Pharm Exam 3
A nurse has been invited to speak to a support group for Parkinson's disease clients and families. Which statement addresses the chronic nature of the disease and the relevant drug therapies? A) "Drugs do not cure these disorders; they instead enhance quality of life." B) "Drug therapy can consist of one or more drugs to eliminate the symptoms of these diseases." C) "Persons of all cultures are treated similarly and respond in similar ways to treatment." D) "Drugs used to treat these disorders always pose a risk of severe liver and kidney dysfunction."
A) "Drugs do not cure these disorders; they instead enhance quality of life."
After teaching a client about a prescribed beta blocker therapy, the nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the client relays which statement? A) "I can stop the drug anytime I feel any problems." B) "I need to get up slowly from the bed or a chair." C) "I should learn how to check my blood pressure." D)"I should notify my doctor if I have trouble breathing."
A) "I can stop the drug anytime I feel any problems."
A client is receiving an SSRI. The nurse would inform the client that the full benefits of the drug may not occur for which time period? A) 4 weeks B) 3 weeks C) 2 weeks D 5 days
A) 4 weeks
While speaking with a client, the nurse notes that the client stares off, unblinking. The nurse notes that after several prompts, the client blinks rapidly and then resumes normal conversation. This behavior is consistent with what type of seizure? A) Absence B) tonic-clonic C) myoclonic D) akinetic
A) Absence
When describing the action of barbiturates and barbiturate-like agents in the control of seizures, what would the nurse include? A) Depression of motor nerve output B) Promotion of impulse conduction C) Maintenance of cerebellar function D) Stimulation of the cerebral cortex
A) Depression of motor nerve output
The stimulation of beta1 adrenergic receptors in the heart by epinephrine would cause what result? A) Increased HR B) decreased heart muscle contractions C) decreased oxygen demand by the myocardium D) vasoconstriction of the coronary arteries
A) Increased HR
The nurse is formulating a care plan for a client with a seizure disorder. Which intervention would be an appropriate for the nurse to include? A) Informing the client and family that seizure control is not gained immediately B) Informing the client and family that unrealistic expectations can occur C) Informing the client and family that excessive frustration is to be expected D) Informing the client and family that seizure control is gained immediately
A) Informing the client and family that seizure control is not gained immediately
A tricyclic antidepressant has been prescribed to a 77-year-old client whose current medication regimen includes omeprazole, captopril, calcium carbonate, alendronate, and warfarin. What assessment should the nurse prioritize when monitoring the client for drug-drug interactions? A) Monitor the client closely for bleeding and review coagulation indices when available. B) Monitor the client for tetany and review serum calcium levels when available. C) Ask the client at each meal about any episodes of gastresophageal reflux. D) Assess the client's blood pressure every six hours for the first week of therapy.
A) Monitor the client closely for bleeding and review coagulation indices when available.
A 77-year-old client is being admitted to a long-term care facility. The client has a history of absence seizures has been treated with ethosuximide for many years. While the nurse is creating a plan of care on the client, the nurse understands the potential adverse effects of this drug and would consequently prioritize which nursing diagnoses? A) Risk for falls B) Risk for Impaired Gas Exchange C) Risk for Altered Urinary Elimination D) Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity
A) Risk for falls
The nurse is providing medication education to a client prescribed an adrenergic blocker. Which nervous system is the specific focus of this classification of medications? A) Sympathetic B) Parasympathetic C) peripheral D) central
A) Sympathetic
A 24-year-old client is being seen in the emergency department because of a high fever and cannot move the right arm. During the history-taking process, The nurse discovers the client is being treated with an antipsychotic medication for schizophrenia. The nurse knows that what may be happening with this client? A) The client may be having a neuroleptic malignant syndrome reaction to his antipsychotic medication and needs treatment immediately. B) The client may have broken his arm and not remember what happened because of his schizophrenia. C) The client may have neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which will self-resolve in a few hours after rest and Tylenol. D) The client may have influenza A and will need to be put into isolation.
A) The client may be having a neuroleptic malignant syndrome reaction to his antipsychotic medication and needs treatment immediately.
Why are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors considered the first line of drug therapy for patients with depression? A) The medications have fewer anticholinergic effects than alternatives. B) The medications eliminate the risk of suicide during treatment. C) The medications have no sexual side effects. D) The onset of action is sooner than with other medications.
A) The medications have fewer anticholinergic effects than alternatives.
Which condition is treated with an adrenergic agonist? A) anaphylaxis B) tachycardia C) hypertension D) renal failure
A) anaphylaxis
When is Parkinson's disease usually diagnosed? A) around 60 B) around 45 C) around 30 D) around 80
A) around 60
A client is receiving a barbiturate intravenously. The nurse would monitor the client for: A) bradycardia B) tachycardia C) hypertension D) bleeding
A) bradycardia
Epinephrine causes relaxation of: A) bronchioles. B) smooth muscles in the intestinal wall. C) superficial blood vessels. D) sphincter muscles.
A) bronchioles.
Which type of seizures involves a loss of consciousness? A) generalized seizure B) Somatosensory seizures C) Motor seizures D) Partial seizures
A) generalized seizure
A nurse is caring for a client in the critical care unit. Phentolamine (Regitine, OraVerse) has been ordered for the management of tissue necrosis caused by extravasation of parenterally administered drugs. Before administering this drug, the nurse will check the client's chart for indications of: A) history of acute myocardial infarction. B) peptic ulcer disease. C) obesity. D) diabetes mellitus.
A) history of acute myocardial infarction.
Epinephrine can be administered by multiple routes. Which is not an appropriate route? A) oral B) IM C) IV D) subcutaneous
A) oral
Which is an effect of epinephrine? A) Peripheral vasodilation B) Bronchoconstriction C) Increased HR D) dcreased BP
C) Increased HR
A client has been prescribed carbamazepine for the prevention of seizures. What action should the nurse perform? A) Educate the client about taking the medication at the first sign of impending seizure activity B) Educate the client about the need to take the pills as scheduled C) Teach the client how to self-administer subcutaneous injections D) Establish intravenous access
B) Educate the client about the need to take the pills as scheduled
Which assessment finding would indicate to the nurse that the administered isoproterenol is effective? A) Bronchoconstriction B) Improved cardiac contractility C) Uterine contraction D) Decreased heart rate
B) Improved cardiac contractility
The nurse would contact the health care provider before administering an adrenergic drug to a client who is also taking which drug? A) Diuretic B) MAOI C) antibiotic D) analgesic
B) MAOI
A nurse is caring for a patient prescribed phenobarbital for status epilepticus. What intervention should the nurse perform when the patient has been administered the drug? A) Monitor blood glucose levels. B) Observe respirations frequently. C) Monitor body temperature. D) Record fluid input and output.
B) Observe respirations frequently.
The nurse is teaching a client who has been started on antiseizure medications. The nurse should inform the client that abrupt withdrawal from the medications can cause which problem? A) cardiac arrhythmia B) Status epilepticus C) Hypertensive crisis D) Respiratory arrest
B) Status epilepticus
The nurse knows that what is an added benefit of epinephrine in cardiac arrest situations due to asystole or pulseless electrical activity? A) Increases oxygenation to the brain B) Stimulates electrical and mechanical activity C) Reduces seizure activity D) Increases oxygenation to the myocardium
B) Stimulates electrical and mechanical activity
A male client is admitted to the emergency department via ambulance. He is attempting to pull out his IV line, exhibiting symptoms of agitation, and thrashing about. The physician orders a benzodiazepine-type sedative. What information is needed prior to administration of the drug? A) Whether the client has a history of agitation B) Whether the client is experiencing drug intoxication or withdrawal C) Whether the client is currently taking antibiotics D) Whether the client is currently taking a diuretic
B) Whether the client is experiencing drug intoxication or withdrawal
A client has been prescribed a beta blocker. The nurse knows that beta blockers can have which effect on the heart? A) increase HR B) decrease HR C) constrict the heart D) prevent normal sinus rhythm
B) decrease HR
A nurse is assessing a client with Parkinson's disease. The nurse determines that the client's drug therapy is effective when the client exhibits what? A) Decreased aggression B) decreased tremors C) Improved level of intellectual functioning D) Improved short term memory
B) decreased tremors
The home care nurse is caring for an 80-year-old patient who is receiving carbidopa-levodopa, a dopaminergic drug used to treat Parkinson's disease. The nurse knows that this drug may place the patient at increased risk for: A) infection B) falls C) uncontrolled bleeding D) excessive sedation
B) falls
While caring for a client who is receiving antipsychotic therapy, the nurse observes lip smacking, a darting tongue, and slow and aimless arm movements. The nurse interprets this as: A) pseudoparkinsonism. B) tardive dyskinesia. C) dystonia. D) akathisia.
B) tardive dyskinesia.
The teaching priority for a diabetic male client being treated with a non-specific beta-blocker would be to: A) take his own pulse. B) understand signs and symptoms of hypo- or hyperglycemic reaction. C) weigh himself once a week at the same time of day. D) avoid smoke-filled rooms.
B) understand signs and symptoms of hypo- or hyperglycemic reaction.
The nurse has been educating the client on the self-administration of phenytoin. Which statement made by the client demonstrates an understanding of the medication? A) "I'll reduce my dose if I remain seizure free." B) "I'll only take the drug when I feel an impending seizure." C) "I'll make sure to take the drug with food." D) "I'll stop taking the drug if I don't have a seizure for 8 weeks."
C) "I'll make sure to take the drug with food."
A client has a history of seizures of which the client takes phenytoin on a regular basis. What should the nurse teach the client in order to ensure safety? A) Do not take OTC antacids B) Do not take garlic or ginger supplements C) Avoid ginkgo supplements D) Avoid brewer's yeast
C) Avoid ginkgo supplements
A client receives a beta-specific agonist. What would lead the nurse to determine that the drug is effective? A) Tremor B) Decreased heart rate C) Bronchodilation D) Slowed cardiac conductivity
C) Bronchodilation
A patient undergoing treatment with barbiturates is showing symptoms of barbiturate toxicity. Which intervention should the nurse perform? A) Provide assistance with movement B) Provide supportive care C) Provide respiratory assistance D) Provide a safe environment
C) Provide respiratory assistance
A patient is prescribed daily doses of phenytoin for seizures. The nurse knows that a single dose should not be missed during the course of treatment. Which condition could result if a dose is missed? A) CNS depression B) Nystagmus C) Status epilepticus D) Hypotension
C) Status epilepticus
Adrenergic drugs mimic the effects of stimulating what part of the nervous system? A) Parasympathetic B) central C) Sympathetic D) autonomic
C) Sympathetic
A client has recently been prescribed a drug that treats hypertension by blocking the sympathetic receptors in the sympathetic nervous system. This action is characteristic of which? A) a neurotransmitter. B) a cardiotonic. C) an adrenergic antagonist. D) an adrenergic agonist.
C) an adrenergic antagonist.
What would be considered a peripheral anticholinergic effect of anticholinergic drug therapy? A) delirium B) agitation C) blurred vision D) memory loss
C) blurred vision
A client has been prescribed a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) by the health care provider. Before administration of the drug, the client wants to know about possible adverse reactions. Which would the nurse expect to describe? A) photosensitivity B) change in libido C) hypertensive crisis D) skin rash
C) hypertensive crisis
Which patient statement indicates the need for additional teaching about propranolol? A) "I need to get up slowly after sitting or lying down." B) "I need to report if I have any chest pain or problems breathing." C) "I should space activities throughout the day." D) "I can stop the drug once my blood pressure is controlled."
D) "I can stop the drug once my blood pressure is controlled."
Which patient should be advised by the nurse to avoid over-the-counter cold and allergy preparations that contain phenylephrine? A) A 62-year-old male with gout B) A 17-year-old female with symptoms of an upper respiratory infection C) A 52-year-old male with adult-onset diabetes D) A 47-year-old female with hypertension
D) A 47-year-old female with hypertension
Propranolol (Inderal) is used extensively as treatment for what condition? A) Prevent first MI B) Hypotension C) Cluster headaches D) Angina
D) Angina
A client who has been taking medication for a seizure disorder is asking the nurse about getting pregnant. Why is pregnancy discouraged in women who are being treated for seizure disorders? A) Seizure disorders are genetic. B) Seizure disorders are familial. C) Antiepilepsy drugs decrease fertility. D) Antiepilepsy drugs are teratogenic.
D) Antiepilepsy drugs are teratogenic.
A client is receiving levodopa as treatment for Parkinson disease. The nurse would instruct the client to avoid foods high in which vitamin to prevent a reduction in the effect of levodopa? A) B12 B) C C) K D) B6
D) B6
When reviewing the medication record of a client with Parkinson disease, the nurse notes that the client is receiving a cholinergic blocking drug. Which drug would the nurse note? A) Apomorphine B) Carbidopa C) Tolcapone D) Benztropine
D) Benztropine
What would a nurse expect to administer if a client who is receiving isoproterenol develops a severe reaction? A) Sympathomimetic agents B) Narcotic antagonist C) Neuromuscular blocking agent D) Beta-adrenergic blockers
D) Beta-adrenergic blockers
The nurse knows that which class of drugs prevents epinephrine and norepinephrine from occupying receptor sites on the cell membranes? A) Beta-helping drugs B) Beta-adrenergic drugs C) Beta-helping drugs D) Beta-adrenergic blocking drugs
D) Beta-adrenergic blocking drugs
A client in the clinic with a history of epilepsy has just tested positive for pregnancy. What is the nurse's next action? A) Advise the client to continue her current medication for epilepsy. B) Discuss the most serious birth defects that may occur due to treating epilepsy during pregnancy. C) Explain how to taper off her seizure medication as the risk for seizures decreases during pregnancy. D) Consult with the primary health care provider.
D) Consult with the primary health care provider.
One of the neurotransmitters can become decreased in the area of the corpus striatum. This results in the manifestations of Parkinson's disease. Which neurotransmitter will cause this? A) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) D) Acetylcholine C) Serotonin D) Dopamine
D) Dopamine
An older adult client has been prescribed an antiseizure medication and is experiencing central nervous system depression. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Monitor vital signs hourly while the client is awake B) Maintain the client on bed rest C) Make a referral to occupational therapy D) Implement fall precautions
D) Implement fall precautions
The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a patient who is to receive a nonselective beta blocker. The nurse would make sure to address safety measures as a priority for the patient receiving: A) Sotalol B) phenolamine C) Atenolol D) Propranolol
D) Propranolol
A client has been prescribed phenelzine sulfate. When providing teaching, which food should the nurse instruct the client to avoid eating? A) ice cream B) leafy greens C) apple D) Salami
D) Salami
A client who was diagnosed with schizophrenia in 1962 was prescribed chlorpromazine. The client has been taking the medication for more than 40 years. What adverse effect will the client most likely experience? A) CNS agitation B) hypertension C) Urinary frequency D) Tardive dyskinesia
D) Tardive dyskinesia
The nurse is administering epinephrine IV push. The nurse checks for patency of the IV prior to administration of the drug. The nurse realizes that if the IV is infiltrated, the medication will result in tissue extravasation. What is the reason for such an occurrence? A) The medication causes venous congestion and pooling of blood in the tissues. B) The medication causes swelling within the tissues, impairing blood flow to the site. C) The medication causes an allergic response at the site of infiltration, leading to swelling and erythema. D) The medication causes vasoconstriction, limiting the blood flow to the area.
D) The medication causes vasoconstriction, limiting the blood flow to the area.
A female client has been diagnosed with depression. She also has a history of alcoholism. She has been sober now for 4 months, but at her last physical examination, the health care provider noted right-upper-quadrant tenderness and elevated liver enzyme levels. The provider has prescribed sertraline to treat the client's depression. Which factor would need to be considered prior to administering this medication? A) The client should not take any medications because of her liver dysfunction. B) The client should have monthly evaluation of liver function to monitor the disease progression. C) She should have an ultrasound of the liver to check for disease. D) The medication should be started at a lower dose due to liver dysfunction, and the client should be monitored for side effects.
D) The medication should be started at a lower dose due to liver dysfunction, and the client should be monitored for side effects.
A benzodiazepine is prescribed for a pregnant woman with insomnia. When describing the effects on the newborn, which would the nurse include? A) The newborn can develop drug toxicity. B) The newborn can develop physical deformation. C) The newborn can develop mental disabilities. D) The newborn can develop withdrawal symptoms.
D) The newborn can develop withdrawal symptoms.
Common side effects of anticholinergics include: A) blurred vision, decreased liver enzymes, increased B/P, and papillary constriction. B) decreased GI absorption, nausea, heartburn, and hypotension. C) skin rashes, decreased urinary output, constipation, and increased WBCs. D) dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, and increased pulse rate.
D) dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, and increased pulse rate.
A client with a complex medical history has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. The client's current medication regimen includes omeprazole, ranitidine, multivitamins, albuterol and ipratropium. Before the client begins treatment with levodopa, the nurse should: A) ensure the client is able to sit upright when taking oral medications. B) assess how many acute asthma attacks the client has per month. C) question the provider about the concurrent use of omeprazole and a dopaminergic. D) ensure the multivitamin is discontinued by the provider.
D) ensure the multivitamin is discontinued by the provider.
A patient experiences diarrhea after receiving a nonselective adrenergic blocking agent. The nurse understands that this effect is most likely due to: A) loss of vascular tone. B) blockage of norepinephrine in the central nervous system. C) drug's effect on liver functioning. D) increased parasympathetic dominance.
D) increased parasympathetic dominance.
A nurse is caring for a client with trigeminal neuralgia at a health care facility. The health care provider has prescribed carbamazepine. In which case is the use of carbamazepine contraindicated in clients with: A) nervous breakdown. B) hearing impairment. C) respiratory depression. D) renal impairment
D) renal impairment
The nurse is preparing a client for discharge who is taking phenelzine. The nurse instructs the client that which foods cause serious complications? (Select all that apply.) deer meat american cheese shrimp rice fava beans
deer meat shrimp fava beans
A nurse is performing a neuromuscular assessment on a client with Parkinson's disease and is being treated with medication. The nurse expects to see which symptom while performing the assessment? Select all that apply. tremors drooling mask like facial expression monotone speech pattern skin flushing
tremors drooling mask like facial expression monotone speech pattern