Penny Book - Obstetrics & Gynecology

The breast cancer drug that inhibits the effects of estrogen in the breast is: a. CA-125 b. methotrexate c. RA-916 d. tamoxifen

d. tamoxifen

Fluid noted anterior to the uterus would most likely be located within the: a. pouch of douglas b. vesicouterine pouch c. space of retzius d. rectouterine pouch

b. vesicouterine pouch

Pelvic muscles appear: a. echogenic b. anechoic c. hypoechoic d. complex

c. hypoechoic

Which of the following would be caused by a large acoustic interface and subsequent production of false echoes? a. posterior shadowing b. acoustic enhancement c. mirror image d. reverberation

d. reverberation

Which of the following would be considered the more common uterine anomaly? a. bicornis univernus b. bicornis bicollis c. uterus didelphys d. septate uterus

d. septate uterus

The pelvic ligament that provides support to the ovary to the pelvic side wall is the: a. cardinal ligament b. ovarian ligament c. broad ligament d. suspensory ligament of the ovary

d. suspensory ligament of the ovary

Peritoneal spaces located posterior to the broad ligament are referred to as the: a. rectouterine spaces b. anterior CDS c. lateral CDS d. adnexa

d. adnexa

All of the following are associated with acute pelvic pain except: a. PID b. ruptured ovarian hemorrhagic cyst c. perforated IUD d. asherman syndrome

d. asherman syndrome

Which of the following would be best defined as regularly time menses but light flow? a. menometrorrhagia b. menorrhagia c. metrorrhagia d. hypomenorrhea

d. hypomenorrhea

The best way to communicate with a patient who speaks a language other than your own is to: a. use sign language b. use proper body cues c. use an online search engine d. use a trained medical interpreter

d. use a trained medical interpreter

Which of the following hormones is released by the ovary during the second half of the menstrual cycle? a. LH b. FSH c. HcG d. progesterone

d. progesterone

The "lying down" adrenal sign would be seen in all of the following situations except: a. unilateral renal agenesis b. bilateral renal agenesis c. potter syndrome d. pyelectesis

d. pyelectesis

The sonographic finding of a tubular, simple-appearing, anechoic structure within the adnexa is most consistent with: a. dyspaenunia b. hematometra c. hydrosalpinx d. endometritis

c. hydrosalpinx

When the sonographic three-line sign is present, the functional layer of the endometrium typically appears: a. anechoic b. echogenic c. hypoechoic d. complex

c. hypoechoic

The paired embryonic ducts that develop into the female urogenital tract are the: a. fallopiean ducts b. Wolffian ducts c. gartner ducts d. mullerian ducts

d. mullerian ducts

During an 19-week sonogram, multiple cysts of varying sizes are noted within the renal fossa of a male fetus. The other kidney appears to be normal. Which of the following would be an associated finding? a. megacystis b. ovarian dysgenesis c. hypospadias d. normal amniotic fluid level

d. normal amniotic fluid level

All of the following are clinical findings with endometrial hyperplasia except: a. obesity b. PCOS c. AUB d. thickened endometrium

d. thickened endometrium

Twins having two placentas and one amniotic sac are referred to as: a. monochorionic, diamniotic b. monoamniotic, dichorionic c. dichorionic, monoamniotic d. this does not occur

d. this does not occur

When the placenta completely covers the internal os, it is referred to as: a. low-lying previa b. marginal previa c. partial previa d. total previa

d. total previa

Another name for Patau Syndrome is: a. trisomy 21 b. trisomy 16 c. trisomy 18 d. trisomy 13

d. trisomy 13

The short and narrow segment of the Fallopian tube distal to the interstitial segment is the: A) Ampulla B) Fimbria C) Infundibulum D) Isthmus

D) Isthmus

An unusual protuberance of the tongue is termed: A) Epignathus B) Macrognathia C) Pharyngoglossia D) Macroglossia

D) Macroglossia

What structure shunts blood into the IVC from the umbilical vein? a. ductus venosus b. ductus arteriosus c. foramen ovale d. foramen of luschka

a. ductus venosus

In VACTERL association, the L stands for: a. limb b. lung c. liver d. larynx

a. limb

The urinary bladder, uterus, and ovaries are located within the: a. true pelvis b. false pelvis

a. true pelvis

The outer membrane of the gestation is referred: a. placenta b. chorion c. amnion d. yolk sac

b. chorion

The nuchal fold measurement is typically obtained: a. before 12 weeks 6 days b. 11 weeks - 13 weeks 6 days c. 15 weeks - 21 weeks d. after 24 weeks

c. 15 weeks - 21 weeks

Fertilization typically occurs within ___ after ovulation. a. 40 hours b. 12 hours c. 24 hours d. 56 hours

c. 24 hours

Which of the following would be the most likely cause of bilateral, enlarged echogenic fetal kidneys and oligohydramnios? a. ARPKD b. MDKD c. Renal cystic dysplasia d. ADPKD

a. ARPKD

The uterine position in which the corpus tilts forward and comes in contact with the cervix describes: a. Anteflexion b. Anteversion c. Retroflexion d. Retroversion

a. Anteflexion

The anechoic midline brain structure located between the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles is the: a. CSP b. cavum vergae c. corpus callosum d. forth ventricle

a. CSP

All of the following statements concerning PID are true except: a. PID is typically a unilateral condition b. PID can be caused by douching c. PID can lead to an tub-ovarian abscess d. Dyspareunia is a clinical finding of acute PID

a. PID is typically a unilateral condition

Nonimmune hydrops is associated with all of the following except: a. RH isoimmunization b. pleural effusion c. turner syndrome d. fetal infections

a. RH isoimmunization

Absence of the skull is: a. hydranecephaly b. schizencephaly c. acrania d. ventriculomegaly

c. acrania

Leiomyosarcoma of the uterus denotes: a. the benign invasion of endometrial tissue into the myometrium b. the ectopic location of endometrial tissue in the adnexa c. the malignant counterpart of a fibroid d. an anechoic, simply cyst located within the cervix

c. the malignant counterpart of a fibroid

The first menstrual cycle is termed: a. amenorrhea b. metrorrahgia c. mittelschmerz d. menarche

d. menarche

All of the following are associated with amniotic band syndrome except: a. amputation of fetal parts b. anencephaly c. facial clefting d. synechiae

d. synechiae

Close set eyes and a nose with a single nostril is termed: A) Cebocephaly B) Cyclopia C) Ethmocephaly D) Epignathus

A) Cebocephaly

The ovarian mass that contains fat, sebum, and teeth is the: A. cystic teratoma B. fibroma C. mucinous cystadenoma D. Yolk sac tumor

A. cystic teratoma

Pus within the Fallopian tube is termed: A) Hematosalpinx B) Pyosalpinx C) Hydrosalpinx D) Hemosalpinx

B) Pyosalpinx

Rounded head shape is referred to as: A. Dolichocephaly B. Brachycephaly C. Cebocephaly D. Craniosynostosis

B. Brachycephaly

Webbed fingers or toes are termed : A. Clinodactyly B. Syndactyly C. Polydactyly D. Whren syndrome

B. Syndactyly

The bending of the fifth digit toward the fourth digit is called: A. Syndactyly B. clinodactyly C. polydactyly D. Stabodactyly

B. clinodactyly

An oral teratoma is referred to as: A. macroglossia B. epignathus C. micrognathia D. ethmocephaly

B. epignathus

Blood within the fallopian tube is termed: A. hydrosalpinx B. hematosalpinx C. pyosalpinx D. hemosalpinx

B. hematosalpinx

The structure noted within the Graafian follicle containing the developing ovum is the: A) Corpus luteum B) Corpus albicans C) Cumulus oophorus D) Theca internal cells

C) Cumulus oophorus

The first sonographically identifiable sign of pregnancy is the: A. Amnion B. Yolk sac C. Decidual reaction D. Chorionic cavity

C. Decidual reaction

Widened pelvic angles and duodenal atresia are most consistent with the sonographic markers for: A. Triploidy B. Patau syndrome C. Down syndrome D. Edwards syndrome

C. Down syndrome

A fetus with a karyotype revealing it has 69 chromosomes and sonographic findings of webbed fingers and intrauterine growth restriction most likely has : A. Trisomy 21 B. Trisomy 18 C. Triploidy D. Turner syndrome

C. Triploidy

Leukocytosis would most likely be associated with: a. multiple degenerating fibroids b. ovarian teratoma c. adenomyosis d. PID

D. PID

The first phase of the endometrial cycle is the: A. Secretory phase B. Follicular phase C. Luteal phase D. Proliferative phase

D. Proliferative phase

The sonographic evidence of a hyperemic fallopian tube is consistent with: A. Pyosalpinx B. Hydrosalpinx C. Endometritis D. Salpingitis

D. Salpingitis

At what level is the nuchal fold measurement obtained: a. CSP b. occipital horns of the lateral ventricles c. brain stem d. foramen magna

a. CSP

The ligament that houses the vasculature of the uterus is the: a. cardinal ligament b. ovarian ligament c. broad ligament d. suspensory ligament of the ovary

a. cardinal ligament

The fingerlike extensions of the fallopian tube are called: a. fimbria b. infundibulum c. cilia d. ampulla

a. fimbria

Which of the following is described as the situation in which the placental edge extends into the lower uterine segment but ends more than 2cm away from the internal os? a. low-lying placenta b. marginal previa c. partial previa d. total previa

a. low-lying placenta

Abnormally heavy and prolonged menstrual flow between periods is termed: a. menometrorrhagia b. menarche c. menorrhagia d. dysmenorrhea

a. menometrorrhagia

Which of the following could also be described as intermenstrual bleeding? a. metrorrhagia b. polymenorrhea c. menometrorrhagia d. menorrhagia

a. metrorrhagia

Conjoined twins that are attached at the abdomen are referred as: a. omphalopagus b. thoracopagus c. ileopagus d. craniopagus

a. omphalopagus

All of the following are signs of Arnold-Chiari II malformation except: a. s-shaped spine b. banana sign c. lemon sign d. colpocephaly

a. s-shaped spine

The second phase of the endometrial cycle is the: a. secretory phase b. follicular phase c. luteal phase d. proliferative phase

a. secretory phase

A 55 year-old patient presents with pelvic pressure, abdominal swelling, and abnormal uterine bleeding. The exam reveals a large, muliloculated cystic mass with papillary projections. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. serous cystadenocarcinoma b. cystic teratoma c. androblastoma d. dysgerminoma

a. serous cystadenocarcinoma

The second trimester typically refers to weeks: a. 12-26 b. 13-26 c. 10-28 d. 26-32

b. 13-26

Ovulation typically occurs on day ___ of the menstrual cycle. a. 12 b. 14 c. 16 d. 1

b. 14

The fetal stomach should be visualized by: a. 8 weeks b. 14 weeks c. 20 weeks d. 18 weeks

b. 14 weeks

The thickness of the nuchal fold in the second trimester should not exceed? a. 3mm b. 6mm c. 10mm d. 12mm

b. 6mm

Precocious puberty is defined as the development of pubic hair, breasts, and the genitals before the age of: a. 13 b. 8 c. 5 d. 10

b. 8

The fetal lip typically closes by: a. 18 weeks b. 8 weeks c. 13 weeks d. 6 weeks

b. 8 weeks

Which of the following would most likely lead to the development of endometrial adhesions? a. endometrial carcinoma b. D&C c. pregnancy d. adenomyomatosis

b. D&C

What would increase a patient's likelihood of suffering from thromboembolism? a. PCOS b. ERT c. endometrial carcinoma d. endometrial atrophy

b. ERT

A 24 year-old female patient presents to the sonography department for a pelvic sonogram with an indication of pelvic pain. Upon interrogation, the sonographer notes an anechoic mass within the vagina. This mass most likely represents a: a. Nabothian cyst b. Gartner duct cyst c. dandy-walker cyst d. ovarian cyst

b. Gartner duct cyst

The hormone that surges at ovulation is: a. GnRH b. LH c. aldosterone d. progesterone

b. LH

An increased nuchal fold is associated with: a. DWM b. Trisomy 21 c. Trisomy 3 d. nuchal cord

b. Trisomy 21

All of the following are clinical or sonographic findings consistent with Limb Body Wall Complex (LBWC) except: a. ventral wall defects b. decreased MSAFP c. marked scoliosis d. shortened umbilical cord

b. decreased MSAFP

Normally, the umbilical artery S/D ratio: a. increases with advancing gestation b. decreases with advancing gestation c. reverses occasionally during a normal pregnancy d. has an absent diastolic component

b. decreases with advancing gestation

The sonographic findings of a fluid-filled cranium with absence of cerebral tissue is consistent with: a. hydrocephalus b. hydrancephaly c. holoprosencephaly d. schizencephaly

b. hydrancephaly

A simple fluid accumulation within the vagina secondary to an imperforate hymen is: a. hydrometrocolpos b. hydrocolpos c. hematometra d. hematocolpos

b. hydrocolpos

Anechoic fluid noted distending the uterus and cervix within a pediatric patient is termed: a. hydrocolpos b. hydrometrocolpos c. hydrometra d. hematometrocolpos

b. hydrometrocolpos

What is the typical sonographic appearance of the endometrium during the secretory phase? a. anechoic and thin b. hyperechoic and thick c. hypoechoic and thin d. echogenic basil layer and hypoechoic functional layer

b. hyperechoic and thick

A group of anomalies characterized by a small or absent right ventricle: a. turner syndrome b. hypoplastic right heart c. hypoplastic left heart d. coarctation of the aorta

b. hypoplastic right heart

Which of the following definitions best describes the term adnexa? a. the area posterior to the uterus, between the uterus and rectum b. the area located posterior to the broad ligaments and adjacent to the uterus c. the area anterior to the uterus, between the uterus and bladder d. the area lateral to the iliac crest and posterior to the pubic symphysis

b. the area located posterior to the broad ligaments and adjacent to the uterus

Which statement is true concerning fetal outflow tracts? a. the normal pulmonary artery should be positioned posterior to aorta and should be visualized passing under it b. the normal pulmonary artery should be positioned anterior to aorta and should be visualized crossing over it c. the right ventricular outflow tract leads to the aorta d. the left ventricular outflow tract leads to the pulmonary artery

b. the normal pulmonary artery should be positioned anterior to aorta and should be visualized crossing over it

The ovarian cyst associated with GTD is the: a. corpus luteum cyst b. theca lutein cyst c. dermoid cyst d. paraovarian cyst

b. theca lutein cyst

Sonographic findings of the endometrium in a patient with a history of PID, fever and elevated WBC count would include all of the following except: a. ring-down artifact posterior to the endometrium b. thin, hyperechoic endometrium c. endometrial fluid d. thickened, irregular endometrium

b. thin, hyperechoic endometrium

The cervix should measure at least ___ in length. a. 4cm b. 5cm c. 3cm d. 8mm

c. 3cm

The measurement of the endometrium during the early proliferative phase ranges from: a. 6-10mm b. 8-12mm c. 4-8mm d. 1-2mm

c. 4-8mm

An 84 year old patient has sudden onset of bleeding. Her endometrium should not exceed: a. 6mm b. 8mm c. 5mm d. 3mm

c. 5mm

What measurement should the renal pelvis not exceed prior to 20 weeks gestation? a. 2mm b. 10mm c. 7mm d. 1.2cm

c. 7mm

The type of renal cystic disease associated with adult liver and pancreatic cysts is: a. MCDK b. ARPKD c. ADPKD d. VATER

c. ADPKD

The sonographic exam of twins reveals a triangular extension of the placenta at the base of the membrane. This finding is indicative of: a. monochorionic, monoamniotic twins b. monochorionic, diamniotic twins c. dichorionic, diamniotic twins d. monochorionic, diamniotic twins

c. dichorionic, diamniotic twins

Which of the following can occur as a result of dizygotic twinning? a. monochorionic, diamniotic twins b. monochorionic, monoamniotic twins c. dichorionic, diamniotic twins d. all of the above

c. dichorionic, diamniotic twins

The occurrence of having both an intrauterine and extrauterine pregnancy at the same time describes: a. PID b. ectopic pregnancy c. heterotopic pregnancy d. molar pregnancy

c. heterotopic pregnancy

Fluid surrounding the fetal testicle is referred to as: a. hydroureter b. hydronephrosis c. hydrocele d. hydroscrotum

c. hydrocele

All of the following are sonographic signs of ebstein anomaly except: a. enlarged right atrium b. fetal hydrops c. narrowing of aortic arch d. malpositioned tricuspid valve

c. narrowing of aortic arch

The most common sonographic appearance of pulmonary sequestration is a(n): a. dilated pulmonary artery and hypoechoic chest mass b. pleural effusion and ipsilateral hiatal hernia c. triangular, echogenic mass within the chest d. anechoic mass within the chest

c. triangular, echogenic mass within the chest

theca lutein cysts would most likely be linked with a molar pregnancy and: a. down syndrome b. intrauterine growth restriction c. triploidy d. monosomy x

c. triploidy

Cleft lip, hypotelorism, and microphthalmia are all features of: a. trisomy 21 b. trisomy 18 c. trisomy 13 d. turner syndrome

c. trisomy 13

Cryptochidism describes: a. bilateral pelvic kidneys b. urethral atresia c. undescended testicles d. ovarian dysgenesis

c. undescended testicles

Congenital malformation of the uterus that results in complete duplication of the genital tract is: a. unicornuate uterus b. bicornis bicollis c. uterus didelphys d. subseptate uterus

c. uterus didelphys

The most common initial clinical presentation of PID is: a. endometritis b. tubo-ovarian abscess c. vaginitis d. pyosalpinx

c. vaginitis

The fetal heart is fully formed by: a. 2 weeks b. 4 weeks c. 8 weeks d. 10 weeks

d. 10 weeks

The outer layer of the endometrium is the: a. myometrium b. endometrial cavity c. functional layer d. basal layer

d. basal layer

IUGR is evident with the EFW is: a. above the 90th percentile b. below the 90th percentile c. above the 10th percentile d. below the 10th percentile

d. below the 10th percentile

The best description for endometrial polyps is: a. malignant nodules that cause bleeding b. benign lesions associated with cervical stenosis c. malignant nodules that are associated with endometrial atrophy d. benign nodules of hyperplastic endometrial tissue

d. benign nodules of hyperplastic endometrial tissue

Fetal meconium typically consists of all of the following except: a. skin b. hair c. bile d. blood

d. blood

Which of the following conditions does not affect the orbits? a. cebocephaly b. cyclopia c. ethmocephaly d. epignathus

d. epignathus

The congenital absence of part of the esophagus is termed: a. duodenal atresia b. VACTERL association c. down syndrome d. esophageal atresia

d. esophageal atresia

All of the following may be visualized at the correct level of the head circumference except: a. third ventricle b. thalamus c. CSP d. falx

d. falx

All of the following would be relevant lab tests to evaluate before performing a routine pelvic sonogram except: a. HcG b. hematocrit c. WBC count d. lipase

d. lipase

All of the following are consistent with a complete hydatidiform mole except: a. heterogeneous mass within the endometrium b. bilateral theca lutein cysts c. hyperemesis gravidarum d. low HcG

d. low HcG

Sonographically, you visualize a mass extending from the distal spine of fetus. This mass could be all of the following except: a. SCT b. meningocele c. meninomyelocele d. phocomeningocele

d. phoceomeningocele

The herniation of bowel into the base of the umbilical cord before 12 weeks is termed: a. gastroschisis b. omphalocele c. hernia umbilicus d. physiologic herniation

d. physiologic herniation

Cyclopia would most likely be associated with: a. Trisomy 8 b. trisomy 21 c. trisomy 18 d. trisomy 13

d. trisomy 13

Sonographically, you identify a fetus with fusion of the thalami and a monoventricle. Which chromosomal abnormality would be most likely? a. trisomy 8 b. trisomy 21 c. trisomy 18 d. trisomy 13

d. trisomy 13

The choroid plexus cyst could be associated with an increase risk of: a. trisomy 13 b. trisomy 4 c. Arnold-Chiari II malformation d. trisomy 18

d. trisomy 18

Nonimmune hydrops and ovarian dysgenesis are found in fetuses affected by: a. trisomy 21 b. trisomy 18 c. triploidy d. turner syndrome

d. turner syndrome

An obstruction at the ureterovesicular junction would lead to dilation of the: a. bladder and urethra b. bladder, urethra, and ureters c. bladder, urethra, ureters, and renal collecting system d. ureter and renal collecting system

d. ureter and renal collecting system

What structure within the female pelvis lies posterior to the urinary bladder and anterior to the rectum? a. broad ligament b. rectus abdominus muscle c. space of retzius d. uterus

d. uterus

The sonographic appearance of a 59 year-old women on HRT is: a. hypoechoic and thickened b. hyperechoic and thickened c. cystic areas within the thickened endometrium d. variable depending upon the menstrual cycle

d. variable depending upon the menstrual cycle

The abnormal insertion of the umbilical cord into the membranes beyond the placental edge is termed: a. placental previa b. placental abruption c. marginal insertion d. velamentous insertion

d. velamentous insertion

The anterior cul-de-sac is also referred to as the: a. space of retzius b. rectouterine pouch c. pouch of douglas d. vesicouterine pouch

d. vesicouterine pouch

A patient with ovarian mass presents with elevated serum AFP. Which of the following would be the most likely? a. fibroma b. thecoma c. cystic teratoma d. yolk sac

d. yolk sac

The renal cystic disease that results in the development of cysts late in adulthood is: a. multicystic dysplastic renal disease b. autosomal dominant polycystic disease c. autosomal recessive polycystic disease d. obstructive cystic dysplasia

b. autosomal dominant polycystic disease

The tricuspid valve is located: a. between the right atrium and left atrium b. between the right atrium and right ventricle c. between the left atrium and left ventricle d. between the left atrium and aorta

b. between the right atrium and right ventricle

The measurement that should be carefully scrutinized in cases in of IUGR is: a. AC b. FL c. BPD d. HC

a. AC

The development of adhesions between the liver and diaphragm as a result of PID is termed: a. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome b. Dandy-Walker Syndrome c. Stein-Leventhal Syndrome d. Asherman Syndrome

a. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome

The triple screen typically includes an analysis of: a. HcG, AFP, and estriol b. fetal NT, AFP, and inhibin A c. HcG, AFP, and inhibin A d. HcG, AFP, and PAPP-A

a. HcG, AFP, and estriol

Which of the following would most likely be associated with hirsutism? a. PCOS b. Meigs syndrome c. adenomyosis d. adenomyomatosis

a. PCOS

The lemon sign denotes: a. an abnormal shape of the fetal skull b. a normal shape of the cerebellum c. an abnormal shape of the cerebellum d. a normal shape of the fetal skull

a. an abnormal shape of the fetal skull

Precocious puberty is best defined as: a. pubertal development before the age of 8 b. pubertal development before the age of 13 c. excessive hair growth in girls in areas where hair growth is normal negligible d. changes within the fmeale that are caused by increased levels of AFP

a. pubertal development before the age of 8

All of the following are characteristics of spina bifida occulta except: a. closed defect b. elevated MSAFP c. sacral dimple d. hemangioma

b. elevated MSAFP

A patient presents with complaints of infertility and painful menstrual cycles. Sonographically, you discover a cystic mass on the ovary consisting of low-level echoes. Based on the clinical and sonographic findings, what is the most likely diagnosis? a. cystic teratoma b. endometrioma c. PID d. OHS

b. endometrioma

Which of the following should not be included in the correct level for an HC measurement: a. falx cerebri b. fourth ventricle c. thalamus d. CSP

b. fourth ventricle

What is the fetal presentation when the fetal buttocks are closest to the cervix? a. footling breech b. frank breech c. complete breech d. transverse

b. frank breech

Evidence of polyhydramnios should warrant a careful investigation of the fetal: a. genitourinary system b. gastrointestinal system c. extremities d. cerebrovascular system

b. gastrointestinal system

Fusion of the lower poles of the kidneys describes: a. renal agenesis b. horseshoe kidneys c. moiety d. Meckel-Gruber syndrome

b. horseshoe kidneys

Which of the following is best described as an artifact that is produced by a strong reflector and results in a copy of the anatomy being placed deeper than the correct location? a. reverberation b. mirror image c. acoustic shadowing d. comet tail

b. mirror image

Which form of monozygotic twinning is least common? a. monochorionic, diamniotic b. monochorionic, monoamniotic c. dichorionic, diamniotic d. dichorionic, biamniotic

b. monochorionic, monoamniotic

Which of the following would be most indicative of a leiomyosarcoma? a. vaginal bleeding b. rapid growth c. dysuria d. large hypoechoic mass

b. rapid growth

The arteries that directly supply blood to the functional layer of the endometrium are the: a. radial arteries b. spiral arteries c. straight arteries d. arcuate arteries

b. spiral arteries

Upon sonographic evaluation of a patient complaining of abnormal distention, you visualize a large, hypoechoic mass distorting the anterior border of the uterus. What is the most likely location of this mass? a. intramural b. subserosal c. submucosal d. intracavitary pedunculated

b. subserosal

The hormone of the pituitary gland that stimulates follicular development of the ovary is: a. LH b. estrogen c. FSH d. GnRH

c. FSH

What is the opening within the septum that separates the right and the left ventricles? a. endocardial cushion b. tricuspid regeneration c. VSD d. ASD

c. VSD

Difficult or painful intercourse is referred to as: a. dysuria b. dysmenorrhea c. dyspareunia d. hydrocolpos

c. dyspareunia

An endometrioma most likely appear as a: a. simple, anechoic mass with through transmission b. complex mass with internal shadowing components c. mostly cystic mass with low-level echoes d. solid, hyperechoic shadowing mass

c. mostly cystic mass with low-level echoes

All of the following are characteristic sonographic findings of achondrogenesis except: a. micromelia b. absent mineralization of the pelvis c. multiple dislocated joints d. polyhydraminos

c. multiple dislocated joints

Absent long bones with the hands and feet arising from the shoulders and hips describes: a. micromelia b. mesomelia c. phocomelia d. arthrogryposis

c. phocomelia

Which of the following is not associated with endometrial hyperplasia? a. tamoxifen therapy b. PCOS c. ovarian thecoma d. asherman syndrome

d. asherman syndrome

The space of retzius is located: a. between the uterus and bladder b. between the bladder and ilium c. along the lateral aspect of the uterus d. between the bladder and pubic bone

d. between the bladder and pubic bone

Which of the following is a tumor of ectopic endometrial tissue? a. brenner b. cystic teratoma c. yolk sac d. endometrioma

d. endometrioma

What organ(s) produce amniotic fluid after 12 weeks? a. fetal liver and spleen b. fetal intestines and lungs c. fetal intestines and liver d. fetal kidneys

d. fetal kidneys

What lab value would be most useful to evaluate in a patient with suspected internal hemorrhage? a. WBC b. lactate dehydrogenase c. amylase d. hematocrit

d. hematocrit

The most common malignant adrenal pediatric tumor is the: a. nephroblastoma b. pheochromocytoma c. hepatoblastoma d. neuroblastoma

d. neuroblastoma

All of the following are characteristics of spina bifida cystica except: a. banana sign b. lemon sign c. enlarged massa intermedia d. normal MSAFP

d. normal MSAFP

When the ovary is in the luteal phase, the endometrium is in the: a. early proliferative b. periovulatory c. late proliferative d. secretory

d. secretory

What congenital malformation of the uterus is common and has a clear association with an increased risk for spontaneous abortion? a. anteflexed uterus b. lesoverted uterus c. dextroverted uterus d. septate uterus

d. septate uterus

Normal diploid cells have: a. 46 chromosomes b. 23 chromosomes c. 21 chromosomes d. 69 chromosomes

a. 46 chromosomes

The ovarian tumor associated with an elevated serum lactate dehydrogenase is the: a. Dysgerminoma b. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor c. Androblastoma d. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

a. Dysgerminoma

The "I" in OEIS complex stands for: a. Imperforate anus b. ilial dysfunction c. irregular bladder enlargement d. iniencephaly

a. Imperforate anus

The 2 hormones produced by the anterior pituitary gland that impact the menstrual cycle are: a. LH and FSH b. LH and estrogen c. Progesterone and estrogen d. FSH and progesterone

a. LH and FSH

Fetal lung maturity can be assessed using the: a. LS ratio b. systolic to diastolic ratio c. estriol to AFP ratio d. lung size formula

a. LS ratio

Which of the following lab values would be significant in the detection of an abdominal wall defect? a. MSAFP b. HcG c. maternal serum amylase d. estradiol

a. MSAFP

The syndrome associated with an occipital cephalocele, cystic renal disease, and polydactyly is: a. Meckel-Gruber Syndrome b. Potter Syndrome c. VACTERL assocaition d. Sirenomelia Syndrome

a. Meckel-Gruber Syndrome

The shunting of blood from one twin to the other is termed: a. TTTS b. twin embolization syndrome c. twin peak sign d. conjoined twins

a. TTTS

An EIF would most likely be associated with: a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 13 c. Trisomy 18 d. Turner Syndrome

a. Trisomy 21

An absent or hypoplastic nasal bone is most likely associated with: a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 15 c. Trisomy 18 d. Turner Syndrome

a. Trisomy 21

Which of the following is most often associated with duodenal atresia? a. Trisomy 21 b. trisomy 18 c. trisomy 13 d. tripoloidy

a. Trisomy 21

The patient presents to the sonography department with a history of uterine prolapsed. Which of the following best describes this disorder? a. a condition that results from the weakening of the pelvic diaphragm muscles and allows for the displacement of the uterus, often through the vagina b. A congenital anomaly that results in the duplication of the uterus c. A condition that results in the abnormal invasion of the myometrium through the bladder wall leading to hematuria d. An abnormality that describes the inversion of the myometrium and endometrium

a. a condition that results from the weakening of the pelvic diaphragm muscles and allows for the displacement of the uterus, often through the vagina

Monozygotic twins result from: a. a single zygote that splits b. two zygotes that are fertilized by the same sperm c. two morulla d. A single zygote that is fertilized by two sperm

a. a single zygote that splits

The absence of menstrual bleeding is termed: a. amenorrhea b. dysmenorrhea c. oligomenorrhea d. polymenorrhea

a. amenorrhea

Which of the following is typically not a clinical complaint of women who are suffering from adenomyosis? a. amenorrhea b. dysmenorrhea c. dyspareunia d. menometrorrhagia

a. amenorrhea

Causes of postmenopausal bleeding include all of the following except: a. asherman syndrome b. endometrial atrophy c. endometrial hyperplasia d. intracavitary fibroids

a. asherman syndrome

What is the stage of the conceptus that implants within the decidualized endometrium? a. blastocyst b. morula c. zygote d. ovum

a. blastocyst

Pelvic ligament that extends from the lateral aspect of the uterus to the side walls of the pelvis is the: a. broad ligament b. ovarian ligament c. piriformis ligament d. round ligament

a. broad ligament

The sonographic pelvic examination of a female patient reveals an extensive amount of ascites. In the transverse plane, you visualize two echogenic structures extending from the side walls of the uterus to the pelvic side walls bilaterally. These structures are most likely the: a. broad ligments b. cardinal ligments c. ovarian ligaments d. uterosacral ligaments

a. broad ligments

The normal umbilical cord insertion point into the placenta is: a. central b. superior margin c. inferior margin d. lateral margin

a. central

The structure located between the two lobes of the cerebellum is the: a. cerebellar vermis b. cerebellar tonsils c. falx cerebri d. corpus callosum

a. cerebellar vermis

A malignant form of GTD is: a. choriocarcinoma b. hydatidiform mole c. anembryonic d. hydropic villi

a. choriocarcinoma

In the early gestation, where is the secondary yolk sac located? a. chorionic cavity b. base of umbilical cord c. embryonic cranium d. amniotic cavity

a. chorionic cavity

Which term relates the number of placentas? a. chorionicity b. zygocity c. amnionicity d. cleavage

a. chorionicity

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome could be described as: a. clinical findings of gallbladder disease as a result of PID b. the presence of uterine fibroids and adenomyosis in the gravid uterus c. coexisting intrauterine and extrauterine pregnancies d. the presence of pyosalpinx, hydrosalpinx and endometritis

a. clinical findings of gallbladder disease as a result of PID

Talipes equinovarus is associated with: a. clubfoot b. syndactyly c. rhizomelia d. rockerbottom foot

a. clubfoot

What is the most common form of GTD? a. complete molar pregnancy b. partial molar pregnancy c. invasive mole d. choriocarcinoma

a. complete molar pregnancy

The largest part of the uterus is the: a. corpus b. isthmus c. cervix d. fundus

a. corpus

The cystic mass commonly noted with a pregnancy is: a. corpus luteum b. dermoid cyst c. dysgerminoma d. serous cystadenoma

a. corpus luteum

Tamoxifen effects on the endometrium will sonographically appear as: a. cystic changes within a thickened endometrium b. cystic areas within a thin endometrium c. thin endometrium d. no apparent effect on endometrial thickness of appearance

a. cystic changes within a thickened endometrium

Which of the following would be most likely associated with an excessive amount of amniotic fluid? a. duodenal atresia b. hepatomegaly c. bilateral renal agenesis d. physiologic bowel herniation

a. duodenal atresia

Which of the following is best defined as difficult or painful menstruation? a. dysmenorrhea b. dyspareunia c. dysuria d. menorrhagia

a. dysmenorrhea

The most common cause of pelvic pain with pregnancy is: a. ectopic pregnancy b. heterotopic pregnancy c. missed abortion d. molar pregnancy

a. ectopic pregnancy

A strawberry shaped skull is associated with: a. edwards syndrome b. turner syndrome c. down syndrome d. patau syndrome

a. edwards syndrome

Typically, with anencephaly, the MSAFP value will be: a. elevated b. decreased c. this lab finding is not helpful d. unchanged

a. elevated

Typically, with gastroschisis, the MSAFP value will be: a. elevated b. decreased c. this lab finding is not helpful d. unchanged

a. elevated

A 60 year old has sudden onset of bleeding. The exam reveals an endometrium that measures 4mm, with no other significant findings. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. endometrial atrophy b. endometrial carcinoma c. endometrial polyp d. cervical stenosis

a. endometrial atrophy

An increase in the number of endometrial cells is termed: a. endometrial hyperplasia b. endometrial atrophy c. endometrial carcinoma d. polyps

a. endometrial hyperplasia

A 34 year old presents with intermenstrual bleeding. The TV exam shows a focal irregularity and enlargement of one area of the endometrium. The most likely diagnosis is: a. endometrial polyps b. endometrial carcinoma c. endometrial atrophy d. intramural leiomyoma

a. endometrial polyps

Which of the following is also referred to as a chocolate cyst: a. endometrioma b. endometroid c. cystic teratoma d. androblastoma

a. endometrioma

Which of the following statements would be considered an acceptable disadvantage of endovaginal imaging? a. endovaginal imaging has a limited field of view b. the resolution of endovaginal imaging is reduced compared to transabdominal imaging c. endovaginal imaging is more time consuming than transabdominal imaging d. endovaginal imaging can be performed only by female sonographers

a. endovaginal imaging has a limited field of view

All of the following statements are true of endovaginal imaging except: a. endovaginal imaging requires a full bladder b. endovaginal imaging leads to reduced waiting time for the patient and quicker medical management c. endovaginal imaging offered improved resolution of the endometrium, uterus, and ovaries, especially in the obese patient d. endovaginal imaging is contraindicated for pediatric patients, and for those with an intact hymen

a. endovaginal imaging requires a full bladder

Prune belly syndrome is caused by: a. enlarged bladder b. unilateral renal agenesis c. bilateral renal agenesis d. hypospadias

a. enlarged bladder

What form of permanent birth control would be seen sonographically as echogenic, linear structures within the lumen of both isthmic portions of the fallopian tubes? a. essure devices b. paragards c. lippes loops d. mirenas

a. essure devices

The condition in which there is no nose and a proboscis separating two close-set orbits is: a. ethmocephaly b. epignathus c. micrognathia d. cebocephaly

a. ethmocephaly

The isolated enlargement of the fetal thyroid is: a. fetal goiter b. cystic hygroma c. lymphangioma d. cervical teratoma

a. fetal goiter

With what structure does the posterior fossa cyst associated with DWM communicate? a. fourth ventricle b. third ventricle c. cerebellar vermis d. cerebral aqueduct

a. fourth ventricle

Which of the following would not increase the likelihood of multiple gestations? a. gestational diabetes b. maternal age of >40 years c. maternal history of twins d. Assisted Reproductive Therapy (ART)

a. gestational diabetes

Endovaginal tranducers may be cleaned by submerging in a(n) _______ based solution. a. glutaraldehyde b. ascites c. formaldehyde d. alcohol

a. glutaraldehyde

What is the name of the dominant follicle prior to ovulation? a. graafian b. corpus luteum c. morula d. corpus albicans

a. graafian

The dominant follicle prior to ovulation is termed the: a. graafian follicle b. corpus albicans c. corpus luteum d. medulla

a. graafian follicle

The dominant follicle prior to ovulation is termed the: a. graafian follicle b. ovary hyper follicle c. corpus luteum d. corpus albicans

a. graafian follicle

The placenta releases ___ to maintain the corpus luteum. a. hcG b. FSH c. LH d. Gonadotropin-Stimulating hormone

a. hcG

Blood accumulation within the uterus is termed: a. hematometra b. hydrometra c. asherman syndrome d. endometrial carcinoma

a. hematometra

Which of the following lab findings would not be consistent with trisomy 21? a. high AFP b. low estriol c. high hCG d. low PAPP-A

a. high AFP

Facial anomalies, when discovered, should prompt the sonographer to analyze the brain closely for signs of: a. holoprosencephaly b. DWM c. Schizencephaly d. Hydranencephaly

a. holoprosencephaly

Which of the following is not consistent with the diagnosis of nonimmune hydrops? a. hypoplastic mandible b. pleural effusion c. ascites d. subcutaneous edema

a. hypoplastic mandible

The paired muscles that are located lateral to the uterus and anterior to the iliac crest are the: a. iliopsoas muscles b. rectus abdominis muscles c. obturator interni muscles d. piriformis muscles

a. iliopsoas muscles

Which of the following would be the most likely fetal cranial findings with TORCH infections? a. intracranial calcifications b. cerebral atrophy c. porencephaly d. scaphocephaly

a. intracranial calcifications

Eventration of the diaphragm is best described as: a. lack of muscle in the dome of diaphragm b. defect in anterior lateral wall of diaphragm c. defect in posterolateral wall of diaphragm d. congential absence of diaphragm

a. lack of muscle in the dome of diaphragm

Which of the following lab tests may be used as a tumor marker for an ovarian dysgerminoma? a. lactate dehydrogenase b. alpha-fetoprotein c. cancer antigen 125 d. tamoxifen

a. lactate dehydrogenase

During which phase of the endometrial cycle would the endometrium yield the three-line sign? a. late proliferative b. early proliferative c. early secretory d. late secretory

a. late proliferative

The pelvic muscle group that is located between the coccyx and the pubis is the: a. levator ani muscles b. rectus abdominis muscles c. obturator interni muscles d. piriformis muscle

a. levator ani muscles

What is the most likely pulsed doppler characteristic of endometrial cancer? a. low impedance flow b. high impedance flow c. absent systolic flow d. converse diastolic flow

a. low impedance flow

The most common form of monozygotic twins is: a. monochorionic, diamniotic b. dichorionic, monoamniotic c. monochorionic, monoamniotic d. none of the above

a. monochorionic, diamniotic

Twins that have the threat of being conjoined are: a. monochorionic, monoamniotic b. monochorionic, diamniotic c. dizygotic d. dichorionic, diamniotic

a. monochorionic, monoamniotic

Identical twins result from: a. monozygotic twinning b. dizygotic twinning c. heterotopic pregnancies d. monochorionic pregnancies

a. monozygotic twinning

All of the following are clinical findings associated with leiomyoma except: a. myometrial cysts b. infertility c. palpable pelvic mass d. menorrhagia

a. myometrial cysts

A 38 year-old female patient presents to the sonography department for a pelvic sonogram with an indication of pelvic pain. Upon sonography interrogation, you note an anechoic mass within the cervix. This mass most likely represents a: a. nabothian cyst b. benign follicular cyst c. dermoid cyst d. gartner duct cyst

a. nabothian cyst

Mothers with pregestational diabetes, as opposed to gestational diabetes, have an increased risk of a fetus with: a. neural tube defects b. proteinuria c. TORCH d. diethylstilbestrol

a. neural tube defects

All of the following are associated with omphalocele except: a. normal cord insertion b. multiple chromosomal abnormalities c. elevated MSAFP d. perumbilical mass

a. normal cord insertion

Which of the following most often leads to an elevation of CA-125? a. ovarian carcinoma b. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome c. ovarian torsion d. ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

a. ovarian carcinoma

Patients with OHS are at increased risk for: a. ovarian torsion b. chlaymdia c. gonorrhea d. vaginitis

a. ovarian torsion

Which of the following is associated with the "whirlpool sign"? a. ovarian torsion b. hydrosalpinx c. ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome d. ovarian carcinoma

a. ovarian torsion

Having more than the normal number of digits is: a. polydactyly b. clinodactyly c. multidigitopia d. sirenomelia

a. polydactyly

Pelvic bones, when visualized on sonography, will produce: a. posterior shadowing b. posterior enhancement c. mirror image artifact d. minimal enhancement

a. posterior shadowing

The clinical manifestations of supine hypotensive syndrome include all of the following except: a. proteinuria b. tachycardia c. nausea d. pallor

a. proteinuria

What is described as the absence of the pulmonary valve, which in turn prohibits blood flow from the right ventricle into the pulmonary artery and essentially the lungs? a. pulmonary atresia b. pulmonary stenosis c. pulmonary sequestration d. pulmonary effusion

a. pulmonary atresia

Complex appearing fluid within the fallopian tubes seen with PID is most likely: a. pyosalpinx b. pyometra c. hydrosalpinx d. hematometra

a. pyosalpinx

Which vessels supply blood to the deeper layers of the myometrium? a. radial arteries b. spiral arteries c. straight arteries d. arcuate arteries

a. radial arteries

The most common fetal cardiac tumor is: a. rhabdomyoma b. chordae tendineae c. cardiomyoma d. CAM

a. rhabdomyoma

What artifact could be noted emanating from air or gas within the endometrium in a patient with endometritis? a. ring-down b. mirror image c. posterior enhancement d. dirty transmission

a. ring-down

Which of the following is true for the diagnosis of clubfoot? a. the metatarsals and toes lie in the same plane as the tibia and fibula b. the metatarsals are perpendicular to the tibia and fibula c. the carpals and metacarpals lie in the same plane as the tibia and fibula d. the tibia, fibula, and patella are perpendicular to the femur

a. the metatarsals and toes lie in the same plane as the tibia and fibula

All of the following are sonographic findings of a tubo-ovarian abscess except: a. the presence of 10 or more small cysts along the periphery of the ovaries b. CDS fluid c. thickened, irregular endometrium d. fusion of the pelvic organs as a conglomerated mass

a. the presence of 10 or more small cysts along the periphery of the ovaries

OHS can cause multiple large follicles to develop on the ovaries termed: a. theca lutein cysts b. chocolate cysts c. corpus luteum cysts d. dermoid cysts

a. theca lutein cysts

Which of the following would be described as functional cysts that are found in the presence of elevated levels of HcG? a. theca lutein cysts b. chocolate cysts c. corpus luteum cysts d. endometrial cysts

a. theca lutein cysts

The interthalamic adhesion (massa intermedia) passes through the: a. third ventricle b. fourth ventricle c. cisterna magna d. CSP

a. third ventricle

A 22-week fetus with clinodactyly, an echogenic intracardiac focus, and hyperechoic bowel is noted during a screening ultrasound. These findings are most consistent with: a. trisomy 21 b. trisomy 13 c. monosomy x d. trisomy 18

a. trisomy 21

Absent nasal bones and an increased nuchal fold measurement are most consistent with the sonographic markers for: a. trisomy 21 b. trisomy 13 c. triploidy d. trisomy 18

a. trisomy 21

What is macroglossia most often associated with? a. trisomy 21 b. trisomy 18 c. triploidy d. turner syndrome

a. trisomy 21

The demise of a twin can lead to the development of neurologic complications in the living twin as a result of: a. twin embolization syndrome b. TTTS c. TRAP syndrome d. dichorionicity

a. twin embolization syndrome

Which of the following would result in compensatory hypertrophy? a. unilateral renal agenesis b. bilateral renal agenesis c. pelvic kidney d. horseshoe kidney

a. unilateral renal agenesis

Which of the following would increase the risk of a patient development endometrial cancer? a. unopposed ERT b. multipartiy c. osteoporosis d. endometrial atrophy

a. unopposed ERT

Doppler sonography reveals vascular structures coursing over the internal os of the cervix. This finding is indicative of: a. vasa previa b. placenta previa c. placenta increta d. abruptio placentae

a. vasa previa

Dangling choroid sign is associated with: a. ventriculomegaly b. hydranencephaly c. lissencephaly d. Meckel-Gruber Syndrome

a. ventriculomegaly

The first structure noted within the gestational sac is the: a. yolk sac b. embryo c. decidual reaction d. chorionic sac

a. yolk sac

The most accurate measurement for estimating gestational age is: a. BPD b. HC c. transcerebellar measurement d. lateral ventricle

b. HC

Which of the following diagnostic tests is used to evaluate emitted radiation from the patient to assess the function of organs? a. MRI b. Nuclear medicine c. radiography d. CT

b. Nuclear medicine

PID can lead to all of the following except: a. Infertility b. PCOS c. ectopic pregnancy d. scar formation in the fallopian tubes

b. PCOS

Which of the following is said to be a common cause of DUB? a. hirsutism b. PCOS c. fibroids d. PID

b. PCOS

Which of the following could be described as an infection of the female genital tract that may involve the ovaries, uterus, and/or fallopian tubes? a. pseudomyxoma peritonei b. PID c. PCOS d. ovarian torsion

b. PID

All of the following are associated with an abnormal NT except: a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 16 c. Trisomy 18 d. Turner Syndrome

b. Trisomy 16

What is the most common cause of hydronephrosis in the neonate and the most common form of fetal renal obstruction? a. UVJ obstruction b. UPJ obstruction c. vesicoureteral reflux d. urethral atresia

b. UPJ obstruction

A disorder that results in abnormal bone growth and dwarfism is: a. osteogenesis imperfecta b. achondroplasia c. radial ray defect d. caudal regression syndrome

b. achondroplasia

The most common nonlethal skeletal dysplasia is: a. achrondrogenesis b. achondroplasia c. thanatophoric dysplasia d. osteogenesis imperfecta

b. achondroplasia

Ectopic endometrial tissue within the uterus that leads to AUB is termed as: a. endometriosis b. adenomyosis c. fibroids d. endometrial hyperplasia

b. adenomyosis

The "sunburst" of the cerebral sulci is the sonographic finding of: a. DWM b. agenesis of corpus callosum c. colpocephaly d. hydranecephaly

b. agenesis of corpus callosum

What doppler artifact occurs when the doppler sampling rate is not high enough to display the doppler shift frequency? a. doppler noise b. aliasing c. twinkle artifact d. absent doppler signal

b. aliasing

Most severe form of holoprosencephaly is: a. lobar b. alobar c. semilobar d. lobular

b. alobar

The longest and most tortuous segment of the fallopian tube is the: a. fimbria b. ampulla c. isthmus d. interstitial

b. ampulla

Which of the following would not typically produce an elevation in HcG? a. down syndrome b. anembryonic pregnancy c. tiploidy d. molar pregnancy

b. anembryonic pregnancy

Which of the following would be least likely associated with an elevated MSAFP? a. pentalogy of cantrell b. anorectal atresia c. gastroschisis d. omphalocele

b. anorectal atresia

Which of the following best describes transposition of the great vessels? a. aorta arises from left ventricle, and the pulmonary artery arises from right ventricle b. aorta arises from right ventricle, and the pulmonary artery arises from left ventricle c. aortic arch is narrowed and positioned anterior to pulmonary vein d. presence of omphalocele and ectopic cordis

b. aorta arises from right ventricle, and the pulmonary artery arises from left ventricle

The form of inheritance in which at least one parent has to be a carrier of an abnormal gene for it to be passed to the fetus is: a. autosomal recessive b. autosomal dominant c. inherited dominant d. inherited recessive

b. autosomal dominant

The measurement obtained between the lateral walls of the orbits is referred to as the: a. interocular diameter b. binocular diameter c. ocular diameter d. biparietal diameter

b. binocular diameter

Which of the following is a benign congenital neck cysts found most often near the angle of the mandible? a. epignathus b. branchial cleft cyst c. thyroglossal duct cyst d. fetal goiter

b. branchial cleft cyst

With a normal pregnancy, the first structure noted within the decidualized endometrium is the: a. yolk sac b. chorionic sac c. amniotic cavity d. embryo

b. chorionic sac

An abnormal division of the lip is referred to as: a. micrognathia b. cleft lip c. anophthalmia d. cebocephaly

b. cleft lip

The narrowing of the aortic arch is indicative of: a. tetralogy of fallot b. coarctation of the aorta c. ebstein anomaly d. hypoplastic right heart

b. coarctation of the aorta

The abdominal aorta bifurcates into the: a. internal iliac arteries b. common iliac arteries c. ovarian arteries d. external iliac arteries

b. common iliac arteries

The band of tissue that allows communication between the right and left cerebral hemispheres is the: a. falx cerebri b. corpus callosum c. cerebellar vermis d. CSP

b. corpus callosum

The temporary endocrine gland that results from the rupture of the graafian follicle is the: a. corpus albicans b. corpus lutuem c. cumulus oophorus d. trophoblastic cells

b. corpus lutuem

The removal of tissue from the endometrium by scraping is termed: a. dilatation b. curettage c. sonohysterography d. hysteroscopy

b. curettage

What is an inherited disorder in which mucus secreting organs such as the lungs, pancreas, and other digestive organs produce thick and sticky secretions instead of normal secretions? a. hirschsprung disease b. cystic fibrosis c. multiple sclerosis d. turner syndrome

b. cystic fibrosis

Which of the following is associated with echogenic bowel? a. fetal anemia b. cystic fibrosis c. radial ray syndrome d. portal hypertension

b. cystic fibrosis

A large, mostly cystic mass containing a thick, midline septation is noted in the cervical spine region of the fetus. This most like represents: a. sacrococcygeal teratoma b. cystic hygroma c. cephalocele d. anophthalmia

b. cystic hygroma

The visualization of the fetal stomach within the fetal chest is most indicative of: a. pulmonary sequestration b. diaphragmatic hernia c. turner syndrome d. CAM

b. diaphragmatic hernia

Twins that result from the fertilization of two separate ova are called: a. diamniotic b. dizygotic c. monozygotic d. monochorionic

b. dizygotic

Fraternal twins result from: a. monozygotic twinning b. dizygotic twinning c. heterotopic pregnancies d. monochorionic pregnancies

b. dizygotic twinning

What is the fetal shunt that connects the pulmonary artery to the aortic arch? a. foramen ovale b. ductus arteriosus c. ductus venosus d. foramen of bochdalek

b. ductus arteriosus

The "double bubble" sign is indicative of: a. esophageal atresia b. duodenal atresia c. hydrocephalus d. anorectal atresia

b. duodenal atresia

Painful and difficult menstruation is termed: a. menorrhagia b. dysmenorrhea c. metrorrhagia d. amenorrhea

b. dysmenorrhea

Which of the following is a sex chromosome anomaly associated with hypogonadism and subnormal intelligence in males? a. down syndrome b. edwards syndrome c. klinefelter syndrome d. turner syndrome

b. edwards syndrome

The most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding is: a. endometrial carcinoma b. endometrial atrophy c. endometrial leiomyoma d. cervical carcinoma

b. endometrial atrophy

The inner mucosal lining of the uterus is the: a. myometrium b. endometrium c. serosal layer d. perimetrium

b. endometrium

What is a treatment that separates abnormal placental vascular connections between twins that are suffering from TTTS? a. cleavage-laser resection treatment b. endoscopic-guided laser photocoagulation c. endemic translocation of placental vessels d. circumvallate resection of shared placental vasculature

b. endoscopic-guided laser photocoagulation

All of the following are associated with spina bifida except: a. splaying of laminae b. enlarged posterior fossa c. lemon sign d. banana sign

b. enlarged posterior fossa

All of the following are common indications for a pelvic sonogram except: a. evaluation of congenital anomalies b. evaluation of pelvic anatomy immediately following a MVA c. localization of an IUD d. postmenopausal bleeding

b. evaluation of pelvic anatomy immediately following a MVA

Intrauterine growth restriction is defined as: a. small for dates fetus b. fetus that falls below 10th percentile for gestational age c. fetal that is immunocompromised and has decreased umbilical cord doppler ratios for gestational age d. fetus that fall below the 5th percentile for gestational age

b. fetus that falls below 10th percentile for gestational age

What is the opening located right anteromedially within the diaphragm? a. foramen of bochdalek b. foramen of morgagni c. foramen of monro d. foramen ovale

b. foramen of morgagni

All of the following are sonographic features of pentalogy of cantrell except: a. omphalocele b. gastroschisis c. cleft sternum d. diaphragmatic defect

b. gastroschisis

All of the following complications are associated with multiple gestations except: a. preterm delivery b. high birth weight c. maternal anemia d. maternal preeclampsia

b. high birth weight

Normal ovarian flow is said to be: a. low resistance during menstruation and high resistance during proliferative phase b. high resistance during menstruation and low resistance at time of ovulation c. low resistance d. high resistance

b. high resistance during menstruation and low resistance at time of ovulation

Which of the following is defined as excessive hair growth in women in areas where hair growth is normally negligible? a. dyspareunia b. hirsutism c. meig's syndrome d. polycystic ovary syndrome

b. hirsutism

What is the radiographic procedure used to evaluate the patency of the fallopian tube? a. sonohysterography b. hysterosalpingography c. hysteroscopy d. hysteroscopic fallopian septoplasty

b. hysterosalpingography

Having the same echogenicity means: a. anechoic b. isoechoic c. echogenic d. hypoechoic

b. isoechoic

What section of the uterus is also referred to as the lower uterine segment? a. cervix b. isthmus c. fundus d. cornu

b. isthmus

The malignant ovarian tumor with gastrointestinal origin is: a. brenner b. krukenberg c. yolk sac d. granulosa cell

b. krukenberg

the lack of sulci within the fetal cerebrum is a reliable indictor of: a. agenesis of corpus callosum b. lissencephaly c. schizencephaly d. porencephaly

b. lissencephaly

Which of the following would not be normally located within the midline of the fetal brain? a. CSP b. lobes of thalamus c. third ventricle d. falx cerebri

b. lobes of thalamus

The second phase of the ovarian cycle is called the: a. follicular phase b. luteal phase c. secretory phase d. proliferative phase

b. luteal phase

Fetal stool is termed: a. plicae b. meconium c. laguna d. lanugo

b. meconium

Which of the following would be best defined as abnormally heavy menstrual flow? a. menometrorrhagia b. menorrhagia c. metrorrhagia d. hypomenorrhea

b. menorrhagia

The inner layer of the wall of the fallopian tube is the: a. muscular layer b. mucosal layer c. myometrial layer d. serosal layer

b. mucosal layer

All of the following are associated with gastroschisis except: a. normal cord insertion b. multiple chromosomal abnormalities c. elevated MSAFP d. periumbilical mass

b. multiple chromosomal abnormalities

A patient presents to the sonography department with a hx of adenomyosis that was diagnosed via MRI. What are the most likely sonographic findings? a. complex, bilateral adnexal masses b. myometrial cysts with enlargement of the posterior uterine wall c. endometrial thinning and cervical dilation d. uterine atrophy with bilateral ovarian cysts

b. myometrial cysts with enlargement of the posterior uterine wall

The ovary is supplied blood by the: a. ovarian artery b. ovarian artery and uterine artery c. uterine artery d. arcuate artery

b. ovarian artery and uterine artery

The pelvic ligament that provides support to the ovary and extends from the ovary to the lateral surface of the uterus is the: a. cardinal ligament b. ovarian ligament c. broad ligament d. suspensory ligament of the ovary

b. ovarian ligament

All of the following adnexal masses may appear sonographically similar to a uterine leiomyoma except: a. thecome b. paraovarian cyst c. fibroma d. granulosa cell

b. paraovarian cyst

Duodenal atresia and esophageal atresia are associated with: a. oligohydramnios b. polyhydramnios c. normal amniotic fluid index d. anhydramnios

b. polyhydramnios

What is defined as frequent regular cycles but less than 21 days apart? a. hypomenorrhea b. polymenorrhea c. menorrhagia d. cryptomenorrhea

b. polymenorrhea

Fluid noted posterior to the uterus would most likely be located within the: a. Space of Retzius b. Pouch of Douglas c. Anterior cul-de-sac d. Adnexa

b. pouch of douglas

What condition is pregnancy-induced maternal high blood pressure and excess protein in the urine after 20 weeks gestation? a. gestational diabetes b. preeclampsia c. porencephaly d. maternal mirror syndrome

b. preeclampsia

Which of the following would increase the likelihood of a fetus developing sirenomelia and caudal regression syndrome? a. previous cesarean section b. preexisting maternal diabetes c. previous ectopic pregnancy d. elevated HcG

b. preexisting maternal diabetes

Which of the following would increase the likelihood of developing placenta previa? a. vaginal bleeding b. previous c-section c. corpus albicans d. chorioangioma

b. previous c-section

The corpus luteum primarily releases: a. estrogen b. progesterone c. LH d. FSH

b. progesterone

What hormone, produced by the corpus luteum, maintains the thickened endometrium? a. estrogen b. progesterone c. HcG d. LH

b. progesterone

Malignant ovarian tumors may leak mucinous material, and this condition is known as: a. dandy-walker syndrome b. pseduomyxoma peritonei c. asherman syndrome d. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome

b. pseduomyxoma peritonei

Which of the following would a newborn most likely suffer from if he or she were born prior to 32 weeks as a result of multiple gestation complications? a. ascites b. pulmonary hypoplasia c. amnionitis d. preeclampsia

b. pulmonary hypoplasia

The separate mass of nonfunctioning fetal lung tissue is: a. pulmonary adenomatoid malformation b. pulmonary sequestration c. CAM d. bat wing sign

b. pulmonary sequestration

Both the straight and spiral arteries are branches of the: a. common iliac artery b. radial artery c. arcuate artery d. external iliac artery

b. radial artery

What substance does hysterosalpingography utilize for the visualization of the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes? a. saline b. radiographic contrast c. water d. betadine

b. radiographic contrast

The twin that will appear larger in TTTS is the: a. donor b. recipient c. both will be the same d. both will be demised

b. recipient

The uterine arteries supply blood to all of the following except: a. fallopian tubes b. rectum c. ovaries d. uterus

b. rectum

Which of the following are the paired anterior abdominal muscles that extend from the xiphoid process of the sternum to the pubic bone? a. iliopsoas muscles b. rectus abdominis muscles c. obturator interni muscles d. piriformis muscles

b. rectus abdominis muscles

With Rh isoimmunization, the maternal antibodies cross the placenta a destroy the fetal: a. spleen b. red blood cells c. liver d. white blood cells

b. red blood cells

In what location does gastroschisis occur more often? a. left lateral of cord insertion b. right lateral of cord insertion c. just superior to fetal bladder d. base of umbilical cord

b. right lateral of cord insertion

The exaggerated distance between the first tow and the second toe is: a. trident toes b. sandal gap c. phocomelia d. mesomelia

b. sandal gap

The abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is referred to as: a. kyphosis b. scoliosis c. splaying d. achondroplasia

b. scoliosis

Which of the following is the most common malignancy of the ovary? a. cystic teratoma b. serous cystadenocarcinoma c. krukenberg d. sertoli-leydig cell

b. serous cystadenocarcinoma

A myelomeningocele is associated with: a. downs syndrome b. spina bifida c. edwards syndrome d. patau syndrome

b. spina bifida

The apperance of an ovarian dermoid tumor in which only the anterior elements of the mass can be seen, while the greater part of the mass is obscured by shadowing is consistent with: a. whirlpool sign b. tip of the iceberg sign c. dermoid mesh sign d. dermoid plug sign

b. tip of the iceberg sign

Which of the following are fetal rhabdomyomas associated with: a. tracheoesophageal fistulas b. tuberous sclerosis c. eventration of the diaphragm d. tuberculosis

b. tuberous sclerosis

Which of the following would be least likely associated with an elevation in MSAFP? a. anencephaly b. turner syndrome c. spina bifida d. myelomeningocele

b. turner syndrome

The demise of a twin during the second or third trimester can lead to: a. TTTS b. twin embolization syndrome c. twin peak sign d. acardiac twinning

b. twin embolization syndrome

All of the following would be associated with oligohydramnios except: a. bilateral MCDK disease b. unilateral renal agenesis c. bilateral renal agenesis d. ARPKD

b. unilateral renal agenesis

The group of fetal head and brain abnormalities that often coexist with spina bifida is referred to as: a. Dandy Walker Malformation b. Budd Chiari Syndrome c. Arnold-Chiari II Malformation d. Amniotic Bandy Syndrome

c. Arnold-Chiari II Malformation

Hepatomegaly would be seen in conjunction with: a. down syndrome b. edwards syndrome c. BWS d. hirschsprung disease

c. BWS

Macroglossia is most common found with: a. anencephaly b. holoprosencephaly c. BWS d. cystic hygroma

c. BWS

What is used as a tumor marker for endometrial carcinoma? a. CR-124 b. CE-125 c. CA-125 d. CA-45

c. CA-125

The earliest invasive fetal karyotyping technique that can be performed is: a. amniocentesis b. cordocentesis c. CVS d. PUBS

c. CVS

With what procedure is placental tissue obtained? a. amniocentesis b. cordocentesis c. CVS d. trophoblastic resection technique

c. CVS

There is a definite link between microtia and what syndrome? a. Rays syndrome b. VACTERL syndrome c. Down syndrome d. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome

c. Down syndrome

Tamoxifen has been linked with all of the following except: a. Endometrial polyps b. Endometrial hyperplasia c. Endometrial leiomyoma d. Endometrial carcinoma

c. Endometrial leiomyoma

What hormone plays a major role in the symptoms associated with menopause? a. HcG b. LH c. Estrogen d. CA-120

c. Estrogen

The hormone produced by the hypothalamus that controls the release of the hormones for menstruation by the anterior pituitary gland is: a. FSH b. estrogen c. GnRH d. LH

c. GnRH

The right ovarian vein drains directly into the: a. right renal vein b. aorta c. IVC d. common iliac vein

c. IVC

Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating ovarian volume? a. LxWxHx0.6243 b. LxWxHx0.3899 c. LxWxHx0.5233 d. Ovarian volume cannot be calculated

c. LxWxHx0.5233

Numerous noncommunicating anechoic masses are noted within the left renal fossa of a fetus at 20 weeks gestation. What is the most likely etiology of these masses? a. ARPKD b. ADPKD c. MCDK disease d. hydronephrosis

c. MCDK disease

What hormone maintains the thickness of the endometrium after ovulation? a. LH b. estrogen c. Progesterone d. FSH

c. Progesterone

Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome may also be referred to as: a. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome b. Plateau Syndrome c. Stein-Leventhal Syndrome d. Asherman Syndrome

c. Stein-Leventhal Syndrome

The reduction of blood return to the maternal heart caused by the gravid uterus compressing the maternal IVC describes: a. Edwards Syndrome b. Pulmonary Obstructive Syndrome c. Supine Hypotensive Syndrome d. Recumbent Hypotensive Syndrome

c. Supine Hypotensive Syndrome

What chromosomal aberration is most often associated with holoprosencephaly? a. Anophthalmia b. Trisomy 21 c. Trisomy 13 d. Trisomy 18

c. Trisomy 13

All of the following are proper techniques for providing patient care for patients during a pelvic sonogram except: a. all transducers and their cords should be cleaned before performing a pelvic sonogram b. endovaginal transducers should be cleaned with a high-level disinfectant c. a probe cover should be placed on the transducer for transabdominal imaging to prevent the spread of infection d. sterile jelly should be used as a lubricant for endovaginal imaging

c. a probe cover should be placed on the transducer for transabdominal imaging to prevent the spread of infection

Acardiac twinning results from: a. poor maternal nutrition b. dizygotic gestations c. abnormal links between placental vessels d. twin embolization syndrome

c. abnormal links between placental vessels

A succenturiate lobe of the placenta refers to a : a. bilobed placental lobe b. circumvallate placental lobe c. accessory lobe d. circummarginate placental lobe

c. accessory lobe

Absence of menstruation is referred to as: a. dysuria b. dysmenorrhea c. amenorrhea d. menorrhagia

c. amenorrhea

The inner membrane surrounding the fetus is referred to as the: a. placenta b. chorion c. amnion d. yolk sac

c. amnion

Which term relates the number of amniotic sacs? a. chorionicity b. placentation c. amnionicity d. embryology

c. amnionicity

The congential maldevelopment of the rectum and absence of anal opening is termed: a. jejunal atresia b. intussusception c. anorectal atresia d. duodenal atresia

c. anorectal atresia

Which of the following is considered to be the most common type of colonic atresia? a. duodenal atresia b. jejunal atresia c. anorectal atresia d. intussusception

c. anorectal atresia

The most common cause of hypertelorism is: a. DWM b. anecephaly c. anterior cephalocele d. holoprosencephaly

c. anterior cephalocele

the fourth ventricle is located: a. posterior to CSP b. between the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles c. anterior to the cerebellar vermis d. medial to third ventricle

c. anterior to the cerebellar vermis

The normal position of the uterus is: a. retroverted b. retroflexed c. anteverted d. dysverted

c. anteverted

The "keyhole" sign would be seen in all of the following situations except: a. urethral atresia b. prune bell syndrome c. autosomal dominant polycystic renal disease d. posterior urethral valves

c. autosomal dominant polycystic renal disease

The mitral valve is located: a. between the right atrium and left atrium b. between the right atrium and right ventricle c. between the left atrium and left ventricle d. between the left atrium and aorta

c. between the left atrium and left ventricle

The third ventricle is located: a. anterior to thalamus b. anterior to cerebellar vermis c. between the two lobes of the thalamus d. superior to corpus callosum

c. between the two lobes of the thalamus

Which of the following would be most likely associated with oligohydamnios? a. duodenal atresia b. hepatomegaly c. bilateral renal agenesis d. physiologic bowel herniation

c. bilateral renal agenesis

All of the following are sonographic findings consistent with ectopic pregnancy except: a. decidual thickening b. complex free fluid within the pelvis c. bilateral, multiloculated ovarian cysts d. complex adnexal mass separate from the ipsilateral ovary

c. bilateral, multiloculated ovarian cysts

Doppler assessment of the middle cerebral artery: a. helps to determine whether fetal anorexia is occurring b. is valuable in diagnosing the extent of ventriculomegaly c. can evaluate the fetus for hypoxia d. is important to determine whether TORCH complications are present

c. can evaluate the fetus for hypoxia

The fetal gut develops at the end of the 5th menstrual week and can be divided into all of the following except: a. midgut b. foregut c. centralgut d. hindgut

c. centralgut

The rigid region of the uterus located between the vagina and the isthmus is the: a. cornu b. corpus c. cervix d. fundus

c. cervix

What is another name for an endometrioma? a. dermoid b. tertoma c. chocolate cyst d. string of pearl

c. chocolate cyst

The most common placental tumor is the: a. choriocarcinoma b. maternal lake c. chorioangioma d. allantoic cyst

c. chorioangioma

What are the fingerlike projections of gestational tissue that attach to the decidualized endometrium? a. decidua capsularis b. decidua vera c. chorionic villi d. placental substance

c. chorionic villi

Hairlike projections within the fallopian tube are called: a. interstitia b. fimbria c. cilia d. peristalsis

c. cilia

Enlargement of the frontal horns and narrowing of the occipital horns is termed: a. holoprosencephaly b. DWM c. colpocephaly d. apert syndrome

c. colpocephaly

The condition in which the frontal horns are small and the occipital horns are enlarged is referred to as: a. ethmocephaly b. hydrocephalus c. colpocephaly d. encephalitis

c. colpocephaly

Which structure remains after the corpus luteum has regressed? a. theca luteal cyst b. corpus luteum of pregnancy c. corpus albicans d. cumulus oophorus

c. corpus albicans

After the graafian follicle ruptures, the remaining structure is termed the: a. graafian remnant b. corpus albicans c. corpus luteum d. theca lutein cyst

c. corpus luteum

A 25 year-old presents with pelvic pain, dyspareunia, and oligomenorrhea. An ovarian mass, thought to be a chocolate cyst, is noted during the exam. Which of the following is consistent with the sonographic appearance of a chocolate cyst? a. simple-appearing anechoic mass b. echogenic mass with posterior shadowing c. cystic mass with low-level echoes d. anechoic mass with posterior shadowing

c. cystic mass with low-level echoes

The maternal contribution to the placenta is the: a. chorionic vera b. decidua vera c. decidua basalis d. chorion frondosum

c. decidua basalis

Twins having two placentas and two amniotic sacs are referred to as: a. monochorionic, diamniotic b. biamniotic dichorionic c. dichorionic, diamnoitic d. dichorionic, biamniotic

c. dichorionic, diamnoitic

Pyelectasis refers to: a. enlargement of urinary bladder, ureter, and renal calices b. dilation of ureter c. dilation of renal pelvis d. enlargement of ureter only

c. dilation of renal pelvis

All of the following are sonographic features of alobar holoprosencephaly except: a. cyclopia b. monoventricle c. dorsal cyst d. fused thalamus

c. dorsal cyst

Nuchal thickening is most commonly associated with: a. patau syndrome b. hydranencephaly c. down syndrome d. cebocephaly

c. down syndrome

What is another name for the most common chromosomal abnormality? a. edwards syndrome b. triploidy c. down syndrome d. turner syndrome

c. down syndrome

With which of the following syndromes is brachycephaly associated most often? a. edwards syndrome b. patau syndrome c. down syndrome d. turner syndrome

c. down syndrome

Congenital maldevelopment of the proximal portion of the small intestine is termed: a. VACTERL association b. esophageal atresia c. duodenal atresia d. jejunal atresia

c. duodenal atresia

Which of the following is defined as pain during intercourse? a. dysuria b. dysmenorrhea c. dyspareunia d. hirsutism

c. dyspareunia

Cloacal exstrophy is associated with all of the following except: a. omphalocele b. spina bifida c. encephalocele d. imperforate anus

c. encephalocele

Asherman syndrome is associated with: a. uterine leiomyoma b. endometrial polyps c. endometrial adhesions d. ovarian fibroma

c. endometrial adhesions

A 68 year old patient complains of bleeding. The most likely cause is: a. endometrial carcinoma b. endometrial polyps c. endometrial atrophy d. endometrial fibroids

c. endometrial atrophy

Endometrial hyperplasia may be caused by all of the following except: a. HRT b. ERT c. endometrial atrophy d. tamoxifen

c. endometrial atrophy

The most common female genital tract malignancy is: a. ovarian carcinoma b. cervical carcinoma c. endometrial carcinoma d. PID

c. endometrial carcinoma

Which hormone released by the ovary during the proliferative phase stimulates endometrial thickening? a. FSH b. LH c. estrogen d. progesterone

c. estrogen

The inferior portion of the cervix closest to the vagina is the: a. cornu b. internal os c. external os d. inferior fornix

c. external os

Bladder exstrophy describes: a. absence of cloaca b. protrusion of bladder into umbilicus c. external position of bladder d. enlargement of bladder

c. external position of bladder

A coexisting pericardial effusion and a pleural effusion is consistent with the diagnosis of: a. tetralogy of fallot b. pentalogy of cantrell c. fetal hydrops d. potter syndrome

c. fetal hydrops

All of the following are associated with a thin placenta except: a. preeclampsia b. IUGR c. fetal hydrops d. long standing diabetes

c. fetal hydrops

Which of the following would likely be confused for a pedunculated fibroid because of its solid appearing structure? a. serous cystadenoma b. mucinous cystadenoma c. fibroma d. theca lutein cyst

c. fibroma

With what ovarian tumor is Meigs syndrome association with? a. dysgerminoma b. cystic teratoma c. fibroma d. yolk sac tumor

c. fibroma

What is the maternal dietary supplement that has been shown to significantly reduce the likelihood of the fetus suffering from a neural tube defect? a. AFP b. estroil c. folate d. pregnancy protein A

c. folate

What is the normal opening in the lower middle third of the atrial septum? a. foramen of magendie b. foramen of monro c. foramen ovale d. ductus arteriosus

c. foramen ovale

The recesses of the vagina are: a. cornu b. isthmi c. fornices d. parity

c. fornices

The layer of the endometrium that is significantly altered as a result of hormonal stimulation during the menstrual cycle is the: a. myometrium b. endometrial cavity c. functional layer d. basal layer

c. functional layer

What structure may be noted on the ovary just prior to ovulation? a. corpus albicans b. corpus luteum c. graafian follicle d. blastocyst

c. graafian follicle

Ovulation induction drugs not only increase the likelihood of multiple gestations, but also increase the likelihood of: a. maternal diabetes b. ovarian prolapse c. heterotopic pregnancies d. choriocarcinoma

c. heterotopic pregnancies

Another name for pelvocaliectasis is: a. caliectasis b. hydrocele c. hydronephrosis d. pyonephrosis

c. hydronephrosis

A group of anomalies characterized by a small or absent left ventricle: a. turner syndrome b. hypoplastic right heart c. hypoplastic left heart d. coarctation of the aorta

c. hypoplastic left heart

What is a gynecologic procedure to remove an endometrial polyp? a. hysterectomy with myomectomy b. histogram with myomectomy c. hysteroscopy with polypectomy d. hysteroscopy with polyp myomectomy

c. hysteroscopy with polypectomy

The vagina is located ___ to the uterus. a. anterior b. posterior c. inferior d. medial

c. inferior

The uterine artery branches off of the: a. abdominal aorta b. uterine plexus c. internal iliac artery d. external iliac artery

c. internal iliac artery

The superior portion of the cervix is the: a. cornu b. corpus c. internal os d. external os

c. internal os

Fetal TORCH is frequently associated with: a. maternal hypertension b. TTTS c. intracranial calcifications d. renal cystic disease

c. intracranial calcifications

Which of the following would be most difficult to detect sonographically? a. cleft lip and cleft palate b. isolated cleft lip c. isolated cleft palate d. isolated median cleft

c. isolated cleft palate

What ovarian tumor will most likely have a moth-eaten appearance sonographically? a. cystic teratoma b. serous cystadenocarcinoma c. krukenberg d. sertoli-leydig cell

c. krukenberg

Amenorrhea is defined as: a. the first menstrual cycle b. excessive bleeding after the cycle c. lack of menstrual flow d. painful menstrual flow

c. lack of menstrual flow

Which of the following is located on both sides of the midline cranium? a. interhemispheric fissures b. third and fourth ventricles c. lateral ventricles d. third ventricle and cerebral aqueduct

c. lateral ventricles

The true pelvis is delineated from the false pelvis by the: a. space of retzius b. adnexa c. linea terminalis d. iliac crest

c. linea terminalis

In the TPAL designation, the "L" refers to: a. living children b. lethal anomalies c. live births d. lost pregnancies

c. live births

All of the following are sonographic findings of esophageal atresia except: a. absent stomach b. polyhydramnios c. macrosomia d. intrauterine growth restriction

c. macrosomia

A structural abnormality that results from an abnormal development describes: a. syndrome b. chromosomal deviation c. malformation d. congenital misrepresentation

c. malformation

Insertion of the umbilical cord at the edge of the placenta is referred to as: a. velamentous cord insertion b. partial cord insertion c. marginal cord insertion d. nuchal cord insertion

c. marginal cord insertion

A cisterna magna that measure 15mm and a normal appearing cerebellum is most likely: a. Arnold-Chiari II malformation b. schizencephlay c. mega cisterna mega d. DWM

c. mega cisterna mega

Sirenomelia is common referred to as: a. radial ray defect b. rhizomelia c. mermaid syndrome d. rockerbottom feet

c. mermaid syndrome

What is the most common fetal renal tumor? a. neuroblastoma b. nephroblastoma c. mesoblastic nephroma d. wilms tumor

c. mesoblastic nephroma

A normal shaped skull is termed: a. dolichocephaly b. brachycephaly c. mesocephaly d. scaphocephaly

c. mesocephaly

A small mandible is termed: a. macroglossia b. epignathus c. micrognathia d. ethmocephaly

c. micrognathia

What is the term for a smaller than normal ear? a. microphthalmia b. micronatia c. microtia d. micrognathia

c. microtia

The surgical removal of a fibroid is termed: a. hysterosonogram b. total abdominal hysterectomy c. myomectomy d. uterine artery embolization

c. myomectomy

What would be most likely confused for a uterine leiomyoma? a. placental infarct b. chorioangioma c. myometrial contraction d. placenta previa

c. myometrial contraction

The anechoic space along the posterior aspect of the fetal neck is the: a. nuchal fold b. nuchal cord c. nuchal translucency d. rhombencephalon

c. nuchal translucency

The muscle located lateral to the ovaries is the: a. iliopsoas muscle b. rectus abdominis muscle c. obturator internus muscle d. piriformis muscle

c. obturator internus muscle

What would be a predisposing condition that would increase the risk for suffering from ovarian torsion? a. hirsutism b. excessive exercise c. ovarian mass d. sonohysterography

c. ovarian mass

A 24 year-old female presents with severe RLQ pain, nausea, and vomiting. The exam reveals an enlarged ovary with no detectable doppler signal. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. ovarian cystadenocarcinoma b. cystic teratoma c. ovarian torsion d. endometriosis

c. ovarian torsion

What abnormality results from the ovary twisting on its mesenteric connection? a. PID b. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome c. ovarian torsion d. ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

c. ovarian torsion

What structure produces hormones that directly act upon the endometrium to produce varying thicknesses and sonographic appearances? a. hypothalamus b. adrenal gland c. ovary d. uterus

c. ovary

Which of the following locations for an ectopic pregnancy would be least likely? a. isthmus of tube b. ampulla of tube c. ovary d. interstital of tube

c. ovary

What leiomyoma location would have an increased risk to undergo torsion? a. subserosal b. intracavitary c. pedunculated d. submucosal

c. pedunculated

One of the most common causes of painless vaginal bleeding in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters is: a. spontaneous abortion b. abruptio placentae c. placenta previa d. placenta accreta

c. placenta previa

All of the following are associated with a thick placenta except: a. fetal infections b. RH isoimmunization c. placental insufficiency d. multiple gestations

c. placental insufficiency

The sonographic "bat-wing" sign is indicative of: a. pericardial effusion b. pulmonary atresia c. pleural effusion d. endocardial cushion defects

c. pleural effusion

Factors that increase the likelihood of having multiple gestations include all of the following except: a. advanced maternal age b. ovulation induction drugs c. poor nutritional state d. maternal predisposition for twins

c. poor nutritional state

Another name for the rectouterine pouch is the: a. space of retzius b. pouch of retzius c. pouch of douglas d. anterior CDS

c. pouch of douglas

What is considered the most dependent part of the peritoneal cavity? a. space of retzius b. anterior CDS c. pouch of douglas d. rectovessicular pouch

c. pouch of douglas

What is the term for conjoined twins attached at the sacral region? a. sacralpagus b. omphalopagus c. pyopagus d. thoracopagus

c. pyopagus

Absence of the radius is referred to: a. talipes equinovarus b. clubfoot c. radial ray defect d. phocomelia

c. radial ray defect

Failure of the kidneys to form is called: a. hydronephrosis b. renal dysplasia c. renal agenesis d. renal ectopia

c. renal agenesis

The moderator band is located within the: a. right atrium b. left atrium c. right ventricle d. left ventricle

c. right ventricle

The optimal scan plane to visualize micrognathia is: a. transverse b. axial c. sagittal d. coronal

c. sagittal

The development of fluid-filled cleft within the cerebrum is consistent with: a. holoprosencephaly b. lissencephaly c. schizencephaly d. hydraencephaly

c. schizencephaly

Rhizomelia denotes: a. long upper extremities b. shortening of an entire limb c. shortening of the proximal segment of a limb d. shortening of the distal segment of a limb

c. shortening of the proximal segment of a limb

What condition is associated with bilateral renal agenesis, olioghydraminos, and fusion of the lower extremities? a. SCT b. caudal regression syndrome c. sirenomelia d. osteogenesis imperfecta

c. sireonmelia

The "S" in the STAR criteria stands for? a. simple b. sound c. smooth walls d. septations

c. smooth walls

What term is defined as fusion of the digits? a. clinodactyly b. polydactyly c. syndactyly d. rhizodactyly

c. syndactyly

The breast cancer treatment drug that may alter the sonographic appearance of the endometrium is: a. progesterone b. estrogenate c. tamoxifen d. CA-125

c. tamoxifen

Which of the following is an estrogen-producing ovarian tumor? a. cystic teratoma b. fibroma c. thecoma d. endometrioma

c. thecoma

Which of the following ovarian tumors would be most likely to cause postmenopausal bleeding: a. cystic teratoma b. endometrioma c. thecoma d. fibroma

c. thecoma

The cisterna magna should not exceed ___ in the transcerebellar plane. a. 4mm b. 2mm c. 8mm d. 10mm

d. 10mm

NT measurements are typically obtained between: a. 1-5 weeks b. 5-8 weeks c. 8-11 weeks d. 11-14 weeks

d. 11-14 weeks

Normally, physiologic bowel herniation resolves by: a. 8 weeks b. 10 weeks c. 24 weeks d. 12 weeks

d. 12 weeks

The normal gestational sac will grow: a. 2mm per day b. 3mm per day c. 1cm per day d. 1mm per day

d. 1mm per day

The normal umbilical cord has: a. 1 vein, 1 artery b. 2 veins, 2 arteries c. 2 veins, 1 artery d. 2 arteries, 1 vein

d. 2 arteries, 1 vein

The average menstrual cycle lasts: a. 45 days b. 24 days c. 26 days d. 28 days

d. 28 days

Assisted reproductive therapy can result in all of the following except: a. heterotopic pregnancy b. multiple gestations c. OHS d. Asherman Syndrome

d. Asherman Syndrome

The growth disorder syndrome synonymous with organ, skull, and tongue enlargement is: a. klinefelter syndrome b. apert syndrome c. meckel-gruber syndrome d. BWS

d. BWS

The fetal contribution to the placenta is the: a. Chorionic vera b. Decidua vera c. Decidua basalis d. Chorion frondosum

d. Chorion frondosum

What cerebral malformation is a result of agenesis or hypoplasia of cerebellar vermis? a. Arnold-Chiari II malformation b. Schizencephaly c. mega cisterna magna d. DWM

d. DWM

The hormone produced by the trophoblastic cells of the early placenta is: a. estrogen b. FSH c. LH d. HcG

d. HcG

The trophoblastic cells produce: a. estrogen b. progesterone c. FSH d. HcG

d. HcG

What hormone maintains the corpus luteum during pregnancy? a. estrogen b. progesterone c. FSH d. HcG

d. HcG

Which hormone maintains the corpus luteum during pregnancy? a. FSH b. LH c. progesterone d. HcG

d. HcG

The location of a fibroid within the myometrium is termed: a. Submucosal b. Intracavitary c. Subserosal d. Intramural

d. Intramural

Pools of maternal blood noted within the placental substance are referred to as: a. Accessory lobes b. Decidual casts c. Chorioangiomas d. Maternal lakes

d. Maternal lakes

Which of the following may aslo be referred to as Turner syndrome? a. Down Syndrome b. Trisomy 15 c. Trisomy 13 d. Monosomy X

d. Monosomy X

A female patient with a history of clomid treatment is complaining of nausea, vomiting and abdominal distension. What circumstance is most likely causing her clinical symptoms? a. Stein-Leventhal Syndrome b. PCOS c. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome d. OHS

d. OHS

The quadruple screen includes an analysis of all the following except: a. HcG b. AFP c. Inhibin A d. PAPP-A

d. PAPP-A

A 26 year-old presents with a history of infertility and oligomenorrhea. Sonographically you discover that the ovaries are enlarged and contain multiple, small follicles along their periphery, with prominent echogenic stromal elements. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. ovarian torsion b. OHS c. PID d. PCOS

d. PCOS

Which of the following would be the least likely to cause abdominal distension? a. ascites b. multiple leiomyoma c. ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome d. PCOS

d. PCOS

Leiomyomas that project from a stalk are termed: a. Submucosal b. Intramural c. Subserosal d. Pedunculated

d. Pedunculated

Excessive hair growth in women in areas which hair growth is normally negligible would be seen with: a. ectopic pregnancy b. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome c. Asherman Syndrome d. Stein-Leventhal Syndrome

d. Stein-Leventhal Syndrome

Which of the following is not a sonographic sign of a dichorionic diamniotic gestation? a. twin peak sign b. lambda sign c. delta sign d. T sign

d. T sign

Which of the following statements is not true concerning transabdominal pelvic imaging? a. TA imaging of the pelvis provides a global view of the entire pelvis b. TA imaging lacks the detail of endovaginal imaging c. obese patients and patients with a retroverted or retroflexed uterus present a unique challenge to the TA technique d. TA imaging is contraindicated for pediatric patients

d. TA imaging is contraindicated for pediatric patients

A clover-leaf shaped skull is related to: a. Trisomy 21 b. Meckel-Gruber Syndrome c. Trisomy 13 d. Thanatophoric dysplasia

d. Thanatophoric dysplasia

The most frequently encountered chromosomal abnormality associated with holoprosencephaly is: a. Triploidy b. Trisomy 21 c. Trisomy 18 d. Trisomy 13

d. Trisomy 13

Which of the following is also referred to as Patau Syndrome? a. Trisomy 18 b. Trisomy 21 c. Trisomy 12 d. Trisomy 13

d. Trisomy 13

Micrognathia is a condition found in: a. DWM b. Hydranencephaly c. BWS d. Trisomy 18

d. Trisomy 18

All of the following are associated with duodenal atresia except: a. trisomy 21 b. esophageal atresia c. VACTERL association d. Turner Syndrome

d. Turner Syndrome

Monosomy X refers to: a. Edwards syndrome b. Patau syndrome c. Down syndrome d. Turner syndrome

d. Turner syndrome

Webbing of the neck and short stature is found in infertile female patients with a history of: A. trisomy 21 B. Triploidy c. trisomy 13 d. Turner syndrome

d. Turner syndrome

Which of the following is considered to be the most common cardiac defect? a. hypoplastic right heart b. transposition of the great vessels c. hypoplastic left heart d. VSD

d. VSD

Which of the following is not a component of prune bell syndrome? a. megacystis b. undescended testis c. dilated urinary bladder and urethra d. abdominal muscle hypertrophy

d. abdominal muscle hypertrophy

Achondroplasia is associated with all of the following except: a. frontal bossing b. flattened nasal bridge c. trident hand d. absent mineralization of the skull

d. absent mineralization of the skull

The most common site of fertilization is within the: a. isthmus of the uterine tube b. uterine fundus c. cornu of the uterine tube d. ampulla of uterine tube

d. ampulla of uterine tube

A cystic hygroma is the result of: a. alcohol consumption in the first trimester b. an abnormal development of the roof of the fourth ventricle c. occlusion of the internal carotid arteries d. an abnormal accumulation of lymphatic fluid within the soft tissue

d. an abnormal accumulation of lymphatic fluid within the soft tissue

Which of the following findings would not increase the likelihood of an ovarian malignancy? a. septation measuring >3mm in thickness b. irregular borders c. solid wall nodule d. anechoic components with acoustic enhancement

d. anechoic components with acoustic enhancement

The absence of the eyes is: a. agyria b. epignathus c. hypotelorism d. anophthalmia

d. anophthalmia

FSH is produced by the: a. ovary b. endometrium c. hypothalamus d. anterior pituitary gland

d. anterior pituitary gland

LH is produced by the: a. ovary b. endometrium c. hypothalamus d. anterior pituitary gland

d. anterior pituitary gland

The third ventricle communicates with the fourth ventricle at the: a. foramen of magendie b. foramen of luschka c. foramen of monro d. aqueduct of sylvius

d. aqueduct of sylvius

The most common cause of hydrocephalus in utero is: a. cerebral hemorrhage b. holoprosencephaly c. brain tumors d. aqueductal stenosis

d. aqueductal stenosis

The peripheral arteries of the uterus are the: a. radial arteries b. spiral arteries c. straight arteries d. arcuate arteries

d. arcuate arteries

What abnormality results in limitation of the fetal limbs as a result of joint contractures? a. acromegaly b. radial ray defect c. achondrogenesis d. arthrogryposis

d. arthrogryposis

All of the following are associated with polyhydramnios except: a. omphalocele b. gastroschisis c. esophageal atresia d. bilateral MCKD

d. bilateral MCKD

Pseudoprecocious puberty may be associated with all of the following except: a. ovarian tumor b. adrenal tumor c. liver tumor d. brain tumor

d. brain tumor

in VACTERL association, the C stands for: a. Cerebellar b. c-spine c. cranial d. cardiac

d. cardiac

During a 12-week sonogram, bilateral echogenic structures are noted within the lateral ventricles of the fetal cranium. These structures most likely represent: a. cerebral tumors b. cerebral hemorrhage c. anencephalic remnants d. choriod plexus

d. choriod plexus

OEIS complex is also referred to as: a. Bladder exstrophy b. omphalocele c. potter syndrome d. cloacal exstrophy

d. cloacal exstrophy

All of the following are sonographic findings consistent with adenomyosis except: a. diffuse, enlarged uterus b. myometrial cysts c. hypoechoic areas adjacent to the endometrium d. complex adnexal mass

d. complex adnexal mass

The area of attachment of the fallopian tubes to the uterus is the: a. fundus b. corpus c. isthmus d. cornua

d. cornua

Endometrial polyps are associated with all of the following except: a. intermenstrual bleeding b. tamoxifen therapy c. prolapse through the cervix d. coronary heart disease

d. coronary heart disease

The most common pelvic mass associated with pregnancy is: a. uterine leiomyoma b. dermoid cyst c. theca lutein cyst d. corpus luteum cyst

d. corpus luteum cyst

Which of the following does not occur as a result of menopause? a. uterine atrophy b. decreased sexual libido c. accumulation of fat in the breasts d. cystic enlargement of the ovaries

d. cystic enlargement of the ovaries

The maternal serum screening of a mother with a fetus with trisomy 18 will reveal: a. decreased hCG, elevated AFP, normal estriol b. increased hCG, AFP & estriol c. increased hCG & AFP, decreased estriol d. decreased hCG, AFP & estriol

d. decreased hCG, AFP & estriol

The term that indicates the presence of two separate amniotic sacs is: a. dichorionic b. bichorionic c. monoamniotic d. diamniotic

d. diamniotic

Typically the first sonographic manifestation of TTTS is: a. oligohydramnios b. polyhydraminos c. dichorionic twinning d. discordant fetal growth

d. discordant fetal growth

A 38-year-old pregnant women presents with an abnormal maternal serum screening. Her AFP and estriol are low, whereas her hCG is elevated. These lab findings are more consistent with: a. edwards syndrome b. patau syndrome c. triploidy d. down syndrome

d. down syndrome

All of the following are associated with oligohydramnios except: a. bilateral renal agenesis b. infantile polycystic kidney disease c. premature rupture of membranes d. duodenal atresia

d. duodenal atresia

Which of the following is the most common renal anomaly? a. horseshoe kidney b. pelvic kidneys c. renal agenesis d. duplex collecting system

d. duplex collecting system

The condition in which the heart is located outside the chest wall is termed? a. CAM b. coarctation of the aorta c. cardiac sequestration d. ectopic cordis

d. ectopic cordis

A 35 year-old has a history of tubal ligation and a positive pregnancy test. What condition should be highly suspected? a. Asherman syndrome b. PCOS c. endometriosis d. ectopic pregnancy

d. ectopic pregnancy

Unopposed estrogen therapy has been shown to increase the risk for developing: a. alzheimer disease b. colon cancer c. coronary heart disease d. endometrial carcinoma

d. endometrial carcinoma

A 67 year old on HRT has abnormal bleeding. The endometrium is diffusely thickened, containing small cystic areas, and measures 9mm. The most likely cause of her bleeding is: a. endometrial atrophy b. asherman syndrome c. endometrial thecoma d. endometrial hyperplasia

d. endometrial hyperplasia

The double fold of dura mater that divides the cerebral hemispheres is the: a. cerebellum b. CSP c. corpus callosum d. falx cerebri

d. falx cerebri

The majority of amniotic fluid is composed of: a. fetal blood b. fetal serous fluid c. maternal serous fluid d. fetal urine

d. fetal urine

The first phase of the ovarian cycle is the: a. luteal phase b. secretory phase c. proliferative phase d. follicular phase

d. follicular phase

The most common form of diaphragmatic hernia is the: a. foramen of morgagni b. foramen of magendie c. foramen of lushcka d. foramen of bochdalek

d. foramen of bochdalek

The most superior and widest portion of the uterus is the: a. corpus b. isthmus c. cervix d. fundus

d. fundus

All of the following are clinical features of placental abruption except: a. vaginal bleeding b. uterine tenderness c. abdominal pain d. funneling of the cervix

d. funneling of the cervix

Hepatomegaly would least likely be associated with: a. BWS b. fetal anemia c. intrauterine infections d. gastroschisis

d. gastroschisis

Pentalogy of Cantrell includes all of the following findings except: a. cardiovascular malformations b. diaphragmatic malformations c. omphalocele d. gastroschisis

d. gastroschisis

Another name for the chorionic sac is the: a. chorionic cavity b. extraembryonic coelom c. amniotic sac d. gestational sac

d. gestational sac

What term relates to the number of pregnancies a patient has had? a. para b. menarche c. menorrhagia d. gravida

d. gravida

A 13 year-old girl presents to the sonography department with a history of cyclic pain, abdominal swelling and amenorrhea. Sonographically, you visualize an enlarged uterus and a distended vagina that contains anechoic fluid with debris. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. cervical stenosis b. adenomyosis c. endometriosis d. hematocolpos

d. hematocolpos

What is the anomaly of the spine in which there is absence of all or part of a vertebral body and posterior element? a. kyphosis b. scoliosis c. kyphoscoliosis d. hemivertebra

d. hemivertebra

the most common abnormality of the fetal liver is: a. gallstones b. hepatocellular lymphadenopathy c. cirrhosis d. hepatomegaly

d. hepatomegaly

All of the following are associated with omphalocele except: a. trisomy 18 b. pentalogy of cantrell c. intrauterine growth restriction d. hirschprung disease

d. hirschprung disease

A functional bowel disorder within the fetus that is caused by the absence of intestinal nerves is: a. gastroschisis b. BWS c. omphalocele d. hirschsprung disease

d. hirschsprung disease

The most distal part of the fallopian tube is the: a. cornu b. ampulla c. interstitial d. infundibulum

d. infundibulum

The left ovarian vein drains directly into the: a. right renal vein b. inferior vena cava c. aorta d. left renal vein

d. left renal vein

An EIF is most often seen within the: a. right atrium b. left atrium c. right ventricle d. left ventricle

d. left ventricle

Tetralogy of fallot consists of all of the following except: a. overriding aortic root b. VSD c. pulmonary stenosis d. left ventricular hypertrophy

d. left ventricular hypertrophy

Which of the following would be least likely associated with immune hydrops? a. fetal hepatomegaly b. fetal splenomegaly c. anasarca d. leiomyoma

d. leiomyoma

All of the following may be sonographic findings in the presence of an ectopic pregnancy except: a. pseudogestational sac b. corpus luteum cyst c. adnexal ring d. low beta-HcG

d. low beta-HcG

Which of the following is the most likely metastatic location for GTD? a. rectum b. pancreas c. spleen d. lungs

d. lungs

The thalamic tissue located in within the third ventricle of the brain that can become enlarged with Arnold-Chiari II malformation is: A. corpus callosum B. cerebellar vermis C. cavum septum pellucidum D. massa intermedia

d. massa intermedia

Measurement of the endometrium should include a. the uterine cavity only b. deep myometrial echoes and both basal layers c. the distance from basal layer to functional layer d. measure from basal layer to basal layer

d. measure from basal layer to basal layer

An omphalocele is associated with all of the following except: a. pentalogy of cantrell b. trisomy 18 c. patau syndrome d. meconium aspiration syndrome

d. meconium aspiration syndrome

Cessation of menstruation with advanced age is termed: a. asherman disease b. premenopausal syndrome c. perimenopausal syndrome d. menopause

d. menopause

What is often used to medically treat an ectopic pregnancy? a. dilation and curettage b. dilation and evacuation c. open surgery d. methotrexate

d. methotrexate

What fetal suture is located within the frontal bone along the midline of the forehead? a. squamosal suture b. sagittal suture c. lambdoidal suture d. metopic suture

d. metopic suture

Which of the following is best defined as intermenstrual bleeding? a. dysmenorrhea b. menorrhagia c. menometrorrhagia d. metrorrhagia

d. metrorrhagia

Twins having one placenta and one amniotic sac are referred to as: a. dichorionic, monoamniotic b. dichorionic, diamniotic c. monochorionic, diamniotic d. monochorionic, monoamniotic

d. monochorionic, monoamniotic

The malignant ovarian mass that is associated with pseudomyxoma peritonei is the: a. dysgerminoma b. sertoli-leydig cell c. serous cystadenocarcinoma d. mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

d. mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

All of the following are associated with esophageal atresia except: a. down syndrome b. VACTERL association c. edwards syndrome d. oligohydraminos

d. oligohydraminos

Sonographic findings of Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome (OHS) include all of the following except: a. cystic enlargement of the ovaries b. ascites c. pleural effusion d. oliguria

d. oliguria

The normal heart will fill approximately ___ of the fetal chest. a. one half b. one fourth c. one fifth d. one third

d. one third

A bell-shaped chest and multiple fetal fractures are indicative of: a. thanatophoric dysplasia b. caudal regression syndrome c. achondrogenesis d. osteogenesis imperfecta

d. osteogenesis imperfecta

Upon sonographic interrogation of a 28 week pregnancy, you note that when pressure is applied to the fetal skull, the skull can be easily distorted. This is sonographic evidence of: a. arnold-chiari ii malformation b. achondroplasia c. thanatophoric dysplasia d. osteogenesis imperfecta

d. osteogenesis imperfecta

Stein-Leventhal syndrome is related to all of the following except: a. infertility b. anovulatory cycles c. hirsutism d. ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

d. ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

Which of the following would not be a cause of AUB? a. endometrial hyperplasia b. hypothryoidism c. adenomyosis d. ovarian torsion

d. ovarian torsion

During a sonogram, you visualize a small cyst located adjacent to the ovary. What is the most likely etiology of this cyst? a. dermoid cyst b. ovarian cystadenoma c. endometrioma d. paraovarian cyst

d. paraovarian cyst

Fusion of the orbits and holoprosencephaly are associated with: a. edwards syndrome b. turner syndrome c. down syndrome d. patau syndrome

d. patau syndrome

Which of the following is also referred to as trisomy 13? a. down syndrome b. edwards syndrome c. turner syndrome d. patau syndrome

d. patau syndrome

The muscles that may be confused with the ovaries on a pelvic sonogram include the: a. rectus abdominis and obturator internus muscles b. levator ani and coccygeus muscles c. obturator internus and levator ani muscles d. piriformis and iliopsoas muscles

d. piriformis and iliopsoas muscles

The bilateral muscles that are located posterior to and extend from the sacrum to the femoral greater trochanter are the: a. levator ani muscles b. rectus abdominis muscles c. obturator internus muscles d. piriformis muscles

d. piriformis muscles

Penetration of the placenta beyond the uterine wall would be referred to as: a. placenta accrete b. placenta increta c. placenta previa d. placenta percreta

d. placenta percreta

Following an intracranial hemorrhage, a cyst is noted within the cerebrum that communicates with the lateral ventricle. This is referred to as: a. schizencephaly b. lissencephaly c. holoprosencephaly d. porencephaly

d. porencephaly

What is the term for underdevelopment of the lungs? a. pulmonary atresia b. pulmonary stenosis c. pulmonary agenesis d. pulmonary hypoplasia

d. pulmonary hypoplasia

Which of the following is not a potential cause of PID? a. intrauterine contraception use b. postabortion c. chlamydia d. pyelonephritis

d. pyelonephritis

Possible benefits of ERT include all of the following except: a. reduction in osteoporosis risk b. reduction in colon cancer risk c. reduction in heart disease risk d. reduction in endometrial cancer risk

d. reduction in endometrial cancer risk

Obstruction at the level of the UPJ would lead to dilation of the: a. renal pelvis and bladder b. bladder and ureter c. ureter and renal pelvis d. renal pelvis and calices

d. renal pelvis and calices

What other term is used to describe the space of Retzius? a. posterior CDS b. anterior CDS c. murphy pouch d. retropubic space

d. retropubic space

What ovarian mass is associated with virilization? a. krukenberg b. cystic teratoma c. serous cystadenoma d. sertoli-leydig cell

d. sertoli-leydig cell

What artifact would be seen posterior to a tooth within a cystic teratoma? a. ring-down b. reverberation c. through transmission d. shadowing

d. shadowing

All of the following are clinical findings consistent with a complete molar pregnancy except: a. vaginal bleeding b. hypertension c. uterine enlargement d. small for dates

d. small for dates

The arteries within the functional layer of the endometrium that are altered by the hormones of the ovary and are shed with menstruation are the: a. arcuate arteries b. radial arteries c. straight arteries d. spiral arteries

d. spiral arteries

All of the following are sonographic findings of Arnold-Chiari II malformation except: a. enlarged massa intermedia b. hydrocephalus c. obliteration of cisterna magna d. strawberry sign

d. strawberry sign

What is it called when a twin fetus, suffering from TTTS, experiences severe oligohydramnios and becomes closely adhered to the uterine wall? a. acardiac monster b. vanishing twin c. acardiac twin d. stuck twin

d. stuck twin

A cloverleaf skull and hydrocephalus is seen with: a. achondrogenesis b. osteogenesis imperfecta c. sirenomelia d. thanatophoric dysplasia

d. thatophoric dysplasia

Which of the following is a true statement about the fetal heart? a. the apex of the heart will be angled to the right of the midline b. the apex of the heart is the portion closest to the spine c. the normal fetal heart will fill approximately 2/3 of fetal chest d. the chamber closest to fetal spine is the left atrium

d. the chamber closest to fetal spine is the left atrium

Which of the following is not a true statement about the normal fetal heart? a. ventricular septum should be uninterrupted and of equal thickness to the left ventricular wall b. there is a normal opening within the atrial septum c. between the right ventricle and the right atrium, one should visualize the tricuspid valve d. the mitral valve is positioned closer to the cardiac apex than the tricuspid valve

d. the mitral valve is positioned closer to the cardiac apex than the tricuspid valve

A patient presents with a history of chlamydia and suspected PID. Which of the following would be indicative of the typically sonographic findings of PID? a. enlarged cervix, thin endometrium, and theca lutein cysts b. atrophic uterus, free fluid, and small ovaries c. bilateral, cystic enlargement of the ovaries with no detectable flow d. thickened irregular endometrium, CDS fluid, and complex adnexal masses

d. thickened irregular endometrium, CDS fluid, and complex adnexal masses

An abnormal connection between the esophagus and trachea is termed: a. esophageal-duodenal herniation b. double-bubble sign c. esophageal atresia d. tracheoesophageal fistula

d. tracheoesophageal fistula

A molar pregnancy, omphalocele, and small, low-set ears are found most often with: a. trisomy 21 b. trisomy 18 c. trisomy 13 d. triploidy

d. triploidy

The accumulation of fluid around the lungs is termed: a. ascites b. extracorporeal effusion c. peripheral fluid d. pleural effusion

d. pleural effusion

Increased S/D ratio is associated with all of the following except: a. IUGR b. placental insufficiency c. allantoic cysts d. perinatal mortality

c. allantoic cysts

Which of the following is a sex chromosome anomaly? a. edwards syndrome b. trisomy 13 c. down syndrome d. 45, X

d. 45, X

Mothers with gestational diabetes run the risk of having fetuses that are considered: a. nutritionally deficient b. acromegalic c. IUGR d. macrosomic

d. macrosomic

What cerebral abnormality are atypical facial features most commonly associated with: a. DWM b. schizencephaly c. lissencephaly d. holoprosencephaly

d. holoprosencephaly

With endometrial atrophy, the endometrial thickness should not exceed: A) 6mm B) 3mm C) 8mm D) 5mm

D) 5mm

The segment of Fallopian tube where fertilization typically occurs is the: A) Cornu B) Fimbria C) Interstitial D) Ampulla

D) Ampulla

The embryonic heart begins as: a. 2 tubes b. 4 tubes c. 8 folds d. 1 tube

a. 2 tubes

All of the following are produced by the placenta except: a. AFP b. HcG c. PAPP-A d. Inhibin A

a. AFP

The protein this is produced by the yolk sac, fetal gastrointestinal tract, and fetal liver is: a. AFP b. HcG c. PAPP-A d. Inhibin A

a. AFP

Which protein is not produced by the developing placenta? a. AFP b. hCG c. estriol d. PAPP-A

a. AFP

A triple screen typically includes: a. AFP, estriol, hCG b. AFP, amniotic fluid index, hCG c. AFP, estriol, PAPP-A d. PAPP-A, inhibin A, hCG

a. AFP, estriol, hCG

The right ovarian artery branches off of the: a. aorta b. right renal artery c. uterine artery d. internal iliac artery

a. aorta

Which of the following best describes a choledochal cyst? a. cystic dilatation of common bile duct b. herniation of abdominal contents into umbilical cord c. congenital absence of cystic duct d. inflammation of biliary tree caused by extrinsic obstruction

a. cystic dilatation of common bile duct

All of the following are sonographic features of holoprosencephaly except: a. cystic hygroma b. proboscis with cyclopia c. fused thalamus d. monoventricle

a. cystic hygroma

The most common benign ovarian tumor is: a. cystic teratoma b. mucinous cystadenoma c. fibroma d. sertoli-leydig cell

a. cystic teratoma

The most common cause of cardiac malposition is: a. diaphragmatic hernia b. omphalocele c. gastroschisis d. pulmonary hypoplasia

a. diaphragmatic hernia

The term that indicates the presence of two separate placentas is: a. dichorionic b. bichorionic c. monoamniotic d. diamniotic

a. dichorionic

The sonographic findings of an endometrial polyp may include: a. diffuse thickening of endo b. menometrorrhagia c. intermenstrual bleeding d. infertility

a. diffuse thickening of endo

Asymmetry in fetal weight between twins is indicative of: a. discordant growth b. preeclampsia c. dichorionic diamniotic twinning d. intrauterine infections

a. discordant growth

In the first trimester, normal HcG levels will: a. double every 48 hours b. triple every 24 hours c. double every 24 hours d. double every 12 hours

a. double every 48 hours

Echogenic small bowel is most often associated with? a. down syndrome b. edwards syndrome c. patau syndrome d. turner syndrome

a. down syndrome

The innominate bones of the pelvis consist of the: a. ischium, ilium, and pubic bones b. ilium, sacrum, and coccyx bones c. sacrum, coccyx, and pubic bones d. sacrum, ischium, and ilium bones

a. ischium, ilium, and pubic bones

Which of the following would cause a bladder outlet obstruction? a. posterior urethral valves b. fetal ovarian cyst c. pelviectasis d. pelvocaliectasis

a. posterior urethral valves

Causes of female infertility include all of the following except: a. previous intrauterine device use b. PCOS c. asherman syndrome d. endometriosis

a. previous intrauterine device use

Which of the following fibroid locations would most likely result in abnormal uterine bleeding because of its relationship to the endometrium? a. submucosal b. intramural c. subserosal d. subserosal pedunculated

a. submucosal

Placenta accrete denotes: a. the abnormal attachment of the placenta to the myometrium b. the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall c. the invasion of the placenta into the myometrium d. the condition of having the fetal vessels rest over the internal os

a. the abnormal attachment of the placenta to the myometrium

What structure connects the embryo to the yolk sac? a. vitelline duct b. yolk stalk c. amnion d. chorionic stalk

a. vitelline duct

An asymptomatic 65 year-old patient presents with pelvic pain but no bleeding. Her endometrial thickness should not exceed: a. 6mm b. 8mm c. 5mm d. 3mm

b. 8mm

The placenta is considered too thick when it measures: a. >4mm b. >4cm c. >8mm d. >3.5cm

b. >4cm

A change in menstrual bleeding associated with lesions within the uterus relates to: a. DUB b. AUB c. PID d. fibroids

b. AUB

A lemon-shaped skull is related to: a. Trisomy 2 b. Arnold-Chari II malformation c. thanatophoric dysplasia d. BWS

b. Arnold-Chari II malformation

Which of the following will also typically be absent with agenesis of the corpus callosum? a. cerebellar vermis b. CSP c. third ventricle d. fourth ventricle

b. CSP

The condition associated with the absence of the sacrum and coccyx: a. LBWC b. caudal regression syndrome c. thanatophoric dwarfism d. heterozygous achondroplasia

b. caudal regression syndrome

The periovulatory phase may also be referred to as: a. early secretory phase b. late proliferative phase c. late secretory phase d. early proliferative phase

b. late proliferative phase

The blood returning from the lungs through the pulmonary veins enters into the: a. right atrium b. left atrium c. right ventricle d. left ventricle

b. left atrium

Prolapse of the pelvic organs most often involves the: a. rectus abdominis and obturator internus muscles b. levator ani and coccygeus muscles c. obturator internus and levator ani muscles d. piriformis and iliopsoas muscles

b. levator ani and coccygeus muscles

The abnormal twin in acardiac twinning is also referred to as the: a. pump twin b. parasitic twin c. stuck twin d. vanishing twin

b. parasitic twin

Before 9 weeks, the fetal kidneys are located within the: a. renal fossa b. pelvis c. chest d. umbilical cord

b. pelvis

The most common location of an ectopic kidney is within the: a. lower abdomen b. pelvis c. chest d. contralateral quadrant

b. pelvis

A patient presents with a fever, chills, and vaginal discharge. Sonographically, which findings would you most likely not encounter? a. CDS fluid b. uterine adhesions c. dilated uterine tubes d. ill-defined uterine border

b. uterine adhesions

The structure created by the union of sperm and egg is the: a. blastocyst b. zygote c. morula d. ampulla

b. zygote

Which of the following would most likely involve the development of a cystic hygroma? a. BWS b. Hydranencephaly c. Turner syndrome d. Klinefelter syndrome

c. Turner syndrome

What is the most common form of endometrial carcinoma? a. cystadenocarcinoma b. krukenberg c. adenocarcinoma d. squamous cell carcinoma

c. adenocarcinoma

A strawberry-shaped skull is commonly associated with: a. trisomy 21 b. trisomy 15 c. trisomy 18 d. trisomy 13

c. trisomy 18

Bilateral choriod plexus cysts, micrognathia, and rockerbottom feet are findings of a 27-week fetus with an omphalocele. These findings are consistent with: a. trisomy 21 b. trisomy 13 c. trisomy 18 d. triploidy

c. trisomy 18

What chromosomal anomaly is associated with echogenic bowel? a. trisomy 18 b. trisomy 13 c. trisomy 21 d. triploidy

c. trisomy 21

A velamentous cord insertion is associated with which of the following? a. placenta increta b. placental abruption c. vasa previa d. circumvallate placenta

c. vasa previa

When does the Centers for Disease Control recommend that alcohol-based handrub not be used by the sonographer? a. after performing a sonogram b. before performing a sonogram c. when your hands are visibly soiled d. between patients

c. when your hands are visibly soiled

What structure lies within the extraembryonic coelom? a. gestational sac b. embryo c. yolk sac d. amnion

c. yolk sac

A protein produced by the yolk sac and fetal liver that is found in excess in the maternal circulation in the presence of a neural tube defect is: a. folate b. HcG c. estriol d. AFP

d. AFP

Which of the following is associated with enlarged echogenic kidneys and microscopic renal cysts? a. MCDK disease b. obstructive cystic dysplasia c. hydronephrotic syndrome d. ARPKD

d. ARPKD

An anechoic mass is noted within the umbilical cord during a routine sonographic examination. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Hemangioma b. Vasa previa c. Chorioangioma d. Allantoic cyst

d. Allantoic cyst

Which of the following is a genetic disorder that includes craniosynostosis, midline facial hypoplasia, and syndactyly? a. lobar holoprosencephaly b. BWS c. Arnold-Chiari II malformation d. Apert Syndrome

d. Apert Syndrome

Which of the following best describes hypospadias? a. OEIS complex in presence of hydrocele b. chronic obstruction of renal pelvis and urethra c. underdevelopment of scrotum in presence of hydrocele d. abnormal ventral curvature of penis

d. abnormal ventral curvature of penis

TRAP sequence may also be referred to as: a. TTTS b. Vanishing twin syndrome c. twin embolization syndrome d. acardiac twinning

d. acardiac twinning

The invasion endometrial tissue into the myometrium of the uterus is referred to as: a. amenorrhea b. endometriosis c. adenomyomatosis d. adenomyosis

d. adenomyosis

Which of the following would typically not be associated with amenorrhea? a. asherman syndrome b. PCOS c. pregnancy d. adenomyosis

d. adenomyosis

All of the following are clinical features of an ectopic pregnancy except: a. pain b. vaginal bleeding c. shoulder pain d. adnexal ring

d. adnexal ring

All of the following are contributing factors for an ectopic pregnancy except: a. PID b. assisted reproductive therapy c. IUCD d. advanced paternal age

d. advanced paternal age

An omphalocele may contain: a. fetal liver b. ascites c. fetal colon d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Which of the following can occur as a result of monozygotic twinning: a. monochorionic, diamnoitic twins b. monochorionic, monoamniotic twins c. dichorionic, diamniotic twins d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Which of the following would not be decreased in the presence of Edwards Syndrome? a. estriol b. HcG c. AFP d. all would be decreased

d. all would be decreased

The birth defect in which the sex of the fetus cannot be determined defines: a. renal agenesis b. ovarian dysgenesis c. clitorimegaly d. ambiguous genitalia

d. ambiguous genitalia

What is the most common fetal abnormality noted during an obstetric sonogram? a. anencephaly b. spinga bifida c. cleft lip d. hydronephrosis

d. hydronephrosis

Which of the following would be the least likely clinical finding for a patient with endometriosis? a. pelvic pain b. dysmenorrhea c. painful bowel movements d. hyperandrogenism

d. hyperandrogenism

Pelvic bones, when visualized on sonography, will appear: a. anechoic b. hypoechoic c. dark d. hyperechoic

d. hyperechoic

A large space between the first and second toes is termed: a. polydactyly b. clubfoot c. ulnaration d. sandal gap

d. sandal gap

A 31 year old presents for SIS complaining of intermenstrual bleeding and infertility. A mass is seen emanating from the myometrium and distorting the endometrial cavity. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. endometrial polyp b. endometrial carcinoma c. endometrial hyperplasia d. submucosal leiomyoma

d. submucosal leiomyoma

The ovarian cysts that are most often bilateral and are associated with markedly elevated levels of HcG are the: a. corpus luteum cysts b. paraovarian cysts c. granulosa cell cysts d. theca lutein cysts

d. theca lutein cysts

All of the following are considered risk factors for PID except: a. IUD b. multiple sexual partners c. post childbirth d. uterine leiomyoma

d. uterine leiomyoma