Pharm Exam 2 Quizzes

VAERS relies on receiving adverse event reports from healthcare professionals. Select reportable events from the list below.

Any adverse event listed by the vaccine manufacturer as a contraindication to further doses of the vaccine Any adverse event listed in the VAERS Table of Reportable Events Following Vaccination that occurs within the specified time period after vaccination

The NIAID site discusses adaptive immune cells as being more specialized with each adaptive B- or T-cell bearing unique receptors that recognize specific signals rather than general patterns. ___ occurs after the B- or T-cells are activated and retained as memory cells that react and clear the same pathogen when it re-enters the body at a later time. A vaccination introduces a/an ___ that ideally activates both the innate and adaptive response to protect the individual against contracting a specific disease.

Immune memory; immunogen

Annually, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) issue statements of recommended vaccines. Therefore, health care professionals should check the immunization schedules each year. Parents can also look up the schedules to identify immunizations and time frames for receiving. There are several sites to check including the CDC, American Academy of Pediatrics and the American Academy of Family Physicians. Locate the 2019 immunization schedule for ages 0-15 months.

In special situations, the meningococcal vaccine series may begin as early as 8 weeks. The first dose of IPV is given at 2 months of age. The dosing schedule for the DTaP series from 0-15 months is 2, 4, 6, and 15-18 months.

___ immune cells express genetically encoded receptors, called ____. These broadly recognize microbes and non-infectious problems and respond quickly leading to an inflammatory response.

Innate; toll-like receptors (TLRs)

__________ are types of cytokines that occur naturally in the body and can also be produced in the laboratory. These cytokines act as immunostimulants and can improve the way a cancer patient's immune system acts against cancer cells.

Interferons and interleukins

Which of the following is false regarding the structure of HIV?

It is made up of DNA; The HIV virus is not made up of DNA. Its structure is simplistic, being made of RNA, surrounded by core proteins, which are then surrounded a a protein shell known as a capsid.

Fungal superinfections usually occur in the anal, genital, and ____ areas.

oral; Fungal superinfections usually occur in the anal and genital areas or in the vagina or mouth. They cause itching, vaginal discharge, and lesions on the tongue or mouth. A common type of fungal superinfection is known as candidiasis or moniliasis.

What are the common indications for a vaccination? Select all that apply.

passive immunization in illnesses where active immunization is not available booster immunization against disease as indicated by age and disease process initial immunization against childhood diseases passive immunization for those who cannot take active immunizations

Lymphocytes respond to the presence of cancer cells, foreign proteins, and invading:

pathogens; Lymphocytes respond to the presence of invading pathogens like bacteria and viruses, as well as abnormal body cells and toxins. lymphocytes attempt to eliminate these threats or tender them harmless by a combination of physical and chemical attack.

What drug is a folic acid antagonist used to manage both malaria and toxoplasmosis? Patients taking this drug should be monitored for _____ and receive ____ to minimize this adverse effect.

pyrimethamine; bone marrow suppression; folic acid;; Pyrimethamine is indicated in the treatment of both malaria and toxoplasmosis. All patients taking pyrimethamine should also receive folic acid. If bone marrow suppression occurs from this drug, it can be minimized with folic acid.

The treatment of choice for severe P. falciparum infection is ____. It is not used for malaria prophylaxis because of _____.

quinine; high toxicity;;Quinine is the treatment of choice for severe P. falciparum infection. It contraindicated for malaria prophylaxis because it is highly toxic. Quinidine gluconate is an antidysrhythmic drug that is used off-label to treat severe malaria via IV administration.

Amphotericin B adverse effects include ____. Select all that apply.

loss of hearing blood dyscrasias renal damage (The most serious ADR is renal damage. This drug is also able to cause blood dyscrasias and loss of hearing.)

After exposure to HIV, prophylactic antiretroviral drugs should be administered within ___.

1-2 hours; After exposure to HIV, prophylactic antiretroviral drugs should be administered within 1-2 hours, and no longer than 72 hours after exposure. These drugs must be continued for 28 days. The patient must be tested for antibodies against HIV at the time of exposure if possible, then again at 6 weeks, 12 weeks, and 6 months after exposure.

A fungal infection is termed a ____.

mycosis; The causative fungus may be either yeast or a filamentous fungus. Normal healthy individuals are resistant to most fungal infections.

Match the type of immunity with its descriptor. 1. Genetic make-up of individual, ethnic group or species 2. Transfer of antibodies from mother to baby (lasts 6-12 months) 3. Disease with production of antibodies (years-lifetime) 4. Purposely introduced antigen to stimulate production of antibodies 5. Exposure to virulent organism with introduction of ready-made antibodies in immune serum

1. Inborn 2. Natural passive 3. Natural active 4. Artificial active 5. Artificial passive

Match the patient factors that influence antimicrobial use or choice with the example. There may be more than 1 match to patient factor. 1. cumulation due to changes in organ function 2. cross-resistance 3. experienced rash, fever, urticaria, pruritus, erythema, or anaphalaxis with similar medication 4. long-term corticosteroid use 5. immune system attacks healthy cells at site 6. medication can be absorbed through breast milk 7. presence of HIV with treatment

1. Neonate or elderly 2. History of multiple antimicrobial use 3. History of hypersensitivity 4. Immunocompromised 5. Presence of prosthetic joints, pacemaker or other implementation 6. Neonate or elderly 7. Immunocompromised

Which is the type of immunity that is genetically determined by species, families, or populations?

natural immunity

Match the mechanism of action of these HAART medications for management of HIV/AIDS. 1. block protease enzyme to prevent the strands of genetic materials from being formed into functional pieces. Most effective in reducing viral loads to undetectable levels - used with NRTIs. 2. block the integrase enzyme to prevent HIV from adding DNA into the CD4 cells 3. prevent HIV from entering cell by blocking fusion of the viral membrane with the bilipid layer of plasma membrane. 4. block viral entry into cells; considered an entry inhibitor. 5. block HIV ability to use reverse transcriptase enzyme to build new DNA 6. block reverse transcriptase directly by binding to active reverse transcriptase centers to prevent it from working correctly to build new DNA - structurally different from naturally-occurring nucleosides with a different mechanism of action.

1. Protease inhibitors 2. Integrase strand transfer inhibitors 3. Entry/fusion inhibitors 4. Chemokine inceptor 5 antagonist 5. Nucleoside transcriptase reverse inhibitors 6. Non-nucleoside transcriptase reverse inhibitors

Select the correct active immunity characteristic by category from the following list of both active and passive comparative information (see the table in your lecture notes). Select "no match" for characteristics that relate to passive immunity or do not have a match to a characteristic. 1. disease prevention 2. self-produced immunity 3. contraction of disease or immunization with toxoid or vaccine 4. 5-21 days 5. long term, up to a lifetime 6. immunity from immune humans or animals 7. from mother to fetus or baby or administration of antibody by injection 8. immediate 9. short term, days to a few months

1. Purpose 2. Source 3. Method of immunity 4. Response time 5. Duration 6. no match 7. no match 8. no match 9. no match

Organize the steps in the immune response from 1-8.

1. body recognizes foreign antigen and causes activation of the macrophage 2. macrophage engulfs and expresses the antigen on its own exterior and signals a helper T-cell 3. helper T-cell reads signal and alerts other parts of the immune system to respond 4. B-cell responds and reads antigen from surface of macrophage 5. B-cell activates and produces antibodies specific to the antigen 6. specific antibodies released into the body and attach to antigen particles 7. antibodies send signal to other macrophages and immune cells to engulf and destroy the antibody 8. suppressor T-cell signals other immune system cells to rest

During all stages of HIV infection, the virus replicates very quickly, particularly during stage:

1; The HIV virus replicates most quickly during stage 1. This is because the amount of CD4 cells is still very large, and the host has not developed an immune response against the virus.

Jane Smith developed community-acquired pneumonia and was treated with amoxicillin (broad-spectrum synthetic penicillin). After 5 days of treatment, she experienced soreness of her mouth and throat with white patches on her tongue and oral mucosa. She likely has Candida albicans. How did this superinfection occur?

The penicillin altered the balance of Jane's normal flora causing an overgrowth of Candida which is normally found on the skin and mucous membranes.

Nucleoside analogs are derived from ___.

nucleic acid; Nucleoside analogs are derived from nucleic acid. The are combined with protease inhibitors and used in HAART therapy. This type of therapy involves the combination of 3-4 drugs effective against HIV.

The Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices recommends that children be immunized against how many infectious diseases - excluding hepatitis A in areas of high incidence and HPV.

8

Dr. Zanie Leroy, MD, MPH, Medical Officer for the Immunization Safety Office, discusses the program and the demonstrated public health importance of the reporting system. Select all correct statements.

A signal event was noted in adolescents who developed syncope after receiving vaccinations; especially females after receiving Gardasil. RotaShield was removed from the US market because of the increased risk of intussusception identified by adverse event reporting in 1999.

____ develops over the lifetime as the individual is exposed to disease and develops immunity or is given a disease agent to stimulate the immune response.

Acquired immunity

What are the objectives of the VAERS program (select all that apply)?

Assess the safety of newly licensed vaccines. Detect new, unusual, or rare VAEs. Identify vaccine lots with increased numbers or types of reported adverse events. Monitor increases in known adverse events. Identify potential patient risk factors for particular types of adverse events.

_____ are the active component of humoral immunity that differentiate into plasma cells to produce and secrete immunoglobulins.

B lymphocytes

Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?

BCG; The Bacillus Calmette Guerin (BCG) vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine. It is administered intradermally. However, it is not generally recommended in the USA because of low risk of infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and other reasons. It should only be considered for people who meet specific criteria determined by a tuberculosis expert.

The National Cancer Institutes Web discuss how biological therapies use the body's immune system to fight cancer or to lessen the side effects caused by some cancer treatments. ______ occur naturally in the body and can be produced in the laboratory to alter the interaction between the body's immune defenses and cancer cells to boost, direct, or restore the body's ability to fight disease.

Biological therapies

The human immunodeficiency virus infects which type of leukocyte?

CD4 cells; The cells affected by the HIV virus are the CD4 helper T-lymphocytes. Once HIV attaches to CD4 proteins are their surfaces, the cells die within about 30 hours.

Fungicidal is defined as ____.

having a killing action on fungi; The term fungistatic means slowing fungal multiplication. Many antifungal agents affect the cell membranes of fungi and act in relation to their concentration in body tissues.

Which type of viral hepatitis may be prevented by vaccine?

hepatitis A; Hepatitis A may be prevented by vaccine, as well as hepatitis B. The other forms of hepatitis currently have no vaccines. Hepatitis A may also be treated with IM immunoglobulin, and hepatitis B may also be treated with NRTIs and antiviral interferons.

Which of the following vaccines can be administered at birth?

hepatitis B; Neonates born to mothers who are positive for hepatitis B should be immunized immediately.

An allergic reaction, or type I hypersensitivity reaction, to a medication may be manifested most often in the following ways ___. Select all that apply.

hives rash anaphylaxis

Viruses are small amounts of genetic material wrapped in a protein coat. They can only replicate within a living cell relying on the____ to provide nutrition, metabolism, and reproduction. This type of organism is considered a/an____. A one-celled organism that forms spores and thrives on dead organic matter is a/an____.

host; parasite; fungi

The ability to resist infection and disease through the activation of specific defenses is known as ______.

immunity

An infection that is present because the immune system cannot fight the normal flora found on the body or in the environment is a/an ________.

opportunistic infection

Richard has an infected lesion on his leg. Dr. Merry orders a prescription topical antibiotic to be applied to the lesion tid. Richard has taken multiple antibiotics in the past for a variety of illnesses. Select all true statements about this case.

Dr. Merry would order an oral antibiotic if Richard showed signs and symptoms of a systemic infection. Dr. Merry did not order an oral antibiotic because there was no indication of a systemic infection. The local antibiotic is less likely to cause cross-resistance given Richard's history of antibiotic use.

All people with weakened immune systems are considered ____.

immunocompromised; Person with weakened immune systems are immunocompromised. These include patients with HIV and AIDS as well as individuals on immunosuppressive therapy for organ transplantation and autoimmune disorders.

The NIAID site discusses how the body distinguishes between normal, healthy cells and unhealthy cells by recognizing danger cues called ____. Infectious microbes release another set of signals recognized by the immune system called ____.

DAMPs; PAMPs

Decreased or compromised ability of the body to respond to an antigen with an appropriate immune response is termed____.

immunodeficiency

The usual treatment of Hepatitis A is with _____.

immunoglobulin

VAERS receives around 30,000 reports annually, which are about 13% of all vaccines given in the United States.

False; There are no true statistical data since this reporting system is voluntary (with inability to capture all adverse events and some adverse events may not be attributable to the vaccine, but coincidental) and a denominator of all vaccines given is not part of the statistical equation. About 13% of the annual reports are classified as serious; i.e., associated with disability, hospitalization, life-threatening illness, etc.

Cytotoxic T-cells differentiate into plasma cells that produce and secrete antibodies.

False; it's B cells

Attenuated vaccines are made of whole killed or inactivated microbes or some of their components; e.g., influenza, pertussis, and rabies vaccines.

False; that is inactivated viruses

Sara Jones is a 20-year-old college student. She wakes up with an extremely sore throat. Sara calls the doctor's office stating that she has a cold and a sore throat and requests a prescription for an antibiotic. Select all true statements about this case.

Once the doctor sees Sara and determines that her signs/symptoms point to strep pharyngitis, the doctor will order a broad-spectrum antibiotic until the throat culture results are reported. When the culture and sensitivity results are reported, the doctor may change the prescription to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic specific to the identified organism. The doctor will not order an antibiotic, but may schedule an office visit once more information is obtained about her signs and symptoms.

Immunoglobulins are antibodies found in serum that are used in the prevention of diseases, such as hepatitis B, tetanus, and rabies. Specific conditions may also require the administration of immunoglobulins. Select all correct statements.

RSV immune globulin for lower respiratory diseases is administered to premature babies. RhoGAM is an antibody preparation given after delivery to de-sensitize a RH-negative mother who delivers a RH-positive baby.

Antimicrobial resistance is a growing public health issue. Refer to this FDA-sponsored video in the lecture notes on this issue and select all correct statements about how resistance occurs.

Selection pressure is the outcome of natural selection, or the Darwinian principle of the "survival of the fittest", which has resulted in the ability of microorganisms to develop resistance to antimicrobials. Transduction occurs as bacterial DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another inside a virus that infects bacteria, called a phage, which then takes over the infected bacterium genetic processes to produce more phages that can infect other bacteria with the resistant DNA. Antimicrobial resistance can occur as a result of genetic transfer via conjugation, transformation, or transduction. Some mechanisms of antimicrobial resistance include mutuation, destruction (or inactivation), and efflux.

Live (attenuated) vaccines are composed of living microbes that have been weakened or rendered avirulent; e.g. OPV, rotavirus vaccine, or MMR.

True; Immunocompromised individuals may be unable to fight the live vaccine. Pregnant women should not receive these vaccines because of concern re: teratogenicity. OPV is no longer recommended in the US.

The National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986 provided for the compilation of Vaccine Information Statements. Check all correct statements for documentation of immunizations.

Vaccine information statements must be provided for DTaP, DTP, Td, MMR, varicella, polio, Hib, and hepatitis B vaccines (This list has been expanded by the CDC since the law was enacted in 1986). The patient medical record must have the name, address, and title of the person administering the vaccination. The documents provided by the CDC to inform about immunizations are called VIS documents. A permanent record of each mandated vaccination must be given to a patient.

Sherry has recurrent HSV-1 lesions on her lips that develop when she is stressed or ill. When instructing her on the proper administration of docosanol and care of an outbreak, you include:

Wash and dry hands before and after applying Clean and dry area/lesions before application of medication Apply a thin layer of the cream every 3-4 hours 5 times a day during outbreak Use at the first sign of tingling, burning, redness, or a bump

The ideal antimalarial should eradicate the microzoan from the blood and the tissue to ensure _____. The most common drug used for prophylaxis and treatment of acute malarial attacks is ____.

a radical cure; chloroquine;;The ideal antimalarial should eradicate the microzoan not only from the blood but also from the tissue to effect a radical cure. For treatment of malaria, several antimalarial agents differ in points of interruption of the cycle of the parasite, and in the type of malaria affected. Chloroquine is indicated for prophylaxis and treatment against acute malarial attacks. it is effective against the causative protozoans and some susceptible strains of P. falciparum.

Many antineoplastic agents produce immunosuppression as a side effect. This is an acquired immunodeficiency, which may be treated with interferon alfa or interleukin-2 that can stimulate production of B cells and killer T cells. These types of drugs are called ____.

immunostimulants

An agent that interferes with the normal reactions of the immune system to an antigen and used in arthritis treatment and organ transplantation to prevent the production of antibodies to foreign antigens is a/an _______.

immunosuppressant

A form of acquired immunity that develops in an individual in response to an immunogen (antigen) is known as ____.

active immunity

The only routine immunizations recommended for all normal adults between the ages of 18-65 years are booster doses every 10 years of ____. Mark all that apply.

adult diphtheria, adult tetanus; The only routine immunizations recommended for all normal adults between ages 18-65 years are booster doses of adult diphtheria and tetanus every 10 years. If this has not been done, it is important to update these vaccinations at age 65.

Review the CDC immunization schedule for children 18 months-18 years. The second dose of the MMR and varicella vaccines should be given at ____.

ages 4-6 years

Which drug is used for prophylaxis and treatment of influenza that works to inhibit replication of the influenza A virus by uncoating of the virus so it cannot attach. Select all that apply.

amantadine

The drug with the widest spectrum of antifungal activity is ____.

amphotericin B; Amphotericin B is the antifungal with the widest spectrum of antifungal activity of any systemic antifungal drug. Administration of this drug by the IV route is extremely useful for therapy of systemic fungal diseases such as Candida albicans.

Certain viruses protect themselves from attack by the human immune system by creating which of the following?

an envelope; Certain viruses protect themselves by creating an envelope. Viruses contain cores of deoxyribonucleic acid or ribonucleic acid surrounded by protein coatings.

For the most effective treatment of an infection, the causative microorganism should be identified along with its drug susceptibility (or sensitivity) to the medication. One way of identifying microorganisms is by oxygen requirement. A bacterium that requires an oxygen-free environment is____. The bacterium that can survive with or without oxygen is termed____. A bacterium that requires oxygen to live is____.

anaerobic; facultative; aerobic

Which is not a risk factor for candidal infections?

anemia; Those at highest risk for these infections include diabetics, pregnant women, females on oral contraceptives, and patients taking antibiotics or corticosteroids, including post-surgical or post-transplant patients.

Special proteins that are made by lymphocytes that fight invaders are known as:

antibodies; The body continues to fight invaders by forming special proteins manufactured by the lymphocytes, called antibodies. the dominant cell of the lymphatic system, lymphocytes are vital to our ability to resist or overcome infection and disease.

In patients, who have been exposed to a disease, a/an ______, may be performed to determine level of immunity. This serologic laboratory test will show the quantity of viable antibodies required to respond to a given quantity of antigen.

antibody titer

A substance that is foreign to the body, such as cancer cell, virus, foreign tissue cell, fungus, bacterium, protozoan, etc. is a/an____. The body produces a specific protein called a/an____ that reacts with this foreign substance to form a/an____ to destroy or inactivate the foreign substance. Once activated this response is present in some ways from birth until death. This immunity protects the person from foreign substances that invade the body, or self, while not overreacting and damaging the body itself under normal circumstances.

antigen; antibody; antigen-antibody response

Antibiotics are substances produced by microorganisms that can _____.

inhibit or kill other microorganisms

The most common complication of influenza is _____.

bacterial pneumonia; The most common complication of influenza is bacterial pneumonia. Primary influenza viral pneumonia is rare, yet has a high fatality rate. Risks for complications and hospitalizations are higher in people age 65+, in very young children, or in any age if there are certain underlying medical conditions. Other complications may include Reye syndrome (particularly linked with children on aspirin), myocarditis, and death.

The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) classifies immunizing agents and allergenic extracts as ____.

biologics

A dose given to increase the effectiveness of the original medication is a/an _____.

booster

Drugs with a wide range of effectiveness against both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria are called____. Antibiotics that are effective against a few or specific bacteria are called____.

broad-spectrum; narrow-spectrum

T cells, which compromise about 80% of circulating lymphocytes, are the primary cells that provide ____.

cell-mediated immunity; Cytotoxic T cells directly attack foreign cells or body cells infected by viruses. these lymphocytes are the primary cells that provide cell-mediated immunity.

In which phase of HIV infection are patients asymptomatic?

clinical latency phase; Patients with HIV infection are usually asymptomatic in the clinical latency phase. In this phase, HIV levels are lower. Even so, HIV does continue to replicate as CD4 T-lymphocytes progressively decline. This period averages about 10 years.

A fungus is a one-celled plant that lacks ____.

color and chlorophyll; A The various fungi that can cause human diseases are either mold-like or yeast-like

Which of the following is false regarding highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)?

it increases viral load; HAART does not increase viral load, but reduces it. This therapy also increases CD4 lymphocyte counts, delays the onset of AIDS, and prolongs survival of patients with AIDS. In HART therapy, 3-4 drugs effective against AIDS are combined.

Micafungin is contraindicated in patients who have which of the following?

liver or kidney disease; Micafungin is contraindicated in patients who have liver or kidney disease, or who may be allergic to this drug. It may interact with drugs such as sirolimus, itraconazole, and nifedipine.

The most common adverse effect associated with vaccinations is:

localized inflammation; The most common adverse effect associated with vaccinations is localized inflammation at the site of the injection. Other common adverse effects include a mild fever, headache, malaise, nausea, dizziness, muscle and joint aches.

The term pathogenic means _____.

disease-causing; Pathogenic microorganisms have been used as a tool of war and terrorism. Weapons of mass destruction may be nuclear, chemical, or biological in nature.

Which drug is indicated for the treatment of Rocky Mountain spotted fever, typhus fever, and chlamydia and prophylaxis for travelers to regions that are endemic for malaria?

doxycycline; Doxycycline is indicated for treatment of protozoal infections linked to bacteria like Rocky Mountain spotted fever, typhus fever, and chlamydia. Prophylaxis for travelers going to regions in which malaria is indigenous should receive this drug 1-2 days before travel and continuously during, and 4 weeks after leaving.

Entamoeba histolytica and Giardia lablia are two protozoal organisms that frequently cause ____. ____ is the drug that treats both infections caused by these 2 organisms.

dysentery; Tinidazole;; Dysentery including both amebiasis and giardiasis. The drug that is indicated to treat both types of dysentery is tinidazole.

Mary Jones is an 18 y/o who presents with complaint of a sore throat with fever, swollen tonsils, and enlarged cervical lymph nodes. The rapid strep test is negative and a swab is sent for culture and sensitivity (C&S) testing. Because of experience and observation, the physician feels that Mary has a bacterial infection, which may or may not turn out to be strep. The physician orders a broad spectrum antibiotic until the C&S results are reported within 48-72 hours. This type of treatment is termed ____.

empiric therapy

Most antifungal drugs act by interfering with the synthesis of ___.

ergosterol; Erogosterol is a chemical found in fungal cell membranes. This results in a change impermeability of the fungal cell membrane, and either slows growth or destroys the fungal organism.

Select all indications for antibiotic prophylaxis.

exposure to STD prior to sign of infection neutropenia with fever exposure to anthrax (bioterrorism) presence of some prostheses or implants prior to surgical or dental procedures history of rheumatic fever prior to surgical or dental procedures

Herpes zoster is a very painful rash that develops on one side of the face or body that follows a nerve pathway. It is managed with analgesics and which antiviral medications? There is more than 1 answer.

famciclovir; acyclovir

Cryptococcal meningitis can be treated by IV injection of the antifungal agent _____.

fluconazole; Fluconazole has good CNS penetration and is also indicated for treatment of vaginal candidiasis, oropharyngeal candidiasis, and esophageal candidiasis

Which of the antifungal agents may cause angioedema, taste sensation changes, and hepatitis?

fluconazole; Fluconazole may cause these ADRs. Its other adverse effects include headache, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, dyspepsia, dizziness, anaphylaxis and skin rash. hepatobiliary effects such as hepatitis are rare, but have included mild transient elevations in transaminases, cholestasis, and fulminant hepatic failure - which has caused death.

Which agent is used for prophylaxis and treatment of systemic cytomegalovirus?

ganciclovir; Ganciclovir is prescribed for both prophylaxis and treatment of systemic cytomegalovirus. It is a synthetic purine nucleoside analogue used in immunocompromised patients as well as those with CMV retinitis.

LaDonna White was being treated with a 21-day course of Augmentin for chronic sinusitis. After 10 days she developed a sore mouth with white patches on her tongue and oral cavity. This is an example of a/an____, which is a secondary infection arising from the treatment with Augmentin for her primary infection. This candida albicans fungal yeast infection resulted because the microorganisms normally found in Jane's oral cavity, or____, were no longer inhibited so they created an overgrowth known as candidiaisis, or____. The doctor treated her with a topical nystatin solution applied 4 times a day. What type of solution would this be?____.

superinfection normal flora thrush antifungal

A common candidiasis infection of the mouth is called ___.

thrush; Also known as moniliasis, thrush is a common opportunistic candidiasis infection of the mouth caused by Candida albicans, which is a normal resident of the GI tract and vagina.

Onychomycosis is also known as _____.

tinea unguium; Tinea unguium is a chronic fungal disease of the nails, which thicken, discolor, disfigure, and split. About 50% of all nail disorders are caused by onychomycosis, which is the most common nail disease in adults.

Bacterial toxins that have been changed to a nontoxic state are____. Antibodies produced in response to specific toxins and, when administered, have the ability to neutralize these specific toxins for persons at high risk for the disease or condition are____.

toxoids; antitoxins

A preparation of microorganisms that is administered to produce or artificially increase immunity to a particular disease is a/an _____, which is a type of ____ immunity.

vaccine; active

Tiny genetic parasites that require the host cell to replicate and spread are ___.

viruses; These tiny genetic parasites are viruses. The number of drugs available to treat many types of viruses is still quite low.