PHARM CH. 50-52

The catalyst carbonic anhydrase influences the transport system for reabsorption of which? a. Sodium b. Carbon dioxide c. Hydrogen d. Potassium

a. Sodium

A patient is ordered furosemide. What is a potential complication of this medication? a. Hypertension b. Hypotension c. Bradycardia d. Decreased SpO2

b. Hypotension

The tube that leads from the kidney to the bladder is the: (pg. 906) a. ureter b. renal pelvis c. urethra d. seminal vesicle

a. ureter

A client comes to the clinic with reports of dysuria and frequency. The nurse practitioner suspects that the client is experiencing a UTI. Before instituting anti-infective therapy, which laboratory testing would be most important? (pg.929) a. urine culture and sensitivity b. serum sodium level c. white blood cell count d. urine glucose evaluation

a. urine culture and sensitivity

Which would lead a nurse to suspect that a client most likely has pyelonephritis? (pg. 927) a. Urinary frequency b. Flank pain c. Dysuria d. Urgency

b. Flank pain

A 3-year-old has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections (UTI). Which practice implemented by the parents for the child indicates an understanding of preventive measures regarding these infections? (pg. 929) a. 3 ounces of orange juice daily b. No use of bubble bath liquids or salts c. Provides acrylic underwear d. Cleans the perineal area from back to front

b. No use of bubble bath liquids or salts

The nurse is caring for an older adult. What is the primary nursing intervention to increase fluid intake in older adults? (pg. 927) a. Increase the client's intake of salty foods. b. Offer a variety of fluids to the client every hour. c. Place a pitcher of water at the client's bedside. d. Ambulate the client every four hours to encourage thirstiness.

b. Offer a variety of fluids to the client every hour.

What is required when a patient is in end-stage kidney disease (ESKD)? a. Beta blockers b. Renal replacement therapy c. Ventricular assist device d. Continuous oxygen therapy

b. Renal replacement therapy

Explain Acid-Base Balance in the Urinary System:

The kidneys return bicarbonate to the body's circulation; the bicarbonate is stored in the renal tubule as the body's alkaline reserve for use when the body becomes too acidic and a buffer is needed, helping to maintain the body's acid-base balance.

What type of diet should patients with kidney disease follow? a. Low-potassium and low-sodium b. Low-calcium and high-potassium c. High-sodium and low-fat d. High-calcium and high-potassium

a. Low-potassium and low-sodium

Which statement by the client indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about diuretics? (pg. 914) a. "I will weigh myself daily and report significant changes." b. "I will have to limit my high-sugar foods." c. "If my leg becomes swollen again, I'll take an additional pill." d. "I will take my medication before bedtime on an empty stomach."

a. "I will weigh myself daily and report significant changes."

Considering the metabolic functions of the kidneys, renal failure would be expected to cause which conditions? (select all that apply) a. Anemia b. Loss of calcium regulation c. Urea buildup on the skin d. Respiratory alkalosis e. Metabolic acidosis f. Changes in the function of blood cells

a. Anemia b. Loss of calcium regulation c. Urea buildup on the skin e. Metabolic acidosis f. Changes in the function of blood cells

Important educational points for patients with cystitis include which information? a. Avoidance of bubble baths b. Voiding immediately after sexual intercourse c. Always wiping from back to front d. Avoidance of foods high in alkaline ash e. Tight fluid restriction f. Always wiping from front to back

a. Avoidance of bubble baths b. Voiding immediately after sexual intercourse d. Avoidance of foods high in alkaline ash f. Always wiping from front to back

Which factors should be assessed prior to administering a loop diuretic? Select all that apply. a. Blood pressure b. Heart rate c. Potassium level d. Sodium level e. Respiratory rate

a. Blood pressure c. Potassium level

Routine nursing care of a client receiving a diuretic would include which interventions?(select all that apply) a. Daily weighing b. Tight fluid restrictions c. Periodic electrolyte evaluations d. Monitoring of urinary output e. Regular IOP testing f. Teaching the patient to report muscle cramping

a. Daily weighing c. Periodic electrolyte evaluations d. Monitoring of urinary output f. Teaching the patient to report muscle cramping

Which substance stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells? (pg. 906) a. Erythropoietin b. Prostaglandin E c. Prostacyclin d. Renin

a. Erythropoietin

When explaining the underlying mechanisms associated with renal failure, which would be most important for the nurse to keep in mind? (pg. 902) a. Extensive kidney damage has usually occurred by the time the patient is symptomatic. b. Renal failure typically involves some injury to the protective layers of the kidneys. c. Manifestations occur when a small number of nephrons become nonfunctional. d. Nephron damage is not associated with the development of signs and symptoms.

a. Extensive kidney damage has usually occurred by the time the patient is symptomatic.

In evaluating a patient for the presence of a bladder infection, one would expect to find reports of which conditions? a. Frequency of urination b. Painful urination c. Edema of the fingers and hands d. Urgency of urination e. Feelings of abdominal bloating f. Itching, scaly skin

a. Frequency of urination b. Painful urination d. Urgency of urination e. Feelings of abdominal bloating

Which is an example of a loop diuretic? (pg. 917) a. Furosemide (Lasix) b. Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) c. Acetazolamide (Diamox) d. Spironolactone (Aldactone)

a. Furosemide (Lasix)

Diuretics are currently recommended for the treatment of which conditions? (select all that apply) a. Hypertension b. Renal disease c. Obesity d. Severe liver disease e. Fluid retention of pregnancy f. Heart failure

a. Hypertension b. Renal disease d. Severe liver disease f. Heart failure

During severe diarrhea, there is a loss of water, bicarbonate, and sodium from the GI tract. Physiological compensation for this would probably include which conditions? (select all that apply) a. Increased alveolar ventilation b. Decreased hydrogen ion secretion by the renal tubules c. Decreased urinary excretion of sodium and water d. Increased renin secretion e. Increased hydrogen ion secretion by the renal tubules f. Increased ADH levels

a. Increased alveolar ventilation c. Decreased urinary excretion of sodium and water d. Increased renin secretion e. Increased hydrogen ion secretion by the renal tubules f. Increased ADH levels

SKILLS 2.0 The nurse uses a large volume of sterile solution to irrigate a client's eye after an injury. What technique will the nurse utilize? a. Irrigate from the inner canthus and flush toward the outer canthus. b. Ask the client to keep the eye open as wide as possible during irrigation. c. Use a sterile saline-soaked gauze to wipe material from the lacrimal sac. d. Have the client sit as far forward as possible to assist with drainage.

a. Irrigate from the inner canthus and flush toward the outer canthus.

Which are symptoms of a urinary tract infection (UTI) in an older adult? Select all that apply. a. Malaise b. Nocturia c. Foul-smelling urine d. Fever e. Dementia

a. Malaise b. Nocturia c. Foul-smelling urine d. Fever

Which is not a way bacteria enter the urinary tract? a. Medication given intravenously b. Transurethral route c. Via the bloodstream d. Fistula from the intestine

a. Medication given intravenously

What is not a function of the kidney? a. Metabolizing ammonia b. Controlling blood pressure c. Regulating acid-base balance d. Producing red blood cells

a. Metabolizing ammonia

A patient has been diagnosed with glaucoma. Which does the nurse expect the provider to prescribe? a. Methazolamide (generic) b. Torsemide (Soaanz) c. Furosemide (Lasix) d. Triamterene (Dyrenium)

a. Methazolamide (generic)

A client is to receive methenamine. The nurse anticipates administering this drug by which route? (pg. 928) a. Oral b. Subcutaneous c. Intramuscular d. Intravenous

a. Oral

A health care provider prescribes a urinary antispasmodic as a transdermal patch. The nurse identifies this as drug as: (pg. 933) a. Oxybutynin b. Flavoxate c. Tolterodine d, Darifenacin

a. Oxybutynin

Patients taking which drug should be warned that it will cause the urine to turn a reddish-orange color? a. Phenazopyridine (Azo-Standard, Baridium, and others) b. Pentosan polysulfate sodium (Elmiron) c. Tolterodine (Detrol, Detrol LA) d. Darifenacin (Enablex)

a. Phenazopyridine (Azo-Standard, Baridium, and others)

A patient is admitted for hypovolemic shock. Which type of acute kidney injury (AKI) is this patient at risk for? a. Prerenal b. Intrarenal c. Postrenal d. End-stage kidney disease

a. Prerenal

A male client has cirrhosis and is receiving diuretic therapy. The nurse knows that what drug will help prevent metabolic alkalosis or hypokalemia in this client? (pg. 921) a. Spironolactone b. Dyazide c. Hydrochlorothiazide d. Bumetanide

a. Spironolactone

When developing the plan of care for a patient with hyperaldosteronism, the nurse would expect the physician to prescribe which agent? a. Spironolactone b. Furosemide c. Hydrochlorothiazide d. Acetazolamide

a. Spironolactone

When describing renal reabsorption to a group of students, the instructor would identify it as the movement of which? a. Substances from the renal tubule into the blood b. Substances from the blood into the renal tubule c. Water that is increased in the absence of ADH d. Sodium occurring only in the proximal tubule

a. Substances from the renal tubule into the blood

Maintenance of blood pressure is important in maintaining the fragile nephrons. Reflex systems that work to ensure blood flow to the kidneys include which of the following? (select all that apply) a. The RAAS causing vasoconstriction b. Baroreceptor monitoring of the renal artery c. Aldosterone release secondary to angiotensin stimulation d. ADH release in response to decreased blood volume with increased osmolarity e. Release of erythropoietin f. Local response of the afferent arterioles

a. The RAAS causing vasoconstriction c. Aldosterone release secondary to angiotensin stimulation d. ADH release in response to decreased blood volume with increased osmolarity f. Local response of the afferent arterioles

The countercurrent mechanism occurs in the loop of Henle. (pg. 904) a. True b. False

a. True

The pituitary hormone that causes reabsorption of water in the kidneys is: (pg. 904) a. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) b. oxytocin c. prolactin (PRL) d. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

a. antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

During severe exertion, a person may lose up to 4 L of hypotonic sweat per hour. This loss would result in a. decreased plasma volume. b. decreased plasma osmolarity. c. decreased circulating levels of ADH until ingestion of 100 mL of water. d. return of body fluid balance to normal after ingestion of 100 mL of water.

a. decreased plasma volume.

The drug of choice for treatment of BPH in a patient with known hypertension might be a. doxazosin. b. dutasteride. c. finasteride. d. propranolol.

a. doxazosin.

Pain or discomfort when voiding is called: a. dysuria. b. urgency. c. nocturia. d. suprapubic pain.

a. dysuria.

A client with lower extremity edema from heart failure reports taking a diuretic as prescribed for several weeks. Which situation would the nurse suspect when the edema is still present? (pg. 915) a. fluid rebound b. exacerbation of heart failure c. skipping doses of the medication d. electrolyte imbalance from the medication

a. fluid rebound

Which diuretic will most likely be the initial drug of choice when a client demonstrates dyspnea related to pulmonary edema? (pg. 919) a. furosemide b. hydrochlorothiazide c. spironolactone d. mannitol

a. furosemide

Before administering a drug for the treatment of BPH, the nurse should ensure that the patient a. has had a prostate examination, including measurement of the PSA level. b. has not had a vasectomy. c. is still sexually active. d. is hypertensive.

a. has had a prostate examination, including measurement of the PSA level.

A health care provider prescribes spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, for a client with cirrhosis. For which category of clients is the use of potassium-sparing diuretics contraindicated? (pg. 921) a. hyperkalemia b. liver disease c. gout d. diabetes

a. hyperkalemia

A physician has prescribed triamterene to a client with renal disease. The client informs the nurse that they are taking potassium supplements to address some heart problems. The nurse would be alert for which of the following? (pg. 921) a. increased risk of hyperkalemia. b. increased risk of bleeding. c. decreased diuretic effectiveness. d. increased risk of arrhythmias.

a. increased risk of hyperkalemia.

Furosemide (Lasix) works in the: a. loop of Henle. b. proximal tubule. c. collecting duct. d. glomerulus.

a. loop of Henle.

The nurse should advise clients taking phenazopyridine that they may notice a change in urine color. Which color would the nurse identify? (pg. 936) a. orange b. blue c. purple d. green

a. orange

A nurse is caring for a client who has come to the urgent care clinic and is reporting symptoms of urinary frequency and burning. The health care provider runs a panel of tests, diagnoses the client with a urinary tract infection (UTI), and prescribes nitrofurantoin and phenazopyridine for treating the UTI. Which statement by the client best demonstrates that the discharge teaching for these two medications was successful? (pg. 929) a. "I can stop taking these medications once I no longer have symptoms of burning and frequency." b. "A common side effect of the phenazopyridine is a reddish-orange discoloration of my urine." c. "I should drink at least 1,500 mL of water daily to help flush the bacteria out." d. "I will take the nitrofurantoin in the mornings on an empty stomach."

b. "A common side effect of the phenazopyridine is a reddish-orange discoloration of my urine."

Your 55-year-old patient is receiving both digoxin and potassium supplements along with hydrochlorothiazide. When monitoring daily laboratory values, you know it is important for your patient to maintain which serum potassium level? (pg. 917) a. 1.5-3.0 mEq/L b. 3.5-5.0 mEq/L c. 5.0-7.5 mEq/L d. 80-120 mg/dL

b. 3.5-5.0 mEq/L

When planning the care for an older patient diagnosed with BPH, which two types of drugs would the nurse most likely expect the physician to prescribe? a. Alpha-adrenergic blockers and anticholinergic drugs b. Alpha-adrenergic blockers and testosterone production blockers c. Anticholinergic drugs and alpha-adrenergic stimulators d. Testosterone production stimulators and adrenal androgens

b. Alpha-adrenergic blockers and testosterone production blockers

What is the best laboratory test for evaluating kidney function? a. Creatinine b. Creatinine clearance c. Urine specific gravity d. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

b. Creatinine clearance

Which condition is not an indication for a loop diuretic? a. Heart failure b. Diabetes mellitus c. Hypertension d. Fluid overload

b. Diabetes mellitus

An enlarged prostate gland in older patients increases the risk of urinary infection and cervical cancer. a. TRUE b. FALSE

b. FALSE

What is a symptom of an upper urinary tract infection (UTI) that is not seen in a lower UTI? a. Painful urination b. Flank pain c. Back pain d. Pelvic pain

b. Flank pain

Which is a potassium-sparing diuretic that causes a loss of sodium while retaining potassium? a. Mannitol (Osmitrol) b. Spironolactone (Aldactone) c. Dichlorphenamide (Keveyis) d. Torsemide (Soaanz)

b. Spironolactone (Aldactone)

A patient is prescribed a loop diuretic. What will happen to the potassium level when this medication is administered? a. The potassium level will increase. b. The potassium level will decrease. c. The potassium level will remain unchanged. d. The potassium level will only drop if it was high prior to administration.

b. The potassium level will decrease.

The nurse is conducting assessment of a patient who has been diagnosed with overactive bladder. Which drug can the nurse expect to be included in the patient's medication assessment? a. Fosfomycin (Monurol) b. Vibegron (Gemtesa) c. Pentosan polysulfate sodium (Elmiron) d. Alfuzosin (Uroxatral)

b. Vibegron (Gemtesa)

SKILLS 2.0 - The nurse is preparing to irrigate a client's eye. Where does the nurse place the basin to catch the irrigant? a. unaffected side b. affected side c. near the ear d. below the chin

b. affected side

Thiazide diuretics are considered less potent diuretics because they a. block the sodium pump in the loop of Henle. b. cause loss of sodium and chloride but little water. c. do not cause fluid rebound when they work in the kidneys. d. have little or no effect on electrolyte levels.

b. cause loss of sodium and chloride but little water.

A patient being treated for BPH who is concerned about hair loss might prefer treatment with a. doxazosin. b. finasteride. c. tamsulosin. d. terazosin.

b. finasteride.

The antibiotic of choice for a patient with cystitis who has great difficulty following medical regimens is a. penicillin. b. fosfomycin. c. ciprofloxacin. d. nitrofurantoin.

b. fosfomycin.

One of the basic functions of the nephrons in the renal system is: a. glomerular secretion b. glomerular filtration c. tubular reabsorption d. tubular filtration

b. glomerular filtration

Most diuretics act in the body to cause a. loss of calcium. b. loss of sodium. c. retention of potassium. d. retention of chloride.

b. loss of sodium.

The tube that begins with Bowman's capsule and serves as the functional unit of the kidneys is called the: a. glomerulus. b. nephron. c. Bowman's capsule. d. tubule.

b. nephron.

Females tend to have more problems with bladder infections than males because a. females have Escherichia coli in the urinary tract. b. the female urethra is short, making access to the bladder easier for bacteria. c. the prostate gland secretes a substance that protects males from bladder infections. d. females' urine is more acidic, encouraging the growth of bladder bacteria.

b. the female urethra is short, making access to the bladder easier for bacteria.

A male client who takes dutasteride for benign prostatic hypertrophy calls the clinic. He says he tried to donate blood and was denied because of his medication. The client is very concerned about this and wants to know why this happened. What is the nurse's best response to the client? (pg. 941) a. "Have you ever given blood before? This medication may make your veins harder to access for blood donation." b. "It is dangerous for you to give blood because this medication makes you dizzy." c. "This medication can harm a developing fetus so your blood could be harmful if given to a pregnant woman." d. "Your blood is slightly thicker while you are on this medication and the blood donation equipment is unable to handle it."

c. "This medication can harm a developing fetus so your blood could be harmful if given to a pregnant woman."

SKILLS 2.0 The nurse is preparing to irrigate the eyes of a client who was brought to the emergency department after suffering acid being sprayed in their eyes at work. For how long will the nurse be prepared to irrigate this client's eyes? a. 5 to 10 minutes b. 11 to 14 minutes c. 15 to 30 minutes d. 31 to 45 minutes

c. 15 to 30 minutes

The kidneys receive approximately what percentage of the cardiac output? (pg. 902) a. 5% b. 15% c. 25% d. 40%

c. 25%

Which statement accurately describes acute kidney injury (AKI)? a. It has a slow onset over many years. b. Diabetes mellitus is a primary cause for AKI. c. AKI has an abrupt onset. d. AKI primarily affects the liver with minor kidney implications.

c. AKI has an abrupt onset.

What type of medications puts a patient at risk for intrarenal acute kidney injury (AKI)? a. Beta blockers b. Insulin c. Antibiotics d. Proton pump inhibitors

c. Antibiotics

When providing care to a patient who is receiving a loop diuretic, which would the nurse typically need to monitor regularly? a. Calorie intake b. Bone marrow function c. Blood pressure d. Protein levels

c. Blood pressure

Which type of renal replacement therapy requires the patient to be in a critical care unit receiving dialysis because their condition is too unstable for conventional dialysis? a. Peritoneal dialysis b. Hemodialysis c. Continuous renal replacement therapy d. Intensive care dialysis

c. Continuous renal replacement therapy

When describing the functions of the kidney to a client, what would the nurse include? (pg. 904) a. Regulation of white blood cell production b. Synthesis of vitamin K c. Control of water balance d. Secretion of enzymes

c. Control of water balance

Which structure acts as an ultra-fine filter for all the blood that flows through it? (pg. 903) a. Renal medulla b. Bowman's capsule c. Glomerulus d. Renal cortex

c. Glomerulus

A patient is diagnosed with stage 3 chronic kidney disease (CKD). At what level is this patient's glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? a. Level 1 b. Level 2 c. Level 3 d. Level 5

c. Level 3

Which is an example of an osmotic diuretic that relieves edema by pulling water into the renal tubule without sodium loss? a. Metolazone (Zaroxolyn) b. Bumetanide (Bumex) c. Mannitol (Osmitrol) d. Eplerenone (Inspra)

c. Mannitol (Osmitrol)

You are caring for a patient who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which action is not indicated? a. Assess the need for the catheter. b. Advocate for the removal of the catheter if it is not needed. c. Switch out the bag every shift. d. Document the patient's output.

c. Switch out the bag every shift.

A client calls the nurse and reports gastrointestinal upset after taking nitrofurantoin upon awakening each morning. What recommendation should the nurse make to this client? (pg. 932) a. Stop taking the medication b. Take vitamin C along with the medication c. Take the medicine with or right after meals d. Continue to take the medicine on an empty stomach

c. Take the medicine with or right after meals

Why do loop diuretics need to be pushed slowly when administered via intravenous (IV) push? a. To prevent nephrotoxicity b. To prevent neuroplasticity c. To prevent ototoxicity d. To prevent retinopathy

c. To prevent ototoxicity

Diuretics cause a loss of fluid volume in the body. The drop in volume activates compensatory mechanisms to restore the volume, including a. suppression of ADH release and stimulation of the countercurrent mechanism. b. suppression of aldosterone release and increased ADH release. c. activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system with increased ADH and aldosterone. d. stimulation of the countercurrent mechanism with reflex drop in renin release.

c. activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system with increased ADH and aldosterone.

Blood flow to the nephron differs from blood flow to other tissues in that a. the venous system is not involved in blood flow around the nephron. b. there are no capillaries in the nephron allowing direct flow from the artery to the vein. c. efferent and afferent arterioles allow for autoregulation of blood flow. d. the capillary bed has a fenestrated membrane to allow passage of fluid and small particles.

c. efferent and afferent arterioles allow for autoregulation of blood flow.

The nurse would instruct a patient receiving a loop diuretic to report a. yellow vision. b. weight loss of 1 lb/d. c. muscle cramping. d. increased urination.

c. muscle cramping.

After bladder surgery, many patients experience burning, urgency, frequency, and pain related to urinary tract irritation. Such patients would benefit from treatment with a. methylene blue. b. fosfomycin. c. phenazopyridine. d. flavoxate.

c. phenazopyridine.

The nurse would anticipate an order for a loop diuretic as the drug of choice for a patient with a. hypertension. b. septic shock. c. pulmonary edema. d. fluid retention of pregnancy.

c. pulmonary edema.

The outer portion of the kidney is called the: (pg. 902) a. adrenal cortex b. adrenal medulla c. renal cortex d. renal medulla

c. renal cortex

A client with kidney disease asks why there is blood in the urine. Which process will the nurse explain to the client? (pg. 903) a. "The fluid transport system in the kidney is malfunctioning." b. "Epithelial cells in the renal tubule are permitting blood to enter the urine." c. "Glands that sit on the kidneys are releasing hormones that promote blood to be in the urine." d. "The glomerulus in the kidney is scarred or damaged, permitting blood cells to escape in the urine."

d. "The glomerulus in the kidney is scarred or damaged, permitting blood cells to escape in the urine."

How long can the recovery period of AKI take? a. 1 to 2 weeks b. 6 to 12 weeks c. 2 to 4 months d. 3 to 12 months

d. 3 to 12 months

SKILLS 2.0 The nurse is preparing to irrigate a client's eyes using a 60-ml irrigation syringe. What is the maximum distance the nurse should hold the syringe tip above the affected eye? a. 2 cm b. 3 cm c. 4 cm d. 5 cm

d. 5 cm

What is not a risk factor for developing a lower urinary tract infection (UTI) in a younger adult? a. Stroke b. Pregnancy c. Diabetes d. Assigned male at birth

d. Assigned male at birth

The nurse has finished a teaching session with a client who is prescribed a diuretic to be taken twice a day. The nurse determines the session is successful when the client correctly chooses which times to take the drug? (pg.913) a. After lunch and dinner b. Midmorning and before dinner c. In the early morning and at bedtime d. At breakfast and midafternoon

d. At breakfast and midafternoon

A client prescribed both an ACE inhibitor and a beta-blocker for the treatment of hypertension has been consistently obtaining blood pressure readings in the vicinity of 145/90 mm Hg. As a result, the client's primary health care provider has prescribed furosemide. What order would be most consistent with this client's health needs? (pg. 911) a. Furosemide 125 mg PO OD b. Furosemide 40 mg IV TID c. Furosemide 20 mg IV OD d. Furosemide 40 mg PO BID

d. Furosemide 40 mg PO BID

An ED nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving furosemide for treatment of pulmonary edema. What will the nurse monitor to observe for adverse effects of the drug? (pg. 917) a. Temperature b. Bone marrow function c. Blood oxygen saturation d. Potassium levels

d. Potassium levels

SKILLS 2.0 During an eye irrigation, the client reports an urge to blink. What action does the nurse take? a. Reassure the client that the procedure will be over soon. b. Offer to discontinue the irrigation until the client feels better. c. Cover the client's eye with a saline-soaked gauze pad. d. Stop the irrigation so the client can blink.

d. Stop the irrigation so the client can blink.

Which is considered a major adverse effect of the carbonic anhydrase inhibitors? a. Hyperglycemia b. CNS complications c. Diarrhea d. Urinary frequency

d. Urinary frequency

Which substances are moved from the glomerulus into the tubule due to hydrostatic pressure? (pg. 903) a. Lipids b. Proteins c. Blood cells d. Water

d. Water

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and nitrofurantoin are indicated to treat a. pyelonephritis. b. benign prostate hypertrophy (BPH). c. bladder spasms. d. acute uncomplicated cystitis.

d. acute uncomplicated cystitis.

When providing medication teaching to a client who has been prescribed spironolactone, what foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid? (pg. 921) a. fish b. apples c. crackers d. bananas

d. bananas

Urinary tract antispasmodics block the pain and discomfort associated with spasm in the smooth muscle of the urinary tract. The numerous adverse effects associated with these drugs are related to their a. blockade of sympathetic beta-receptors. b. stimulation of cholinergic receptors. c. stimulation of sympathetic receptors. d. blockade of cholinergic receptors.

d. blockade of cholinergic receptors.

A patient with severe glaucoma who is about to undergo eye surgery would benefit from a decrease in intraocular fluid. This is often best accomplished by giving the patient a(n) a. loop diuretic. b. thiazide diuretic. c. carbonic anhydrase inhibitor. d. osmotic diuretic.

d. osmotic diuretic.

Urine passes through the ureter by a. osmosis. b. air pressure. c. filtration. d. peristalsis.

d. peristalsis.

A client with a urinary tract infection is experiencing intense burning and pain. The nurse reviews the client's electronic medical record after the client is prescribed phenazopyridine. What finding would contraindicate the safe and effective use of this medication? (pg. 936) a. asthma b. hypertension c. diabetes mellitus d. renal insufficiency

d. renal insufficiency

Trospium (Detrol) is designed to treat urinary frequency and urgency caused by bladder: a. infection. b. incontinence. c. distention. d. spasms.

d. spasms.

Concentration and dilution of urine are controlled by a. afferent arterioles. b. the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. c. aldosterone release. d. the countercurrent mechanism.

d. the countercurrent mechanism.

Considering the functions of the kidney, if a patient lost kidney function, a nurse would expect to see a. increased red blood cell count. b. decreased fluid volume. c. low blood potassium. d. variability in control of blood pressure.

d. variability in control of blood pressure.