Pharm 3: Sherpath Set 1

which immunosuppressant drug is classified as a mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) inhibitor? SAP A-sirolimus B-belatacept C-tacrolimus D-basiliximab E-Everolimus F-cyclosporine

A-sirolimus E-Everolimus ex: Belatacept-constimulation blocker; tacrolimus and cyclosporine are CNI; Basiliximab is a monoclonal antibody that inhibits interleukin 2 mediated activation of lymphocytes, a critical component of the cellular immune response involved in transplant rejection

the nurse reviews the medical record of a pt receiving methotrexate for treatment of cancer and notes the concurrent use of aspirin. Which action would the nurse take? A-stop the administration of aspirin immediately B-instruct the pt to only take aspirin after meals to prevent gastric ulcers C-explain to the pt that sustained release tablets are more appropriate for prolonged pain relief D-instruct the pt that taking indomethacin is safer and more effective than aspirin

A-stop the administration of aspirin immediately

which drug would a nurse expect to be the most beneficial for a patient with HIV who is connected with chronic hep B? A-tenofovir B-rifampin C-phenytoin D-carbamazepine

A-tenofovir ex: this med is a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) which hinders the synthesis of reverse transcriptase enzyme and destroys the virus that causes chronic hep b & hiv infection

after administering aldesleukin, the nurse finds that a pt's BP is dropping rapidly. which statement reflects the cause for this drop? A-the pt is on antihypertensive drugs B-the pt has capillary leak syndrome C-the pt has an anaphylactic reaction D-the pt is on another immunomodulator drug

A-the pt is on antihypertensive drugs

which information would the nurse include when teaching a pt about monoclonal antibody therapy? A-there is no risk for adverse reactions with this drug B-the infusion reactions are likely to increase subsequently C-the primary health care provider will prescribe oral medications D-there is a possibility of blood pressure changes during this therapy

D-there is a possibility of blood pressure changes during this therapy

A patient who has received lung transplant has been prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) for prevention of pneumocystis jirovexi pneumonia (PJP). Te nurse instructs the patient to take one tablet with which frequency? A-twice daily B-every other day C-three times a day D-three times a week

D-three times a week

the nurse would question the prescription for epoetin in a pt with which condition? A-anemia B-HIV/AIDs C-chronic renal failure D-uncontrolled hypertension

D-uncontrolled hypertension

the nurse administers the first dose of basiliximab to the patient receiving a kidney transplant at which time? A-during transplant surgery B-within 2 hrs after transplant surgery C-within 2 days before transplant surgery D-within 2 hours before transplant surgery

D-within 2 hours before transplant surgery ex: this med is administered IV 20mg within 2 hrs before surgery, followed by a second 20mg dose 4 days after transplantation

which IV antiretroviral drug would likely be prescribed to a pt with HIV who is in the first trimester of pregnancy and has a viral load of 550 copies/mL? A-efavirenz B-didanosine C-ritonavir D-zidovudine

D-zidovudine ex: this is prescribed regardless of the pts current antiretroviral therapy; all of the other ones wouldn't be given IV to a pregnant pt

which information would the nurse keep in mind when preparing to incorporate filgrastim therapy into a pt's plan of care? A- it can be started during chemotherapy B-it can be initiated 24 hrs before chemotherapy C-it is used in the treatment of chemotherapy-induced thrombocytopenia D-it is discontinued when a pt's absolute neutrophil count (ANC) is below 1000 cells/mm3

B-it can be initiated 24 hrs before chemotherapy

which information would the nurse include when teaching a pt about the administration of erlotinib? A-if you cannot swallow the pill, dissolve it in grapefruit juice B-it may be difficult, but it is important that you stop smoking C-this medication is best absorbed if taken on a full stomach D-it is important to take the two daily doses 12 hours apart

B-it may be difficult, but it is important that you stop smoking

which antiretroviral drug does a nurse suspect a patient with HIV is taking if the patients neutrophil count has decreased from 600 to 600cells/mm3 while on therapy? A-efavirenz B-zidovudine C-etravirine D-delavirdine

B-zidovudine

a pt is receiving treatment for metastatic melanoma and has developed capillary leak syndrome. which drug might be responsible for this side effect? A-filgrastim b-palifermin C-aldesleukin D-sargramostim

C-aldesleukin

which lab finding suggests myelosuppression in a patient receiving antineoplastic therapy? A-increased platelet count B-decreased uric acid level C-decreased red blood cell (RBC) count D-increased WBC count

C-decreased red blood cell (RBC) count

a pt receiving an IV anthracycline complains of a boring sensation and pain at the infusion site. the nurse stops the infusion and places warm packs on the site. which drug would the nurse anticipate administering next? A-carmustine B-hydroxyurea C-doxorubicin D-mechlorethamine

C-doxorubicin

which intervention would the nurse implement when caring for a pt receiving IV cyclophosphamide? A-administer an antianxiety agent B-monitor the WBC count C-ensure that the patient is well hydrated D-run IC dextrose with the chemotherapy

C-ensure that the patient is well hydrated

the nurse notes that the WBC count of a pt being treated with myelosuppressive antineoplastic drugs during bone marrow transplantation has dropped to a critical level. which medication would the nurse suspect as the cause? A-oprelvekin administered immediately after chemotherapy B-sargramostim administered after 24 hrs of chemotherapy C-filgrastim administered less than 24 hrs before chemotherapy D-filgrastim administered more than 24 hrs before chemotherapy

C-filgrastim administered less than 24 hrs before chemotherapy

the nurse instructs a pt who developed stomatitis about interventions to relieve pain and discomfort. which statement by the pt indicates additional teaching is required? A-i will avoid spicy and hot food B-I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush C-i will consume alcohol in moderation D-I will perform oral hygiene before and after meals

C-i will consume alcohol in moderation

which condition does a nurse suspect in a patient with HIV who has dark blue lions on the skin? A-lymphoma B-leishmaniasis C-kaposi sarcoma D-squamous cell carcinoma

C-kaposi sarcoma

the nurse finds that a pt who is taking sunitinib has developed jaundice of the skin and sclera. which pt assessment is a priority? A-thyroid test B-blood pressure C-liver enzyme test D-the pt's weight

C-liver enzyme test

the nurse finds that a pt with non-hodgkin lymphoma who is taking rituximab is also prescribed antihypertensive drugs. which action would the nurse take? A-assess for infection B-obtain thyroid reports C-monitor blood pressure D-teach reduction of dietary salt

C-monitor blood pressure

which intervention would the nurse implement when caring for a pt prescribed alemtuzumab infusions for the treatment of leukemia? A-provide adequate pain relief B-monitor for pulmonary reactions C-premedicate with an antiinfective D-instruct the pt on a high-protein, high-fat diet

C-premedicate with an antiinfective

which symptom would the nurse expect to find when assessing a pt with thrombocytopenia? A-abnormal breath sounds B-elevated body temperature C-red or purple spots on the body D-a productive cough with purulent sputum

C-red or purple spots on the body

which vaccine does the nurse anticipate to administer to the newborn after delivery? A-monovalent HepB IM B-inacrivated HepA SQ C-recombinant HepB/HepA SQ D- recombinant Hep B IM

A-monovalent HepB IM

which virus has carcinogenic effects? SAP A-Hep A virus B-Herpes simplex 2 virus (HSV-2) C-human papilloma virus (HPV) D-human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) E-haemophilus influenzae type B (HiB)

B,C,D

which drug is classified as a folic acid antagonist? SAP A-mitomycin B-pemetrexed C-fludarabine D-methotrexate E-mercaptopurine

B,D

the nurse would anticipate a change in the dosage of imatinib with the development of which dysfunction? A-renal B-hepatic C-cardiac D-pulmonary

B-hepatic

which statement describes why leukemia and some lymphomas respond well to anticancer medications? A-the doubling time stays the same B-the drugs used are cell cycle-specific C-the growth fraction rates are higher D-the drugs used are cell cycle-nonspecific

C-the growth fraction rates are higher

Which neutropenic precaution would the nurse teach to a patient undergoing immunosuppressant therapy? SAP A-cook meat and eggs thoroughly B-avoid consuming raw fruits and vegetables C-ensure you are up to date on all vaccianations D-wear gloves when gardening or cleaning up pet waste E-apply an unscented lotion after showering or bathing daily

A,D,E

which assessment is important for the nurse to include when caring for a pt receiving doxorubicin therapy? SAP A-cardia activity B-thyroid function C-pancreas function D-medication history E-infusion site for infiltration

A,D,E

which monitoring is indicated specifically for pediatric patients who have received organ transplants and are taking corticosteroids? A-height B-weight C-blood glucose D-blood pressure

A-height ex: all pts need to have everything else monitored, height is the only one specific to peds

which phrase describes a limitation of immunosuppressant drugs? SAP A-high cost B-toxic effects C-must be taken daily D-limited effectiveness E-only available IV

A,B,C,D

which adverse effect is expected with the use of chemotherapy? SAP A-alopecia B-leukocytosis C-hypertension D-urinary retention E-thrombocytopenia

A,E

the measles vaccine consists of which substance? A- live virus B- inactivated virus C- live attenuated virus D- inactivated viral components

A- live virus

the nurse administering the first does of anthrax vaccine to a patient who has recently joined the military and instructs the patient to return at which interval for the next dose of the vaccine? A-2 weeks B- 6 months C-12 months D-18 months

A-2 weeks

the nurse has administered the varicella vaccine to a 14 month old child and instructs the parents to bring the child back for the next dose at which age? A-4 yrs old B-2 yrs old C-3 yrs old D-15 months old

A-4 yrs old ex: the varicella has 2 doses of 0.5mL SQ; 1st does is at 12-15months of age and 2nd is at 4-6 yrs of age

which dosage of stavudine would be given to a patient who weighs 75 kg? A-40mg twice daily B-40mg once daily C-30mg twice daily D-30mgonce daily

A-40mg twice daily ex:recommended dosage is twice daily for body weight greater than or equal to 60kg; 30mg twice daily is for body weight less than 60kg

which information regarding hair loss would the nurse share with patients about to begin antineoplastic therapy? SAP A-suggest wearing scarves before the loss of hair B-suggest wearing a wig before the loss of hair C-advise that the drug will cause permanent hair loss D-advise that hair loss will begin soon after treatment E-suggest the use of hibiscus oil on the scalp daily to help prevent hair loss

A,B,D

the nurse educator is teaching a group of nursing students about immunity. Which point does the nurse include to describe explaining passive immunity? SAP A-does not last for more than a few months B-useful to protect newborn from infections C-can be achieved through the administration of toxoids D-activates the immune system to produce specific antibodies E-achieved by administering antibodies against infectious organisms

A,B,E

the nurse is teaching the parents of a 1 yr old about vaccinations. which mild reactions are the parents likely to observe in the child a few hours after the administration of the varicella vaccine? SAP A-fever B-pain at the injection site C- swelling at the injection site D-bleeding at the injection site E-redness at the injection site

A,B,E

Azathiporine blocks which physiologic process? SAP A-DNA synthesis B- Tcell costimulation C-purine metabolism D-lymphocyte cell death E-interleukin 2(IL-2) mediated signal transduction

A,C

which nursing advice would be helpful to a patient experiencing dryness of the oral mucosa due to fluorouracil treatment? SAP A-use a soft-bristly toothbrush to clean your teeth B-keep your dentures in your mouth between meals C-use diluted warm saline solution to rinse your mouth D-use lemon-glycerin swabs to keep your mouth mosit

A,C

which statement does the nurse include in teaching regarding the bacilli Calmette-Gúerin (BCG) vaccine? SAP A'it contains live but weakened tubercular bacteria' B'it prevents an individual from acquiring tuberculosis infection' C'it prevents the onset of the severe form of tuberculosis infection' D'it is administered to all US citizens over 20yrs old' E'it should be taken by individuals who are traveling to a foreign country'

A,C

before administering the first does of immunosuppressant therapy, the nurse educates the patient about which sign or symptom of infection? SAP A-sore throat B-constipation C-shortness of breath D-changes in mental status E-fever of 101F for more than 1 hour

A,C,D Ex; fever is 100.4 or higher for more than 1 hour or a one time temp of 101 or higher

Concomitant administration of which drugs with tacrolimus can increase serum drug levels? SAP A-antacids B-anticonvulsants C-antifungal agents D-protease inhibitors E-calcium channel blockers

A,C,D,E

which function is suppressed by prednisone? SAP A-adrenal function B-synthesis of purine nucleotides C-T&Blymphocyte proliferation D-migration of polymorphonuclear leukocytes E-activity and volume of the lymphatic system

A,D,E ex: it decreases inflammation by suppression of migration of polymorphonuclear leukocytes and volume of the lymphatic system

which information would the nurse include when teaching a pt about the administration of imatinib mesylate? SAP A-you can dissolve the drug in water B-you must avoid breastfeeding while on therapy C-you can take the drug with a meal D-you should take the medication with grapefruit juice E-you should begin taking St. John's wort during therapy

A,B,C

the nurse provides which education point to the patient taking nystatin liquid for oral thrush after receiving a kidney transplant? SAP A-shake the preparation well before measuring the dose B-allow the nystatin to coat the mouth for as long as possible C-do not eat or drink anything for 30 mins after taking the med D-swish the dose around in the mouth for at least 2min before swallowing E-discontinue prophylactic use when concomitant steroid dose is reduced below 5 mg daily

A,B,C,D

which initial medication prescription would the nurse anticipate administering to a pt with multiple sclerosis admitted for relapsing remitting symptoms? A-interferon alfa-2b IV induction 20 million units/m2 B-interferon beta-1b SQ 250mcg every other day C-interferon gamma SQ 50mcg/m2 three times a week D-interferon alfa-2b SQ 30 million units/m2 three times a week

B-interferon beta-1b SQ 250mcg every other day

which drug is prescribed to treat acute cytomegalovirus infections in pts with HIV? A-isoniazid B-foscarnet C-rifabutin D-ganciclovir E-cidofovir

B-foscarnet D-ganciclovir E-cidofovir ex:these drugs act against viral polymerases and decrease viral activity

which initial dose of basiliximab does the nurse anticipate to administer to child who weighs 38 kg? A-5mg B-10mg C-20mg D-40mg

C-20mg ex:adults and children over 35kg receive 20mg and children under 35kg revive 10 and follow the same before and after times

during a home visit, the nurse finds that a patient has bot received the varicella vaccine in the past. On further assessment, the nurse concludes that the patient need not receive this vaccine. which patient characteristic led the nurse to this conclusion? A-older than 50 yrs of age B-had chickenpox in the past C-on antimicrobial for ear infection D-does not have a family history of chickenpox

B-had chickenpox in the past

a pt who has received a kidney transplant is experiencing nausea, chills, and dyspnea 30 minutes after receiving basiliximab. The nurse understands that these symptoms are a result of which type of reaction? A-immune B-infusion C-induction D-intravenous

B-infusion

which response will a nurse provide to a patient with HIV who is receiving antiretroviral therapy and forgets to take the therapy about once or twice a week due to impromptu overnight visits with a friend? A'you know its very bad to miss doses. you need to try to remember to take them no matter what' B'lets discuss strategies for adherence. for example you might think about carrying a small drug organizer' C'you need to be more responsible about your health no that you are on ART. You need to get to 95% adherence D'its okay if you miss your doses once a week; however if it is more than this we will need to switch all of your drugs to injections

B'lets discuss strategies for adherence. for example you might think about carrying a small drug organizer' ex: the goal for ART is 95% adherence to avoid HIV replication and drug resistance

which statement made by the nurse about opportunistic infection associated with HIV requires correction? A'tuberculosis can affect organs such as the bowel and brain and the linings of the heart and the lungs' B'toxoplasmosis can generally be avoided by cooking meat thoroughly and avoiding exposure to cat feces C'kaposi sarcoma which often appears early in the course of HIV infection is treated with antifungals if there is a widespread disease D'cytomegalovirus most commonly caused blurred vision that can lead to blindness but it can also affect other systems

C'kaposi sarcoma which often appears early in the course of HIV infection is treated with antifungals if there is a widespread disease ex: it doesn't appear early in the course of HIV infection, chemo is the preferred treatment

which instruction does the nurse give to the patient regarding basiliximab? A'contraceptive measures are not necessary while on this drug because it interferes with fertility' B'becuase of alterations in DNA, plan to use an effective contraceptive measure long term after taking this drug' C'if you are taking oral contraceptive. you must use a back-up effectiveness' D'use effective contraceptive measures before beginning treatment, during treatment and for 4 months after the completion of therapy'

D'use effective contraceptive measures before beginning treatment, during treatment and for 4 months after the completion of therapy'

which instruction does the nurse give to the patient regarding sirolimus? A'contraceptive measures are not necessary while on this drug because it interferes with fertility' B'becuase of alterations in DNA, plan to use an effective contraceptive measure long term after taking this drug' C'if you are taking oral contraceptive. you must use a back-up effectiveness' D'use effective contraceptive measures before beginning treatment, during treatment and for 4 months after the completion of therapy'

D'use effective contraceptive measures before beginning treatment, during treatment and for 4 months after the completion of therapy'

a parent of children present for well-child visits say "my children are being vaccinated. are there any that I should have?" what is the nurse's correct reply? A'no there are no vaccines that an adult needs' B'yes you will need the same ones your children need' C'no you have probably had all of the childhood diseases by now' D'yes you need to stay up to date on several vaccines; check with your health care provider'

D'yes you need to stay up to date on several vaccines; check with your health care provider'

which vaccine should be avoided in transplant recipients who receive corticosteroids, muromonab-CD3, azathioprine, cyclosporine, belatcept, antihymocyte globulin (rabbit)? SAP A-tetanus B-influenza C-hep B D-varicella E- measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR)

D,E ex:the pt should not receive live vaccines

the nurse is caring for a patient receiving high-dose methotrexate (MTX) therapy. Which intervention is a priority for this patient? A-administering bleomycin immediately after treatment with MTX B-infusing IV dextrose at 100 mL/hr throughout the drug therapy C-encouraging oral fluids for 4 L/day while being treated with MTX D-administering leucovorin within 2 days of treatment with MTX

D-administering leucovorin within 2 days of treatment with MTX

which phrase dsescribes the mechanism of action of cyclosporine in preventing the body from mounting an immune response to the transplanted organ? A-inhibiting activation of lymphocytes B-altering major histocompatibility complex molecules C-releasing cytokines from cells targeted by the antibody D-binding to cytoplasmic proteins that inhibit calcineurin phosphatase

D-binding to cytoplasmic proteins that inhibit calcineurin phosphatase

which intervention would the nurse expect to be implemented immediately for a patient receiving antihymocyte globulin who has a white blood cell count of 2500 and a platelet could of 75,000? A-discontinue the med B-continue to administer the med C-increase the med dosage by 50% D-decreased the med dosage by 50%

D-decreased the med dosage by 50% ex:this med ia a polyclonal (depleting) antibody that blocks t-cell membrane proteins; decrease if the WBC is between 2000-3000 and platelet is 50,000-75,000 and stop if WBC is less than 2000 and platelets are less than 50,000

which nursing intervention is appropriate for a patient receiving cyclophosphamide? A-drawing peak and trough levels B-assessing BP hourly C-isolating the pt until the drug is excreted D-encouraging fluids before, during, and after drug administration

D-encouraging fluids before, during, and after drug administration

Organ transplant recipients may only use belatacept if they are seropositive for which virus? A-HIV B-measles C-varicella D-epstein Barr virus (EBV)

D-epstein Barr virus (EBV)

the nurse is teaching care management to the caregiver of a pt who is on chemotherapy. which instruction would the nurse include? A-citrus fruits like lemon must be added to the pt's diet B-high-fiber food must be given to the pt to prevent constipation C-sugar candy or gum must be given to the pt prevent diabetes D-ginger ale or ginger tea must be given to the pt to prevent nausea

D-ginger ale or ginger tea must be given to the pt to prevent nausea

which assessment finding would be a cause for concern in a pt receiving bevacizumab for treatment of breast cancer? A-history of anxiety B-history of depression C-history of constipation D-history of esophageal varices

D-history of esophageal varices

which potential complication might result if a nurse continues weekly epoetin alfa drug administration for a pt undergoing chemotherapy who's hemoglobin levels have increased to 11.7 g/dL? A-constipation B-hematemesis C-hyperglycemia D-hypertension

D-hypertension

which phrase describes the greatest barrier to organ transplant as a routine medical treatment? A-lack of compatible organ donors B-limited availability of immunosuppressant drugs C-limited innovation in the area of transplantation techniques D-immune system's mechanism to fight off foreign organisms

D-immune system's mechanism to fight off foreign organisms

which drug should be added to a patient's regiment that contains pyrimethamine for toxoplasmosis encephalitis to prevent the adverse effects associated with pyrimethamine? A-famiciclovir B-clindamycin C-fluconazole D-leucovorin

D-leucovorin explanation: leucovorin is a folic acid analogue that helps prevent the hematologic toxicities associated with pyrimethamine; to prevent the adverse effects of pyrimethamine, leucovorin should be added to the pts treatment regimen

which drug combination must be avoided due to the increased risk for gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding? A-tacrolimus & anticonvulsant drugs B-azathiprine & antihypertensive drugs C-HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors & cyclosporine D-mycophenolate mofetil & NSAIDs

D-mycophenolate mofetil & NSAIDs ex: GI bleeding is a common side effect of mycophenolate mofetil and combing with NSAIDs increases the risk for GI bleeding

which statement from a patient prescribed efavirenz (EFV) for HIV infection demonstrates the need for further instruction? A"I take the EFV at bedtime" B"I sometimes get dizzy after taking this medication" C"I no longer have wine with dinner since I've started taking this med" D"I have difficulty swallowing the pills so I crush them and take them with applesauce"

D"I have difficulty swallowing the pills so I crush them and take them with applesauce" ex: EFV tablets should not be crushed, but can be opened and taken with soft foods; it should be taken at bedtime to minimize central nervous system like dizziness; alcohol should be avoided due to liver and CNS adverse effects

the nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about immunizations. which statement made by the nursing students indicates effective learning? A'Tdap is recommend vaccine for children' B'vaccines are helpful for immunocompromised pts' C'DTaP is recommended vaccine for adolescents' D'HPV, vaccines is administered to prevent cancer'

D'HPV, vaccines is administered to prevent cancer'

Which item would the nurse assess when providing care for patients receiving antiretroviral therapy? SAP A-literacy levels B-physiologic health needs C-psychosocial health needs D-experience of drug side effects E-adherence to the therapy regimen F-issues that affect medication adherence

all of them

which response would the nurse give a pt prescribed rituximab who asks about receiving the influenza vaccine? A-it is a good idea to protect yourself from the flu B-rituximab reduces the effectiveness of vaccines C-rituximab increases the side effects of the influenza vaccine D-the influenza vaccine interferes with the action of rituximab

B-rituximab reduces the effectiveness of vaccines

which guidance will a nurse provide a patient about the administration of efavirenz? A' do not drink alcohol while you are taking efavirenz' B'be sure to eat a small meal with your dose of efavirenz' C'take your dose of efavirenz at the same time every morning' D'if you have trouble swallowing the tablets you can crush them'

A' do not drink alcohol while you are taking efavirenz' ex: because of adverse effects on the liver and the CNS

the nurse recognizes that interferon beta-1b is most frequently used to treat which condition? A-multiple sclerosis B-hairy-cell leukemia C-malignant melanoma D-chronic myelogenous leukemia

A-multiple sclerosis

which activity does the nurse instruct a pt who underwent transplantation to avoid? A-recieving any type of live vaccine B-eating non vegetarian food C-drinking more than a liter of water daily D-going to the office

A-recieving any type of live vaccine

the nurse instructs the parent of a child who just received the varicella virus vaccine to avoid administering which medication to the child for 6 weeks after the vaccine? A-salicylates B-antipyretics C-antihistamines D-corticosteroids

A-salicylates

a nurse is administer the tdap vaccine to the mother of an infant. which statement describes the rationale for giving the vaccine? A-to protect the infant from acquiring pertussis infection B-to protect the infant from acquiring typhoid infection C-to protect the infant from acquiring tetanus infection D-to protect the infant from acquiring rotavirus infection

A-to protect the infant from acquiring pertussis infection

A pt is prescribed tacrolimus after a heart transplant. The nurse instructs the patient to avoid which food? A-asparagus B-peanut butter C-chicken breast D-whole wheat bread

B-peanut butter ex:food high in fat, slows absorption and reduces bioavailability of the drug

the primary health care provider has prescribed the measles vaccine to a female patent. The nurse assesses for which condition before administering the vaccine? A-anemia B-pregnancy C- type 2 diabetes melitus D- HIV

B-pregnancy

which statement made by a patient with HIV receiving the protease inhibitor indinavir, along with other antiretroviral therapies and cimetidine for acid reflex, indicates understanding of indinavir therapy? A'its best to take indinavir on an empty stomach and to stay hydrated through the day' B'indinavir can cause nausea & vomiting. if this happens I should discontinue use and call my doctor' C'i should take all of my drugs at the same time so its easier to stay on schedule and not miss a dose' D'if my lab tests show that the indinavir is working well, I can slowly be weaned off of the other HIV drugs'

A'its best to take indinavir on an empty stomach and to stay hydrated through the day'

which baseline testing would the nurse anticipate for a pt who is prescribed a biologic response modifier (BRM)? SAP A-chest radiograph B-electrocardiogram (ECG) C-pulmonary function test D-electroencephalogram (EEG) E-positron emission tomography (PET) scan

A,B,C

Which outcome indicates a therapeutic response to antiretroviral therapy for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infections? A-CD4 t-cell increase B-decreased T-cell reactivity C-elevation of HIV RNA levels D-increased immune system functioning

A-CD4 t-cell increase explanation: the expected outcome of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) is a CD4 t-cell increase and suppression of HIV RNA levels in pts.

a pt arrives at the clinic with a wound inflicted by a rusty nail. After checking the pt's history, the nurse finds that the pt last received the tetanus booster about 10 yrs earlier. The nurse contacts the health care provider to obtain a prescription to administer with medication? A-Tdap B-DTap C-immunoglobulin D-polyvalent vaccine

A-Tdap

which assessment finding indicates a need to obtain a change of drug prescription? A-a pt prescribed gefitinib along with warfarin B-a pt prescribed temsirolimus and diphenhydramine C-a pt prescribed panitumumab for advanced metastatic colorectal carcinoma D-a pt prescribed intravenous alemtuzumab for chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

A-a pt prescribed gefitinib along with warfarin

which action would the nurse take when caring for a pt complaining of nausea and vomiting while receiving chemotherapeutic drugs? A-administer antinausea medications B-inform the pt that the nausea will pass with time C-instruct pt to avoid eating good during chemotherapy treatments D-use antacids to relieve the irritation to the stomach, which should stop the nausea

A-administer antinausea medications

the nurse is monitoring a patient receiving doxorubicin. which intervention is a priority for this patient? A-administering dexrazoxane B-encouraging fluid intake up to 3 L/day C-keeping the patient away from crowds D-administering an antiemetic 60 minutes before infusion

A-administering dexrazoxane

the nurse administers the oral rotavirus vaccine to a 2 month-old child on Feb 2nd and instructs the parents to bring the child for the next dose on which date? A-april 2 B- march 2 C- march 9 D-feb 9

A-april 2 ex:this vaccine is given in 2 doses; 1st does is given at 2 months of age and the next is given en when the child is 4months of age

which action will the nurse take upon discovering that a pt prescribed a monoclonal antibody drug for the treatment of cancer has been taking ibuprofen for recurring headaches? A-assess the pt for tarry stools B-monitor the pt's hepatic function studies C-observe the pt for signs of hypoglycemia D-examine the pt's skin for redness, rash, or blisters

A-assess the pt for tarry stools

the nurse is assessing a pt with non-hodgkin lymphoma who is taking ibritumomab tiuxetan. Which instruction would the nurse give the pt? A-avoid the use of herbal preparations during therapy B-use anticoagulants to decrease your risk for bleeding C-get an influenza vaccine within a month of starting therapy D-avoid acetaminophen if you have fever or nausea

A-avoid the use of herbal preparations during therapy

which non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) should be taken on an empty stomach? A-efavirenz B-etravirine C-rilpivirine D-delavirdine

A-efavirenz ex: etravirine & rilpivirine should be taken with food to enhance absorption; delavirdine has no regard to food

which antiviral drug does a nurse suspect is causing a patient to feel dizzy and to experience strange dreams? A-efavirenz B-etravirine C-nevirapine D-darunavir

A-efavirenz ex: this drug is associated with adverse central nervous system effects like concentration, abnormal dreams & dizziness; etravirine-hypersensitivity reactions such as rash or Stevens Johnson syndrome; nevi rapine-severe rashes and hepatotoxicity; darunavir-hepatotoxicity and pancreatitis

the nurse is teaching a student nurse about the administration of gefitinib. which response by the student indicates teaching was effective? A-gefitinib is administered once daily by mouth B-gefitinib is administered twice daily inejection C-gefitinib is administered once daily intravenously D-gefitinib is administered twice daily intravenously

A-gefitinib is administered once daily by mouth

which lab value is most significant for a pt with cancer being treated with epoetin alfa? A-hemoglobin (HgB) 12 g/dL B-hematocrit (Hat) 35 g/dL C-WBC 6000 uL D-platelet count of 155,000 uL

A-hemoglobin (HgB) 12 g/dL ex: bc epoetin alfa is a biologic response modifier that increases the risk for death when given to target a hemoglobin greater than 11 in pts with cancer

which antiretroviral drug is associated with thrombocytopenia in patients with HIV infection? A-indinavir B-Rilpivirine C-etravirine D-nevirapine

A-indinavir explanation: indinavir is a protease inhibitor, decreases the formation of thrombocytes that result in thrombocytopenia

basiliximab uses which action to prevent the body from mounting an immune response against the transplanted organ? A-inhibiting activation of lymphocytes B-altering major histocompatibility complex molecules C-releasing cytokines from cells targeted by the antibody D-binding to cytoplasmic proteins that inhibit calcineurin phosphatase

A-inhibiting activation of lymphocytes ex: this med is a monoclonal antibody that inhibits interleukin 2 (IL-2)-mediated activation of lymphocytes a critical component of the cellular immune response involved in transplant rejection; by doing this it prevents the body from mounting an immune response against the transplanted organ

which acid-base imbalance does a nurse consider an adverse effect for a pt who is receiving lamivudine therapy? A-lactic acidosis B-metabolic alkalosis C-respiratory acidosis D-respiratory alkalosis

A-lactic acidosis ex: this drug belongs to the group of nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

which condition in a patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) could be treated with rifabutin? SAP A-tuberculosis B-kaposi sarcoma C- cryptosporidiosis D-cytomegalovirus infection E-cytomegalovirus infection F-toxoplasmosis encephalitis G_mycobacterium avian complex (MAC)infection

A-tuberculosis G_mycobacterium avian complex (MAC)infection ex:it treats tuberculosis and MAC is caused by a similar bacteria

which lab test would be evaluated in a patient who is newly diagnosed with HIV to determine when to monitor efficacy of antiretroviral therapy? A-viral load B-CD4+ count C-thyroid function D-creatinine kinase E-HIV resistance testing

A-viral load B-CD4+ count E-HIV resistance testing ex: viral load is indicative of the virus circulating in the blood and is the best determinant of treatment of efficiency; CD4+ reflects the number of CD4 cells

A patient is newly prescribed azathioprine. the nurse instructs the pt to return with which frequency to have a CBC? A-weekly B-twice weekly C-monthly D-twice monthly

A-weekly ex: it should include a platelet count, taken weekly during the first month, twice monthly for the second and third months of treatment and then monthly

which teaching point about CD4+ t-cell count tests will a nurse provide a patient with human immunodeficiency virus HIV? SAP A'Be sure to eat a full meal before the test' B'get the test at the same time of day each time' C'try to have the test done early in the morning each time' D'use the same laboratory every time you have the test' E'remind the lab to draw enough blood to conduct the test twice'

B'get the test at the same time of day each time' D'use the same laboratory every time you have the test' ex:labs diff during times of day and each lab as a difference reference range

which side effect is likely to be found in a pt who is receiving filgrastim for the treatment of chronic neutropenia? SAP A-pruritus B-alopecia C-anorexia D-arthralgia E-hypertension

B,C

the anthrax vaccine is recommended for which group of people? SAP A-paramedics B-veterinarians C-military personnel D-workers who process imported animal hair E-eergency department health care providers

B,C,D

the nurse is administering the diphtheria, tetanus, acellular pertussis (DTaP) and measles mumps rubella (MMR) vaccines to a child. Which safety measure does the nurse take during the vaccination? SAP A-keep flumazenil ready in case of an anaphylactic reaction B-check the expiration date of the vaccines in the package inset C-administer the vaccines via two separate sites of administration D-document the vaccination date, route, and site of administration E-mix both vaccines in a syringe according to the required dosage

B,C,D

the nurse provides information about which adverse effect to a pt who is to receive the varicella vaccine? SAP A-immundodeficiency B-decreased platelet count C-stevens-johnson syndrome D-severe anaphylactic shock E-severe debilitating body pain

B,C,D

which documentation does the nurse include in the medication administration record (MAR) after administering a vaccine? SAP A-vital signs B-lot number C- expiration date D-manufacturer E-adverse reactions

B,C,D

the nurse educates a patient taking immunosuppressant drugs after receiving an organ transplant to avoid which things? SAP A-flu shots B-live vaccines C-daily showers or baths D-raw fruits and vegetables E-undercooked meat and eggs F-anyone with an active infection

B,E,F

a pt asks, "why am I getting three drugs for my cancer if they all do the same thing?" which response would the nurse offer? A-this makes your treatment more cost effective B-Administering more than one drug prevents drug resistance C-more than one drug is administered in case you don't respond to one of them D-we are not sure what drug will be the most effective, so this combination ensures success

B-Administering more than one drug prevents drug resistance

which statement by a pt newly prescribed an angiogenesis inhibitor demonstrates the need for further instruction by the nurse? A-i quit smoking 6 months ago B-I take ibuprofen for my arthritis C-i try to stay out of the sun as much as I can D-my mother died last year from kidney disease

B-I take ibuprofen for my arthritis

which statement by the nurse explains a drawback of targeted therapy to a pt with lung cancer? A-targeted therapy may be toxic to all body cells B-all cancers may not respond to targeted therapy C-targeted cancer therapy is directed at all genes and proteins D-adverse effects of targeted therapy may be life threatening

B-all cancers may not respond to targeted therapy

which adverse effect may occur with ritonavir? A-alopecia B-asthenia C-pancreatitis D-paresthesias E-GI intolerance

B-asthenia D-paresthesias E-GI intolerance ex: this med is a protease inhibitor and has CNS depressant action

the nurse reviews the assessment data for a patient prescribed cyclosporine following an organ transplant. which intervention would the nurse take based on the data in the patient's chart? A-discontinue the medication B-call the HCP C-discontinue further lab studies D-continue to administer the med

B-call the HCP ex:this med may affect kidney or liver function, so frequent monitoring should be performed, ie. ALT, AST

the nurse observes that the albumin and protein levels in the pt's serum increased after the administration of aldesleukin. which occurrence would the nurse suspect as the cause? A-hypertension B-capillary leak syndrome C-bone marrow suppression D-reactions at the site of injection

B-capillary leak syndrome

which instruction would the nurse provide a pt regarding the use of herbal preparation while undergoing imatinib mesylate drug therapy? A-the use of herbs in hot water is beneficial B-do not use St.John's wort during therapy C-you can take herbal preparations in lower doses D-the use of ginkgo blob is considered safe during therapy

B-do not use St.John's wort during therapy

the nurse questions the patient about an allergy which substance before administering the herpes zoster vaccine? A-yeast B-gelatin C-gentamicin D-ampbotericin B

B-gelatin ex: gelatin is a component of the vaccine

bortezomib is often used to treat which cancer? A-colorectal cancer B-mantle cell lymphoma C-chronic lymphocytic leukemia D-hepatocellular cancer

B-mantle cell lymphoma

which sign or symptom would the nurse monitor to assess for myelosuppression in a patient? A-leukocytosis B-thrombocytopenia C-reduced thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels D-elevated serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT) levels

B-thrombocytopenia

which response would the nurse give a pt newly prescribed erlotinib for the treatment of pancreatic cancer who asks, "why do I need to stop smoking?" A-everyone knows smoking is bad for your health B-tobacco decreases the effectiveness of this drug C-taking this drug wile smoking increases your risk for bleeding D-tobacoo alters the pH of the upper gastrointestinal (GI) tract and so it interferes with this drug's absorption

B-tobacco decreases the effectiveness of this drug

which response will a nurse share with a patient who has HIV who is receiving antiretroviral therapy (ART) and has expressed a desire to become pregnant? A'you should really think about whether the risk for infecting your child is worth it' B'its good you told me but its rare for HIV to be transmitted from mother to child' C'i'm glad you told me. we will need to talk about risks and benefits of the ART options' D'if you keep your viral load down you will be fine. Just keep us informed of your decision'

C'i'm glad you told me. we will need to talk about risks and benefits of the ART options'

the nurse is preparing to teach a pt about the administration of epoetin alfa. which adverse effect would the nurse include in the teaching? SAP A-seizures B-thrombocytopenia C-myocardial infarction D-thromboembolic disease E- GI hemorrhage

C,D

which medication may be used as premedication to reduce the risk for infusion reactions with tositumomab? SAP A-albumin B-corticosteroids C-antihistamines D-acetaminophen E-normal saline bolus

C,D

which drugs can cause toxicity in a pt who is taking bortezomib for a brain tumor? SAP A-rifampin B-phenytoin C-saquinavir D-telithromycin E-ketoconazole

C,D,E

which information does the nurse gather from the child's parents before administering a vaccine to the child? SAP A-body weight B-episodes of diarrhea C-over the counter drugs D-prescription meds E-food or drug allergies

C,D,E

the parent of a child who recieved a vaccination 2 hours ago informs the nurse that the child has developed fever ad swelling at the site of infection. which response by the nurse if appropriate? SAP A- you child requires a chest xray B- your child requires IV fluids C- you should give your child some acetaninophen D-you should immediately admit the child to the hospital E- you can apply cold compresses around the area of injection

C,E

Which immunosuppressant drug is classified as a calcineurin inhibitor (CNI)? A-sirolimus B-belatacept C-tacrolimus D-basiliximab E-everolimus F-cyclosporine

C,F

At which administration time will a nurse advise a patient to take didanosine to promote optimal absorption? SAP A-1hour after meals B-30mins after meals C-2hrs after meals D-10mins before meals E-30mins before meals

C-2hrs after meals E-30mins before meals ex:this drug has low absorption rate when food is present in the stomach

which vaccine does the nurse administer to prevent the epidemic spread of tuberculosis? A- meningococcal vaccine B- human papilloma virus vaccine C-Bacille Calmette-Guérin vaccine D-pneumococcal conjugate vaccine

C-Bacille Calmette-Guérin vaccine

the primary health care provider asks the nurse to administer varicella and MMR vaccines to a patient. Which nursing intervention is necessary in this situation? A- administer the vaccines on 2 separate days B-administer the vaccines separately before and after a meal C-administer the vaccines via 2 separate sites of administration D-administer the vaccines via 2 separate routes of administration

C-administer the vaccines via 2 separate sites of administration

the nurse is teaching a student nurse about the use of alkylating drugs. which statement by the student indicates teaching was effective? A-alkylating drugs stop the meiosis of the cancer cell B-alkylating drugs change the structure of the RNA C-alkylating drugs alter the chemical structure of the DNA D-alkylating drugs interact with the cell through intercalation

C-alkylating drugs alter the chemical structure of the DNA

which intervention would the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient receiving bortezomib? A-screen for hep B B-monitor gor hypotension C-assess peripheral sensation D-administer consecutive doses after 48 hours

C-assess peripheral sensation

which form of vaccine is Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine? A-toxoid B-live virus C-bacterial conjugate D-recombinant viral antigen

C-bacterial conjugate ex: these vaccines contain a protein or a toxoid from an unrelated organism; this protein or toxoid links to the outer coat of the infectious organism and this linkage identified by the immature immune system of infants

by which mechanism does belatacept prevent kidney transplant rejection? A-by altering major histocompatibility complex molecules B-by binding to cytoplasmic proteins that inhibit calcineurin phosphatase C-by inhibiting t-cell CD28 activation and proliferation by binding costimulatory ligands of antigen-presenting cells D-by inhibiting activation of lymphocytes to

C-by inhibiting t-cell CD28 activation and proliferation by binding costimulatory ligands of antigen-presenting cells

the nurse is caring for a pt who developed cervical cancer secondary to a viral infection. which infection would the nurse suspect as the cause? A-enterococcus infection B-varicella-zooster infection C-human papillomavirus infection D-human parainfluenza virus infection

C-human papillomavirus infection

which medication would the nurse anticipate incorporating into the plan of care for a patient with osteoporosis? A-interleukin 2 (IL-2) B-interferon beta C-interferon gamma D-colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)

C-interferon gamma

a pt receiving aldesleukin experiences new bullous dermatitis. which action is the nurse's priority? A-administer a topical steroid B-decrease the dosage of the drug C-interrupt the medication infusion D-continue administration of the drug

C-interrupt the medication infusion

the presence of which manifestation alerts the nurse to a pt's poor response to erythropoietin therapy? A-edema B-hyperkalemia C-iron deficiency D-shortness of breath

C-iron deficiency

which antiretroviral therapy (ART) regimen will likely be avoided in a treatment-naïve female patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) whose CD4+ count is 300 cells/mm3? A-lamivudine B-maraviroc C-nevirapine D-zidovudine

C-nevirapine explanation: it is not given to a naive girls whose CD4+ count is >250 cells/mm3 due to a risk for hepatotoxicity; males if it is >400 cells/mm3

under which condition is sirolimus to be used during pregnancy? A-during the first trimester only B-in pregnancy mothers under the age of 35 years C-only if the potential benefit outweighs the potential risk D-in the absence of other risk factors, such as obesity and smoking

C-only if the potential benefit outweighs the potential risk

after a lung transplant, a pt has been prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) for prophylaxis of pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PJP). the nurse provides the patient with information about adverse effect of the medication? A-infection B-anaphylaxis C-photosensitivity D-transplant rejection

C-photosensitivity ex: the TMP-SMZ can make the skin more sensitive to sunlight, so pts need to use a lotion with a minimum of 25

the nurse is caring for a pediatric patient with cancer. After an assessment the nurse finds that the patient is a high risk for pneumonia. The nurse informs the primary health care provider and advocates for the prescription of which vaccine? A-polyvalent type of vaccine (lmovax) B-thirteen-valent conjugate vaccine (PVC13) C-polyvalent type of vaccine (pneumovax 23) D-thirteen-valent conjugate vaccine (preener 13)

C-polyvalent type of vaccine (pneumovax 23)

a pt who has been administered a live virus as a vaccine has been vaccinated against which disease? A-anthrax B-tetanus C-small pox D-diphtheria

C-small pox

based on the data fro a pt newly prescribed muromonab-CD3, which conclusion would the nurse draw regarding the pt's response to the medication? A-symptoms are consistent with an infection B-adverse effects of the medication are occurring C-symptoms are the result of medication side effects D-a cause unrelated to the medication is the source of the patient's symptoms

C-symptoms are the result of medication side effects

which parameter would the nurse monitor for when administering aldesleukin to ensure the pt is not experiencing an adverse effect? A-urine output B-serum creatinine C-systolic BP D-fluid and electrolyte balance

C-systolic BP

which intervention is a priority for a patient who is taking antiretroviral therapy? A-increase fluids to 2400 mL/day B-teach hand washing to the patient C-teach adherence to the drug regimen D-refer the patient for preventive care measures

C-teach adherence to the drug regimen ex: teaching this is highest priority because it can result in HIV viral replication and can potentiate drug resistance; the goal is 95% or higher adherence

which instruction would the nurse give a 30 yr old female pt who is prescribed efavirenz (EFV), a non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) to treat HIV infection? A-take this med with meals B-a dry cough is a side effect of this drug C-use another method of contraceptive in addition to the pill D-you will need to have your kidney function evaluated regularly

C-use another method of contraceptive in addition to the pill ex:NNRTIs can decrease the efficacy of hormonal contraceptives

which recommendation would the nurse provide to the patients receiving immunosuppressant therapy in the event that they need to go to the emergency department? A"avoid going to the emergency department, as it will increase your risk for infection' B'wear gloves and wash you hands frequently if you go to the emergency department' C'do no request special treatment at the emergency department' D'disclose at check in that you are receiving immunosuppressant drugs to avoid sitting in the waiting room for a long time'

D'disclose at check in that you are receiving immunosuppressant drugs to avoid sitting in the waiting room for a long time'

the nurse administers the herpes zoster vaccine to which patient? A- child B- a newborn C- a pregnant pt D- an older adult

D- an older adult

the nurse is explaining the complications associated with shingles to a patient who has recently recovered from a shingles infection. Which condition might affect the pt in the future? A- fever B-lockjaw C- skin rashes D- chronic debilitating pain

D- chronic debilitating pain ex:this is caused by postherpetic neuralgia that occurs after the resolution of shingles and will experience this type of pain

which vaccination was developed to prevent meningitis caused by gram-negative coccobacilli? A-prevanar B-gardasil C-hep B vaccines D-haemophilus influenze type B (Hib) conjugate vaccine

D-haemophilus influenze type B (Hib) conjugate vaccine

the primary health care provider asks the nurse to administer the shingles vaccine to and adult and the chicken pox vaccine to a child. which vaccine does the nurse administer to the pts? A-varicella to both pts B-herpes zoster to both pts C-herpes zoster to the child and varicella to the adult D-herpes zoster to the adult and varicella to the child

D-herpes zoster to the adult and varicella to the child

in addition to an increased risk for infection, which other risk do most immunosusppresant drugs pose to organ transplant recipients? A-impaired growth B-impaired ciruclation C-increased his for transplant rejection D-increased susceptibility for malignancies

D-increased susceptibility for malignancies

which nursing action is priority when caring for a pt receiving dastinib for chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)? A-monitor drug serum levels B-instruct the pt to decrease dietary iron C-ask the pt to take antacids with the medication D-instruct the pt to increase dietary phosphorous

D-instruct the pt to increase dietary phosphorous

the nurse is teaching a student nurse about the administration of chemotherapeutic drugs and the term nadir. which response by the student indicates teaching was effective? A-nadir refers to the pt's tolerance to the chemotherapy's bone marrow suppressant effect B-nadir refers to the maximum dose for a chemotherapy drug in reference to bone marrow suppression C-nadir refers to the average number of days it takes the bone marrow to recover from a dose of chemotherapy D-nadir refers to the average number of days it takes for chemotherapy to have its peak effect on the bone marrow

D-nadir refers to the average number of days it takes for chemotherapy to have its peak effect on the bone marrow

which type of cancer is erlotinib most often prescribed to treat? A-colorectal cancer B-hepatocellular cancer C-metastatic breast cancer D-non-small cell lung cancer

D-non-small cell lung cancer

which medication would the nurse anticipate incorporating into the plan of care for a pt with metastatic colorectal cancer? A-dasatinib B-rituximab C-bortezomib D-panitumumab

D-panitumumab

which pt receiving chemotherapy would the nurse assess first? A-pt receiving doxorubicin with a history of angina B-pt receiving mechloethamine who is urinating greater than 30mL/hr C-pt receiving fluorouracil with an elevated platelet count D-pt receiving cyclophosphamide with patin at the IV insertion site

D-pt receiving cyclophosphamide with patin at the IV insertion site

which intervention would the nurse anticipate incorporating into the plan of care for a pt who develops signs and symptoms of cardio toxicity due to the use of doxorubicin? A-reduce the drug dosage B-replace the drug idarubicin C-replace the drug with daunorubicin D-replace the drug with a liposomal form

D-replace the drug with a liposomal form

which statement describes the therapeutic use of sargramostim? A-sargramostim is used to decrease the incidence of infections B-sargramostim is used to treat anemia secondary to chronic renal failure C-sargramostim is used to prevent recurrent severe chemotherapy-induced throbocytopenia D-sargramostim is used to accelerate growth and development of bone marrow

D-sargramostim is used to accelerate growth and development of bone marrow

which phrase describes the rationale for the use of epoetin alfa drug therapy? A-to replace blood loss from surgery B-to replace blood loss from a trauma C-to treat pregnancy-associated anemia D-to treat an anemic patient with renal failure

D-to treat an anemic patient with renal failure

which information would the nurse include when teaching a pt about the administration of sorafenib therapy for treatment of hepatocellular cancer? A-you must remember to take the tablet along with food B-you will be off treatment for 2 weeks after a 4-week course C-you must remember to take the drug once daily for 4 weeks D-you must report immediately if your vomit looks like coffee grounds

D-you must report immediately if your vomit looks like coffee grounds

a pt with kaposi sarcoma is to receive an initial SQ dose of interferon alfa-2b and asks the nurse, "how long do I have to take this drug?" which response would the nurse provide? A-you will need to be treated indefinitely B-you will receive treatment until you have an adverse reaction C-you will receive treatment three times a week for a total duration of 48 weeks D-you will receive treatment up to 16 weeks or until you have a severe intolerance

D-you will receive treatment up to 16 weeks or until you have a severe intolerance