Pharm- Unit 5

1. Diabetes mellitus is a syndrome that involves a problem with which hormone? A. Insulin B. Glucagon C. Amylin D. GIP

A

1. The two main systems of the body that function in regulating other systems are the: A. nervous system and the endocrine system. B. nervous system and the muscular system. C. endocrine system and the exocrine system. D. endocrine system and the muscular system.

A

1. What are the two types of receptor antagonists that are used as antiemetics? A. Serotonin 5-HT3 and NK1 B. Serotonin 5-HT2 and H1 C. D2 and M1 D. H1 and M

A

1. Which of the following pairs of hormones is released from the anterior pituitary? A. FSH and LH B. FSH and GnRH C. LH and estrogen D. LH and GnRH

A

1. Which of the following statements is true of the thyroid gland? A. The cells of the thyroid gland absorb iodide and combine it with the amino acid tyrosine to make T3 and T4. B. The thyroid gland synthesizes and secretes five hormones that are essential for tissue growth and development. C. The hormones of the thyroid gland directly influence the activity of only one peripheral tissue, bone tissue. D. The thyrotropin-releasing hormone directly stimulates the thyroid gland to produce triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4).

A

1. Which of the following types of receptors does histamine interact with to mediate allergic reactions? A. Postsynaptic H1-receptors B. Postsynaptic H2-receptors C. Postsynaptic H3-receptors D. Postsynaptic H4-receptors

A

10. After Darren breaks his ribs in a car accident, he is admitted at Pascal Hospital for a few days under the care of Dr. Palmer. Which of the following changes will Dr. Palmer expect in Darren's body as a response to the trauma of the accident? A. An increase in the level of glucose in the blood plasma B. An increase in the synthesis of proteins in the skeletal muscles C. A decrease in sodium and water retention D. A decrease in the level of glucose in the blood plasma

A

12. Implementing a treatment plan for asthma that includes cromolyn sodium involves educating the patient on proper use of the medication. Which of the following is a valid instruction for its use? A. Cromolyn sodium should be administered prophylactically by oral inhalation three to four times per day. B. Cromolyn sodium should be administered an hour after exposure to the allergen. C. Cromolyn sodium should be administered prophylactically by oral inhalation once a week. D. None of these are correct.

A

13. In patients with asthma, what role do H1-receptors play in the bronchioles? A. Contraction of bronchiolar smooth muscle B. Dilation of bronchiolar smooth muscle C. Innervation of bronchiolar smooth muscle D. Relaxation of bronchiolar smooth muscle

A

13. In the context of the treatment of peptic ulcer caused by H. pylori, triple therapy refers to using _____. A. two antibiotics and a bismuth compound B. two antibiotics and a proton pump inhibitor C. an antibiotic, a bismuth compound, and a proton pump inhibitor D. an antibiotic, an antifungal, and a bismuth compound

A

13. Phase 2 insulin secretion begins when: A. the blood sugar concentration rises to over 100 mg/dl 20 minutes after eating. B. the blood sugar concentration remains at 85 mg/dl 20 minutes after eating. C. the blood sugar concentration goes below 90 mg/dl 20 minutes after eating. D. low glucose levels persist 20 minutes after eating.

A

13. Which hormone does not induce its action through cAMP activity? A. Testosterone B. Calcitonin C. Glucagon D. Norepinephrine

A

14. Which of the following best describes the primary mechanism of action of the mucolytics? A. Liquefaction of the bronchial mucus B. Production of cough for the removal of the thickened mucus from the lungs C. Increase in the viscosity of bronchial secretions D. All of these

A

15. Identify the proper method of administration of acetylcysteine (Mucosil) to decrease the possibility of irritation and bronchospasm. A. Addition of a bronchodilator to the inhalation mixture will decrease irritation and bronchospasm. B. Addition of a bronchoconstrictor to the inhalation mixture will decrease irritation and bronchospasm. C. Addition of a leukotriene to the inhalation mixture will decrease irritation and bronchospasm. D. None of these are correct.

A

15. Which of the following statements is true about the formation of feces? A. Contractions of the small intestine move digested food and chyme toward the colon. B. The rectum removes water and minerals from the residual waste product and compresses the waste into feces for excretion through the anus. C. The small intestine compresses the waste into feces for excretion. D. None of these are correct.

A

16. As a health-care professional, which of the following instructions will Dr. Knightley give a patient with lupus erythematosus who intends to discontinue long-term therapy with prednisone? A. He will tell him to gradually reduce the dose of prednisone over a period of a few months. B. He will tell him to stop taking prednisone immediately. C. He will tell him to keep reducing the dose of prednisone every other day until he is no longer dependent on the drug. D. None of these are correct.

A

16. Select the statement that brings out the difference between central diabetes insipidus and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. A. Central DI is caused by a decreased secretion of ADH, whereas nephrogenic DI is caused by a resistance to ADH in the kidney. B. Central diabetes insipidus is caused by a resistance to ADH in the kidney, whereas nephrogenic DI is caused by a decreased secretion of ADH. C. Central diabetes insipidus is caused by a resistance to glucose in the blood, whereas nephrogenic DI is caused by a decreased secretion of insulin. D. None of these are correct.

A

17. In addition to bone, muscle, and fat, which of the following organs is particularly responsive to the effects of somatotropin? A. Liver B. Stomach C. Lymph nodes D. Spleen

A

17. What is the main purpose of undergoing alternate-day therapy in cases where the prolonged use of steroids is necessary? A. Alternate-day therapy is intended to reduce or eliminate the adverse effects of prolonged steroid treatment. B. Alternate-day therapy is intended to facilitate treatment for patients with hectic or busy lifestyles. C. Alternate-day therapy is intended to reduce or eliminate the stress on the liver that must metabolize the glucocorticoids. D. All of these are correct.

A

17. Which H2-receptor antagonist should not be prescribed for a patient already taking calcium channel blockers, metoprolol, and phenytoin? A. Cimetidine B. Famotidine C. Nizatidine D. Ranitidine

A

18. High doses or long-term treatment with hydrocortisone generally results in: A. the abnormal deposition of fat in the face and along the shoulders. B. the abnormal deposition of fat in the hips and buttocks. C. the redistribution of fat in the body to the chest and stomach regions. D. all of these.

A

19. What is the regular duration of menstruation? A. 4 days B. 8 days C. 12 days D. 16 days

A

24. Select the primary reason why the preferred route of administration for the corticosteroids in the treatment of chronic asthma and COPD is oral inhalation with metered-dose inhalers. A. The advantage of inhalation is that lower dosages of steroid are delivered directly into the respiratory tract, therefore limiting systemic absorption and the adverse effects associated with steroid use. B. The advantage of inhalation is that it prevents the abnormal increase in liver enzymes and the development of fever, dark urine, clay-colored stools, or jaundice. C. The advantage of inhalation is that it prevents sleep disorders and suicidal ideation. D. None of these are correct.

A

24. Which of the following decreases insulin requirement (potentiates insulin)? A. Alcohol B. Smoking C. Stress D. Surgery

A

24. _____ are specialized proteins that form pores (channels) in the cell membrane that allow water to pass through but not small molecules like ions. A. Aquaporins B. Nucleoporins C. Osmoreceptors D. Baroreceptors

A

25. Tobias is suffering from growth failure. The doctor prescribes mecasermin for him at a low dose for the first week. Which of the following conditions should be met before the doctor can increase the dosage? A. Hypoglycemia should not occur. B. Aquaresis should not occur. C. Tobias should not have taken any antibiotics for at least two weeks. D. Tobias should not have taken any analgesics for at least two weeks.

A

25. What is the therapeutic role of bismuth in triple therapy that is used to treat peptic ulcers? A. Bismuth inhibits the adhesion of bacteria to the gastric mucosa. B. Bismuth permeates the bacterial cell wall and weakens it. C. Bismuth eradicates the bacterial infection by selectively killing H. pylori. D. Bismuth neutralizes the acid present in the stomach.

A

25. When patients do not have estrogen-dependent cancer or an active thromboembolic disorder, the drug use in inoperable prostate cancer is _____. A. diethylstilbestrol B. menotropins C. clomiphene D. urofollitropin

A

26. Identify the accurate statement about insulin pens. A. The pens increase accuracy in dose delivery. B. Once a cartridge is loaded and opened, the loaded pen should be refrigerated. C. The needle should be inserted at a 45 angle into pinched skin. D. Insulin pens should be capped in order to avoid air being introduced in to the cartridge through the needle.

A

26. Identify the mechanism of action of antacids. A. Neutralizing gastric acid B. Reducing the volume of gastric acid C. Reducing the concentration of gastric acid D. Stimulating the production of gastric acid

A

27. Famotidine is available as over-the-counter 10-mg tablets. If Kayla takes one tablet every 12 hours over a period of four days. What is the total dosage of famotidine administered to Kayla? A. 80 mg B. 40 mg C. 120 mg D. 48 mg

A

28. How does the body respond to calcium levels greater than 10.5 mg/dL? A. When the plasma calcium level reaches 10.5 mg/dL, calcitonin is secreted, which lowers the level of circulating calcium by antagonizing the effect of parathormone (PTH) on bone. B. When the plasma calcium level reaches 10.5 mg/dL, calcitonin is secreted, which raises the level of circulating calcium by potentiating the effect of PTH on bone. C. When the plasma calcium level reaches 10.5 mg/dL, PTH is secreted, which lowers the level of circulating calcium by antagonizing the effect of calcitonin on bone. D. None of these are correct.

A

35. Krista is suffering from GERD. After various medications fail to improve her condition, Krista is prescribed metoclopramide as a short-term treatment option. However, the success of the treatment prompts Krista to continue using the medication for over three times the prescribed duration. Krista is at a risk for _____. A. tardive dyskinesia B. bulimia C. sinus tachycardia D. diabetic gastroparesis

A

35. Select the most appropriate reason why a patient on warfarin therapy should not use glucocorticoids. A. Because glucocorticoids can inhibit the body's response to warfarin B. Because warfarin can inhibit the action of glucocorticoids C. Because glucocorticoids can increase the requirement for warfarin D. None of above

A

35. _____ is used to treat acromegaly and is clinically valuable in the management of severe diarrhea and flushing associated with metastatic carcinoid tumors. A. Octreopeptide B. Lanreotide C. Somatomedin D. Somatotropin

A

4. Identify the mechanism of action of the anticholinergic drug agents used to treat asthma. A. By blocking the actions of acetylcholine, anticholinergic drugs produce bronchodilation and also reduce the volume of respiratory secretions. B. By blocking the actions of acetylcholine, anticholinergic drugs produce bronchoconstriction and also increase the volume of respiratory secretions. C. By blocking the actions of acetylcholine, anticholinergic drugs produce bronchodilation and also increase the volume of respiratory secretions. D. None of these are correct.

A

5. Cells that secrete GIP and GLP-1, which promote insulin secretion, are located in the: A. small intestines. B. large intestines. C. pancreas. D. liver.

A

5. The best time to administer cromolyn sodium is _____. A. before an allergic reaction has begun B. immediately after an allergic reaction has begun C. about 1 hour after an allergic reaction has begun D. anytime after an allergic reaction has begun

A

5. The portal system allows for communication between: A. the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary gland. B. the hypothalamus and the posterior pituitary gland. C. the hypothalamus and both the lobes of the pituitary gland. D. the hypothalamus and the renal system.

A

5. The thyroid hormones triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4): A. increase glucose absorption from the intestines. B. decrease protein synthesis. C. increase the serum cholesterol level. D. decrease the basal metabolic rate.

A

5. Which of the following clinical conditions has shown an improvement with hormone replacement therapy? A. Osteoporosis B. Dysmenorrhea C. Infertility D. Diabetes

A

5. Which of the following is not a common cause of peptic ulcers? A. Overproduction of inhibitory enzyme to stop acid secretion B. Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) C. Excess gastric acid secretion D. Long-term use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

A

5. Which of the following physical triggers is associated with water conservation? A. Thirst and reduction in blood volume B. Thirst and sweating C. Sweating and reduction in blood volume D. Excessive vomiting, sweating, and thirst

A

6. Identify the primary function of tocolytic drugs. A. Tocolytic drugs inhibit uterine contractions, thereby preventing premature births. B. Tocolytic drugs prevent or relieve abdominal distention associated with surgical procedures. C. Tocolytic drugs are used for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. D. Tocolytic drugs are proven effective in the treatment of nocturnal enuresis when administered prior to bedtime.

A

7. Use the Physicians' Desk Reference to determine the proper dosage of mifepristone (Mifeprex) given to induce abortion. A. The proper dosage of mifepristone (Mifeprex) to induce abortion is 600 mg or 3 tablets (200 mg each) administered orally as a single dose. B. The proper dosage of mifepristone (Mifeprex) to induce abortion is 300 mg or 3 tablets (100 mg each) administered orally as a single dose. C. The proper dosage of mifepristone (Mifeprex) to induce abortion is 600 mg administered through IM injection. D. None of these are correct.

A

7. What are the physical ramifications of hypothyroidism in infants and children? A. Mental and physical retardation B. Exophthalmos C. Toxic nodular goiter D. None of the above

A

8. Select the option in which the classes of laxatives are listed in the increasing order of their onset-of-action times. A. Bowel evacuants, emollients, stool softeners B. Emollients, bowel evacuants, swelling agents C. Osmotic laxatives, emollients, bowel evacuants D. Stimulants, stool softeners, emollients

A

8. Which of the following hormones causes ovulation as a result of a surge in its level? A. LH B. FSH C. GnRH D. Progesterone

A

9. A person allergic to chocolate is likely to develop a migraine because: A. histamine dilates cerebral blood vessels, which stimulates nearby pain receptors. B. IgE dilates cerebral blood vessels, which stimulates nearby pain receptors. C. histamine constricts cerebral blood vessels, which stimulates pain receptors. D. IgE constricts cerebral blood vessels, which stimulates pain receptors.

A

9. Antibiotic treatment for peptic ulcers caused by H. pylori requires the use of _____. A. two antibiotics B. one antibiotic and one antifungal C. three antibiotics D. one antibiotic and one antiprotozoal

A

9. Dr. Mark is asked to explain the mechanism of adsorbent drugs when they are used in the treatment of simple diarrhea. Which of the following statements should Mark choose? A. The adsorbents work in the intestine to form a complex with irritating substances such as bacteria, digestive enzymes, or toxins and carry them into the feces for elimination. B. The adsorbents remain in the intestine, soak up water, and expand. The water, which is retained, softens the stool, and the swelling action distends the rectum and initiates defecation. C. The adsorbents are a mixture of sodium and magnesium salts. These ions attract water, which causes a more liquid stool to be formed. D. The adsorbents act on the stool to permit water to penetrate the fecal mass. The oily nature of these laxatives eases the passage of the stool through the rectum.

A

9. How can the sources of ADH be described using the terms exogenous and endogenous? A. The endogenous ADH is called ADH, while the exogenous form is synthetically produced and sold by the name vasopressin. B. Exogenous ADH is produced in the hypothalamus and stored until it is needed, while the endogenous form is synthetically produced and sold by the name vasopressin. C. Endogenous vasopressin is produced in the hypothalamus and stored until it is needed, while the exogenous form is synthetically produced. D. None of these are correct.

A

9. In gestational diabetes, hormones produced by the _____ cause insulin resistance. A. placenta B. ovaries C. uterus D. pituitary gland

A

9. Pituitary secretion is decreased by the: A. inhibiting hormones produced by the hypothalamus. B. inhibiting hormones produced by the posterior pituitary gland. C. second messengers produced by the anterior pituitary gland. D. second messengers produced by the thyroid gland.

A

9. Which of the following is an expectorant available over the counter and is used for the relief of an unproductive cough? A. Mucinex B. Mucosil C. Potassium citrate D. Ammonium chloride

A

9. Which of the following is true of catabolism? A. Catabolism primarily occurs in the skeletal muscle. B. Catabolism refers to the process of synthesizing complex compounds from simpler molecules. C. Catabolism primarily occurs in the liver. D. Catabolism is not associated with the release of energy.

A

11. Simon is going to travel to another country on a business trip. He is informed by his colleagues that the water supplied in that region is unlikely to be pure and that people who have previously visited the place have suffered from diarrhea. Simon wants to know how he can avoid the onset of diarrhea while on his business trip. Which of the following drugs would you ask Simon to take prophylactically? A. Lotronex B. Pepto-Bismol C. Imodium D. All of these

B

11. The process of gluconeogenesis primarily occurs in _____. A. the cortex of the kidneys B. the liver C. skeletal muscles D. bone marrow

B

12. Select the drug of choice for the treatment of postpartum bleeding. A. Dinoprost B. Methylergonovine C. Carboprost D. Prostaglandin

B

12. Which of the following can be used to relieve sweats, hot flashes, and headaches caused by too high a dose of estrogen? A. Estrone B. Progestin C. FSH D. GnRH

B

12. _____ refers to a process that is associated with energy release in which complex compounds are broken down into simpler molecules. A. Anabolism B. Catabolism C. Gluconeogenesis D. Constructive metabolism

B

13. Select the statement that best describes the involvement of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system in the movement of feces. A. Stimulation of the adrenergic fibers that innervate the intestines increases intestinal motility, whereas stimulation of the cholinergic fibers decreases motility. B. Stimulation of the cholinergic fibers that innervate the intestines increases intestinal motility, whereas stimulation of the adrenergic fibers decreases motility. C. Stimulation of either the cholinergic fibers or the adrenergic fibers that innervate the intestines increases intestinal motility. D. Stimulation of either the cholinergic fibers or the adrenergic fibers that innervate the intestines decreases intestinal motility.

B

14. Which ion channel is essential for the release of insulin and amylin into the blood? A. Sodium B. Calcium C. Potassium D. Chloride

B

14. Which of the following is associated with red blood cell production? A. Cholecystokinin B. Erythropoietin C. Gastrin D. Prolactin

B

14. Why is Dr. Smith unlikely to prescribe an antihistamine for his patient with asthma? A. Antihistamines produce disturbances in intestinal activity. B. Antihistamines are not therapeutically useful in the treatment of asthma. C. Antihistamines promote the production of nasal and bronchial mucus. D. Antihistamines produce a life-threatening reaction called the Response of Lewis in asthma patients.

B

15. Repository preparations of drugs: A. have a quick onset of action. B. have a long duration of action. C. are usually made for intravenous administration. D. are water soluble.

B

15. What is the effect of estrogen on PTH (parathyroid hormone)? A. Estrogen inhibits PTH that inhibits osteoclasts. B. Estrogen inhibits PTH that stimulates osteoclasts. C. Estrogen activates PTH that inhibits osteoclasts. D. Estrogen activates PTH that stimulates osteoclasts.

B

15. Which of the following instructions should a healthcare professional give a patient who is undergoing hormonal replacement therapy? A. One need not inform the physician if he or she chooses to discontinue thyroid hormone replacement therapy. B. If one is receiving radioactive iodide, he or she should not expectorate. C. Drugs like cholestyramine should be taken only an hour after taking the thyroid hormones. D. Thyroid hormones should preferably be taken at night.

B

16. A triphasic oral contraceptive formulation contains: A. two different-strength estrogen pills and a progestin pill. B. three different strengths (dose ratio) of estrogens to progestin pills. C. two different strengths (dose ratio) of estrogens to progestin pills. D. fixed amounts of estrogen (relative to progestin) in each pill.

B

17. What unexpected adverse effect can elderly patients experience when taking an antihistaminic drug? A. Respiratory depression B. Paradoxical stimulation C. Extreme hypotension D. Insomnia

B

18. Select the statement that best describes the reason why antidiarrheals containing atropine should not be used by patients who have glaucoma. A. Anticholinergic drugs may damage the ciliary cells in the eye. B. Anticholinergic drugs may increase intraocular pressure by reducing anterior chamber drainage in patients with glaucoma. C. Anticholinergic drugs may increase the density of the vitreous humor and lead to lowered intraocular pressure. D. None of these are correct.

B

18. What effect will excess amounts of insulin in the blood have on the number of insulin receptors present? A. Slight increase in the number of insulin receptors present B. Decrease in the number of insulin receptors present C. No change in the number of insulin receptors present D. Dramatic increase in the number of insulin receptors present

B

18. What is the significant therapeutic aim in treating COPD? A. To inhibit the production of mucus B. To improve lung function C. To liquefy mucus and thus eliminate mucus from the lungs D. All of these

B

18. Which of the following hormones is acutely regulated through a positive feedback loop? A. Antidiuretic hormone B. Oxytocin C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone D. Cortisol

B

18. Why should cimetidine never be mixed with a barbiturate when compounding an IV admixture? A. The drugs will exhibit pharmacological antagonism to each other. B. Cimetidine will precipitate out of solution. C. The drugs will exhibit pharmacological synergism with each other. D. The barbiturate will precipitate out of solution.

B

18. _____ is an acute condition in which there is a reduction in the number of white blood cells (WBCs), specifically polymorphonuclear cells (granulocytes). A. Hypercalcemia B. Agranulocytosis C. Osteoporosis D. Cretinism

B

26. Select the function of the eosinophilic chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis as it relates to asthma. A. Eosinophilic chemotactic factor (ECF-A) is released from eosinophils and mast cells and functions to stimulate the action of arachidonic acid. B. Eosinophilic chemotactic factor (ECF-A) is released from eosinophils and mast cells and functions to attract eosinophils to the site of cell injury or irritation in the lining of the respiratory tract in asthma. C. Eosinophilic chemotactic factor (ECF-A) is released from eosinophils and mast cells and functions to stimulate the action of the prostaglandins. D. None of these are correct.

B

26. Which of the following drugs is used for the induction of spermatogenesis in men? A. Clomiphene B. Follitropin C. Chorionic gonadotropin recombinant DNA D. Human chorionic gonadotropin hCG

B

26. Which of the following is a common ingredient in OTC analgesic and cough-cold medications? A. Chlorpheniramine B. Doxylamine C. Brompheniramine D. All of the above

B

27. Cosyntropin is a synthetic peptide that: A. corresponds to an inactive segment of ACTH. B. provides the same therapeutic activity as ACTH. C. has more allergenic potential than ACTH. D. has a broader range of uses than ACTH.

B

27. Ralf, a 14-year-old, suffers from dwarfism. He consults Dr. Martin, who prescribes recombinant growth hormone for Ralf. In this scenario, Dr. Martin should monitor Ralf's _____. A. catecholamine levels B. glycosylated hemoglobin levels C. lymphocyte levels D. hydrophilic amino acid levels

B

28. Identify an accurate statement about mineralocorticoids. A. The mineralocorticoids are hormones secreted by the innermost layer of the adrenal gland. B. The main effect of the mineralocorticoid hormones is to regulate the fluid balance of the body. C. The most important secreted mineralocorticoid is hydrocortisone. D. The excessive use of mineralocorticoids often leads to obesity and diabetes mellitus.

B

28. Which of the following statements is true of amylin? A. It accelerates gastric emptying and fuels glucagon secretion. B. It is the hormone co-secreted by the pancreas beta cells with insulin. C. It increases output from the liver (glycogenolysis) stimulated by glucagon. D. Unlike type1 DM, amylin is deficient to absent consistent with insulin availability in type 2 DM.

B

29. Jeremy's eyes have been itching for over a day. Since the condition is not severe, he prefers taking an OTC drug to relieve the itching. Which of the following products can Jeremy obtain over-the-counter to treat himself? A. Azelastine B. Ketotifen C. Epinastine D. Emedastine

B

29. Ravi is taking Symlin. However, he missed a few meals and is feeling nauseous. Which of the following treatment statements is true? A. The doses should continue even if Ravi skips his meals. B. Continued use of the drug should reduce nausea. C. The doses should be mixed with insulin as a single injection. D. The doses should be increased until there is a perceivable reduction of the nauseous feeling.

B

29. Select the statement that best explains the results of the excessive use of calcium and vitamin D in the treatment of hypocalcemia. A. The excessive use of calcium and vitamin D may lead to convulsions and paresthesia. B. The excessive use of calcium and vitamin D may lead to hypercalcemia and kidney stone formation. C. The excessive use of calcium and vitamin D may lead to carpopedal spasms. D. All of these are correct.

B

29. The most important secreted mineralocorticoid is _____. A. hydrocortisone B. aldosterone C. betamethasone D. estradiol

B

8. Identify the role that the autonomic nervous system plays in the development of asthma. A. Parasympathetic stimulation by epinephrine (beta-2 receptor) produces the bronchodilation that is characteristic of asthma. B. Parasympathetic activation through the release of acetylcholine produces bronchoconstriction and increased secretion of mucus. C. Sympathetic activation through the release of acetylcholine produces bronchoconstriction and increased secretion of mucus. D. Sympathetic activation through the release of epinephrine produces bronchoconstriction and increased secretion of mucus.

B

8. Which of the following is true of gluconeogenesis? A. Gluconeogenesis refers to the synthesis of glucose from carbohydrates. B. Gluconeogenesis refers to the process of converting glycerol and amino acids into glucose. C. Gluconeogenesis primarily occurs in the skeletal muscles. D. Gluconeogenesis leads to a decrease in plasma glucose concentration.

B

9. Ella develops a large swelling in the front of her neck, which makes it difficult for her to swallow. Ella visits Dr. Stein for a checkup who decides to run some tests. After receiving the test results, Dr. Stein explains to Ella that she has iodine deficiency and that the protrusion in the front of her neck is, in fact, her enlarged thyroid gland. Based on the information provided in this scenario, from which of the following conditions is Ella most likely suffering? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Goiter C. Toxic nodular goiter D. Cretinism

B

9. Progesterone exerts a negative feedback against and causes a drop in _____ levels. A. GnRH B. FSH and LH C. estradiol D. estriol

B

14. Select the statement that brings out the difference between oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH). A. Oxytocin and ADH travel down nerve axons to the anterior lobe, where the hormones are stored until needed. B. Oxytocin and ADH are polypeptides that differ only in the placement of three amino acids. C. Oxytocin is primarily involved with labor contractions before birth and milk ejection after birth, while ADH is essential for water conservation throughout life. D. None of these are correct.

C

15. Acid secretion and gastrin-induced secretion is inhibited by blocking _____. A. cholinergic and H1-receptors B. adrenergic and H1-receptors C. cholinergic and H2-receptors D. adrenergic and H2-receptors

C

15. Once potassium channels are closed by the production of ATP in the beta cell, what is needed for the release of insulin? A. Depolarization causing sodium influx B. Repolarization causing potassium efflux C. Depolarization causing calcium influx D. Hyperpolarization causing potassium efflux

C

15. Select the reason why vasopressin is contraindicated in patients diagnosed with coronary artery disease. A. In higher doses, the pressor effect produces cutaneous vasoconstriction and a decrease in blood pressure. B. In higher doses, the pressor effect produces cutaneous vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure. C. In higher doses, the pressor effect produces cutaneous vasoconstriction and an increase in blood pressure. D. None of these are correct.

C

15. Why do antihistaminic drugs require repeated administration multiple times a day? A. These drugs are nontoxic at smaller doses and at a higher frequency. B. These drugs are not absorbed very well from the intestines. C. These drugs are rapidly metabolized by the liver. D. These drugs are eliminated very quickly through renal excretion.

C

15. _____ is a recombinant insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) that is indicated for the long-term treatment of growth failure in children with severe primary IGF-1 deficiency. A. Prolactin B. Lanreotide C. Mecasermin D. Octreotide

C

16. Determine the statement that is true regarding systemic steroid use in the treatment of asthma. A. Systemic steroid use leads to decreased susceptibility to infection. B. Systemic steroid use increases the release of inflammatory mediators from mast cells. C. Systemic steroid use leads to increased susceptibility to infection. D. Systemic steroid use leads to dehydration.

C

16. Thyroid hormone is contraindicated in patients with _____. A. thyroid nodules B. thyroid cancer C. acute myocardial infarction D. goiter

C

25. Select the correct statement related to the preferred therapy for the treatment of asthma and COPD. A. The aim of therapy is to administer leukotriene drugs that inhibit leukotriene-1 receptors. B. The aim of therapy is to administer methylxanthine drugs to inhibit the action of beta-2 adrenergic receptors or anticholinergic drugs that decrease parasympathetic activity. C. The aim of therapy is to administer sympathomimetic drugs to stimulate beta-2 adrenergic receptors or anticholinergic drugs that decrease parasympathetic activity. D. None of these are correct.

C

25. Which of the following conditions must be met for a drug to be declared an OTC product? A. A patient must be able to successfully treat the condition. B. The product must be safe and effective under the described conditions of use. C. A patient must be able to self-diagnose the condition to be treated. D. All of the above are correct.

C

26. Administration of alosetron should be stopped when the patient exhibits symptoms of _____. A. pancreatitis B. gastritis C. ischemic colitis D. dermatomyositis

C

26. Which of the following is true of the anti-inflammatory activity of glucocorticoids? A. Glucocorticoids are the least potent anti-inflammatory agents available. B. Glucocorticoids interfere with a specific stage of the inflammatory response. C. Glucocorticoids require a transport binding globulin to carry them to the target tissue. D. Glucocorticoids tend to have a greater effect on B-cells and T-cells than they have on macrophages.

C

27. After a surgery, Kyla presents with symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. Which of the following antihistamines should be prescribed to Kyla? A. Azelastine B. Olopatadine C. Chlorpromazine D. Emedastine

C

27. Which of the following is a clinical indication for the use of androgens in women? A. Oral contraception B. Fertility enhancement C. Metastatic inoperable breast cancer D. Hormone replacement therapy

C

27. Which of the following is the primary treatment for the calcium disorder hypoparathyroidism? A. Administration of bisphosphonates B. Administration of the parathyroid hormone teriparatide (Forteo) C. Administration of intravenous calcium followed by oral calcium salts and vitamin D D. All of these

C

28. Identify an accurate statement about oxytocin. A. A fall in oxytocin levels correlates with orgasm intensity in men and women. B. Oxytocin is synthesized in the posterior lobe of the pituitary in women. C. There is no role for oxytocin as a pharmacologic agent beyond labor and delivery at present. D. Oxytocin is synthesized only in the testes and prostate gland in men.

C

29. How does arteriosclerosis cause erectile dysfunction? A. By altering psychomotor activity B. By potentiating nerve excitability C. By reducing the flow of blood throughout the body, including the penis D. By decreasing the formation of clotting factors

C

29. Select the mechanism of action of omalizumab (Xolair). A. Omalizumab destroys the IgE antibody and decreases the circulating levels of IgE, which reduces the severity and frequency of asthmatic attacks. B. Omalizumab binds up the IgE antibody and increases the circulating levels of IgE, which reduces the severity and frequency of asthmatic attacks. C. Omalizumab binds up the IgE antibody and decreases the circulating levels of IgE, which reduces the severity and frequency of asthmatic attacks. D. None of these are correct.

C

29. The ergot alkaloid methylergonovine (Methergine) is used to: A. induce labor. B. induce abortion. C. decrease uterine bleeding. D. treat hypothalamic DI.

C

29. Which of the following drugs forms a complex with the irritants in the stomach and moves them to the feces? A. Lotronex B. Lomotil C. Kaopectate D. Motofen

C

3. Identify the role of osmoreceptors in the release of ADH. A. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect changes in the water concentration in the plasma that indicate whether more or less water needs to be conserved. B. Osmoreceptors in the kidneys detect changes in the salt (sodium) concentration in the plasma that indicate whether more or less water needs to be conserved. C. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect changes in the salt (sodium) concentration in the plasma that indicate whether more or less water needs to be conserved. D. None of these are correct.

C

3. Insulin causes a majority of the blood glucose to be taken up in: A. the brain. B. the smooth muscle. C. the skeletal muscle. D. the cardiac muscle.

C

3. Tropic hormones are released into the _____ to control the activities of the other endocrine glands. A. portal artery in the brain B. portal vein in the brain C. general circulation D. pulmonary circulation

C

3. Which of the following cycles consists of a follicular, ovulation, and luteal phase? A. The menstrual cycle B. The endometrial cycle C. The ovarian cycle D. The androgen cycle

C

3. Which of the following types of antibodies is produced in the body when a person is sensitized to tree pollen for the first time? A. IgA B. IgB C. IgE D. IgF

C

3. _____ receptors are found on parietal cells and increase secretion of HCl when activated. A. Cholinergic B. Prostaglandin C. Histamine D. Adrenergic

C

30. Liam consults a doctor as he has been suffering from diarrhea for two days. The doctor prescribes diphenoxylate to decrease peristalsis. Which of the following statements, if true, would indicate that the doctor's prescription is inappropriate for Liam? A. Liam's electrolyte levels have changed. B. Liam suffers from lactose intolerance. C. Liam shows symptoms of liver disease. D. Liam complains of constipation after taking the drug.

C

30. On the eve of an important business meeting, Steve presents with symptoms of a severe allergy. Steve can ill-afford to appear sedated or under medication during this meeting, so he asks the doctor to prescribe a suitable antihistamine. Which of the following drugs is the doctor most likely to prescribe? A. Hydroxyzine B. Diphenhydramine C. Chlorpheniramine D. Promethazine

C

31. Which of the following conditions is characterized by a significant reduction in bone mass? A. Hypothyroidism B. Agranulocytosis C. Osteoporosis D. Cretinism

C

32. Jeremy is diagnosed with erectile dysfunction, and his doctor prescribes tadalafil to treat his condition. How is tadalafil likely to help Jeremy? A. Tadalafil will increase the blood flow to the penis by acting as a vasodilator. B. Tadalafil will increase the blood pressure in the penis by acting as a vasoconstrictor. C. Tadalafil will selectively block PDE5 in the penis so that cGMP accumulates and a full erection is maintained. D. Tadalafil will alter psychomotor activity and increase nerve excitability so that an erection is established and maintained.

C

32. Simone presents with symptoms of moderate renal impairment. Her physician diagnoses her condition to be a result of diabetes mellitus. She has been taking Diabinese for over a decade. Which of the following would be true of this situation? A. The physician can prescribe a secretagogue to treat Simone. B. The bioavailability of Diabinese will be reduced because of the renal impairment. C. Diabinese should be substituted with a nonsulfonylurea drug. D. Any drug prescribed to treat the renal impairment is unlikely to interact with Diabinese.

C

32. Which of the following is true of fexofenadine? A. Fexofenadine should not be taken with an antacid. B. Fexofenadine decreases the blood level of nasally administered azelastine. C. Fexofenadine absorption is delayed when taken closely with high fatty meals. D. Fexofenadine does not undergo drug interactions with other drugs.

C

33. Li has been administered Pitocin by IV infusion in order to induce labor. Which of the following is a major adverse effect when this drug is administrated excessively? A. Vertigo B. Tremor C. Uterine tetany D. Cutaneous vasoconstriction

C

34. Which of the following statements is true about thiazolidinedione as an insulin sensitizer? A. These drugs should be used in patients with congestive heart failure. B. Troglitazone is available in the market for the management of diabetes. C. Common adverse effects in this class include fluid retention and weight gain. D. Rosiglitazone should be administered if ALT levels remain at more than three times the upper limit of normal on repeated assay.

C

35. A patient presents with the following symptoms. The patient's upper eyelid has hard bumps, and the conjunctiva is swollen. There is yellow discharge from the eyes. Which of the following drugs should be used to treat this patient? A. Nedocromil B. Pemirolast C. Lodoxamide D. Cromolyn sodium

C

35. Alex has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes and is prescribed Glucophage. He is invited to a party by his friend Ryan. Which of the following statements would be accurate for the given situation? A. Alex should take a shot of insulin before going to the party. B. Alex should take a shot of insulin right after having food at the party. C. Alex should avoid alcohol use. D. Alex is unlikely to develop symptoms of fatigue and respiratory or abdominal distress.

C

30. Ally, a 50-year-old woman, has been experiencing severe bone pain in her pelvic region. She visits Dr. Carl for a consultation, and he instructs her to undergo a few diagnostic tests. When Dr. Carl examines an X-ray of Ally's pelvic region, he observes microfractures along her bones and notices that her bones are thick and calcified. After examining the other medical reports, Dr. Carl confirms his diagnosis and tells Ally that she is suffering from a bone disorder that is characterized by hyperactive bone metabolism. Based on the information provided in this scenario, from which of the following conditions is Ally suffering? A. Osteoporosis B. Paget's disease C. Hypocalcemia D. Graves' disease

B

30. How does diabetes contribute to impotence? A. It causes the hardening and narrowing of arteries leading a reduction in blood flow. B. It causes damage to blood vessels, thereby diminishing blood flow. C. It increases nerve excitability and alters psychomotor (brain) activity. D. It causes significant protein catabolism and weight loss.

B

30. What is the onset of action of glimepiride (Amaryl)? A. 20 minutes B. 1 hour C. 2-4 hours D. 4-6 hours

B

31. Olivia has been suffering from irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) for time now. She has undergone conventional therapy previously and has not responded well to it. Her doctor has prescribed alosetron to treat her. The drug should be discontinued if Olivia displays symptoms of _____. A. craniosynostosis B. ischemic colitis C. hypertension D. psoriasis

B

31. Under which of the following categories are salmeterol and formoterol typically classified? A. Rescue drugs B. Reliever drugs C. Antihelminthic drugs D. Antithyroid drugs

B

31. Which of the following statements is true about the oral antidiabetic drugs that are approved for the treatment of type 2 DM? A. These drugs are ineffective in maintaining glycemic control. B. They can be used concurrently with other antidiabetic drugs, including insulin. C. They are also used in the treatment of type 1 DM because some of these drugs cause the insulin secretion. D. They are used in the treatment of ketoacidosis.

B

31. Who among the following should avoid using steroids? A. Emma, who has allergic rhinitis B. Alex, who has ocular herpes C. Fred, who has rheumatoid arthritis D. Pablo, who has asthma

B

32. Carter consults a doctor as he is suffering from diarrhea. He informs the doctor that he has recently been diagnosed with glaucoma. The doctor should avoid prescribing an anticholinergic to Carter because: A. it leads to irregularly dilated lymphatic channels in the bulbar conjunctiva. B. it may increase intraocular pressure by reducing anterior chamber drainage. C. it inhibits the production of anti-inflammatory cytokine on the ocular surface. D. it results in malignant epithelial lesions

B

32. Which of the following conditions results from a deficiency of mineralocorticoids? A. Cushing's syndrome B. Hypoaldosteronism C. Hyperaldosteronism D. Tourette's syndrome

B

33. Daniel is diagnosed with cancer and is undergoing chemotherapy. He is suffering from bouts of vomiting, usually after the chemotherapy sessions. Which of the following drugs should Daniel's doctor prescribe for the vomiting? A. Diphenoxylate B. Ondansetron C. Loperamide D. Polycarbophil

B

33. Using your knowledge of the mechanism of action of the bisphosphonates, select the true statement related to their use in the treatment of osteoporosis. A. It is advisable not to take the bisphosphonates within 2 hours of taking calcium supplements, caffeine, or antacids because absorption will be increased. B. It is advisable not to take the bisphosphonates within 1 hour of taking calcium supplements, caffeine, or antacids because absorption will be decreased. C. It is advisable not to take the bisphosphonates within 1 hour of taking calcium supplements, caffeine, or antacids because absorption will be increased. D. It is advisable not to take the bisphosphonates within 2 hours of taking calcium supplements, caffeine, or antacids because absorption will be decreased.

B

34. Meera experiences premature rupture of obstetrical membranes (PROM), which might lead to the premature birth of her baby during the 32nd week of gestation. Which of the following would be true of this situation? A. Meera can continue smoking cigarettes because it does not have a significant link with PROM. B. There is a high probability that Meera's baby will have significantly underdeveloped respiratory functions. C. Magnesium sulfate will slow Meera's uterine contractions but may increase her heart and respiratory rate. D. Terbutaline will inhibit uterine contractions but decrease the heart rates of Meera and the fetus.

B

34. Which of the following is the most frequent side effect produced by antidiarrheal drugs? A. Vomiting B. Constipation C. Renal failure D. Hypertension

B

34. Which of the following is true of selective oral PDE5 inhibitors such as tadalafil? A. They selectively block cGMP in the penis. B. They do not affect erection that is not a result of sexual stimulation. C. They increase or affect erection in men who are not impotent. D. They are approved for use in women to treat impotence.

B

35. In the context of the drugs used to treat bone disorders, which of the following is true of bisphosphonates? A. Bisphosphonates are used to stimulate bone resorption in men and women. B. Bisphosphonates are analogs of endogenous pyrophosphates that have a special attraction to calcium in bones. C. The nitrogen-bisphosphonates have lesser resorption inhibition potency than non-nitrogen bisphosphonates. D. Bisphosphonates are well absorbed by the gastrointestinal tract.

B

35. Which of the following drugs is a serotonin receptor antagonist? A. Atropine B. Granisetron C. Loperamide D. Diphenoxylate

B

35. Which of the following statements is true of ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)? A. It has a quick onset and prolonged duration of action. B. It is a quaternary derivative of atropine. C. It causes several adverse effects. D. It is a nonselective beta drug.

B

4. Which of the following tissues does the hormone calcitonin primarily affect? A. Fat tissue B. Bone tissue C. Muscle tissue D. Nerve tissue

B

5. Explain the reason why theophylline may be contraindicated in patients with existing cardiovascular disease. A. Theophylline may cause vasoconstriction. B. Theophylline may cause excessive cardiac stimulation. C. Theophylline may cause angioedema. D. None of these are correct.

B

5. Identify the long-term impact of chronic diarrhea. A. Accumulation of sodium and potassium in the blood B. Dehydration and electrolyte imbalance C. Relaxation of the external anal sphincter due to weakening of impulses from the brain D. All of these

B

6. Caffeine, theophylline, and theobromine are compounds found in nature and these compounds are classified as methylxanthines. Identify the type of compound being exemplified in this question. A. Mineral compounds B. Plant compounds C. Synthetic compounds D. None of these

B

6. Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone are: A. produced in the posterior pituitary gland and stored in the mammary glands. B. produced in the hypothalamus and are stored in the posterior pituitary gland. C. produced in the uterus and are stored in the mammary glands. D. produced in the anterior pituitary gland and are stored in the uterus.

B

6. The autoimmune response associated with type 1 diabetes in which beta cells are destroyed is thought to be triggered by: A. obesity. B. a Coxsackie virus. C. a staphylococcal infection. D. the aging process.

B

6. The side effects associated with antihistaminics are _____. A. hypertension and urinary incontinence B. sedation and xerostomia C. agitation and insomnia D. narcolepsy and bradycardia

B

6. Which of the following is not a risk associated with long-term HRT in women? A. Heart attack B. Osteoporosis C. Stroke D. Breast cancer

B

6. Which of the following medications can promote the formation of ulcers by interfering with mucus production or secretion? A. Diuretics B. NSAIDs C. Antacids D. Antibiotics

B

7. Estrogens released from the ovary _____. A. increase secretion of GnRH through positive feedback B. decrease secretion of GnRH through negative feedback C. increase secretion of FSH and LH through positive feedback D. decrease secretion of FSH and LH through negative feedback

B

7. Identify the hormone that is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland in response to the secretion of the corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) by the hypothalamus. A. Aldosterone B. Adrenocorticotropin hormone C. Dehydroepiandrosterone D. Cortisol

B

7. Identify the preferred therapy for the relief of moderate or persistent asthma. A. Treatment with the lowest dose of inhaled anti-inflammatory corticosteroids and inhaled selective beta-2 adrenergic bronchodilators at the onset of the asthma symptoms B. Daily treatment with low-to-moderate-dose inhaled anti-inflammatory corticosteroids and inhaled selective beta-2 adrenergic bronchodilators C. Daily treatment with high-dose inhaled anti-inflammatory corticosteroids and inhaled selective beta-2 adrenergic bronchodilators D. Daily treatment with high-dose inhaled corticosteroids and long-acting beta adrenergic bronchodilators

B

1. Identify a difference between the adrenal medulla and the adrenal cortex. A. The adrenal medulla forms the outer portion of the adrenal glands, while the adrenal cortex forms the inner portion of the adrenal glands. B. The adrenal medulla develops from the same tissue as sympathetic ganglia, while the adrenal cortex develops from mesodermal tissue. C. The adrenal medulla secretes three types of steroids, while the adrenal cortex secretes only catecholamines. D. The adrenal medulla is composed of three separate layers of tissue, while the adrenal cortex is composed of a single layer of tissue.

D

1. Identify the mechanism used in the classification of diarrheas. A. Increased motility in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract B. Increased secretory functions C. Increased osmolality in the intestine D. All of these

D

11. Which of the following diseases is associated with the long-term use of thyroxine in postmenopausal women? A. Osteosclerosis B. Agranulocytosis C. Cretinism D. Osteoporosis

D

11. Which of the following effects are associated with the use of the leukotriene inhibiting drug zileuton (Zyflo)? A. Nausea and diarrhea B. Fever, rash, and headache C. Dark urine, jaundice, and clay-colored stools D. All of these

D

11. Which of the following is necessary to administer proper HRT combinations to postmenopausal women? A. Testing fasting blood glucose B. Testing bone mineral density C. Monitoring hormone blood levels D. Monitoring symptoms experienced

D

12. Antihistaminics are used in cold remedies because of their anticholinergic properties responsible for _____. A. inhibiting the degranulation process in mast cells B. promoting sedation C. slowing the breathing process D. drying nasal secretions

D

12. Somatostatin is: A. a releasing hormone that stimulates the release of the growth hormone. B. a releasing hormone produced by the target organ. C. an inhibitory hormone released from the pituitary gland. D. an inhibitory hormone produced by the hypothalamus.

D

12. Which antidiabetic agents are considered hypoglycemics? A. Insulins and alpha-glucosidase inhibitors B. Biguanides and secretagogues C. Insulin sensitizers and peptidase inhibitors D. Insulins and secretagogues

D

20. The need for amputation for diabetics occurs because of: A. an increase in the levels of stored glucose in the extremities. B. a decrease in the immune response with high levels of insulin. C. a decrease in the immune response with high levels of glucagon. D. inadequate circulation to the extremities due to microvascular changes.

D

20. Which of the following is a method of monitoring adverse effects in a patient who is taking growth hormone? A. Testing the blood glucose levels B. Testing the blood enzyme levels C. Testing for glucose in a urinary analysis D. Testing for glycosylated hemoglobin in a blood sample

D

21. Select the drug agent that is used to treat allergic rhinitis from the following list of corticosteroids that are administered by oral inhalation or by nasal spray. A. Aerobid B. Pulmicort C. Azmacort D. Flonase

D

21. Which of the following statements is true of the hormones in the posterior pituitary lobe? A. They are secreted when the hypothalamus produces releasing hormones. B. They are produced in the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland. C. They are stored in the hypothalamus until they are needed. D. They travel from the hypothalamus to the posterior lobe down nerve axons.

D

22. A nurse explains to a patient who presents with allergic symptoms that he is exhibiting an allergic reaction known as the Response of Lewis. Which of the following symptoms is most likely being exhibited by the patient? A. Nasal congestion B. Production of nasal and brochial mucus C. Hypotension D. Edema and erythema in the skin

D

22. In children, excess secretion of growth hormone results in _____. A. goiter B. cretinism C. acromegaly D. gigantism

D

23. Hormone replacement therapy is used to treat dyspareunia, a condition in which: A. complete cessation of a menstrual period occurs. B. there is a significant decrease in female sex hormone production. C. body and facial hair is excessive. D. vaginal atrophy may cause difficult or painful sexual intercourse.

D

23. Select the correct statement related to the mechanism of action of steroids. A. Steroids work as anti-inflammatory agents to inhibit the activation of arachidonic acid. B. The major effect of steroids in the treatment of asthma is to inhibit the inflammatory process. C. Steroids act to decrease the formation of prostaglandins and leukotrienes. D. All of these are correct.

D

24. Steve, a 16-year-old, suffers from stunted growth. His doctor prescribes mecasermin for his condition. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true of Steve's condition? A. Steve has high levels of adrenocorticotropic hormone. B. Steve has a swollen lymph node. C. Steve has a pituitary tumor. D. Steve has developed neutralizing antibodies to growth hormone.

D

25. Identify an adverse effect of glucocorticoids. A. Decrease in sweating B. Decrease in appetite C. Weight loss D. Restlessness

D

25. Select a true statement about the calcium balance mechanism in the body. A. Osteoclasts secrete enzymes that break down bone and release calcium ions. B. Osteoblasts secrete a protein matrix that facilitates the deposition of calcium ions. C. Osteoblasts and osteoclasts balance plasma calcium concentration through bone remodeling. D. All of these are correct.

D

26. Noah, a 42-year-old, consults Dr. Miller as he has enlarged bones in his hands and feet. Dr. Miller diagnoses him with acromegaly and prescribes lanreotide to him. Dr. Miller should consider switching Noah to octreopeptide if Noah has _____. A. adrenal insufficiency B. stents in his blood vessels C. Cushing's disease D. carcinoid tumors

D

26. Which of the following statements is true of calcium homeostasis? A. Calcitriol is a form of vitamin D that facilitates calcium absorption from the GI tract, thus increasing the level of circulating calcium. B. Hypercalcemia stimulates calcitonin secretion, while hypocalcemia stimulates the secretion of parathormone (PTH). C. Plasma calcium is maintained at 9.0 to 10.4 mg/dL for men and 8.9 to 10.2 mg/dL for women. D. All of these are correct.

D

26. Which of the following statements is true of diabetes insipidus (DI)? A. Central DI is caused by a resistance to ADH in the kidney. B. Nephrogenic DI is caused by a decreased secretion of ADH. C. Treatment of hypothalamic DI mainly involves replacement therapy with endogenic vasopressin. D. Diabetes insipidus is not related to the other hormone deficiency condition, diabetes mellitus.

D

27. Hannah has type 1 diabetes. She is injected with insulin glargine (Lantus), which is administered at bedtime and released from the injection site at a consistent rate. Which of the following statements would be true of this scenario? A. It can be substituted for short-acting insulin preparations. B. It can be diluted or mixed with any other insulin preparation. C. Her blood glucose levels will rise and fall in response to changing insulin levels. D. She will have controlled insulin release during the next day.

D

27. Identify the correct statement about desmopressin acetate (DDAVP). A. It is injected SC or IM in the early treatment of diabetes insipidus. B. It has a duration of action that is much shorter than the natural vasopressin. C. It is contraindicated in patients with abdominal distention associated with surgical procedures. D. It is proven effective in the treatment of nocturnal enuresis when administered prior to bedtime.

D

27. Select the mechanism of action of the bronchodilator drug theophylline. A. Theophylline antagonizes adenosine, a bronchoconstrictor. B. Theophylline inhibits the enzyme phosphodiesterase (PDE), which slows the metabolism of cAMP. C. Theophylline inhibits the enzyme phosphodiesterase (PDE), which slows the inactivation of cAMP. D. All of these are correct.

D

27. Toxic doses of diphenoxylate could produce respiratory depression and coma similar to _____ overdose. A. ephedrine B. barbiturate C. psychogenic D. opiate

D

28. Human growth hormone was withdrawn from the market when the National Hormone and Pituitary Program (NIH) linked _____ to contaminated cadaver tissue. A. Emanuel syndrome B. Cotard's syndrome C. Huntington's disease D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

D

28. Which of the following drugs that are used to treat diarrhea needs to be absorbed into the circulation to work? A. Ephedrine B. Bismatrol C. Kaopectate D. Motofen

D

28. _____ is the antihistamine contained in most topical products to relieve itching and manage symptoms of insect bites. A. Dimenhydrinate B. Promethazine C. Azelastine D. Diphenhydramine

D

3. Identify the physical manifestations associated with emphysema. A. Difficulty expelling air from the lungs B. Reduced respiratory exchange C. Shortness of breath D. All of these

D

3. Which of the following is true of the physiological effects of the thyroid hormones T3 and T4? A. The thyroid hormones stimulate protein synthesis. B. The thyroid hormones increase carbohydrate breakdown as well as the blood glucose and insulin-dependent entry of glucose into cells. C. The thyroid hormones decrease serum cholesterol levels. D. All of these are correct.

D

3. Which of the following statements is true of mineralocorticoids? A. Mineralocorticoids are secreted by the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex. B. A deficiency in mineralocorticoid production may lead to Cushing's disease. C. The main function of the mineralocorticoid hormones is to stimulate gluconeogenesis and lipolysis. D. The main function of the mineralocorticoid hormones is to regulate blood levels of sodium and potassium.

D

30. Which of the following is true of aldosterone? A. Aldosterone is the most important secreted glucocorticoid. B. Aldosterone decreases the reabsorption of sodium ions through sodium channels. C. Aldosterone secretion is inhibited by small increases in the potassium ion level in the blood. D. Aldosterone receptors are present in the epithelial cells of organs such as the kidneys, colon, heart, and sweat glands.

D

31. Growth hormone induces the liver and other tissues to produce _____. A. oxytocin B. somatotropin C. prolactin D. somatomedins

D

31. The use of antihistamines is contraindicated for _____. A. children weighing less than 65 pounds B. women who have children younger than 4 years of age C. people who are allergic to tree pollen D. dehydrated children

D

31. What is the role of nitric oxide (NO) in establishing and maintaining an erection? A. NO produces cyclic guanosine monophosphate. B. NO metabolizes cyclic guanosine monophosphate. C. NO blocks phosphodiesterase type 5. D. NO stimulates the enzyme guanylatecyclase.

D

32. Which of the following is true of osteoporosis? A. Osteoporosis is a condition associated with increased bone mass. B. Osteoporosis typically affects people aged between 15 and 30 years. C. Tall and fat women are more likely to develop osteoporosis than women who are lean and have short statures. D. Women are more likely to be affected by osteoporosis than men are.

D

32. _____ decreases the clearance of octreotide and increases the plasma level. A. Dysphagia B. Cretinism C. Aquaresis D. Renal impairment

D

33. A patient is diagnosed with erectile dysfunction and is prescribed the drug vardenafil. The drug is most likely to work when the reason for impotence is _____. A. decreased nerve excitability B. altered psychomotor activity C. soft tissue damage to the penis D. diminished blood flow

D

33. Growth hormone increases plasma levels of nutrients to provide the energy needed for growth by inhibiting the uptake of _____ by adipose cells. A. oxygen B. phosphorous C. calcium D. glucose

D

33. What information must be given to a female patient who is on steroid therapy and who has just learned that she is pregnant? A. If she is going to continue treatment, the infant will have to be monitored for adrenal function after birth. B. Chronic maternal steroid use in the first trimester can result in a cleft palate in newborns (about 1 percent incidence). C. If she is going to continue treatment, her dose will have to be reduced to the lowest possible effective dose. D. All of these are correct.

D

33. Which of the following is true of ophthalmic mast cell stabilizers? A. They inhibit postsynaptic histamine receptors. B. They stimulate histamine receptors on mast cells. C. They stimulate eosinophil chemotaxis. D. They inhibit the release of histamine from mast cells.

D

33. Which of the following potentiates oral hypoglycemic drugs? A. Sympathomimetics B. Isoniazid C. Rifampin D. Sympatholytics

D

34. As a health-care professional, which of the following guidelines will you have to bear in mind while counseling patients who are receiving steroid therapy? A. Single steroid doses should be taken before 9 AM to allow distribution of drug to mimic diurnal levels without suppressing available adrenocortical activity. B. Patients receiving high-dose or long-term steroid therapy should not discontinue the steroids without the supervision of the prescribing physician to avoid precipitating symptoms of withdrawal. C. Diabetics may have an increased blood glucose concentration requiring dose adjustment in insulin or oral antidiabetic drugs. D. All of these statements are correct.

D

34. Kevin suffers from occasional asthmatic episodes caused due to various allergic reactions. His doctor prescribes cromolyn sodium for his treatment. During a subsequent visit, his doctor informs him that he could use a substitute drug that is similar in mechanism and pharmacological effect to cromolyn. Which of the following drugs is being referred to in this scenario? A. Formoterol (Foradil) B. Tiotropium (Spiriva) C. Dyphylline (Lufyllin) D. Nedocromil (Tilade)

D

35. Kevin is prescribed sildenafil for the treatment of erectile dysfunction. Which of the following adverse effects can Kevin expect from this therapy? A. Hypertension B. Cardiac arrhythmias C. Jaundice D. Nasal congestion

D

4. Gastric juices are released during the gastric phase when the _____. A. chyme or partially digested foods enter the intestine. B. adrenergic receptors on parietal cells are stimulated. C. brain receives sensory input. D. stomach distends.

D

4. Identify the causes of constipation. A. Poorly developed toilet habits and diets low in fiber B. Stressful situations that result in sympathetic stimulation and decrease intestinal motility C. Emotional disturbances that alter the parasympathetic control of the intestines D. All of these

D

4. What is the the use of desmopressin or DDAVP? A. Desmopressin is used to prevent or relieve abdominal distention associated with surgical procedures. B. Desmopressin is approved for use in conditions other than diabetes insipidus. C. Desmopressin is proven effective in the treatment of nocturnal enuresis when administered prior to bedtime. D. All of these are correct.

D

4. When compared to the nervous system, hormones have: A. a faster onset and a shorter duration of stimulation. B. a faster onset and a longer duration of stimulation. C. a slower onset and a shorter duration of stimulation. D. a slower onset and a longer duration of stimulation.

D

4. Which glucose receptor also functions as a carrier protein in cells of skeletal and heart muscles? A. GLUT1 B. GLUT2 C. GLUT3 D. GLUT4

D

4. Which of the following hormones has an inhibitory effect on endometrial muscle contractions? A. Estriol B. Estradiol C. Estrone D. Progesterone

D

6. Explain the mechanism of action of emollients that are used as laxatives. A. They work by releasing carbon dioxide gas that pushes against the rectum wall and induces muscle contraction and stool movement. B. They soak up water and soften the stool, which results in a swelling action that distends the rectum and initiates defecation. C. They consist of a mixture of sodium and magnesium salts that attract water, which results in the formation of a more liquid stool. D. They penetrate the fecal mass and ease the passage of the stool through the rectum due to their oily nature.

D

6. Which of the following factors contributes to stress? A. Infection B. Cold weather C. Surgery D. All of the above

D

8. One of the effects of histamine on the vasculature is: A. vasoconstriction of the blood vessels and vasodilation of the capillaries. B. vasodilation of the blood vessels and vasoconstriction of the capillaries. C. vasoconstriction of the blood vessels and the capillaries. D. vasodilation of the blood vessels and the capillaries.

D

8. Symptoms of chronic erosion of mucosal lining and perforation include _____. A. hyperglycemia B. high levels of IgE antibodies C. hypertension D. presence of blood in stool or vomit

D

8. What endocrine response occurs after a healthy person ingests a meal? A. Glycogenolysis is increased. B. Incretin secretion is reduced. C. Stored glucagon is immediately released. D. Stored insulin is immediately released.

D

8. Which of the following statements is true of the thyrotropic-releasing hormone? A. The release of the growth hormone is stimulated by the action of the thyrotropic-releasing hormone from the hypothalamus. B. The release of the growth hormone is stimulated by the action of the thyrotropic-releasing hormone from the posterior pituitary gland. C. The release of the thyroid-stimulating hormone is stimulated by the action of the thyrotropic-releasing hormone, which is secreted from the posterior pituitary gland. D. The release of the thyroid-stimulating hormone is stimulated by the action of the thyrotropic-releasing hormone, which is secreted from the hypothalamus.

D

35. Natalie is experiencing uterine contractions during her 7th month of pregnancy. Which of the following would be true in this situation? A. Natalie should refrain from using nifedipine for her contractions because it has been specifically disapproved by the FDA for this indication. B. The benefit of having the Natalie's baby come to full term in utero can be substituted by the use of high-tech neonatal intensive care units. C. Natalie should use terbutaline, which inhibits uterine contractions, although it increases the heart rates of the mother and fetus. D. Magnesium sulfate will slow Natalie's uterine contractions but may increase her heart and respiratory rate.

C

25. Identify the most common adverse effect of insulin therapy. A. Diarrhea B. Blurred vision C. Fainting D. Convulsions

B

25. _____ is a measure of hydration status or the amount of solute (ions, salts) per liter of solution (blood, plasma). A. Osmolality B. Osmolarity C. Tonicity D. Molality

B

24. Which of the following first-generation antihistaminic drugs inhibits the actions of histamine and serotonin? A. Dimenhydrinate B. Cyproheptadine C. Meclizine D. Clemastine

B

25. Diphenoxylate works by: A. reducing constriction in sphincters. B. stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system to increase peristalsis. C. stimulating mu receptors in the myenteric plexus. D. increasing the gastrointestinal transit time.

C

19. Which of the following is true about the affects of the release of ADH? A. ADH is released when the blood serum sodium level is hypertonic, having a serum sodium level of >145 mEq/l. ADH secretion is inhibited when the blood serum sodium level is hypotonic and has a serum sodium level of <135 mEq/l. B. ADH is released when the blood serum sodium level is hypotonic and has a sodium level of <135 mEq/l. ADH secretion is inhibited when the blood serum sodium level is hypertonic and has a serum sodium level of >145 mEq/l. C. ADH is released when the blood serum sodium level is hypertonic and has a serum sodium level of <135 mEq/l. ADH secretion is inhibited when the blood serum sodium level is hypotonic and has a serum sodium level of >145 mEq/l. D. None of these are correct.

A

19. Which of the following is true of the mechanism of action of aldosterone? A. Aldosterone increases the reabsorption of sodium ions and water; in exchange, potassium ions are transported into the urine. B. Aldosterone increases the discharge of sodium ions and water into the urine. C. Aldosterone increases the reabsorption of potassium ions and water; in exchange, sodium ions are transported into the urine. D. None of these are correct.

A

19. Which of the following occurs in the respiratory tract due to the release of histamine? A. It causes bronchoconstriction, increased vascular permeability that contributes to mucosal edema, and infiltration of leukocytes. B. It causes bronchodilation, decreased vascular permeability that contributes to mucosal edema, and infiltration of leukocytes. C. It causes bronchodilation and inhibits the release of mediators from mast cells. D. None of these are correct.

A

19. Which of the following statements is true of antithyroid drugs such as propylthiouracil and methimazole? A. Antithyroid drugs inhibit the incorporation of iodide into tyrosine and the condensation of monoiodotyrosine and diiodotyrosine. B. Antithyroid drugs cannot be easily absorbed into the thyroid gland after oral use. C. Antithyroid drugs stimulate the thyroid to secrete more T3 and T4. D. Antithyroid drugs inhibit the anterior pituitary from secreting TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) into the bloodstream.

A

2. Where are the adrenal glands located? A. On the upper surface of each kidney B. At the base of the brain C. On the anterior side of the neck D. On the lower surface of the left kidney

A

20. Select the drug class that can cause stimulation of the central nervous system, increase respiratory muscle contractility, and mucociliary clearance. A. Theophylline B. Ipratropium C. Albuterol D. Pirbuterol

A

20. Select the reason why increased dietary fiber is a major component in the management of constipation. A. Fiber increases stool bulk and fluid content and decreases transit time, resulting in an increase in the frequency of defecation. B. Fiber affects the fluid and electrolyte supplements in the stomach and inhibits the sympathetic nervous system, resulting in an increase in the frequency of defecation. C. Fiber decreases the number of microorganisms in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, decreases the fluid content, and decreases transit time, resulting in a decrease in the frequency of defecation. D. None of these are correct.

A

20. Which of the following drugs do not affect the thyroid gland but are administered to inhibit the increased sympathetic responses that accompany hyperthyroidism? A. Beta-adrenergic blocking drugs B. Leukotriene inhibitors C. Calcium channel blockers D. None of the above

A

21. Gustav is suffering from mild diarrhea. He consults a doctor who informs him that the underlying cause of the diarrhea is not clear, but it is most likely to be poor dietary habits. The doctor prescribes a liquid suspension and tells him not to take the medicine with meals or other medications. Which of the following drugs is the doctor most likely to have prescribed for Gustav? A. Kaopectate B. Lomotil C. Imodium D. Opium tincture

A

21. In the context of the digestion process, which of the following is true of histamine? A. Histamine is released from enterochromaffin-like (ECL) cells that are stimulated by gastrin. B. Histamine binds to receptors on enterochromaffin-like (ECL) cells to release gastric juices. C. Drugs that block histamine release decrease the pH in the stomach. D. Histamine inhibits the action of digestive enzymes such as pepsin.

A

21. Which of the following is a secretagogue? A. Meglitinides B. Metformin C. Thiazolidinediones D. Biguanides

A

22. Which of the following statements is true of bismuth salts? A. They act within the intestine. B. They are usually administered as intravenous injections. C. They act on mu receptors to stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system. D. They should be administered immediately after meals.

A

22. _____ are considered to be ulcerogenic because they inhibit the secretion of protective mucus and interfere with the normal production of the mucosal lining. A. Steroids B. Antacids C. Adrenergic drugs D. Antihistamines

A

23. Identify the mechanism of action by which NSAIDs cause peptic ulcers. A. Blockade of prostaglandins that inhibit gastric secretions B. Blockade of receptors that promote the fight-or-flight response C. Stimulation of histamine receptors on parietal cells D. Stimulation of H1-receptors on smooth muscles of the gastrointestinal tract

A

23. Jose's soft tissues and bones have thickened. This is prominent on his hands, feet, and face. The doctor diagnoses that he is suffering from acromegaly. Which of the following treatments is the doctor most likely to recommend? A. Radiation therapy B. Antibiotics C. Automated external defibrillator D. Blood thinners

A

23. The repeated drug administration of antihistaminics is necessitated by their _____. A. rapid metabolization by the liver B. long duration of action C. long duration of bioavailability D. low rate of excretion

A

23. _____ is the only steroid approved for nonprescription products. A. Hydrocortisone B. Fluticasone C. Dexamethasone D. Budesonide

A

24. A patient with peptic ulcer complains of severe duodenal pain. Which of the following treatment options is most likely to relieve this pain? A. Administration of food B. Administration of histamine H1-receptor antagonists C. Administration of calcium channel blockers D. Administration of cholinergic drugs

A

28. Select the statement that correctly outlines the synthesis process of prostaglandins and leukotrienes. A. During inflammation, phospholipase A stimulates the release of arachidonic acid from the cell membrane. Cyclooxygenase converts arachidonic acid into several different prostaglandins. At the same time, lipoxygenase converts arachidonic acid into the leukotrienes. B. During inflammation, phospholipase A stimulates the release of arachidonic acid from the cell membrane. Lipoxygenase converts arachidonic acid into several different prostaglandins. At the same time, cyclooxygenase converts arachidonic acid into the leukotrienes. C. During inflammation, phospholipase A stimulates the release of arachidonic acid from the cell membrane. Cyclooxygenase converts arachidonic acid into several different prostaglandins and leukotrienes. D. During inflammation, phospholipase A stimulates the release of arachidonic acid from the cell membrane. Lipoxygenase converts arachidonic acid into several different prostaglandins and leukotrienes.

A

28. Which of the following is an adverse effect caused by the chronic use of testosterone in adult males? A. Reduced sperm count B. Hirsutism C. Acne D. Stunting of bone growth

A

28. _____ are considered the first-line therapy in treating GERD. A. Proton pump inhibitors B. Antacids C. Histamine H2-receptor antagonists D. Prostaglandins

A

29. The hormones of the anterior lobe that control the activities of the other endocrine glands are known as _____ hormones. A. tropic B. source C. inter D. counter

A

29. The suppression of acid secretion is greater with a proton pump inhibitor than with an H2-receptor antagonist because: A. unlike an H2-receptor antagonist, a proton pump inhibitor blocks the secretion of HCl. B. unlike an H2-receptor antagonist, a proton pump inhibitor blocks the release of histamine from parietal cells. C. unlike an H2-receptor antagonist, a proton pump inhibitor increases the volume and strength of acid secretion. D. unlike an H2-receptor antagonist, a proton pump inhibitor stimulates H1-receptors.

A

3. Identify the group in which chronic diarrhea develops readily. A. Children B. Adults C. Elderly D. None of these

A

30. Identify an accurate statement about oxytocin. A. The duration of uterine contraction is dependent on the oxytocin dose. B. The use of oxytocics lessens the chance of violent uterine contractions. C. Natural preparations (animal source) of oxytocin are generally administered during pregnancy. D. Oxytocin prevents the forceful expulsion of a fetus through an undilated birth canal.

A

30. Select the group of drug agents that are listed in increasing order of their duration of action. A. Albuterol (Proventil), Salmeterol/fluticasone (Advair), Tiotropium (Spiriva) B. Salmeterol/fluticasone (Advair), Albuterol (Proventil), Tiotropium (Spiriva) C. Albuterol (Proventil), Tiotropium (Spiriva), Salmeterol/fluticasone (Advair) D. Tiotropium (Spiriva), Albuterol (Proventil), Salmeterol/fluticasone (Advair)

A

30. _____ is a disease characterized by the presence of gastrin-containing tumors (gastrinomas) and ulceration of the GI tract. A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome B. Reye's syndrome C. Adams-Stokes SYNDROME D. Behcet's Syndrome

A

30. _____ is secreted through positive feedback. A. Oxytocin B. Somatotropin C. Prolactin D. Calcitonin

A

31. Julian is diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome and presents with symptoms such as gastric acid hypersecretion. Which of the following drugs should be used to treat Julian? A. Cimetidine B. Omeprazole C. Metoclopramide D. Antacids

A

31. Which of the following adverse effects is common to oxytocics and tocolytics? A. Nausea B. Flushing C. Gangrene D. Arrhythmia

A

32. Brian is experiencing abdominal distention after a recent surgery. Which of the following drugs should Brian's physician prescribe? A. Desmopressin B. Oxytocin C. Methylergonovine D. Dinoprostone

A

32. Raymond, a patient with Zollinger-Ellison (ZE) syndrome, is administered a dose of 6 mg of cimetidine. How long will it take for peak absorption to occur? A. Within 90 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 2 to 3 hours D. 6 hours

A

32. Which of the following statements is true of prostaglandins? A. Aspirin inhibits the formation of prostaglandins. B. Prostaglandins cause bronchodilation. C. Prostaglandins are derived from eosinophils. D. Whenever there is injury to body tissue, prostaglandins are rapidly released from mast cells.

A

33. Dr. Martha has prescribed pirbuterol to a patient who is having an asthmatic attack. Which of the following statements best explains her reason for choosing this drug? A. It is considered a rescue drug. B. The onset of action with the use of this drug is 1 hour from the time it is inhaled. C. The duration of action for this drug is 12-14 hours. D. It is a nonselective beta drug; therefore it is more effective.

A

33. _____ results when antacids increase the pH of the stomach and the secretory cells respond by increasing the secretion of gastric acid. A. Acid rebound B. Acid reflux C. Hypophosphatemia D. Hypercalcemia

A

34. Cassandra, a 28-year-old architect, is susceptible to allergic conjunctivitis. When she has allergic conjunctivitis, her eyes begin to itch. Which of the following drugs should be prescribed to treat Cassandra? A. Nedocromil B. Orally administered Gastrocrom C. Cromolyn sodium D. Fexofenadine

A

34. For bisphosphonates to be optimally effective, these medications must be taken with an adequate amount of: A. oral calcium and vitamin D. B. vitamin C. C. iron. D. folic acid.

A

34. Ray is prescribed Carafate for the treatment of peptic ulcers. Which of the following side effects can Ray expect from this medication? A. Constipation B. Nausea C. Vomiting D. Headache

A

34. The release of _____ is controlled by nerve reflexes. A. antidiuretic hormone B. luteinizing hormone C. adrenocorticotropic hormone D. growth hormone

A

24. Which of the following is true of calcitonin? A. Calcitonin is secreted in response to abnormally low levels of plasma calcium. B. Calcitonin does not affect intestinal and renal calcium absorption. C. Calcitonin is secreted by the parathyroid gland. D. Calcitonin directly stimulates bone resorption.

B

1. What causes chronic obstructive pulmonary disease? A. Arthritis and chronic fatigue syndrome B. Emphysema and chronic bronchitis C. Nephritis and chronic viral hepatitis D. Synovitis and chronic esophagitis

B

10. A patient complains of hoarseness and changes in his voice after using anti-inflammatory steroids. You advise the patient that the best way to avoid these adverse effects is to: A. switch to an intravenously administered steroid or leukotriene inhibitor. B. rinse his mouth with water after inhaling the medication to reduce the amount of steroid that remains in his mouth and throat. C. chew a throat lozenge immediately after inhaling the medication. D. All of these are correct.

B

10. As a healthcare professional, how would you explain to a diabetic patient the outcome of discontinuing thyroid treatment without notifying the physician? A. Stopping thyroid therapy may bring about hyperglycemia unless the antidiabetic medication is readjusted. B. Stopping thyroid therapy may bring about hypoglycemia unless the antidiabetic medication is readjusted. C. Stopping thyroid therapy may bring about exophthalmos. D. None of these are correct.

B

10. In negative feedback: A. the hypothalamus releases inhibiting hormones that reach the target organ. B. the target organ hormone inhibits the specific pituitary hormone secretion. C. the target organ hormone stimulates the production of the pituitary hormone. D. the pituitary hormone stimulates the production of hormones from the hypothalamus.

B

10. Metabolic acidosis in diabetics occurs as a result of: A. the breakdown of carbohydrates. B. the breakdown of fats. C. the breakdown of proteins. D. the breakdown of nucleic acids.

B

10. One way to treat a patient with severe GERD is to _____. A. use tissue grafting to replace eroded tissue B. remove damaged tissue through surgery C. administer triple therapy in conjunction with NSAIDs D. administer quadruple therapy

B

10. Using the typical water intake and output criteria, determine the body's normal function that uses the largest percentage of the water taken in daily. A. 60 percent of the daily water intake is used by the body to produce sweat in order to keep the body temperature constant. B. 60 percent of the daily water intake is used by the body to produce urine in order to keep water and sodium levels balanced. C. 60 percent of the daily water intake is eliminated by the body while exhaling. D. None of these are correct.

B

10. What occurs in an allergic reaction when histamine binds to receptors on local sensory nerve endings? A. Sodium channels are activated, causing pain and swelling. B. Itch-specific fibers are stimulated, causing itching and pain. C. Vasoconstriction in the local area causes erythema. D. Vasoconstriction in the local area causes histaminic cephalgia.

B

19. Select the statement that best explains the mechanism of action of the laxative products Ceo-Two and lubiprostone (Amitiza). A. Lubiprostone (Amitiza) releases carbon dioxide gas, which pushes on the wall of the rectum, inducing muscle contractions and stool movement, whereas Ceo-Two opens the chloride channels so that chloride followed by water enters the channels in an attempt to maintain isotonic balance, accelerating transit time and softening the stool. B. Ceo-Two releases carbon dioxide gas, which pushes on the wall of the rectum, inducing muscle contraction and stool movement, whereas lubiprostone (Amitiza) opens the chloride channels so that chloride followed by water enters the channels in an attempt to maintain isotonic balance, accelerating transit time and softening the stool. C. Both lubiprostone (Amitiza) and Ceo-Two open the chloride channels so that chloride followed by water enters the channels in an attempt to maintain isotonic balance, accelerating transit time and softening the stool. D. Ceo-Two releases carbon dioxide gas, which pushes on the wall of the rectum, inducing muscle contractions and stool movement, whereas lubiprostone (Amitiza) stimulates mu receptors in the myenteric plexus to decrease peristalsis, constrict sphincters, and directly affect the circular smooth muscle of the bowel, accelerating the gastrointestinal transit time.

B

2. A lack of thyroid hormone production in infancy results in: A. dwarfism. B. cretinism. C. acromegaly. D. candidemia.

B

2. A major factor in the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus is: A. genetics. B. insulin resistance. C. obesity. D. age.

B

2. Gastric juices mainly consist of _____. A. HCl and gastrin B. HCl and pepsin C. sodium bicarbonate and gastrin D. sodium bicarbonate and pepsin

B

2. Identify the primary function of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). A. Antidiuretic hormone is a substance that regulates water balance in the body by controlling the amount of the sodium ions in the body. B. Antidiuretic hormone is a substance that regulates water balance in the body by controlling water loss in the urine. C. Antidiuretic hormone is a substance that regulates water balance in the body by controlling the sodium potassium exchange in the body. D. None of these are correct.

B

2. Which of the following antihistamine medications can be used to treat vertigo and nausea? A. Terfenadine and cromolyn B. Dimenhydrinate and meclizine C. Astemizole and lodoxamide D. Cetirizine and pemirolast

B

20. What do the adverse effects of methylergonovine (Methergine) include? A. Vasodilation, which can produce varying degrees of hypotension B. Nausea, vomiting, and constriction of blood vessels, which can produce varying degrees of hypertension C. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea D. None of these

B

20. Which of the following events is best referred to as degranulation of the mast cell? A. The exposure of mast cells to IgE B. The release of mast cell contents C. The production of antibodies by white blood cells D. The contact of an antigen with the skin or lungs

B

20. Which of the following necessitates the use of hormonal replacement therapy in women? A. Continued ovarian activity during menopause B. Removal of ovaries during the active productive years C. Primary ovarian failure D. Hypogonadism

B

20. Which of the following symptoms is associated with the excessive use of aldosterone? A. Hypotension B. Hypertension C. Low blood pressure D. None of these

B

21. Which of the following adverse effects is most likely to result from the excessive use of mineralocorticoids? A. Increased gluconeogenesis B. Sodium and water retention and loss of potassium C. Increased protein catabolism D. None of these

B

21. Which of the following is true of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? A. ADH is not a polypeptide. B. The supraoptic nuclei is a neuron where ADH is synthesized. C. ADH is primarily involved with milk ejection after birth. D. ADH is primarily involved with labor contractions before birth.

B

21. Why is iodide suppression not useful for the long-term treatment of hyperthyroidism? A. Because iodide reduces the vascularity of the thyroid gland B. Because the effects of iodide suppression are not permanent C. Because iodide destroys overactive thyroid tissue D. Because iodide enhances the size of the thyroid gland over time

B

22. Identify a difference between the antithyroid drugs methimazole and propylthiouracil. A. Methimazole reduces hyperthyroidism less quickly than propylthiouracil does. B. Methimazole produces fewer adverse effects than propylthiouracil does. C. Unlike propylthiouracil, methimazole does not cross the placental barrier during pregnancy. D. Propylthiouracil does not have anticoagulant activity, whereas methimazole does.

B

22. In which of the following patients is the use of steroids contraindicated? A. Patients suffering from gastrointestinal ulcers B. Patients who have systemic fungal and local herpes infections C. Patients suffering from renal disease D. Patients suffering from colitis

B

22. Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of estrogens and progestins in women? A. Hypotension B. Liver disease C. Diabetes D. Sexual activity

B

22. Which of the following is a true statement about the posterior pituitary hormones? A. The hormones are synthesized when they are needed. B. The secretion of the hormones is controlled by nerve reflexes. C. The hormones are released in response to other hormones. D. The hormones travel down nerve axons to the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland.

B

23. Control of water output is primarily through _____. A. sweat production B. urine production C. cutaneous transpiration D. expiration of air

B

23. Which of the following statements is true of diphenoxylate? A. It acts only within the intestine. B. It is metabolized by the liver, and the metabolite is excreted into the urine. C. It is used to treat patients suffering from severe colitis. D. It is a serotonin receptor agonist.

B

24. Angela develops a skin rash after using a new brand of facial cream. She decides to buy a nonprescription drug from a chemist to suppress the skin inflammation. Which of the following drugs is the chemist most likely to give her? A. An intramuscular injection of triamcinolone B. A topical hydrocortisone product C. Prednisolone tablets D. Mometasone nasal spray

B

1. Identify the primary function of oxytocin. A. Oxytocin is essential for water conservation during pregnancy. B. Oxytocin is primarily involved with milk production before birth and milk ejection after birth. C. Oxytocin is primarily involved with labor contractions before birth and milk ejection after birth. D. None of these are correct.

C

10. A miscarriage happens when: A. the levels of estrogen and progesterone are high. B. the release of FSH is inhibited by high levels of progesterone. C. the corpus luteum degenerates before the placenta can maintain hormone level. D. the peak progesterone concentration is higher than the peak estradiol concentration.

C

10. A patient is being administered opioids to help ease his pain following extensive back surgery. He starts suffering from constipation that is induced by the opioid analgesics. Select the drug that should be used for the treatment of constipation. A. Lubiprostone B. Lactulose C. Methylnaltrexone bromide D. Psyllium hydrophilic

C

11. Medical professionals can determine how well a patient is managing his or her blood glucose levels by: A. analyzing a tissue sample. B. analyzing a urine sample. C. analyzing hemoglobin. D. analyzing the white blood cells.

C

11. One way to directly block the secretion of acid and pepsin in the stomach is to _____. A. administer an H1-blocker B. administer a proton pump inhibitor C. administer an H2-blocker D. administer an anticholinergic

C

11. The effects of nonselective interactions of first-generation antihistamines include _____. A. relief of acute toxicity symptoms B. relief of ulcers C. relief of allergy symptoms D. relief of bradycardia

C

11. Which of the following is an adverse effect of oxytocics due to which these agents are contraindicated in patients with asthma? A. Oxytocics cause vomiting and diarrhea. B. Oxytocics cause headache and dizziness. C. Oxytocics cause constriction of bronchial smooth muscle. D. None of these are correct.

C

11. Which of the following stimulates bone growth during childhood? A. Oxytocin B. Somatostatin C. Insulin-like growth factor 1 D. Insulin-like growth factor 2

C

12. Oral H2-receptor antagonists _____. A. must be taken on an empty stomach B. interact with citrus juices C. can be taken with food D. do not interact with other medications

C

12. To avoid interference with the intestinal absorption of the thyroid hormones: A. a patient should take cholestyramine and the thyroid hormones on alternating days. B. a patient should take cholestyramine and the thyroid hormones 2 or 3 hours apart. C. a patient should not take cholestyramine within 4 to 5 hours of taking the thyroid hormones. D. a patient should take the thyroid hormones along with cholestyramine.

C

12. Using your knowledge of the treatments for constipation, explain to a patient how laxatives and cathartics stimulate defecation. A. Both laxatives and cathartics produce a mild, gentle stimulus for defecation. B. Cathartics produce a mild, gentle stimulus for defecation, whereas laxatives produce a more intense action on the bowel. C. Laxatives produce a mild, gentle stimulus for defecation, whereas cathartics produce a more intense action on the bowel. D. Both laxatives and cathartics produce an intense action on the bowel, causing defecation.

C

13. Apart from individual patient risk factors, which of the following pairs of factors is associated with the potential for adverse effects during hormone replacement therapy? A. Dose and increased prothrombin levels B. Increased prothrombin levels and length of treatment C. Dose and length of treatment D. Hypertension and hypercholesterolemia

C

13. Martha, a patient suffering from hypothyroidism, has just found out that she is pregnant. She contacts Dr. Hudson to find out whether she should continue her thyroid hormone replacement therapy during her pregnancy. Which of the following instructions is Dr. Hudson most likely to give Martha? A. Discontinue treatment until the third trimester, when there is no longer a risk of the drug affecting fetal development. B. Discontinue treatment because the thyroid hormones administered to pregnant women readily cross the placental barrier and affect fetal development. C. Continue treatment as usual because the thyroid hormones administered to pregnant women do not readily cross the placental barrier to affect fetal development. D. Continue the treatment at half the dosage as the growing fetus may be very sensitive to the effects of the drug.

C

14. David is suffering from hypothyroidism. He has been using liotrix to treat his condition for many months now. When he accidently consumes a very large amount of the medication, he begins to experience reactions to the drug and is rushed to the doctor. Which of the following adverse reactions is he most likely to experience? A. Constipation B. Decreased heart rate C. Increased blood pressure D. Decreased blood pressure

C

17. Allison has lost a lot of weight and has an abnormally rapid heartbeat. She often suffers from anxiety and muscle weakness. When she visits Dr. Ford's clinic for a checkup, Dr. Ford immediately observes that Allison has bulging eyeballs. After running a few tests, Dr. Ford confirms his suspicions and tells Allison that she is suffering from an autoimmune disease that affects the thyroid gland. He tells her that, according to the test results, she has very high levels of thyroid hormones circulating in her bloodstream and that the excess hormones are responsible for producing these symptoms. Based on the information provided in this scenario, from which of the following conditions is Allison most likely suffering? A. Cretinism B. Nontoxic goiter C. Graves' disease D. Myxedema

C

17. Select the statement that best describes the adverse effects of osmotic laxatives. A. Osmotic laxatives form a complex with vitamins, minerals, and other drugs, thereby impairing systemic absorption of these substances. B. Osmotic laxatives are serotonin antagonists that could lead to ischemic colitis and serious complications of constipation. C. Osmotic laxatives cause a large amount of water to be lost with the feces and could lead to dehydration if overused. D. None of these are correct.

C

17. What is the primary mechanism of action of clomiphene as a synthetic ovulation stimulant? A. As an estrogen agonist that inhibits negative feedback to the anterior pituitary B. As an estrogen agonist that promotes negative feedback to the anterior pituitary C. As an estrogen antagonist that inhibits negative feedback to the anterior pituitary D. As an estrogen antagonist that promotes negative feedback to the anterior pituitary

C

18. Eczematoid dermatitis can occur with antihistamines as a result of _____. A. a severe allergic reaction B. overstimulation of mast cell degranulation C. a hypersensitivity reaction from overuse D. none of the above

C

18. Select the correct statement about the oxytocin-driven breast-feeding process. A. Oxytocin is released and travels directly to the mammary glands, where it forces the ejection of the stored milk. B. Release of oxytocin stimulates the sensory nerve endings in the breast nipple; it then causes the breast milk stored in the ducts to be ejected. C. Signals of stimulation of the sensory nerve endings in the breast nipple travel to the posterior pituitary; this causes oxytocin to be released and travel in the blood to the mammary glands. D. None of these are correct.

C

19. Omeprazole works by _____. A. inhibiting a hydrogen-potassium pump in mucosal cells B. inhibiting a sodium-potassium pump in mucosal cells C. inhibiting a hydrogen-potassium pump in parietal cells D. inhibiting a sodium-potassium pump in parietal cells

C

19. What affect does diabetes mellitus have on urine output? A. Urine output will increase due to a lack of antidiuretic hormone being produced. B. Urine output will decrease due to osmotic pressure of excess glucose in the blood. C. Urine output will increase due to excess glucose being filtered into the renal tubule. D. Urine output will decrease due to increased production of antidiuretic hormone.

C

19. Which of the following is a use of octreotide? A. Stimulating growth hormone production B. Inhibiting somatostatin production C. Treating patients with acromegaly who are unresponsive to surgery D. Treating patients with cretinism who are unresponsive to surgery

C

2. Identify the correct definition of peristalsis. A. Peristalsis refers to the abnormal involuntary repetitive body movements caused by a distortion of voluntary muscle movement. B. Peristalsis is the process in which water moves across membranes following the movement of sodium ions. C. Peristalsis is a wavelike movement in which circular contraction and relaxation of the intestinal muscles moves contents toward the rectum. D. None of these are correct.

C

2. Identify the factor that can trigger an asthmatic attack. A. Humidity B. Warm air C. Exercise D. Deep breathing

C

2. Which naturally occurring estrogen is the most abundant and active in the female body? A. Progesterone B. Estrone C. Estradiol D. Estriol

C

21. Raven is under oral contraceptive therapy. In this case, what does breakthrough spotting most likely indicate? A. It indicates an overdose. B. It indicates that she has taken oral contraceptives for more than three months. C. It indicates that she has missed a dose. D. It indicates that she is using a biphasic formulation.

C

21. Which of the following is a result of capillary leakage that occurs in the nasal mucous membranes? A. Edema in the nasal mucous membranes B. Wheals C. Nasal congestion D. Hives

C

22. Insulin sensitizers include _____. A. meglitinides B. sulfonylureas C. thiazolidinediones D. secretagogues

C

22. Select the correct statement related to the bronchodilators salmeterol and formoterol. A. Salmeterol and formoterol are administered as oral tablets, have an immediate onset of action, and have a duration of action of 12 hours. B. Salmeterol and formoterol are administered by nebulization, have an immediate onset of action, and have a duration of action of 4 to 6 hours. C. Salmeterol and formoterol are administered by inhalation, have an onset of action of 10 to 20 minutes, and have a duration of action of 12 hours. D. None of these are correct.

C

23. Identify the statement that is true about diabetes. A. Therapy of type 2 diabetics does not include insulin. B. Type 2 diabetics secrete unlimited amounts of insulin from the pancreas. C. Patients' diets are adjusted to limit the intake of carbohydrates in both forms of diabetes. D. Maintenance therapy of diabetes is directed at regulating the blood glucose level through drug administration only.

C

23. Which of the following is true of the hormone parathormone? A. Parathormone is secreted in response to hypercalcemia. B. Parathormone is secreted by the thyroid gland. C. Parathormone is the primary regulator of calcium balance. D. Parathormone decreases the intestinal absorption and renal reabsorption of calcium ions.

C

24. Difenoxen is a _____ receptor agonist. A. serotonin B. glycine C. mu D. gamma-amino butyric acid (GABA)

C

24. The most effective treatment for relief of hot flashes, sleep disturbances, and vaginal dryness is _____. A. oral contraceptives B. clomiphene C. hormone replacement therapy D. androgen therapy

C

4. Summarize the relationship between the hypothalamus, the anterior pituitary gland, and the adrenal gland. A. The hypothalamus secretes ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone), which stimulates the release of CRH (corticotropin-releasing hormone) from the anterior pituitary gland that leads to the secretion of glucocorticoids by the adrenal gland. B. The hypothalamus secretes CRH (corticotropin-releasing hormone), which stimulates the release of ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) from the anterior pituitary gland that leads to the secretion of mineralocorticoids by the adrenal gland. C. The hypothalamus secretes CRH (corticotropin-releasing hormone), which stimulates the release of ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) from the anterior pituitary gland that leads to the secretion of glucocorticoids by the adrenal gland. D. None of these are correct.

C

4. Why should oral cromolyn dosage forms avoid being taken with fruit juice or milk? A. Fruit juices and milk combine with the drug and form an insoluble complex that is difficult to excrete. B. The acidic conditions will induce metabolism and increase bioavailability of the drug. C. The dissolution and absorption of the drug will be compromised. D. Fruit juice and milk potentiate the action of the drug.

C

5. Which of the following statements is true about the adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH)? A. ACTH cannot stimulate aldosterone secretion. B. ACTH is released from the hypothalamus. C. ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and cortisone. D. ACTH is secreted in smaller amounts during periods of stress.

C

6. Which of the following provides the most accurate description of the formation of the thyroid hormones triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4)? A. The hypothalamus secretes TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone), which travels in the portal vein to the anterior pituitary to stimulate the secretion of TRH (thyrotropin-releasing hormone) into the bloodstream, which, in turn, stimulates the production of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland. B. The hypothalamus secretes TRH (thyrotropin-releasing hormone), which travels in the portal vein to the posterior pituitary to stimulate the secretion of TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) into the bloodstream, which, in turn, stimulates the production of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland. C. The hypothalamus secretes TRH (thyrotropin-releasing hormone), which travels in the portal vein to the anterior pituitary to stimulate the secretion of TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) into the bloodstream, which, in turn, stimulates the production of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland. D. None of these are correct.

C

7. Glucagon is secreted: A. when GIP and GLP-1 are released. B. when the beta cells secrete insulin. C. when blood glucose levels are below normal. D. after consuming a large meal.

C

7. Releasing and inhibiting hormones travel from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary through the _____. A. aorta B. fourth ventricle C. portal vein D. superior vena cava

C

7. Select the correct information to give to a patient who is not aware that there is a difference between acute and chronic diarrhea. A. Acute diarrhea is associated with the production of loose stools in otherwise healthy individuals that lasts less than 7 days; diarrhea that lasts more than 10 days is defined as chronic and is accompanied by weight loss, muscle weakness, and electrolyte imbalance. B. Acute diarrhea is associated with the production of loose stools in otherwise healthy individuals that lasts less than 10 days; diarrhea that lasts more than 15 days is defined as chronic and is accompanied by weight loss, muscle weakness, and electrolyte imbalance. C. Acute diarrhea is associated with the production of loose stools in otherwise healthy individuals that lasts less than 14 days; diarrhea that lasts more than 30 days is defined as chronic and is accompanied by weight loss, muscle weakness, and electrolyte imbalance. D. Acute diarrhea is associated with the production of loose stools in otherwise healthy individuals that lasts less than 3 days; diarrhea that lasts more than 7 days is defined as chronic and is accompanied by weight loss, muscle weakness, and electrolyte imbalance.

C

7. Stopping the acid secretion completely between meals would put a person at an increased risk of _____. A. metabolic acidosis B. metabolic alkalosis C. GI infections D. constipation

C

7. What happens to mast cells once an individual is first exposed to an allergen? A. Mast cells produce antibodies. B. Mast cells bind to the allergen. C. IgE immunoglobulin attach to the surface of mast cells. D. Degranulation of mast cells occurs.

C

8. Bella suffers from hypotension and bradycardia. She cannot endure cold temperatures, and her skin is very dry. She visits Dr. Solomon for a checkup. Upon examination, Dr. Solomon observes that Bella's face is round and puffy. After running a few tests, he discovers that there is a total absence of the thyroid hormones T3 and T4 in Bella's bloodstream. Based on the information provided in this scenario, with which of the following conditions is Dr. Solomon most likely to diagnose Bella? A. Cretinism B. Toxic nodular goiter C. Myxedema D. Agranulocytosis

C

8. Which of the following statements is correct about the proper dosage of desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) for the treatment of enuresis according to the Physicians' Desk Reference? A. The dose of desmopressin (DDAVP) used to treat enuresis is 0.1 to 0.4 ml daily intranasally. B. The dose of desmopressin (DDAVP) is 1 vaginal suppository (20 mg) up to 2 days. C. The dose of desmopressin (DDAVP) used to treat enuresis is 0.2 to 0.6 mg PO daily at bedtime. D. None of these are correct.

C

20. One common problem with long-term use of antacids is _____. A. metabolic alkalosis B. high magnesium content C. high aluminum content D. high sodium content

D

13. Maddison experiences muscle weakness and dehydration and visits Dr. Clark's clinic for a medical checkup. Dr. Clark runs a couple of tests and discovers that Maddison has hypotension. After examining Maddison's medical reports, Dr. Clark orders the administration of the adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH) and then proceeds to measure the plasma levels of cortisol and 17-hydroxycorticosteroids (17-OHCS) in Maddison's bloodstream. When he observes no change in the levels of these steroids, he diagnoses Maddison with a particular condition. Based on the information provided in this scenario, from which of the following conditions is Maddison most likely suffering? A. Hashimoto's thyroiditis B. Cushing's disease C. Tourette's syndrome D. Addison's disease

D

13. Select the true statement about the adverse effects associated with excessive oxytocin administration. A. There may be an increased incidence of nausea, vomiting, and constriction of blood vessels, which can produce varying degrees of hypertension. B. The pressor effect may be intense and may restrict blood flow to the fingers and toes, which can result in tissue anoxia and the development of gangrene. C. There may be prevention of postpartum hemorrhage and prevention of muscle atony. D. All of these are correct.

D

13. Use the mechanism of action of the corticosteroids to determine the physiological action that results from their administration. A. Corticosteroids inhibit the production of allergic antibodies. B. Corticosteroids inhibit the release of inflammatory mediators from mast cells. C. Corticosteroids inhibit the activity of inflammatory cells. D. All of these are correct.

D

14. How does progestin help to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer when added to estrogen replacement therapy? A. It up regulates the number of progestin receptors. B. It down regulates the number of progestin receptors. C. It up regulates the number of estrogen receptors. D. It down regulates the number of estrogen receptors.

D

14. Select the group of drug agents that contribute to increased intestinal motility, resulting in diarrhea. A. NSAIDs, antacids, chemotherapy medications B. Antiarrhythmic and blood pressure medications C. Antibiotics and laxatives D. All of these

D

14. The mechanism of action of sucralfate has it classified as _____. A. an antacid B. a prostaglandin C. an anticholinergic D. none of the above

D

14. Which of the following statements is true about glucocorticoids? A. Both native and synthetic glucocorticoids are metabolized by the liver and excreted in the urine. B. The most common urinary metabolites of cortisol are the 17-hydroxycorticosteroids (17-OHCS). C. The metabolites of cortisol can be measured from 24-hour urine collections and are used to provide an estimate of glucocorticoid secretion from the adrenal cortex. D. All of these statements are correct.

D

16. Select the true statement related to the treatment of diarrhea with difenoxen (Motofen). A. Side effects including nausea, vomiting, and hypotension are seen with larger doses such as 40 to 60 mg. B. Difenoxen is a mu receptor agonist that stimulates mu receptors in the myenteric plexus to decrease peristalsis and constrict sphincters, and it directly affects the circular smooth muscle of the bowel, prolonging gastrointestinal transit time. C. At therapeutic doses of up to 20 mg per day, difenoxen can produce weak opiate effects, including euphoria. D. All of these are correct.

D

16. The advantages of newer antihistamines over first-generation antihistamines include: A. increased anticholinergic activity. B. greater sedation. C. greater antiallergic activity. D. increased selectivity for peripheral H1-receptors.

D

16. Which of the following H2-receptor antagonist medications should a patient with liver problems avoid? A. Famotidine and ibuprofen OTC B. Lansoprazole and esomeprazole C. Omeprazole and dexlansoprazole D. Nizatidine and ranitidine

D

16. Which of the following hormones is not associated with one main target organ? A. Thyroid-stimulating hormone B. Adrenocorticotropic hormone C. Luteinizing hormone D. Growth hormone

D

16. Which one of the following receptors is not coupled to a G protein? A. GIP receptor B. GLP-1 receptor C. Glucagon receptor D. Insulin receptor

D

17. Considering the onset of action as the primary factor, determine the preferred therapy for the treatment of any sudden onset of asthma symptoms for patients who experience less than two asthmatic episodes per week. A. Cromolyn sodium B. Advair C. Singulair D. Albuterol

D

17. Hyperglycemia in diabetes mellitus is a direct result of: A. GLUT1 transporter proteins not being able to form a glucose channel. B. GLUT2 transporter proteins not being able to migrate to the plasma membrane. C. GLUT3 transporter proteins not being able to form a glucose channel. D. GLUT4 transporter proteins not being able to migrate to the plasma membrane.

D

17. Select the true statement about the dose-related adverse effects on the fetus of a woman who uses terbutaline (Brethine) for premature contractions. A. The adverse effects of terbutaline are consistent with beta-adrenergic receptor-mediated activity. B. Fetal tachycardia, increased maternal blood pressure, and increased blood glucose and fatty acids can occur with terbutaline. C. Nausea, vomiting, headache, anxiety, restlessness, and arrhythmia are among the adverse effects reported to occur with terbutaline use. D. All of these are correct.

D

18. Sperm production is enhanced through the synergistic interaction between _____. A. GnRH and DHEA B. GnRH and testosterone C. testosterone and FSH D. testosterone and LH

D

19. Second-generation antihistamines astemizole and terfenadine were removed from the market because they produced:: A. atrial flutter in patients with congestive heart failure. B. ventricular fibrillation in patients who have a pacemaker. C. ventricular arrhythmias that result from overstimulation of the SA node. D. ventricular arrhythmias that result from improper ion channel conduction.

D

2. Which of the following statements is true of thyroid hormone? A. Thyroid hormone inhibits protein synthesis. B. Thyroid hormone decreases the rate of carbohydrate breakdown. C. Thyroid hormone decreases the insulin-dependent entry of glucose into cells. D. Thyroid hormone decreases the level of serum cholesterol.

D