepsis and may indicate inadequate hydration. Seizures, bradycardia, and decreased blood pressure are not initial manifestations of overwhelming sepsis.

What is a common clinical manifestation of juvenile hypothyroidism? a. Insomnia b. Diarrhea c. Dry skin d. Rapid growth

c. Dry skin Dry skin, mental decline, and myxedematous skin changes are associated with juvenile hypothyroidism. Children with hypothyroidism often have sleepiness, constipation, and decelerated growth

When does idiopathic scoliosis become most noticeable? a. In the newborn period b. When the child starts to walk c. During the preadolescent growth spurt d. During adolescence

c. During the preadolescent growth spurt Idiopathic scoliosis is most noticeable during the preadolescent growth spurt. It is seldom apparent before age 10 years

What is an appropriate nursing intervention for a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) who has scrotal edema? a. Place an ice pack on the scrotal area. b. Place the child in an upright sitting position. c. Elevate the scrotum with a rolled washcloth. d. Place a warm moist pack to the scrotal area.

c. Elevate the scrotum with a rolled washcloth. In children hospitalized with MCNS, elevating edematous parts may be helpful to shift fluid to more comfortable distributions. Areas that are particularly edematous, such as the scrotum, abdomen, and legs, may require support. The scrotum can be elevated with a rolled washcloth. Ice or heat should not be used. Sitting the child in an upright position will not decrease the scrotal edema.

What is an important priority in dealing with the child suspected of having Wilms tumor? a. Intervening to minimize bleeding b. Monitoring temperature for infection c. Ensuring the abdomen is protected from palpation d. Teaching parents how to manage the parenteral nutrition

c. Ensuring the abdomen is protected from palpation Wilms tumor, or nephroblastoma, is the most common malignant renal and intraabdominal tumor of childhood. The abdomen is protected, and palpation is avoided. Careful handling and bathing are essential to prevent trauma to the tumor site. Before chemotherapy, the child is not myelosuppressed. Bleeding is not usually a risk. Infection is a concern after surgery and during chemotherapy, not before surgery. Parenteral therapy is not indicated before surgery.

The nurse observes that a newborn is having problems after birth. What should indicate a tracheoesophageal fistula? a. Jitteriness b. Meconium ileus c. Excessive frothy saliva d. Increased need for sleep

c. Excessive frothy saliva Excessive frothy saliva is indicative of a tracheoesophageal fistula. The child is unable to swallow the secretions, so there are excessive amounts of saliva in the mouth. Jitteriness is associated with several disorders, including electrolyte imbalances. Meconium ileus is associated with cystic fibrosis. Increased need for sleep is not associated with a tracheoesophageal fistula.

Physiologically, the child compensates for fluid volume losses by which mechanism? a. Inhibition of aldosterone secretion b. Hemoconcentration to reduce cardiac workload c. Fluid shift from interstitial space to intravascular space d. Vasodilation of peripheral arterioles to increase perfusion

c. Fluid shift from interstitial space to intravascular space Compensatory mechanisms attempt to maintain fluid volume. Initially, interstitial fluid moves into the intravascular compartment to maintain blood volume. Aldosterone is released to promote sodium retention and conserve water in the kidneys. Hemoconcentration results from the fluid volume loss. With less circulating volume, tachycardia results. Vasoconstriction of peripheral arterioles occurs to help maintain blood pressure.

The nurse is preparing a child for possible alopecia from chemotherapy. What information should the nurse include? a. Wearing hats or scarves is preferable to a wig. b. Expose head to sunlight to stimulate hair regrowth. c. Hair may have a slightly different color or texture when it regrows. d. Regrowth of hair usually begins 12 months after chemotherapy ends.

c. Hair may have a slightly different color or texture when it regrows. Alopecia is a side effect of certain chemotherapeutic agents and cranial irradiation. When the hair regrows, it may be of a different color or texture. Children should choose the head covering they prefer. A wig should be selected similar to the child's own hairstyle and color before the hair loss. The head should be protected from sunlight to avoid sunburn. The hair usually grows back within 3 to 6 months after the cessation of treatment.

In teaching the parent of a newly diagnosed 2-year-old child with pyelonephritis related to vesicoureteral reflux (VUR), the nurse should include which information? a. Limit fluids to reduce reflux. b. Give cranberry juice twice a day. c. Have siblings examined for VUR. d. Surgery is indicated to reverse scarring.

c. Have siblings examined for VUR. Siblings are at high risk for VUR. The incidence of reflux in siblings is approximately 36%. The other children should be screened for early detection and to potentially reduce scarring. Fluids are not reduced. The efficacy of cranberry juice in reducing infection in children has not been established. Surgery may be necessary for higher grades of VUR, but the scarring is not reversible.

A 3-day-old infant presents with abdominal distention, is vomiting, and has not passed any meconium stools. What disease should the nurse suspect? a. Pyloric stenosis b. Intussusception c. Hirschsprung disease d. Celiac disease

c. Hirschsprung disease The clinical manifestations of Hirschsprung disease in a 3-day-old infant include abdominal distention, vomiting, and failure to pass meconium stools. Pyloric stenosis would present with vomiting but not distention or failure to pass meconium stools. Intussusception presents with abdominal cramping and celiac disease presents with malabsorption.

Prevention of burn injury is important anticipatory guidance. In the infant and toddler period, which mode is the most common cause of burn? a. Matches b. Electrical cords c. Hot liquids in the kitchen d. Microwave-heated foods

c. Hot liquids in the kitchen Infants and toddlers are most commonly injured by hot liquids in the kitchen and bathroom. This often occurs as a result of inadequate supervision of this curious and energetic age group. Matches and lighters are seen as toys by young children and should be kept out of reach. Older toddlers and preschool children are at risk of chewing on electrical cords and placing objects in outlets. Microwave-heated fluids and foods can become superheated, resulting in oral burns.

Spastic cerebral palsy (CP) is characterized by which clinical manifestations? a. Athetosis, dystonic movements b. Tremors, lack of active movement c. Hypertonicity; poor control of posture, balance, and coordinated motion d. Wide-based gait; poor performance of rapid, repetitive movement

c. Hypertonicity; poor control of posture, balance, and coordinated motion Hypertonicity and poor control of posture, balance, and coordinated motion are part of the classification of spastic CP. Athetosis and dystonic movements are part of the classification of dyskinetic or athetoid CP. Tremors and lack of active movement may indicate other neurologic disorders. A wide-based gait and poor performance of rapid, repetitive movements are part of the classification of ataxic CP.

What factor predisposes an infant to fluid imbalances? a. Decreased surface area b. Lower metabolic rate c. Immature kidney functioning d. Decreased daily exchange of extracellular fluid

c. Immature kidney functioning The infant's kidneys are functionally immature at birth and are inefficient in excreting waste products of metabolism. Infants have a relatively high body surface area (BSA) compared with adults. This allows a higher loss of fluid to the environment. A higher metabolic rate is present as a result of the higher BSA in relation to active metabolic tissue. The higher metabolic rate increases heat production, which results in greater insensible water loss. Infants have a greater exchange of extracellular fluid, leaving them with a reduced fluid reserve in conditions of dehydration.

What explains physiologically the edema formation that occurs with burns? a. Vasoconstriction b. Reduced capillary permeability c. Increased capillary permeability d. Diminished hydrostatic pressure within capillaries

c. Increased capillary permeability With a major burn, capillary permeability increases, allowing plasma proteins, fluids, and electrolytes to be lost into the interstitial space, causing edema. Maximum edema in a small wound occurs about 8 to 12 hours after injury. In larger injuries, the maximum edema may not occur until 18 to 24 hours later. Vasodilation occurs, causing an increase in hydrostatic pressure.

A 1-year-old has been admitted for complete repair of a tetralogy of Fallot. What assessment finding should the nurse expect to be documented? a. Weight gain b. Pale skin color c. Increasing cyanosis d. Decrease in hemoglobin and hematocrit

c. Increasing cyanosis Elective repair of tetralogy of Fallot is usually performed in the first year of life. Indications for repair include increasing cyanosis and the development of hypercyanotic spells. The child would not have a weight gain, pale skin color, or decrease in hemoglobin and hematocrit.

After the acute stage and during the healing process, what is the primary complication from burn injury? a. Shock b. Asphyxia c. Infection d. Renal shutdown

c. Infection During the healing phase, local infection or sepsis is the primary complication. Respiratory problems, primarily airway compromise, and shock are the primary complications during the acute stage of burn injury. Renal shutdown is not a complication of the burn injury but may be a result of the profound shock.

What statement best describes Duchenne (pseudohypertrophic) muscular dystrophy (DMD)? a. It has an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern. b. Onset occurs in later childhood and adolescence. c. It is characterized by presence of Gower sign, a waddling gait, and lordosis. d. Disease stabilizes during adolescence, allowing for life expectancy to approximately age 40 years.

c. It is characterized by presence of Gower sign, a waddling gait, and lordosis. DMD is characterized by a waddling gait and lordosis. Gower sign is a characteristic way of rising from a squatting or sitting position on the floor. DMD is inherited as an X-linked recessive gene. Genetic counseling is recommended for parents, female siblings, maternal aunts, and their female offspring. Onset occurs usually between ages 3 and 5 years. DMD has a progressive and relentless loss of muscle function until death by respiratory or cardiac failure.

What statement is an advantage of peritoneal dialysis compared with hemodialysis? a. Protein loss is less extensive. b. Dietary limitations are not necessary. c. It is easy to learn and safe to perform. d. It is needed less frequently than hemodialysis.

c. It is easy to learn and safe to perform. Peritoneal dialysis is the preferred form of dialysis for parents, infants, and children who wish to remain independent. Parents and older children can perform the treatments themselves. Protein loss is not significantly different. The dietary limitations are necessary, but they are not as stringent as those for hemodialysis. Treatments are needed more frequently but can be done at home.

What chemotherapeutic agent can cause an anaphylactic reaction? a. Prednisone (Deltasone) b. Vincristine (Oncovin) c. L-Asparaginase (Elspar) d. Methotrexate (Trexall)

c. L-Asparaginase (Elspar) A potentially fatal complication is anaphylaxis, especially from L-asparaginase, bleomycin, cisplatin, and etoposide (VP-16).

The nurse is caring for an infant who had surgical repair of a tracheoesophageal fistula 24 hours ago. Gastrostomy feedings have not been started. What do nursing actions related to the gastrostomy tube include? a. Keep the tube clamped. b. Suction the tube as needed. c. Leave the tube open to gravity drainage. d. Lower the tube to a point below the level of the stomach.

c. Leave the tube open to gravity drainage. In the immediate postoperative period, the gastrostomy tube is open to gravity drainage. This usually is continued until the infant is able to tolerate feedings. The tube is unclamped in the postoperative period to allow for the drainage of secretions and air. Gastrostomy tubes are not suctioned on an as-needed basis. They may be connected to low suction to facilitate drainage of secretions. Lowering the tube to a point below the level of the stomach would create too much pressure.

The nurse is teaching parents about high-fiber foods that can prevent constipation. What foods should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Oranges b. Bananas c. Lima beans d. Baked beans e. Raisin bran cereal

c. Lima beans d. Baked beans e. Raisin bran cereal Lima beans have 13.2 g of fiber in 1 cup, baked beans have 10.4 g of fiber in 1 cup, and raisin bran cereal has 7.3 g of fiber in 1 cup. One orange has only 3.1 g of fiber, and 1 banana has only 3.1 g of fiber, so they are not recommended as high-fiber foods.

What is a strategy used to minimize scarring with burn injury in a child? a. Applying of drying agents on skin b. Use of loose-fitting garments over healing areas c. Limitation of period without pressure to areas of scarring d. Immobilization of extremities while healing is occurring

c. Limitation of period without pressure to areas of scarring Uniform pressure to the scar decreases the blood supply and forces the collagen into a more normal alignment. When pressure is removed, blood supply to the scar is immediately increased; therefore, periods without pressure should be brief to avoid nourishment of the hypertrophic tissue. Moisturizing agents are used with massage to help stretch tissue and prevent contractures. Compression garments, not loose-fitting garments, are indicated. Range of motion exercises are done to minimize contractures.

Urinary tract anomalies are frequently associated with what irregularities in fetal development? a. Myelomeningocele b. Cardiovascular anomalies c. Malformed or low-set ears d. Defects in lower extremities

c. Malformed or low-set ears Although unexplained, there is a frequent association between malformed or low-set ears and urinary tract anomalies. During the newborn examination, the nurse should have a high suspicion about urinary tract structure and function if ear anomalies are present. Children who have myelomeningocele may have impaired urinary tract function secondary to the neural defect. When other congenital defects are present, there is an increased likelihood of other issues with other body systems. Cardiac and extremity defects do not have a strong association with renal anomalies.

Chemotherapeutic agents are classified according to what feature? a. Side effects b. Effectiveness c. Mechanism of action d. Route of administration

c. Mechanism of action Chemotherapeutic agents are classified according to mechanism of action. For example, antimetabolites resemble essential metabolic elements needed for growth but are different enough to block further deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis. Although the side effect profiles may be similar for drugs within a classification, they are not the basis for classification. Most chemotherapeutic regimens contain combinations of drugs. The effectiveness of any one drug is relative to the cancer type, combination therapy, and protocol for administration. The route of administration is determined by the pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics of each drug

What is the primary objective of care for the child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS)? a. Reduce blood pressure. b. Lower serum protein levels. c. Minimize excretion of urinary protein. d. Increase the ability of tissue to retain fluid.

c. Minimize excretion of urinary protein. The objectives of therapy for the child with MCNS include reducing the excretion of urinary protein, reducing fluid retention, preventing infection, and minimizing complications associated with therapy. Blood pressure is usually not elevated in minimal change nephrotic syndrome. Serum protein levels are already reduced as part of the disease process. This needs to be reversed. The tissue is already retaining fluid as part of the edema. The goal of therapy is to reduce edema.

What is the purpose of a high-protein diet for a child with major burns? a. Promote growth b. Improve appetite c. Minimize protein breakdown d. Diminish risk of stress-induced hyperglycemia

c. Minimize protein breakdown Initially after major burns, there is a hypometabolic phase, which lasts for 2 or 3 days. A hypermetabolic phase follows, characterized by increased body temperature, oxygen and glucose consumption, carbon dioxide production, glycogenolysis, proteolysis, and lipolysis. This response continues for up to 9 months. A diet high in protein and calories is necessary. Healing, not growth, is the primary consideration. Many children have poor appetites, and supplementation is necessary. Hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia, can occur from the stress of burn injury because the liver glycogen stores are rapidly depleted.

A hospitalized child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome is receiving high doses of prednisone. What nursing goal is appropriate for this child? a. Stimulate appetite. b. Detect evidence of edema. c. Minimize risk of infection. d. Promote adherence to the antibiotic regimen.

c. Minimize risk of infection. High-dose steroid therapy has an immunosuppressant effect. These children are particularly vulnerable to upper respiratory tract infections. A priority nursing goal is to minimize the risk of infection by protecting the child from contact with infectious individuals. Appetite is increased with prednisone therapy. The amount of edema should be monitored as part of the disease process, not necessarily related to the administration of prednisone. Antibiotics would not be used as prophylaxis.

To help an adolescent deal with diabetes, the nurse needs to consider which characteristic of adolescence? a. Desire to be unique b. Preoccupation with the future c. Need to be perfect and similar to peers d. Awareness of peers that diabetes is a severe disease

c. Need to be perfect and similar to peers Adolescence is a time when the individual has a need to be perfect and similar to peers. Having diabetes makes adolescents different from their peers. Adolescents do not wish to be unique; they desire to fit in with the peer group. An adolescent is usually not future oriented. Awareness of peers that diabetes is a severe disease would further alienate the adolescent with diabetes. The peer group would focus on the differences.

What term is used to describe a child's level of consciousness when the child is arousable with stimulation? a. Stupor b. Confusion c. Obtundation d. Disorientation

c. Obtundation Obtundation describes a level of consciousness in which the child is arousable with stimulation. Stupor is a state in which the child remains in a deep sleep, responsive only to vigorous and repeated stimulation. Confusion is impaired decision making. Disorientation is confusion regarding time and place.

The nurse uses the five Ps to assess ischemia in a child with a fracture. What finding is considered a late and ominous sign? a. Petaling b. Posturing c. Paresthesia d. Positioning

c. Paresthesia Paresthesia distal to the injury or cast is an ominous sign that requires immediate notification of the practitioner. Permanent muscle and tissue damage can occur within 6 hours. The other signs of ischemia that need to be reported are pain, pallor, pulselessness, and paralysis. Petaling is a method of placing protective or smooth edges on a cast. Posturing is not a sign of peripheral ischemia. Finding a position of comfort can be difficult with a fracture. It would not be an ominous sign unless pain was increasing or uncontrollable.

What statement is characteristic of type 1 diabetes mellitus? a. Onset is usually gradual. b. Ketoacidosis is infrequent. c. Peak age incidence is 10 to 15 years. d. Oral agents are available for treatment.

c. Peak age incidence is 10 to 15 years. Type 1 diabetes mellitus typically usually has its onset before the age of 20 years, with a peak incidence between ages 10 and 15 years. Type 1 has an abrupt onset, in contrast to type 2, which has a more gradual appearance. Ketoacidosis occurs when insulin is unavailable and the body uses sources other than glucose for cellular metabolism. Ketoacidosis is more common in type 1 diabetes than in type 2. At this time, oral agents are available only for type 2 diabetes

A feeding technique the nurse can teach to parents of a child with cerebral palsy to improve use of the lips and the tongue to facilitate speech is which? a. Feeding pureed foods b. Placing food on the tongue c. Placing food at the side of the tongue d. Placing food directly into the mouth with a spoon

c. Placing food at the side of the tongue Feeding techniques such as forcing the child to use the lips and tongue in eating facilitate speech. An example of this technique is placing food at the side of the tongue, first one side and then the other, and making the child use the lips to take food from a spoon rather than placing it directly on the tongue. Feeding pureed foods would not encourage use of the lips and tongue.

A child has a nasogastric (NG) tube after surgery for Hirschsprung disease. What is the purpose of the NG tube? a. Prevent spread of infection. b. Monitor electrolyte balance. c. Prevent abdominal distention. d. Maintain accurate record of output.

c. Prevent abdominal distention. The NG tube is placed to suction out gastrointestinal secretions and prevent abdominal distention. The NG tube would not affect infection. Electrolyte content of the NG drainage can be monitored. Without the NG tube, there would be no drainage. After the NG tube is placed, it is important to maintain an accurate record of intake and output. This is not the reason for placement of the tube.

The nurse suspects shock in a child 1 day after surgery. What should be the initial nursing action? a. Place the child on a cardiac monitor. b. Obtain arterial blood gases. c. Provide supplemental oxygen. d. Put the child in the Trendelenburg position.

c. Provide supplemental oxygen. The initial nursing action for a patient in shock is to establish ventilatory support. Oxygen is provided, and the nurse carefully observes for signs of respiratory failure, which indicates a need for intubation. Cardiac monitoring would be indicated to assess the child's status further, but ventilatory support comes first. Oxygen saturation monitoring should be begun. Arterial blood gases would be indicated if alternative methods of monitoring oxygen therapy were not available. The Trendelenburg position is not indicated and is detrimental to the child. The head-down position increases intracranial pressure and decreases diaphragmatic excursion and lung volume.

The nurse is caring for a hospitalized adolescent whose femur was fractured 18 hours ago. The adolescent suddenly develops chest pain and dyspnea. The nurse should suspect what complication? a. Sepsis b. Osteomyelitis c. Pulmonary embolism d. Acute respiratory tract infection

c. Pulmonary embolism Fat emboli are of greatest concern in individuals with fractures of the long bones. Fat droplets from the marrow are transferred to the general circulation, where they are transported to the lung or brain. This type of embolism usually occurs within the second 12 hours after the injury. Sepsis would manifest with fever and lethargy. Osteomyelitis usually is seen with pain at the site of infection and fever. A child with an acute respiratory tract infection would have nasal congestion, not chest pain.

The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child with cerebral palsy (CP). The child, developmentally, is at an infant stage. Appropriate developmental stimulation for this child should be what? a. Playing "pat-a-cake" with the child b. None so the child does not become overstimulated c. Putting a colorful mobile with music on the bed d. Giving the child a coloring book and crayons

c. Putting a colorful mobile with music on the bed Incorporating play into the therapeutic program for a child with CP often requires great ingenuity and inventiveness from those involved in the child's care. Objects and toys are chosen for the child's developmental stage to provide needed sensory input using a variety of shapes, forms, and textures. Nurses can help parents integrate therapy into play activities in natural ways.

The nurse is caring for a neonate with a suspected tracheoesophageal fistula. What should nursing care include? a. Feed glucose water only. b. Elevate the patient's head for feedings. c. Raise the patient's head and give nothing by mouth. d. Avoid suctioning unless the infant is cyanotic.

c. Raise the patient's head and give nothing by mouth. When a newborn is suspected of having a tracheoesophageal fistula, the most desirable position is supine with the head elevated on an inclined plane of at least 30 degrees. It is imperative that any source of aspiration be removed at once; oral feedings are withheld. The oral pharynx should be kept clear of secretions by oral suctioning. This is to prevent the cyanosis that is usually the result of laryngospasm caused by overflow of saliva into the larynx.

What action by the school nurse is important in the prevention of rheumatic fever (RF)? a. Encourage routine cholesterol screenings. b. Conduct routine blood pressure screenings. c. Refer children with sore throats for throat cultures. d. Recommend salicylates instead of acetaminophen for minor discomforts.

c. Refer children with sore throats for throat cultures. Nurses have a role in prevention, primarily in screening school-age children for sore throats caused by group A streptococci. They can actively participate in throat culture screening or refer children with possible streptococcal sore throats for testing. Routine cholesterol screenings and blood pressure screenings do not facilitate the recognition and treatment of group A hemolytic streptococci. Salicylates should be avoided routinely because of the risk of Reye syndrome after viral illnesses.

The nurse is teaching a child experiencing severe edema associated with minimal change nephrotic syndrome about his diet. The nurse should discuss what dietary need? a. Consuming a regular diet b. Increasing protein c. Restricting fluids d. Decreasing calories

c. Restricting fluids During the edematous stage of active nephrosis, the child has restricted fluid and sodium intake. As the edema subsides, the child is placed on a diet with increased salt and fluids. A regular diet is not indicated. There is no evidence that a diet high in protein is beneficial or has an effect on the course of the disease. Calories sufficient for growth and tissue healing are essential. With the child having little appetite and the fluid and salt restrictions, achieving adequate nutrition is difficult.

What is an important nursing consideration when caring for a child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA)? a. Apply ice packs to relieve acute swelling and pain. b. Administer acetaminophen to reduce inflammation. c. Teach the child and family correct administration of medications. d. Encourage range of motion exercises during periods of inflammation.

c. Teach the child and family correct administration of medications. The management of JIA is primarily pharmacologic. The family should be instructed regarding administration of medications and the value of a regular schedule of administration to maintain a satisfactory blood level in the body. They need to know that nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs should not be given on an empty stomach and to be alert for signs of toxicity. Warm, moist heat is best for relieving stiffness and pain. Acetaminophen does not have antiinflammatory effects. Range of motion exercises should not be done during periods of inflammation.

A parent of an infant with gastroesophageal reflux asks how to decrease the number and total volume of emesis. What recommendation should the nurse include in teaching this parent? a. Surgical therapy is indicated. b. Place in prone position for sleep after feeding. c. Thicken feedings and enlarge the nipple hole. d. Reduce the frequency of feeding by encouraging larger volumes of formula.

c. Thicken feedings and enlarge the nipple hole. Thickened feedings decrease the child's crying and increase the caloric density of the feeding. Although it does not decrease the pH, the number and volume of emesis are reduced. Surgical therapy is reserved for children who have failed to respond to medical therapy or who have an anatomic abnormality. The prone position is not recommended because of the risk of sudden infant death syndrome. Smaller, more frequent feedings are more effective than less frequent, larger volumes of formula.

An adolescent diabetic is admitted to the emergency department for treatment of hyperglycemia and pneumonia. What are characteristics of diabetic hyperglycemia? a. Cold, clammy skin and lethargy b. Hunger and hypertension c. Thirst, being flushed, and fruity breath d. Disorientation and pallor

c. Thirst, being flushed, and fruity breath The signs of hyperglycemia are thirst, being flushed, and fruity breath. The skin is not cold or clammy, and there is not hunger and hypertension. Disorientation and pallor are signs of hypoglycemia.

A 14-year-old is admitted to the emergency department with a fracture of the right humerus epiphyseal plate through the joint surface. What information does the nurse know regarding this type of fracture? a. It will create difficulty because the child is left handed. b. It will heal slowly because this is the weakest part of the bone. c. This type of fracture requires different management to prevent bone growth complications. d. This type of fracture necessitates complete immobilization of the shoulder for 4 to 6 weeks.

c. This type of fracture requires different management to prevent bone growth complications. This type of fracture (Salter type III) can cause problems with growth in the affected limb. Early and complete assessment is essential to prevent angular deformities and longitudinal growth problems. The difficulty for the child does not depend on the location at the epiphyseal plate. Any fracture of the dominant arm presents obstacles for the individual. Healing is usually rapid in the epiphyseal plate area. Complete immobilization is not necessary. Often these injuries are surgically repaired with open reduction and internal fixation.

A 3-year-old child is experiencing pain after a tonsillectomy. The child has not taken in any fluids and does not want to drink anything, saying, "My tummy hurts." The following health care prescriptions are available: acetaminophen (Tylenol) PO (orally) or PR (rectally) PRN, ice chips, clear liquids. What should the nurse implement to relieve the child's pain? a. Ice chips b. Tylenol PO c. Tylenol PR d. Popsicle

c. Tylenol PR The throat is very sore after a tonsillectomy. Most children experience moderate pain after a tonsillectomy and need pain medication at regular intervals for at least the first 24 hours. Analgesics may need to be given rectally or intravenously to avoid the oral route.

What description identifies the pathophysiology of leukemia? a. Increased blood viscosity b. Abnormal stimulation of the first stage of coagulation process c. Unrestricted proliferation of immature white blood cells (WBCs) d. Thrombocytopenia from an excessive destruction of platelets

c. Unrestricted proliferation of immature white blood cells (WBCs) Leukemia is a group of malignant disorders of the bone marrow and lymphatic system. It is defined as an unrestricted proliferation of immature WBCs in the blood-forming tissues of the body. Increased blood viscosity may result secondary to the increased number of WBCs. The coagulation process is unaffected by leukemia. Thrombocytopenia may occur secondary to the overproduction of WBCs in the bone marrow.

The nurse is teaching a client to prevent future urinary tract infections (UTIs). What factor is most important to emphasize as the potential cause? a. Poor hygiene b. Constipation c. Urinary stasis d. Congenital anomalies

c. Urinary stasis Urinary stasis is the single most important host factor that influences the development of UTIs. Urine is usually sterile but at body temperature provides an excellent growth medium for bacteria. Poor hygiene can be a contributing cause, especially in females because their short urethras predispose them to UTIs. Urinary stasis then provides a growth medium for the bacteria. Intermittent constipation contributes to urinary stasis. A full rectum displaces the bladder and posterior urethra in the fixed and limited space of the bony pelvis, causing obstruction, incomplete micturition, and urinary stasis. Congenital anomalies can contribute to UTIs, but urinary stasis is the primary factor in many cases.

A girl, age 5 1/2 years, has been sent to the school nurse for urinary incontinence three times in the past 2 days. The nurse should recommend to her parent that the first action is to have the child evaluated for what condition? a. School phobia b. Glomerulonephritis c. Urinary tract infection (UTI) d. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

c. Urinary tract infection (UTI) Girls between the ages of 2 and 6 years are considered high risk for UTIs. This child is showing signs of a UTI, including incontinence in a toilet-trained child and possible urinary frequency or urgency. A physiologic cause should be ruled out before psychosocial factors are investigated. Glomerulonephritis usually manifests with decreased urinary output and fluid retention. ADHD can contribute to urinary incontinence because the child is distracted, but the first manifestation was incontinence, not distractibility.

Nursing care of the child with myelosuppression from leukemia or chemotherapeutic agents should include which therapeutic intervention? a. Restrict oral fluids. b. Institute strict isolation. c. Use good hand-washing technique. d. Give immunizations appropriate for age.

c. Use good hand-washing technique. Good hand washing minimizes the exposure to infectious organisms and decreases the chance of infection spread. Oral fluids are encouraged if the child is able to drink. If possible, the intravenous route is not used because of the increased risk of infection from parenteral fluid administration. Strict isolation is not indicated. When the child is immunocompromised, the vaccines are not effective. If necessary, the appropriate immunoglobulin is administered.

An infant is brought to the emergency department with the following clinical manifestations: poor skin turgor, weight loss, lethargy, tachycardia, and tachypnea. This is suggestive of which situation? a. Water excess b. Sodium excess c. Water depletion d. Potassium excess

c. Water depletion These clinical manifestations indicate water depletion or dehydration. Edema and weight gain occur with water excess or overhydration. Sodium or potassium excess would not cause these symptoms.

Parents are considering treatment options for their 5-year-old child with Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease. Both surgical and conservative therapies are appropriate. They are able to verbalize the differences between the therapies when they make what statement? a. "All therapies require extended periods of bed rest." b. "Conservative therapy will be required until puberty." c. "Our child cannot attend school during the treatment phase." d. "Surgical correction requires a 3- to 4-month recovery period."

d. "Surgical correction requires a 3- to 4-month recovery period." Surgical correction involves additional risks of anesthesia, infection, and possibly blood transfusion. The recovery period is only 3 to 4 months rather than the 2 to 4 years of conservative therapies. The use of non-weight-bearing appliances and surgical intervention does not require prolonged bed rest. Conservative therapy is indicated for 2 to 4 years. The child is encouraged to attend school and engage in activities that can be adapted to therapeutic appliances.

A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of teaching regarding care of a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) that is in remission after administration of prednisone. The nurse realizes further teaching is required if the parents state what? a. "We will keep our child away from anyone who is ill." b. "We will be sure to administer the prednisone as ordered." c. "We will encourage our child to eat a balanced diet, but we will watch his salt intake." d. "We understand our child will not be able to attend school, so we will arrange for home schooling."

d. "We understand our child will not be able to attend school, so we will arrange for home schooling." The child with MCNS in remission can attend school. The child needs socialization and will be socially isolated if home schooled. The other statements are accurate for home care for a child with MCNS.

The nurse should instruct parents to administer a daily proton pump inhibitor to their child with gastroesophageal reflux at which time? a. Bedtime b. With a meal c. Midmorning d. 30 minutes before breakfast

d. 30 minutes before breakfast Proton pump inhibitors are most effective when administered 30 minutes before breakfast so that the peak plasma concentrations occur with mealtime. If they are given twice a day, the second best time for administration is 30 minutes before the evening meal.

What blood glucose measurement is most likely associated with diabetic ketoacidosis? a .185 mg/dl b. 220 mg/dl c. 280 mg/dl d. 330 mg/dl

d. 330 mg/dl Diabetic ketoacidosis is a state of relative insulin insufficiency and may include the presence of hyperglycemia, a blood glucose level greater than or equal to 330 mg/dl; 185, 220, and 280 mg/dl are values that are too low for the definition of ketoacidosis.

The nurse is discussing with a child and family the various sites used for insulin injections. What site usually has the fastest rate of absorption? a. Arm b. Leg c. Buttock d. Abdomen

d. Abdomen The abdomen has the fastest rate of absorption but the shortest duration. The arm has a fast rate of absorption but a short duration. The leg has a slow rate of absorption but a long duration. The buttock has the slowest rate of absorption and the longest duration.

What is a systemic response to severe burns in a child? a. Metabolic alkalosis b. Decreased metabolic rate c. Increased renal plasma flow d. Abrupt drop in cardiac output

d. Abrupt drop in cardiac output The initial physiologic response to a burn injury is a dramatic change in circulation. A precipitous drop in cardiac output precedes any change in circulating blood or plasma volumes. A circulating myocardial depressant factor associated with severe burn injury is thought to be the cause. Metabolic acidosis usually occurs secondary to the disruption of the body's buffering action resulting from fluid shifting to extravascular space. There is a greatly accelerated metabolic rate in burn patients, supported by protein and lipid breakdown. With the loss of circulating volume, there is decreased renal blood flow and depressed glomerular filtration.

A child is admitted with extensive burns. The nurse notes burns on the child's lips and singed nasal hairs. The nurse should suspect what condition in the child? a. A chemical burn b. A hot-water scald c. An electrical burn d. An inhalation injury

d. An inhalation injury Evidence of an inhalation injury includes burns of the face and lips, singed nasal hairs, and laryngeal edema. Clinical manifestations may be delayed for up to 24 hours. Chemical burns, electrical burns, and burns associated with hot-water scalds would not produce singed nasal hair.

What type of shock is characterized by a hypersensitivity reaction causing massive vasodilation and capillary leaks, which may occur with drug or latex allergy? a. Neurogenic shock b. Cardiogenic shock c. Hypovolemic shock d. Anaphylactic shock

d. Anaphylactic shock Anaphylactic shock results from extreme allergy or hypersensitivity to a foreign substance. Neurogenic shock results from loss of neuronal control, such as the interruption of neuronal transmission after a spinal cord injury. Cardiogenic shock is decreased cardiac output. Hypovolemic shock is a reduction in the size of the vascular compartment, decreasing blood pressure, and low central venous pressure.

A 23-month-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of meningitis. She is lethargic and very irritable with a temperature of 102° F. What should the nurse's care plan include? a. Observing the child's voluntary movement b. Checking the Babinski reflex every 4 hours c. Checking the Brudzinski reflex every 1 hour d. Assessing the level of consciousness (LOC) and vital signs every 2 hours

d. Assessing the level of consciousness (LOC) and vital signs every 2 hours Observation of vital signs, neurologic signs, LOC, urinary output, and other pertinent data is carried out at frequent intervals on a child with meningitis. The nurse should avoid actions that cause pain or increase discomfort, such as lifting the child's head, so the Brudzinski reflex should not be checked hourly. Checking the Babinski reflex or child's voluntary movements will not help with assessing the child's status.

What is a nursing intervention to reduce the risk of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) in an unconscious child? a. Suction the child frequently. b. Turn the child's head side to side every hour. c. Provide environmental stimulation. d. Avoid activities that cause pain or crying.

d. Avoid activities that cause pain or crying. Unrelieved pain, crying, and emotional stress all contribute to increasing the ICP. Disturbing procedures should be carried out at the same time as therapies that reduce ICP, such as sedation. Suctioning is poorly tolerated by children. When necessary, it is preceded by hyperventilation with 100% oxygen. Turning the head side to side is contraindicated for fear of compressing the jugular vein. This would block the flow of blood from the brain, raising ICP. Nontherapeutic touch and environmental stimulation increase ICP. Minimizing both touch and environmental stimuli noise reduces ICP.

Parents bring their 15-month-old infant to the emergency department at 3:00 AM because the toddler has a temperature of 39° C (102.2° F), is crying inconsolably, and is tugging at the ears. A diagnosis of otitis media (OM) is made. In addition to antibiotic therapy, the nurse practitioner should instruct the parents to use what medication? a. Decongestants to ease stuffy nose b. Antihistamines to help the child sleep c. Aspirin for pain and fever management d. Benzocaine ear drops for topical pain relief

d. Benzocaine ear drops for topical pain relief Analgesic ear drops can provide topical relief for the intense pain of OM. Decongestants and antihistamines are not recommended in the treatment of OM. Aspirin is contraindicated in young children because of the association with Reye syndrome.

The nurse is preparing a staff education program about pediatric asthma. What concepts should the nurse include when discussing the asthma severity classification system? (Select all that apply.) a. Children with mild persistent asthma have nighttime signs or symptoms less than two times a month. b. Children with moderate persistent asthma use a short-acting b-agonist more than two times per week. c. Children with severe persistent asthma have a peak expiratory flow (PEF) of 60% to 80% of predicted value. d. Children with mild persistent asthma have signs or symptoms more than two times per week. e. Children with moderate persistent asthma have some limitations with normal activity. f. Children with severe persistent asthma have frequent nighttime signs or symptoms.

d. Children with mild persistent asthma have signs or symptoms more than two times per week. e. Children with moderate persistent asthma have some limitations with normal activity. f. Children with severe persistent asthma have frequent nighttime signs or symptoms. Children with mild persistent asthma have signs or symptoms more than two times per week and nighttime signs or symptoms three or four times per month. Children with moderate persistent asthma have some limitations with normal activity and need to use a short-acting b-agonist for sign or symptom control daily. Children with severe persistent asthma have frequent nighttime signs or symptoms and have a PEF of less than 60%.

What clinical manifestation(s) should the nurse expect to see as shock progresses in a child and becomes decompensated shock? a. Thirst b. Irritability c. Apprehension d. Confusion and somnolence

d. Confusion and somnolence Confusion and somnolence are beginning signs of decompensated shock. Thirst, irritability, and apprehension are signs of compensated shock.

An infant is born with a gastroschisis. Care preoperatively should include which priority intervention? a. Prone position b. Sterile water feedings c. Monitoring serum laboratory electrolytes d. Covering the defect with a sterile bowel bag

d. Covering the defect with a sterile bowel bag Initial management of a gastroschisis involves covering the exposed bowel with a transparent plastic bowel bag or loose, moist dressings. The infant cannot be placed prone, and feedings will be withheld until surgery is performed. Electrolyte laboratory values will be monitored but not before covering the defect with a sterile bowel bag.

What chemotherapeutic agent is classified as an antitumor antibiotic? a. Cisplatin (Platinol AQ) b. Vincristine (Oncovin) c. Methotrexate (Texall) d. Daunorubicin (Cerubidine)

d. Daunorubicin (Cerubidine) Daunorubicin is an antitumor antibiotic. Cisplatin is classified as an alkylating agent. Vincristine is a plant alkaloid. Methotrexate is an antimetabolite.

For minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS), prednisone is effective when what occurs? a. Appetite increases and blood pressure is normal b. Urinary tract infection is gone and edema subsides c. Generalized edema subsides and blood pressure is normal d. Diuresis occurs as urinary protein excretion diminishes

d. Diuresis occurs as urinary protein excretion diminishes Studies suggest that the duration of steroid treatment for the initial episode should be at least 3 months. In most patients, diuresis occurs as the urinary protein excretion diminishes within 7 to 21 days after the initiation of steroid therapy. The blood pressure is normal with MCNS, so remaining so is not an improvement. There is no urinary tract infection with MCNS.

The presence of which pair of factors is a good predictor of a fluid deficit of at least 5% in an infant? a. Weight loss and decreased heart rate b. Capillary refill of less than 2 seconds and no tears c. Increased skin elasticity and sunken anterior fontanel d. Dry mucous membranes and generally ill appearance

d. Dry mucous membranes and generally ill appearance A good predictor of a fluid deficit of at least 5% is any two four factors: capillary refill of more than 2 seconds, absent tears, dry mucous membranes, and ill general appearance. Weight loss is associated with fluid deficit, but the degree needs to be quantified. Heart rate is usually elevated. Skin elasticity is decreased, not increased. The anterior fontanel is depressed.

A 3-year-old is brought to the emergency department with symptoms of stridor, fever, restlessness, and drooling. No coughing is observed. Based on these findings, the nurse should be prepared to assist with what action? a. Throat culture b. Nasal pharynx washing c. Administration of corticosteroids d. Emergency intubation

d. Emergency intubation Three clinical observations that are predictive of epiglottitis are absence of spontaneous cough, presence of drooling, and agitation. Nasotracheal intubation or tracheostomy is usually considered for a child with epiglottitis with severe respiratory distress. The throat should not be inspected because airway obstruction can occur, and steroids would not be done first when the child is in severe respiratory distress.

A preschool child has asthma, and a goal is to extend expiratory time and increase expiratory effectiveness. What action should the nurse implement to meet this goal? a. Encourage increased fluid intake. b. Recommend increased use of a budesonide (Pulmicort) inhaler. c. Administer an antitussive to suppress coughing. d. Encourage the child to blow a pinwheel every 6 hours while awake.

d. Encourage the child to blow a pinwheel every 6 hours while awake. Play techniques that can be used for younger children to extend their expiratory time and increase expiratory pressure include blowing cotton balls or a ping-pong ball on a table, blowing a pinwheel, blowing bubbles, or preventing a tissue from falling by blowing it against the wall. Increased fluids, increased use of a Pulmicort inhaler, or suppressing a cough will not increase expiratory effectiveness.

What recommendation should the nurse make to prevent urinary tract infections (UTIs) in young girls? a. Avoid public toilet facilities. b. Limit long baths as much as possible. c. Cleanse the perineum with water after voiding. d. Ensure clear liquid intake of 2 L/day.

d. Ensure clear liquid intake of 2 L/day. Adequate fluid intake minimizes urinary stasis. The recommended fluid intake is 50 ml/kg or 100 ml/lb per day. The average 5- to 6-year-old weighs approximately 18 kg (40 lb), so she should drink 2 L/day of fluid. There is no evidence that using public toilet facilities increases UTIs. Long baths are not associated with increased UTIs. Proper hand washing and perineal cleansing are important, but no evidence exists that these decrease UTIs in young girls.

What clinical manifestation is considered a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus? a. Nausea b. Seizures c. Impaired vision d. Frequent urination

d. Frequent urination Hallmarks of diabetes mellitus are glycosuria, polyuria, and polydipsia. Nausea and seizures are not clinical manifestations of diabetes mellitus. Impaired vision is a long-term complication of the disease.

A quantitative sweat chloride test has been done on an 8-month-old child. What value should be indicative of cystic fibrosis (CF)? a. Less than 18 mEq/L b. 18 to 40 mEq/L c. 40 to 60 mEq/L d. Greater than 60 mEq/L

d. Greater than 60 mEq/L Normally sweat chloride content is less than 40 mEq/L, with a mean of 18 mEq/L. A chloride concentration greater than 60 mEq/L is diagnostic of CF; in infants younger than 3 months, a sweat chloride concentration greater than 40 mEq/L is highly suggestive of CF.

A toddler sustains a minor burn on the hand from hot coffee. What is the first action in treating this burn? a. Apply burn ointment. b. Put ice on the burned area. c. Cover the hand with gauze dressing. d. Hold the hand under cool running water.

d. Hold the hand under cool running water. In minor burns, the best method to stop the burning process is to hold the burned area under cool running water. Ointments are not applied to a new burn; the ointment will contribute to the burning. Ice is not recommended. Gauze dressings do not stop the burning process.

What term describes invagination of one segment of bowel within another? a. Atresia b. Stenosis c. Herniation d. Intussusception

d. Intussusception Intussusception occurs when a proximal section of the bowel telescopes into a more distal segment, pulling the mesentery with it. The mesentery is compressed and angled, resulting in lymphatic and venous obstruction. Atresia is the absence or closure of a natural opening in the body. Stenosis is a narrowing or constriction of the diameter of a bodily passage or orifice. Herniation is the protrusion of an organ or part through connective tissue or through a wall of the cavity in which it is normally enclosed.

The nurse is teaching an adolescent about giving insulin injections. The adolescent asks if the disposable needles and syringes can be used more than once. The nurse's response should be based on which knowledge? a. It is unsafe. b. It is acceptable for up to 24 hours. c. It is acceptable for families with very limited resources. d. It is suitable for up to 3 days if stored in the refrigerator.

d. It is suitable for up to 3 days if stored in the refrigerator. Bacterial counts are unaffected if insulin syringes are handled in an aseptic manner and stored in the refrigerator between use. The syringes can be used up to 3 days and result in a considerable cost savings. Bacterial counts remain low for up to 72 hours with proper technique. The family's resources are not an issue; if a practice is unsafe, the family should not be encouraged to endanger the child by reusing equipment.

The nurse is assessing a child who was just admitted to the hospital for observation after a head injury. What clinical manifestation is the most essential part of the nursing assessment to detect early signs of a worsening condition? a. Posturing b. Vital signs c. Focal neurologic signs d. Level of consciousness

d. Level of consciousness The most important nursing observation is assessment of the child's level of consciousness. Alterations in consciousness appear earlier in the progression of an injury than do alterations of vital signs or focal neurologic signs. Neurologic posturing is indicative of neurologic damage.

What do the clinical manifestations of minimal change nephrotic syndrome include? a. Hematuria, bacteriuria, and weight gain b. Gross hematuria, albuminuria, and fever c. Hypertension, weight loss, and proteinuria d. Massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema

d. Massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema Massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema are clinical manifestations of minimal change nephrotic syndrome. Hematuria and bacteriuria are not seen, and there is usually weight loss, not gain. The blood pressure is normal or hypotensive.

What immunization should not be given to a child receiving chemotherapy for cancer? a. Tetanus vaccine b. Inactivated poliovirus vaccine c. Diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus (DPT) d. Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR)

d. Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) The vaccine used for MMR is a live virus and can cause serious disease in immunocompromised children. The tetanus vaccine, inactivated poliovirus vaccine, and DPT are not live vaccines and can be given to immunosuppressed children. The immune response is likely to be suboptimum, so delaying vaccination is usually recommended.

Cystic fibrosis (CF) may affect single or multiple systems of the body. What is the primary factor responsible for possible multiple clinical manifestations in CF? a. Hyperactivity of sweat glands b. Hypoactivity of autonomic nervous system c. Atrophic changes in mucosal wall of intestines d. Mechanical obstruction caused by increased viscosity of mucous gland secretions

d. Mechanical obstruction caused by increased viscosity of mucous gland secretions The mucous glands produce a thick mucoprotein that accumulates and results in dilation. Small passages in organs such as the pancreas and bronchioles become obstructed as secretions form concretions in the glands and ducts. The exocrine glands, not sweat glands, are dysfunctional. Although abnormalities in the autonomic nervous system are present, it is not hypoactive. Intestinal involvement in CF results from the thick intestinal secretions, which can lead to blockage and rectal prolapse.

A child with pyloric stenosis is having excessive vomiting. The nurse should assess for what potential complication? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hyperchloremia c. Metabolic acidosis d. Metabolic alkalosis

d. Metabolic alkalosis Infants with excessive vomiting are prone to metabolic alkalosis from the loss of hydrogen ions. Potassium and chloride ions are lost with vomiting. Metabolic alkalosis, not acidosis, is likely.

A 6-year-old child is in the hospital for status asthmaticus. Nursing care during this acute period includes which prescribed interventions? a. Prednisolone (Pediapred) PO every day, IV fluids, cromolyn (Intal) inhaler bid b. Salmeterol (Serevent) PO bid, vital signs every 4 hours, spot check pulse oximetry c. Triamcinolone (Azmacort) inhaler bid, continuous pulse oximetry, vital signs once a shift d. Methylprednisolone (Solumedrol) IV every 12 hours, continuous pulse oximetry, albuterol nebulizer treatments every 4 hours and prn

d. Methylprednisolone (Solumedrol) IV every 12 hours, continuous pulse oximetry, albuterol nebulizer treatments every 4 hours and prn The child in status asthmaticus should be placed on continuous cardiorespiratory (including blood pressure) and pulse oximetry monitoring. A systemic corticosteroid (oral, IV, or IM) may also be given to decrease the effects of inflammation. Inhaled aerosolized short-acting b2-agonists are recommended for all patients. Therefore, Solumedrol per IV, continuous pulse oximetry, and albuterol nebulizer treatments are the expected prescribed treatments. Oral medications would not be used during the acute stage of status asthmaticus. Vital signs once a shift and spot pulse oximetry checks would not be often enough.

A child eats some sugar cubes after experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. This rapid-releasing sugar should be followed by which dietary intervention? a. Sports drink and fruit b. Glucose tabs and protein c. Glass of water and crackers d. Milk and peanut butter on bread

d. Milk and peanut butter on bread Symptoms of hypoglycemia are treated with a rapid-releasing sugar source followed by a complex carbohydrate and protein. Milk supplies lactose and a more prolonged action from the protein. The bread is a complex carbohydrate, which with the peanut butter provides a sustained action. The sports drink contains primarily simple carbohydrates. The fruit contains additional carbohydrates. A protein source is needed for sustained action. The glucose tabs are simple carbohydrates. Complex carbohydrates are needed with the protein. Crackers are a complex carbohydrate, but protein is needed to stabilize the blood sugar.

What dietary instructions should the nurse give to parents of a child in the oliguria phase of acute glomerulonephritis with edema and hypertension? (Select all that apply.) a. High fat b. Low protein c. Encouragement of fluids d. Moderate sodium restriction e. Limit foods high in potassium

d. Moderate sodium restriction e. Limit foods high in potassium Dietary restrictions depend on the stage and severity of acute glomerulonephritis, especially the extent of edema. A regular diet is permitted in uncomplicated cases, but sodium intake is usually limited (no salt is added to foods). Moderate sodium restriction is usually instituted for children with hypertension or edema. Foods with substantial amounts of potassium are generally restricted during the period of oliguria. Protein restriction is reserved only for children with severe azotemia resulting from prolonged oliguria. A low-protein, high-fat diet with encouragement of fluids would not be recommended.

A school-age child with cystic fibrosis takes four enzyme capsules with meals. The child is having four or five bowel movements per day. The nurse's action in regard to the pancreatic enzymes is based on the knowledge that the dosage is what? a. Adequate b. Adequate but should be taken between meals c. Needs to be increased to increase the number of bowel movements per day d. Needs to be increased to decrease the number of bowel movements per day

d. Needs to be increased to decrease the number of bowel movements per day The amount of enzyme is adjusted to achieve normal growth and a decrease in the number of stools to one or two per day.

What is the most common cause of cerebral palsy (CP)? a. Central nervous system (CNS) diseases b. Birth asphyxia c. Cerebral trauma d. Neonatal encephalopathy

d. Neonatal encephalopathy Approximately 80% of CP is caused by unknown prenatal causes. Neonatal encephalopathy in term and preterm infants is believed to play a significant role in the development of CP. CNS diseases such as meningitis or encephalitis can result in CP. Birth asphyxia does contribute to some cases of CP. Cerebral trauma, including shaken baby syndrome, can result in CP.

What dietary instructions should the nurse give to parents of a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome with massive edema? (Select all that apply.) a. Soft diet b. High protein c. Fluid restricted d. No salt added at the table e. Restriction of foods high in sodium

d. No salt added at the table e. Restriction of foods high in sodium The child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome maintains a regular diet, not soft. However, salt is restricted during periods of massive edema and while the patient is on corticosteroid therapy; no salt is added at the table, and foods with very high salt content are excluded. Although a low-sodium diet will not remove edema, its rate of increase may be reduced. Water is seldom restricted. A diet generous in protein is logical, but there is no evidence that it is beneficial or alters the outcome of the disease.

Pancreatic enzymes are administered to the child with cystic fibrosis. What nursing consideration should be included in the plan of care? a. Give pancreatic enzymes between meals if at all possible. b. Do not administer pancreatic enzymes if the child is receiving antibiotics. c. Decrease the dose of pancreatic enzymes if the child is having frequent, bulky stools. d. Pancreatic enzymes can be swallowed whole or sprinkled on a small amount of food taken at the beginning of a meal.

d. Pancreatic enzymes can be swallowed whole or sprinkled on a small amount of food taken at the beginning of a meal. Enzymes may be administered in a small amount of cereal or fruit at the beginning of a meal or swallowed whole. Enzymes should be given just before meals and snacks. Pancreatic enzymes are not a contraindication for antibiotics. The dose of enzymes should be increased if child is having frequent, bulky stools.

The nurse is caring for a child with severe head trauma after a car accident. What is an ominous sign that often precedes death? a. Delirium b. Papilledema c. Flexion posturing d. Periodic or irregular breathing

d. Periodic or irregular breathing Periodic or irregular breathing is an ominous sign of brainstem (especially medullary) dysfunction that often precedes complete apnea. Delirium is a state of mental confusion and excitement marked by disorientation for time and place. Papilledema is edema and inflammation of the optic nerve. It is commonly a sign of increased intracranial pressure. Flexion posturing is seen with severe dysfunction of the cerebral cortex or of the corticospinal tracts above the brainstem.

What is the antiepileptic medication that requires monitoring of vitamin D and folic acid? a. Topiramate (Topamax) b. Valproic acid (Depakene) c. Gabapentin (Neurontin) d. Phenobarbital (Luminal)

d. Phenobarbital (Luminal) Children taking phenobarbital or phenytoin should receive adequate vitamin D and folic acid because deficiencies of both have been associated with these drugs.

Congenital defects of the genitourinary tract, such as hypospadias, are usually repaired as early as possible to accomplish what? a. Minimize separation anxiety. b. Prevent urinary complications. c. Increase acceptance of hospitalization. d. Promote development of normal body image.

d. Promote development of normal body image. Promoting development of normal body image is extremely important. Surgery involving sexual organs can be upsetting to children, especially preschoolers, who fear mutilation and castration. Proper preprocedure preparation can facilitate coping with these issues. Preventing urinary complications is important for defects that affect function, but for all external defects, repair should be done as soon as possible.

Prolonged steroid therapy has caused a child to have Cushing syndrome. To lessen the cushingoid effects, the steroid should be administered at which time? a. In the PM b. After lunch c. QD in the AM d. QOD in the AM

d. QOD in the AM When cushingoid features are caused by steroid therapy, the effects may be lessened with administration of the drug early in the morning and on an alternate-day basis. Giving the drug early in the day maintains the normal diurnal pattern of cortisol secretion. If given during the evening, it is more likely to produce symptoms because endogenous cortisol levels are normally low and the additional supply exerts more pronounced effects. An alternate-day schedule allows the anterior pituitary an opportunity to maintain more normal hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal control mechanisms.

What is a major goal of therapy for children with cerebral palsy (CP)? a. Cure the underlying defect causing the disorder. b. Reverse the degenerative processes that have occurred. c. Prevent the spread to individuals in close contact with the child. d. Recognize the disorder early and promote optimum development.

d. Recognize the disorder early and promote optimum development. The goals of therapy include early recognition and promotion of an optimum developmental course to enable affected children to attain their potential within the limits of their dysfunction. The disorder is permanent, and therapy is chiefly symptomatic and preventive. It is not possible at this time to reverse the degenerative processes. CP is not contagious

An 8-year-old girl with moderate cerebral palsy (CP) recently began joining a regular classroom for part of the day. Her mother asks the school nurse about joining the after-school Girl Scout troop. The nurse's response should be based on which knowledge? a. Most activities such as Girl Scouts cannot be adapted for children with CP. b. After-school activities usually result in extreme fatigue for children with CP. c. Trying to participate in activities such as Girl Scouts leads to lowered self-esteem in children with CP. d. Recreational activities often provide children with CP with opportunities for socialization and recreation.

d. Recreational activities often provide children with CP with opportunities for socialization and recreation. After-school and recreational activities serve to stimulate children's interest and curiosity. They help the children adjust to their disability, improve their functional ability, and build self-esteem. Increasing numbers of programs are adapted for children with physical limitations. Almost all activities can be adapted. The child should participate to her level of energy. Self-esteem increases as a result of the positive feedback the child receives from participation.

What laboratory finding, in conjunction with the presenting symptoms, indicates minimal change nephrotic syndrome? a. Low specific gravity b. Decreased hemoglobin c. Normal platelet count d. Reduced serum albumin

d. Reduced serum albumin Total serum protein concentrations are reduced, with the albumin fractions significantly reduced. Specific gravity is high and proportionate to the amount of protein in the urine. Hemoglobin and hematocrit are usually normal or elevated. The platelet count is elevated as a result of hemoconcentration.

The nurse is caring for an adolescent who has just started dialysis. The child always seems angry, hostile, or depressed. The nurse should recognize that this is most likely related to what underlying cause? a. Physiologic manifestations of renal disease b. The fact that adolescents have few coping mechanisms c. Neurologic manifestations that occur with dialysis d. Resentment of the control and enforced dependence imposed by dialysis

d. Resentment of the control and enforced dependence imposed by dialysis Older children and adolescents need to feel in control. Dialysis forces the adolescent into a dependent relationship, which results in these behaviors. Being angry, hostile, or depressed are functions of the age of the child, not neurologic or physiologic manifestations of the dialysis.

A child is admitted for minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS). The nurse recognizes that the child's prognosis is related to what factor? a. Admission blood pressure b. Creatinine clearance c. Amount of protein in urine d. Response to steroid therapy

d. Response to steroid therapy Corticosteroids are the drugs of choice for MCNS. If the child has not responded to therapy within 28 days of daily steroid administration, the likelihood of subsequent response decreases. Blood pressure is normal or low in MCNS. It is not correlated with prognosis. Creatinine clearance is not correlated with prognosis. The presence of significant proteinuria is used for diagnosis. It is not predictive of prognosis.

What drug is usually given first in the emergency treatment of an acute, severe asthma episode in a young child? a. Ephedrine b. Theophylline c. Aminophylline d. Short-acting b2-agonists

d. Short-acting b2-agonists Short-acting b2-agonists are the first treatment in an acute asthma exacerbation. Ephedrine and aminophylline are not helpful in acute asthma exacerbations. Theophylline is unnecessary for treating asthma exacerbations.

When caring for the child with Kawasaki disease, what should the nurse know to provide safe and effective care? a. Aspirin is contraindicated. b. The principal area of involvement is the joints. c. The child's fever is usually responsive to antibiotics within 48 hours. d. Therapeutic management includes administration of gamma globulin and salicylates.

d. Therapeutic management includes administration of gamma globulin and salicylates. High-dose intravenous gamma globulin and salicylate therapy are indicated to reduce the incidence of coronary artery abnormalities when given within the first 10 days of the illness. Aspirin is part of the therapy. Mucous membranes, conjunctiva, changes in the extremities, and cardiac involvement are seen. The fever of Kawasaki disease is unresponsive to antibiotics. It is responsive to anti-inflammatory doses of aspirin and antipyretics.

What finding is the most reliable guide to the adequacy of fluid replacement for a small child with burns? a. Absence of thirst b. Falling hematocrit c. Increased seepage from burn wound d. Urinary output of 1 to 2 ml/kg of body weight/hr

d. Urinary output of 1 to 2 ml/kg of body weight/hr Replacement fluid therapy is delivered to provide a urinary output of 30 ml/hr in older children or 1 to 2 ml/kg of body weight/hr for children weighing less than 30 kg (66 lb). Thirst is the result of a complex set of interactions and is not a reliable indicator of hydration. Thirst occurs late in dehydration. A falling hematocrit would be indicative of hemodilution. This may reflect fluid shifts and may not accurately represent fluid replacement therapy. Increased seepage from a burn wound would be indicative of increased output, not adequate hydration.

A parent asks the nurse what would be the first indication that acute glomerulonephritis was improving. What would be the nurse's best response? a. Blood pressure will stabilize. b. Your child will have more energy. c. Urine will be free of protein. d. Urine output will increase.

d. Urine output will increase. The first sign of improvement in acute glomerulonephritis is an increase in urinary output with a corresponding decrease in body weight. With diuresis, the child begins to feel better, the appetite improves, and the blood pressure decreases to normal with the reduction of edema. Gross hematuria diminishes, in part because of dilution of the red blood cells in the more dilute urine. Renal function and hypocomplementemia usually normalize by 8 weeks.

A family requires home care teaching with regard to preventative measures to use at home to avoid an asthmatic episode. What strategy should the nurse teach? a. Use a humidifier in the child's room. b. Launder bedding daily in cold water. c. Replace wood flooring with carpet. d. Use an indoor air purifier with HEPA filter.

d. Use an indoor air purifier with HEPA filter. Allergen control includes use of an indoor air purifier with HEPA filter. Humidity should be kept low, bedding laundered in hot water once a week, and carpet replaced with wood floors.

The mother of a 1-month-old infant tells the nurse she worries that her baby will get meningitis like the child's younger brother had when he was an infant. The nurse should base a response on which information? a. Meningitis rarely occurs during infancy. b. Often a genetic predisposition to meningitis is found. c. Vaccination to prevent all types of meningitis is now available. d. Vaccinations to prevent pneumococcal and Haemophilus influenzae type B meningitis are available.

d. Vaccinations to prevent pneumococcal and Haemophilus influenzae type B meningitis are available. H. influenzae type B meningitis has been virtually eradicated in areas of the world where the vaccine is administered routinely. Bacterial meningitis remains a serious illness in children. It is significant because of the residual damage caused by undiagnosed and untreated or inadequately treated cases. The leading causes of neonatal meningitis are the group B streptococci and Escherichia coli organisms. Meningitis is an extension of a variety of bacterial infections. No genetic predisposition exists. Vaccinations are not available for all of the potential causative organisms.

What clinical manifestation occurs with hypoglycemia? a. Lethargy b. Confusion c. Nausea and vomiting d. Weakness and dizziness

d. Weakness and dizziness Some of the clinical manifestations of hypoglycemia include weakness; dizziness; difficulty concentrating, speaking, focusing, and coordinating; sweating; and pallor. Lethargy, confusion, and nausea and vomiting are manifestations of hyperglycemia.