Pharm test 1

When to take cholinergic -stigmine drugs?

- must be given at exact time -coordinate mealtimes -take before meals - check muscle strength Q1h after giving

Anti-cholinergic side effects

- urinary hesitancy= emergency - increase intraocular pressure so must have an eye examination to check for glaucoma - dry mouth (suck on hard candy) - constipation - due to increased serotonin: drowsiness, weight gain & orthostatic hypotension

Which substance does vitamin K contributes to the formation of? A. Bilirubin B. Prothrombin C. Thromboplastin D. Cholecystokinin

B. Prothrombin

cholinergic -stigmine side effects

-loose stools/diarrhea -increase bowel function -increase urinary frequency -decrease in heart rate -increased salvation -muscle twitching

The nurse is teaching a client diagnosed with asthma about the medication albuterol. Which statement by the nurse demonstrates appropriate teaching? A. "Call your doctor's office if you need to use the drug more often." B. "Use this medication at bedtime to promote rest." C. "Use this medication after other asthma inhalers." D. "Discontinue the inhaler if you feel dizzy."

A. "Call your doctor's office if you need to use the drug more often."

The nurse is educating a client with end stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) about medication management. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I will use the albuterol in the nebulizer before my other inhalers each morning." B. "I can use my tiotropium inhaler if I get short of breath." C. "I will only use the fluticasone inhaler on the days I am really out of breath." D "The side effects of these medications will be less severe because I'm not taking them by mouth."

A. "I will use the albuterol in the nebulizer before my other inhalers each morning."

The nurse provides discharge medication education to a client who has a prescription for warfarin. Which client statement indicates to the nurse that teaching was effective? A. 'I will avoid taking aspirin and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs [NSAIDs].' B. 'I will need to develop a more sedentary routine.' C. 'I will need to have regular complete blood counts to guide warfarin dosage.' D. 'Before going to the dentist, I will ask my health care provider for antibiotics.'

A. 'I will avoid taking aspirin and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs [NSAIDs].'

To which nursing home resident could a nurse safely administer tricyclic antidepressants without questioning the health care provider's order? A. A client with mild hypertension B. A client with narrow-angle glaucoma C. A client with coronary artery disease (CAD) D. A client with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)

A. A client with mild hypertension

The nurse administers albuterol to a 4-year-old child. Which intervention would assist the nurse in evaluating the effectiveness of this medication? A. Auscultate breath sounds. B. Collect a sputum sample. C. Conduct a neurological examination. D. Palpate chest excursion.

A. Auscultate breath sounds

The nurse is providing discharge education to a client with moderate persistent asthma. The nurse should instruct the client to administer which medication first? A. Bronchodilator B. Glucocorticoid C. Anticholinergic D. Mast cell stabilizer

A. Bronchodilator

The nurse is teaching a client about tricyclic antidepressants. Which potential side effects would the nurse include? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Dry mouth B. Drowsiness C. Constipation D. Severe hypertension E. Orthostatic hypotension

A. Dry mouth B. Drowsiness C. Constipation E. Orthostatic hypotension

A nurse is reviewing the INR results for caring for a client who had a cerebral vascular accident and is receiving prescribed warfarin. The nurse notes the INR is 5.2. Which finding requires priority follow-up? A. Gum bleeding B. Generalized weakness C. Pharyngitis D. Anorexia

A. Gum bleeding

A client with a partial occlusion of the left common carotid artery is to be discharged while still receiving warfarin. Which adverse effect will the nurse identify as a reason for the client to seek medical consultation? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Hematuria B. Hemoptysis C. Delayed clotting from minor cuts and scrapes D. Bleeding from gums when brushing teeth E. Vomiting coffee-ground emesis

A. Hematuria B. Hemoptysis E. Vomiting coffee-ground emesis

The nurse is providing education to the client prescribed montelukast for the treatment of asthma. What medication should the nurse instruct the client to avoid? A. Ibuprofen B. Prednisone C. Amoxicillin D. Formoterol

A. Ibuprofen

The nurse is teaching a nursing student about tricyclic antidepressant medications. Which statement made by the student indicates the need for further teaching? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Nortriptyline is contraindicated in older adult clients. B. Desipramine is preferred for use in older adult clients. C. Imipramine is used as an adjunct in the treatment of childhood enuresis. D. Tricyclic antidepressant medications are prescribed for clients with seizure disorders.

A. Nortriptyline is contraindicated in older adult clients. D. Tricyclic antidepressant medications are prescribed for clients with seizure disorders.

Which statement accurately describes nortriptyline? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Overdosage is often lethal. B. Constipation and urinary retention may occur. C. It is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). D. Weight gain is a common side effect.

A. Overdosage is often lethal. B. Constipation and urinary retention may occur. D. Weight gain is a common side effect.

Which information would the nurse include when teaching a client about warfarin? A. Periodic blood testing is necessary. B. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables. C. Limit the amount of daily physical activity. D. It should be continued for minor surgical procedures.

A. Periodic blood testing is necessary.

The nurse is reviewing the prothrombin time results for a client who is taking warfarin. The nurse notes the value is 20 seconds. What is an appropriate nursing action? A. Recognize that this is a therapeutic level. B. Assess for bleeding gums or IV sites. C. Notify the primary health care provider immediately. D. Observe the client for hematoma development.

A. Recognize that this is a therapeutic level.

A client is prescribed albuterol to relieve severe asthma. Which adverse effects will the nurse instruct the client to anticipate? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Tremors B. Lethargy C. Palpitations D. Bronchoconstriction E. Decreased pulse rate

A. Tremors C. Palpations

Which medication class includes amitriptyline? A. Tricyclics B. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) C. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

A. Tricyclics

While receiving an adrenergic beta 2 agonist medication for asthma, the client complains of palpitations, chest pain, and a throbbing headache. Which nursing action is the most appropriate? A. Withhold the medication and notify the health care provider. B. Tell the client that these are expected side effects from the medicine. C. Give instructions to breathe slowly and deeply for several minutes. D. Explain that the effects are temporary and will subside as medication tolerance develops.

A. Withhold the medication and notify the health care provider.

The home health nurse is completing a medication reconciliation of a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which medication should the nurse question the healthcare provider about? A. Aspirin B. Nifedipine C. NPH insulin D. Vitamin D supplement

A. aspirin

The nurse is teaching a client with asthma about albuterol. How should the nurse best describe the action of this medication? A. "The medication is given to reduce secretions that block airways." B. "The medication will help to relax smooth muscles in the airways." C. "The medication will stimulate the respiratory center in the brain." D. "The medication will help to prevent pneumonia."

B. "The medication will help to relax smooth muscles in the airways."

A 65-year-old client is receiving amitriptyline. Which recommendation will the nurse make to the client concerning this medication? A. 'Obtain a complete cholesterol and lipid profile.' B. 'Have an eye examination to check for glaucoma.' C. 'Check your temperature daily for nighttime increases.' D. 'Watch for excessive sweating and possible weight loss.'

B. 'Have an eye examination to check for glaucoma.'

Pyridostigmine bromide is prescribed for a client with myasthenia gravis. The nurse evaluates that the medication regimen is understood when the client makes which statement? A. 'I will take the medication on an empty stomach.' B. 'I need to set an alarm so I take the medication on time.' C. 'It will be important to check my heart rate before taking the medication.' D. 'I should monitor for an increase in blood pressure after taking the medication.'

B. 'I need to set an alarm so I take the medication on time.'

The health care provider prescribes neostigmine for a client with myasthenia gravis. Which client statement indicates understanding regarding medication management plans? A. 'I must keep the medication in a container in the refrigerator.' B. 'I should take the medication at the exact time that is listed on the prescription.' C. 'I will plan to take the medication between meals.' D. 'I expect that the onset of the medication's action will occur several hours after I take it.'

B. 'I should take the medication at the exact time that is listed on the prescription.'

A depressed client has been prescribed a tricyclic antidepressant. Which time period indicates how long it usually takes before the client notices a significant change in the depression? A. 4 to 6 days B. 2 to 4 weeks C. 5 to 6 weeks D. 12 to 16 hours

B. 2 to 4 weeks

When a client exhibits severe bradycardia, which type of medication will the nurse be prepared to administer? A. Nitrate B. Anticholinergic C. Antihypertensive D. Cardiac glycoside

B. Anticholinergic

The nurse has administered fentanyl, atropine, cefazolin and benzocaine to a client for an endoscopic procedure. The nurse is monitoring the client and notes that the heart rate has increased from the pre-procedure baseline. The nurse knows that which of the following medications is most likely responsible for the client's increased heart rate? A. Fentanyl B. Atropine C. Cefazolin D. Benzocaine

B. Atropine

Which ophthalmic solution is contraindicated for clients with glaucoma? A. Timolol B. Atropine C. Pilocarpine D. Epinephrine

B. Atropine

A client with myasthenia gravis has been receiving neostigmine and asks about its action. Which information would the nurse consider when formulating a response? A. Stimulates the cerebral cortex B. Blocks the action of cholinesterase C. Replaces deficient neurotransmitters D. Accelerates transmission along neural sheaths

B. Blocks the action of cholinesterase

A client being discharged is prescribed warfarin for the treatment following a pulmonary embolism. Which diagnostic test should the nurse instruct the client to receive once a month? A. Perfusion scan. B. Prothrombin Time (PT). C. Activated partial thromboplastin (aPTT). D. Serum Coumadin level (SCL).

B. Prothrombin Time (PT).

A health care provider prescribes metaproterenol for a client. For which therapeutic effect would the nurse monitor the client? A. Induced sedation B. Relaxed bronchial spasm C. Decreased blood pressure D. Productive cough

B. Relaxed bronchial spasm

Which intervention would the nurse implement for a client admitted for an exacerbation of asthma? A. Determine the client's emotional state. B. Give prescribed medications to promote bronchiolar dilation. C. Provide education about the effect of a family history. D. Encourage the client to use an incentive spirometer routinely.

B. Give prescribed medications to promote bronchiolar dilation.

The anticholinesterase medication pyridostigmine is prescribed for the client with myasthenia gravis. When providing medication teaching, the nurse explains that the client should expect a decrease in which function? A. Bowel function B. Heart rate C. Skeletal muscle contraction D. Urinary frequency

B. Heart rate

The nurse is preparing to administer an albuterol nebulizer treatment to a patient with asthma. Which assessment finding should be brought to the health care provider's attention prior to administering the medication? A. Temperature of 101°F (38.3°C) B. Heart rate of 116 bpm C. Respiratory rate of 28 D. Lower extremity edema

B. Heart rate of 116 bpm

An 11-year-old client reports having bedwetting issues (enuresis). Which medication would the nurse anticipate when developing a teaching plan ? A. Alprazolam B. Imipramine C. Lithium salts d. Clomipramine

B. Imipramine

A client presents to the clinic for a follow-up appointment after starting pyridostigmine for management of myasthenia gravis. Which new client problems are adverse effects of pyridostigmine? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Respiratory depression B. Increased urinary frequency C. Diplopia D. Muscle twitching E. Diarrhea

B. Increased urinary frequency D. Muscle twitching E. Diarrhea

The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of therapy for a client who received albuterol via nebulizer during an acute episode of shortness of breath due to asthma. Which finding is the best indicator that the therapy was effective? A. Accessory muscle use has decreased. B. Oxygen saturation is greater than 90%. C. Respiratory rate is 16 breaths/minute. D. No wheezes are audible.

B. Oxygen saturation is greater than 90%.

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving aminophylline 25 mg/hour intravenously (IV). Which finding would be associated with side effects of this medication? A. Flushing and headache B. Restlessness and palpitations C. Decreased urine volume D. Pruritus

B. Restlessness and palpitations

A client with myasthenia gravis begins taking pyridostigmine. Two days later, the client develops loose stools and increased salivation. Which conclusion would the nurse make about these new developments? A. The client is experiencing a myasthenic crisis. B. The medication is causing cholinergic side effects. C. The medication is triggering a paradoxical reaction. D. The client is exhibiting toxic effects of the medication.

B. The medication is causing cholinergic side effects.

Which conclusion would the nurse make about the development of loose stools and increased salivation two days after a client with myasthenia gravis begins taking pyridostigmine? A. The client is experiencing a myasthenic crisis. B. The medication is causing cholinergic side effects. C. The medication is triggering a paradoxical reaction. D. The client is exhibiting toxic effects of the medication.

B. The medication is causing cholinergic side effects.

The nurse is discharging a client with a new prescription for tiotropium to help manage the symptoms of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. What information should the nurse include in the discharge teaching? A. It may be a few days before you feel the full effects of tiotropium. B. This medication cannot be used to relieve sudden breathing problems. C. Be sure to swallow the capsules with a full glass of water. D. A common side effect is nausea and loose stools.

B. This medication cannot be used to relieve sudden breathing problems.

The health care provider prescribes a cholinergic medication to treat a client's urinary problem. Which effect would the nurse anticipate? A. Urinary frequency decreases. B. Urinary retention is prevented. C. Pain is controlled. D. Urinary urgency decreases.

B. Urinary retention is prevented.

Cholinergic agonists are prescribed for which type of urinary condition? A. Kidney stones B. Urine retention C. Spastic bladder D. Urinary tract infections

B. Urine retention

The laboratory report establishes that the client has a warfarin overdose. Which antidote would the nurse anticipate administering? A. Physostigmine B. Vitamin K C. Iron dextran D. Protamine sulfate

B. Vitamin K

Which antidote would the nurse anticipate administering to a client whose laboratory report establishes a warfarin overdose? A. Physostigmine B. Vitamin K C. Iron dextran D. Protamine sulfate

B. Vitamin K

Anti-cholinergic drug contraindications

Benign Prostate Hypertrophy Coronary Artery Disease Narrow Angle Glaucoma - mild hypertension= okay to administer

The nurse is reinforcing medication interactions with a client who is taking warfarin. Which over-the-counter (OTC) medication should the nurse remind the client to avoid? A. Diphenhydramine B. Acetaminophen C. Naproxen D. Pantoprazole

C. Naproxen

A client is being discharged with a prescription for warfarin. The client asks "May I take aspirin with this medication? It helps my arthritis." Which response by the nurse is appropriate to address the client's concern? A. "Use about half the recommended dose of aspirin." B. "When you take the aspirin, do not take the warfarin that day." C. "Avoid aspirin because it can increase the bleeding effects of warfarin." D. "Take the warfarin in the morning and the aspirin at night."

C. "Avoid aspirin because it can increase the bleeding effects of warfarin."

The nurse is reinforcing the correct use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) for a client newly-diagnosed with asthma. The client asks, "how will I know the canister is empty?" What is the best response by the nurse? A. "Contact your pharmacy to find out when to obtain a refill." B. "Drop the canister in water to observe if it floats." C. "Count the number of doses as the inhaler is used." D. "Shake the canister and listen for any fluid movement."

C. "Count the number of doses as the inhaler is used."

Which statement about appropriate foods to consume when taking warfarin would indicate that the client needs further teaching? A. "Eggs provide a good source of iron, which is needed to prevent anemia." B. "Yellow vegetables are high in vitamin A and should be included in the diet." C. "Dark green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, so I should eat them more often." D. "Milk and other high-calcium dairy products are necessary to counteract bone density loss."

C. "Dark green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, so I should eat them more often."

An 80-year-old client with depression requires the prescription of antidepressant medication. Which tricyclic antidepressant medication causes fewer complications in older clients? A. Doxepin B. Amoxapine C. Nortriptyline D. Trimipramine

C. Nortriptyline

The nurse is teaching a pediatric client and family about prescribed albuterol sulfate extended-release tablets. Which statement should be included? A. If you cannot swallow the tablet, it is ok to chew it B. This medication can cause restlessness C. "This medication can cause restlessness." C. Rinse your mouth after taking this medication D. Oral albuterol can cause an increase in urination

C. "This medication can cause restlessness."

Which instruction would the nurse give to clients prescribed psychotropic medications who are experiencing anticholinergic-like side effects? A. 'Restrict fluid intake.' B. 'Eat a diet high in carbohydrates.' C. 'Suck on sugar-free hard candies.' D. 'Avoid products that contain aspirin.'

C. 'Suck on sugar-free hard candies.'

A client with a history of asthma is admitted for a minor surgical procedure. Preoperatively, the peak flow is measured at 480 liters/minute. Postoperatively, the client reports chest tightness and the peak flow is now 200 liters/minute. What should the nurse do first? A. Notify both the surgeon and primary care provider B. Repeat the peak flow reading in 30 minutes C. Administer the PRN dose of albuterol D. Apply oxygen at two liters per nasal cannula

C. Administer the PRN dose of albuterol

A client prescribed albuterol tablets reports nausea every evening with the 9:00 p.m. dose. Which action should the nurse perform to alleviate this side effect? A. Change the time of the dose. B. Hold the 9 p.m. dose. C. Administer the dose with a snack. D. Offer an antiemetic with the dose.

C. Administer the dose with a snack.

The nurse in a urology office is developing a plan of care for a client newly diagnosed with urge urinary incontinence due to an overactive bladder. Which interventions should the nurse include? A. Administer ant-seizure medications B. Administration of cholinergic drugs C. Administration of anticholinergic drugs D. Administration of loop diuretics

C. Administration of anticholinergic drugs

The nurse is preparing to discharge a client who presented to the emergency room for an acute asthma attack. The nurse notes that upon discharge the health care provider has prescribed theophylline 300 mg orally to be taken daily at 9:00 AM. The nurse will teach the client to take the medication on which schedule? A. One hour before or 2 hours after eating B. At bedtime C. At the specific time prescribed D. Daily until symptoms are gone

C. At the specific time prescribed

The nurse is caring for a client who was recently prescribed atropine as a treatment for symptomatic bradycardia. Which condition should the nurse question as a contraindication when taking this medication? A. Urinary incontinence B. Right-sided heart failure C. Glaucoma D. Increased intracranial pressure

C. Glaucoma

The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who received a new prescription for benztropine. For which condition in the client's record should the nurse clarify the prescription with the health care provider? A. Cataracts B. Schizophrenia C. Glaucoma D. Parkinson's disease

C. Glaucoma

Warfarin is prescribed for a client who has been receiving intravenous (IV) heparin for a partial occlusion of the left common carotid artery. The client expresses concern about why both medications are needed at the same time. Which rationale would the nurse include to address the client's concern? A. This permits the administration of smaller doses of each medication. B. Giving both medications allows clot dissolution while preventing new clot formation. C. Heparin provides anticoagulant effects until warfarin reaches therapeutic levels. D. Administration of heparin with warfarin provides immediate and maximum protection against clot formation.

C. Heparin provides anticoagulant effects until warfarin reaches therapeutic levels.

The nurse is providing teaching to the client prescribed albuterol for the management of asthma. The nurse is including reportable side effects in the teaching plan. Which of the following side effects is the priority? A. Nervousness B. Headache C. Palpitations D. Muscle aches

C. Palpations

The nurse is teaching a client diagnosed with depression about a new prescription of nortriptyline. What information would be essential for the nurse to emphasize about this medication? A. Episodes of diarrhea can be expected B. The medication must be stored in the refrigerator C. The use of alcohol should be avoided D. Symptom relief occurs in a few days

C. The use of alcohol should be avoided

The nurse administers albuterol to a child with asthma. Which common side effect would the nurse monitor for in the child? A. Flushing B. Dyspnea C. Tachycardia D. Hypotension

C. tachycardia

The international normalized ratio (INR) results of a client receiving warfarin have been variable. Which factor can help the nurse identify the cause of the INR fluctuations? A) Intake of foods high in potassium B) Serum glucose level C) Platelet count D) Adherence to the prescribed medication regimen

D) Adherence to the prescribed medication regimen

A client begins treatment with pyridostigmine bromide therapy for myasthenia gravis. Which action would the nurse perform in administration of the medication? A. Administer the medication after meals. B. Administer the medication on an empty stomach. C. Evaluate the client's psychological responses between medication doses. D. Evaluate the client's muscle strength every hour after the medication is given.

D. Evaluate the client's muscle strength every hour after the medication is given.

Nortriptyline is prescribed for a depressed client. Which time period identifies when the nurse would expect a therapeutic response? A. 1 to 3 days B. 12 to 24 hours C. 30 minutes to 2 hours D. 2 to 3 weeks

D. 2 to 3 weeks

Which medication is often contraindicated when taking warfarin? A. Atenolol B. Ferrous sulfate C. Chlorpromazine D. Acetylsalicylic acid

D. Acetylsalicylic acid

Which action is likely to reduce the pancreatic and gastric secretions of a client with pancreatitis? A. Encourage clear liquids. B. Obtain a prescription for morphine. C. Assist the client into a semi-Fowler position. D. Administer prescribed anticholinergic medication.

D. Administer prescribed anticholinergic medication.

During a procedure, the client's heart rate drops to 38 beats/min. Which medication is indicated to treat bradycardia? A. Digoxin B. Lidocaine C. Amiodarone D. Atropine sulfate

D. Atropine sulfate

A client receiving fluphenazine decanoate develops dystonia/extrapyramidal side effect early in therapy. Which medication would the nurse anticipate administering to reverse this side effect? A. Nafarelin B. Fluoxetine C. Trandolapril D. Benztropine

D. Benztropine

A client develops extrapyramidal effects after taking a neuroleptic medication, and the nurse notes extrapyramidal effects. Which medication can limit these side effects? A. Zolpidem B. Hydroxyzine C. Dantrolene D. Benztropine mesylate

D. Benztropine mesylate

A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine bromide to control symptoms. Recently, the client has begun experiencing increased difficulty in swallowing. Which nursing action is effective in preventing aspiration of food? A. Place a tracheostomy set in the client's room. B. Assess respiratory status after meals. C. Request for the diet to be changed from soft to clear liquids. D. Coordinate mealtimes with the peak effect of the medication.

D. Coordinate mealtimes with the peak effect of the medication.

Which drink would a nurse teach a client on warfarin to avoid? A. Apple juice B. Grape juice C. Orange juice D. Cranberry juice

D. Cranberry juice

The nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed atropine preoperatively. The nurse understands the intended purpose for administering this preoperatively is to induce which effect? A. Reduce heart rate B. Elevate blood pressure C. Enhance sedation D. Decrease secretions

D. Decrease secretions

Which action would the nurse perform when beginning pyridostigmine bromide therapy for a client with myasthenia gravis? A. Administer the medication after meals. B. Administer the medication on an empty stomach. C. Evaluate the client's psychological responses between medication doses. D. Evaluate the client's muscle strength every hour after the medication is given.

D. Evaluate the client's muscle strength every hour after the medication is given.

The nurse is caring for a client prescribed warfarin therapy for treatment of persistent atrial fibrillation. Which of the following may potentiate the effect of this medication? A. St. John wort B. Estrogen C. Vitamin K D. Green tea

D. Green tea

Which nursing action is appropriate when administering imipramine? A. Telling the client steroids will not be prescribed B. Warning the client not to eat cheese C. Monitoring the client for increased tolerance D. Having the client checked for increased intraocular pressure

D. Having the client checked for increased intraocular pressure

A client is being discharged with a prescription for warfarin. Which information is most important to be included in the nurse's discharge teaching? A. Take acetaminophen for minor pain B. Use a soft toothbrush C. Avoid eating leafy green vegetables D. Report nose or gum bleeding

D. Report nose or gum bleeding

Pyridostigmine is prescribed for a client with myasthenia gravis. Why would the nurse instruct the client to take pyridostigmine about 1 hour before meals? A. This timing limits first pass metabolism. B. Taking it on an empty stomach increases absorption. C. Taking it before meals decreases gastric irritation. D. Taking it before meals improves the ability to chew.

D. Taking it before meals improves the ability to chew.

A client with Parkinson's disease is prescribed benztropine (Cogentin). For which of the following should the nurse call the health care provider immediately? A. The client is complaining of dizziness when standing up. B. The client is exhibiting bradykinesia and slurred speech. C. The client's heart rate increased from 80 to 95 beats per minute. D. The client has a history of primary angle-closure glaucoma.

D. The client has a history of primary angle-closure glaucoma.

The nurse is preparing to administer prescribed warfarin to a client with a mechanical heart valve. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider? A. The INR is 3.0. B. The peripheral IV site has been oozing blood. C. The aPTT is 30. D. The client has cola-colored urine.

D. The client has cola-colored urine.

Which adverse effect of imipramine requires further assessment and possible immediate medical intervention? A. Dry mouth B. Weight gain C. Blurred vision D. Urinary hesitancy

D. urinary hesitancy

Upon admission to the emergency center, an adult client with acute status asthmaticus is prescribed this series of medications. In which order should the nurse administer the prescribed medications? (Arrange from first to last.) A. Prednisone (Deltasone) orally. B. Gentamicin (Garamycin) IM. C. Albuterol (Proventil) puffs. D. Salmeterol (Serevent Diskus).

E. Albuterol (Proventil) puffs. F. Salmeterol (Serevent Diskus). G. Prednisone (Deltasone) orally. H. Gentamicin (Garamycin) IM.

Can you drink alcohol on anti-chollinergics?

NO

What do cholinergic drugs do?

block the action of cholinesterase

Anti-cholinergic drug administration

class: tricyclics - take 2 to 4 weeks to work