Pharm2 Exam1 Review

A nurse is caring for a client who has difficulty swallowing medications and is prescribed enteric-coated aspirin PO once daily. The client asks if the medication can be crushed to make it easier to swallow. Which of the following responses should the nurse provide?

"Crushing the medication might cause you to have a stomachache or indigestion." Rationale: The pill is enteric-coated to prevent breakdown in the stomach and decrease the possibility of GI distress. Crushing the pill destroys that protection.

A nurse is caring for a client who has thrombophlebitis and is receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion. The client asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?

"Heparin does not dissolve clots. It stops new clots from forming."

A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a prescription for digoxin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an adverse effect of the medication?

"I feel nauseated and have no appetite." Answer Rationale: Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal discomfort are early signs of digoxin toxicity.

A nurse is teaching a client who takes warfarin daily. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

"I have started taking ginger root to treat my joint stiffness." Rationale: Ginger root can interfere with the blood clotting effect of warfarin and place the client at risk for bleeding. This statement indicates the client needs further teaching.

A nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis and has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

"Warfarin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level." Rationale: Heparin and warfarin are both anticoagulants that decrease the clotting ability of the blood and help prevent thrombosis formation in the blood vessels. However, these medications work in different ways to achieve therapeutic coagulation and must be given together until therapeutic levels of anticoagulation can be achieved by warfarin alone, which is usually within 1 to 5 days. When the client's PT and INR are within therapeutic range, the heparin can be discontinued.

In bradycardia, the three meds used are

(1st line)atropine, epinephrine + dopamine

Heparin 5000 units is ordered. Available 20,000 units / 2 mL. How much will the nurse draw up?

.5 ml

A nurse is preparing to administer heparin 2,000 units by IV bolus. Available is heparin injection 5,000 units/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?

0.4 mL

Med Admin Considerations when electrolyte levels are abnormal

1. Spironolactone 2. Furosemide 3. Digoxin

A nurse is preparing to administer potassium chloride 20 mEq suspension PO daily. The amount available is potassium chloride suspension 10 mEq/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?

2

ACE are contraindicated during

2nd and 3rd trimesters of pregnancy

A nurse is preparing to administer a continuous heparin infusion at 1600 units/hr. Available is heparin 25,000 units in dextrose 5% in water (D5W) 500 mL. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?

32 mL/hr

A nurse is preparing to administer metoprolol 5 mg IV bolus to a client for heart rate control. Available is metoprolol injection 1 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

5mL

A nurse is preparing to administer dextrose 5% in water (D5W) 150 mL IV to infuse over 3 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min?

8 gtt/min

A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who takes furosemide. The nurse should recommend which of the following foods as the best source of potassium?

A. Bananas Rationale: The nurse should determine that bananas are the best food source to recommend because 1 cup of bananas contains 806 mg of potassium. In addition to the potassium supplements the provider might prescribe, the client should increase his daily intake of foods that have high potassium content, such as bananas, orange juice, and spinach.

A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who takes furosemide. The nurse should recommend which of the following foods as the best source of potassium?

A. Bananas Rationale: The nurse should determine that bananas are the best food source to recommend because 1 cup of bananas contains 806 mg of potassium. In addition to the potassium supplements the provider might prescribe, the client should increase his daily intake of foods that have high potassium content, such as bananas, orange juice, and spinach.

A nurse is caring for a client who has congestive heart failure and is taking digoxin daily. The client refused breakfast and is complaining of nausea and weakness. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

A. Check the client's vital signs. Rationale: It is possible that the client's nausea is secondary to digoxin toxicity. By obtaining vital signs, the nurse can assess for bradycardia, which is a symptom of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should withhold the medication and call the provider if the client's heart rate is less than 60 bpm.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has renal failure and an elevated phosphorous level. The provider instructed the client to take aluminum hydroxide 300 mg PO three times daily. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse inform the client?

A. Constipation Rationale: Constipation is a common side effect of aluminum-based antacids. The nurse should instruct the client to increase fiber intake and that stool softeners or laxatives may be needed.

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking lisinopril. Which of the following outcomes indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?

A. Decreased blood pressure Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, may be used alone or in combination with other antihypertensives in the management of hypertension and congestive heart failure. A therapeutic effect of the medication is a decrease in blood pressure.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has hypertension and a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

A. Do not use salt substitutes while taking this medication. Rationale: Captopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia due to potassium retention by the kidney. The client should avoid salt substitutes, as most of them are high in potassium.

A nurse is obtaining a medical history from a client who is to start warfarin therapy and currently uses herbal supplements at home. The nurse should inform the client that which of the following herbal supplements can interact adversely with warfarin?

A. Feverfew Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to avoid taking feverfew while taking warfarin because it will increase the anticoagulant effect.

A nurse in a coronary care unit is admitting a client who has had CPR following a cardiac arrest. The client is receiving lidocaine IV at 2 mg/min. When the client asks the nurse why he is receiving that medication, the nurse should explain that it has which of the following actions?

A. Prevents dysrhythmias Rationale: Lidocaine is an antidysrhythmic medication that delays the conduction in the heart and reduces the automaticity of heart tissue.

A nurse is monitoring a client who received epinephrine for angioedema after a first dose of losartan. Which of the following data indicates a therapeutic response to the epinephrine?

A. Respirations are unlabored. Rationale: Losartan is an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB). Both ARBs and angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors have the adverse effect of angioedema. The primary symptom of angioedema is swelling of the tongue, glottis, and pharynx. This results in limitation or blockage of the airway. Angioedema causes the capillaries to become more permeable, resulting in fluid shifting into the subcutaneous tissues. Although the mouth and throat are most often affected, any area may be involved in the process. Untreated, angioedema can result in death. Improvement of respiratory effort following the administration of epinephrine is the most important therapeutic indicator.

A nurse is teaching a client about taking diphenhydramine. The nurse should explain to the client that which of the following is an adverse effect of this medication?

A. Sedation

A nurse is preparing to transfuse one unit of packed RBC to a client who experienced a mild allergic reaction during a previous transfusion. The nurse should administer diphenhydramine prior to the transfusion for which of the following allergic responses?

A. Urticaria Rationale: For clients who have previously had allergic reactions to blood transfusions, administering an antihistamine such as diphenhydramine prior to the transfusion might prevent future reactions. Allergic reactions typically include urticaria (hives). B. Fever

A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis and a prothrombin time of 30 seconds. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

A. Vitamin K Rationale: A prothrombin time of 30 seconds indicates the clotting time is prolonged and bleeding could occur. Vitamin K injection increases the synthesis of prothrombin by the liver; therefore, the nurse should plan to administer vitamin k.

Agent(s) may be effective in terminating paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)?

A. adenosine (Adenocard)

A nurse is teaching a client who has been taking prednisone to treat asthma and has a new prescription to discontinue the medication. The nurse should explain to the client to reduce the dose gradually to prevent which of the following adverse effects?

Adrenocortical insufficiency Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, is similar to cortisol, the glucocorticoid hormone produced by the adrenal glands. It relieves inflammation and is used to treat certain forms of arthritis, severe allergies, autoimmune disorders, and asthma. Administration of glucocorticoids can suppress production of glucocorticoids, and an abrupt withdrawal of the drug can lead to a syndrome of adrenal insufficiency.

A nurse is assessing an older adult client who is receiving digoxin. The nurse should recognize that which of the following findings is a manifestation of digoxin toxicity?

Anorexia Answer Rationale: Anorexia, vomiting, confusion, headache, and vision changes are manifestations of digoxin toxicity.

A nurse is caring for a client who has poison ivy and is prescribed diphenhydramine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give regarding the adverse effect of dry mouth associated with diphenhydramine?

B. "Chew on sugarless gum or suck on hard, sour candies." Rationale: Clients who report dry mouth can get the most effective relief by sucking on hard candies (especially the sour varieties that stimulate salivation), chewing gum, or rinsing the mouth frequently. It is the local effect of these actions that provides comfort to the client.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has pulmonary edema and is about to start taking furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

B. Eat foods that contain plenty of potassium. Rationale: Furosemide, a high-ceiling (loop) diuretic, can cause potassium loss. The client should add potassium-rich foods to his diet, such as nuts, dried fruits, bananas, and citrus fruits.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has pulmonary edema and is about to start taking furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

B. Eat foods that contain plenty of potassium. Rationale: Furosemide, a high-ceiling (loop) diuretic, can cause potassium loss. The client should add potassium-rich foods to his diet, such as nuts, dried fruits, bananas, and citrus fruits.

A nurse is receiving a client who is immediately postoperative following hip arthroplasty. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer for DVT prophylaxis?

B. Enoxaparin subcutaneous Rationale: Enoxaparin is a low molecular heparin that inhibits thrombus and clot formation. Preventive doses of enoxaparin are low and the client does not require monitoring of prothrombin time or activated partial thromboplastin time, making it the preferred treatment for DVT prophylaxis following orthopedic surgery.

A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving IV furosemide. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?

B. Hyperuricemia Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client who is receiving IV furosemide for hyperuricemia. The nurse should instruct the client to notify the provider for any tenderness or swelling of the joints.

A nurse is preparing to administer verapamil by IV bolus to a client who is having cardiac dysrhythmias. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor when giving this medication?

B. Hypotension Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can be used to control supraventricular tachyarrhythmias. It also decreases blood pressure and acts as a coronary vasodilator and antianginal agent. A major adverse effect of verapamil is hypotension; therefore, blood pressure and pulse must be monitored before and during parenteral administration.

A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed warfarin therapy for an artificial heart valve. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for a therapeutic effect of warfarin? a. Hemoglobin (Hgb) b. Prothrombin time (PT) c. Bleeding time d. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

B. Prothrombin time (PT)

A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed warfarin therapy for an artificial heart valve. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for a therapeutic effect of warfarin?

B. Prothrombin time (PT) Rationale: This test is used to monitor warfarin therapy. For a client receiving full anticoagulant therapy, the PT should typically be approximately two to three times the normal value, depending on the indication for therapeutic anticoagulation.

A nurse is reviewing the health history for a client who has angina pectoris and a prescription for propranolol hydrochloride PO 40 mg twice daily. Which of the following findings in the history should the nurse report to the provider?

B. The client has a history of bronchial asthma. Rationale: Beta-adrenergic blockers can cause bronchospasm in clients who have bronchial asthma; therefore, this is a contraindication to its use and should be reported to the provider.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for potassium chloride (KCL) 20 mEq PO daily. The nurse reviews the client's most recent laboratory results and finds the client's potassium level is 5.2 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

C. Call the prescribing physician and inform her of the client's serum potassium level results. Rationale: As a potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is above the expected reference range, the nurse should hold the medication and notify the provider of the client's serum potassium level.

A nurse is caring for a client whose serum potassium level is 5.3 mEq/L. Which of the following scheduled medications should the nurse plan to administer?

C. Furosemide Rationale: Furosemide results in loss of potassium from the nephron as part of its diuretic effect. This medication can be given when a client has an elevated potassium level and can lower the potassium level. For this client, the depletion of potassium is a beneficial effect. For a client who has a therapeutic potassium level, there would be a risk for hypokalemia due to the excretion of potassium.

A nurse is caring for a client who has thrombophlebitis and is receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion. The client asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse give? a. It usually takes heparin at least 2 to 3 days to reach a therapeutic blood level. b. A pharmacist is the person to answer that question. c. Heparin does not dissolve clots. It stops new clots from forming. d. The oral medication you will take after this IV will dissolve the clot.

C. Heparin does not dissolve clots. It stops new clots from forming.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has asthma and a new prescription for inhaled beclomethasone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

C. Rinse the mouth after administration. Rationale: Use of glucocorticoids by metered dose inhaler can allow a fungal overgrowth in the mouth. Rinsing the mouth after administration can lessen the likelihood of this complication.

A nurse is providing teaching for a client who is on diuretic therapy and has a new prescription for potassium chloride (KCL) 20 mEq extended release PO daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide about the new prescription?

C. Take the extended release tablets whole. Rationale: The nurse should teach the client that extended release tablets should be taken whole and should not be broken, crushed, or chewed.

A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

C. The nurse should not expel the air bubble in the prefilled syringe. Rationale: The nurse should not expel the air bubble that is in the pre-filled syringe prior to administering the medication

What is the first line agent in patients with EKG changes or severe hyperkalemia?

Calcium gluconate

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has renal failure and an elevated phosphorous level. The provider instructed the client to take aluminum hydroxide 300 mg PO three times daily. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse inform the client?

Constipation

A nurse is teaching a client who reports taking gingko biloba to improve his memory. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include?

D. Bleeding gums Rationale: Gingko biloba is an herbal medication used by clients to improve age-related memory loss as well as to decrease leg pain in clients with peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Although gingko biloba is generally well-tolerated, it may suppress coagulation. There have been reports of spontaneous bleeding in clients taking this herbal medication. Clients should be instructed to discontinue use and report increased bleeding, such as nosebleeds, bleeding gums, any cuts that do not stop bleeding, to their provider.

A nurse is completing a medication history for a client who reports using OTC calcium carbonate antacid. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse make about taking this medication?

D. Drink a glass of water after taking the medication.

A nurse is completing a medication history for a client who reports using over-the-counter calcium carbonate antacid. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse make about taking this medication?

D. Drink a glass of water after taking the medication. Rationale: Calcium carbonate is a dietary supplement used when the amount of calcium taken in the diet is not enough. Calcium carbonate may also be used as an antacid to relieve heartburn, acid indigestion, and stomach upset. The client should drink a full glass of water after taking an antacid to enhance its effectiveness.

A nurse is caring for a client who is on warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation. The client's INR is 5.2. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

D. Vitamin K Rationale: Vitamin K reverses the effects of warfarin

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. The nurse should anticipate which of the following prescriptions for this client?

Enoxaparin Rationale: The nurse should anticipate a prescription for enoxaparin as prophylaxis therapy for venous thromboembolism. Clients following hip arthroplasty are usually on anticoagulants for 3 to 6 weeks after surgery.

Second line treatment for bradycardia is

Epinephrine and Dopamine

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking digoxin for heart failure and develops indications of severe digoxin toxicity. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

Fab antibody fragments Answer Rationale: Fab antibody fragments, also called digoxin immune Fab, bind to digoxin and block its action. The nurse should prepare to administer this antidote IV to clients who have severe digoxin toxicity.

The least sedating of all second-generation antihistamines is:

Fexofenadine (Allegra)

DOSING: IV infusion for bradycardia

Infusion should run at 2-10 mcg/min• Dopamine 400 mg mixed with 250 ml NS. ‣ Begin dopamine infusion at 2-20 mcg/kg/min + titrate as required per patient response • goal of therapy = improve patient's clinical status, rather than target an exact heart rate‣

A nurse is preparing to administer heparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Inject the medication into the abdomen above the level of the iliac crest. Rationale: The nurse should inject the medication into the abdomen above the level of the iliac crest, at least 2 inches from the umbilicus.

Thrombolytic Rx Alteplase is used for

MI STEMI + ischemic stroke

A nurse is caring for a client who has atrial fibrillation and receives digoxin daily. Before administering this medication, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Measure the client's apical pulse. Answer Rationale: Digoxin decreases the heart rate, so the nurse should count the apical pulse for at least 1 min before administering. The nurse should hold the medication and notify the provider if the client's heart rate is below 60/min or if a change in heart rhythm is detected.

Electrolyte Levels

Mg 1.3-2.1 ‣ Phos 3-4.5 ‣ K 3.5-5 ‣ Ca 9-10.5 ‣ Na 136-145

Using erectile dysfunction medicine with __________________ can cause a sudden and serious _______________ in ____________________.

Nitroglycerin, decrease, blood pressure

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer in the event of an overdose?

Protamine Rationale: Protamine reverses the effects of heparin and is used in the event of an overdose.

Heart failure is treated with agents that inhibit:

RAAS, beta blockers, and diuretcs

A nurse is teaching a client about taking diphenhydramine. The nurse should explain to the client that which of the following is an adverse effect of this medication?

Sedation Rationale: Diphenhydramine can cause sedation. It is used to treat rhinitis, allergies, and insomnia.

What should you always check for before giving a potassium sparking diuretic?

Serum potassium

What is often given with lasix?

Spironolactone

A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving dopamine IV to treat left ventricular failure. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is having a therapeutic effect?

Systolic blood pressure is increased Rationale: When dopamine has a therapeutic effect, it causes vasoconstriction peripherally and increases systolic blood pressure.

A nurse is completing a medical interview with a client who has elevated cholesterol levels and takes warfarin. The nurse should recognize that which of the following actions by the client can potentiate the effects of warfarin?

The client follows a low-fat diet to reduce cholesterol. Rationale: A low-fat diet should not potentiate the action of warfarin. B. The client drinks a glass of grapefruit juice every day. Rationale: Grapefruit juice can interfere with the metabolism of statins.

To know if dopamine is effective in bradycardia, what will happen?

Urine output increases

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The amount available is digoxin 0.125 mg tab. The client's current vital signs are: blood pressure 144/96, heart rate 54/min, respirations 18/min, and temperature 98.6° F. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Withhold the digoxin dose for decreased pulse rate. Answer Rationale: The nurse should withhold the prescribed dose of digoxin as the heart rate is less than 60/min, and notify the provider.

benadryl when given in conjunction with other pain medications will cause

a decreased LOC + contraindicated when LOC is compromised

Which medications are included in first-line therapy for heart failure (select all that apply) a. Agents that inhibit the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) b. Aldosterone antagonists c. Beta blockers d. Cardiac glycosides e. Diuretics

a, c, e

The nurse suspects the client may have toxic levels of digoxin in the bloodstream when what is assessed? (select all that apply) a. Irregular heart rhythms b. Nausea c. Anorexia d. Cough e. Peripheral edema

a. Irregular heart rhythms b. Nausea

Amiodarone treats

afib and ventricular tachycardia‣ can cause liver damage • SE: itching, malaise, jaundice should be reported and discontinue the drug•

Warfarin is typically prescribed for

afib in older clients when the onset is unknown‣ aPTT + INR ranges: aPTT = 30-40 seconds, INR = 0.8-1.1•

Carvedilol can cause dangerously low BP... the risk for this is highest

after initial prescription + during dosing increases • if BP is low, hold and call provider•

dopamine (treatment for bradycardia) inhibits renal tubular reabsorption of sodium so it can

be used to increase systemic arterial pressure by stimulating the myocardium

If the patient has DKA, giving them what will raise pH?

bicarb

ACE and ARBs (for CHF) are contraindicated in

bilateral renal artery stenosis. ARBs can ‣ cause severe renal insufficiency in patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis

Even though spironolactone is given with lasix, spironolactone

binds to aldosterone and other sex hormones causing changes like gynecomastia

If you have diabetes and are taking steroid medication...

blood glucose levels will likely increase‣ often patients will be given insulin when taking steroids (IV)‣

For patients with methylprednisolone, monitor:

blood glucose, depression, infection, and GI bleed

Use atropine in bradycardia

cautiously if myocardial ischemia + hypoxia are present because it increases oxygen demand on the heart and can worsen ischemia. Dose: IV 0.5mg/q 3-5mins PRN; total max dose is 3 mg • Avoid if bradycardia is caused by hypothermia • Atropine is not effective for Mobitz II (2nd degree complete heart block)

Fexofenadine (Allegra) is least sedating of all second-generation antihistamines and is

considered antihistamine of choice in people with safely-critical jobs (airline pilot)• least likely to have synergistic effects with alcohol

Furosemide + digoxin are often used together, and it requires more evaluation of

digoxin + magnesium levels

ACE (-pril) + Beta Blockers (-ol) have

direct renin inhibitors (losartan) -> orthostatic hypotension because they all act on the RAAS. ‣ for routine therapy, HF is treated with agents that inhibit RAAS (BB and diuretics)•

ACE inhibs and ARBs (for CHF) have been shown effective in preventing/slowing the process of

disease in patients with diabetes by interfering with the renin-angiotensin system.

Loop diuretics (furosemide) (for CHF) are the mainstay of

diuretic therapy in HF

Kayexalate is given for

elevated potassium, and if non absorbed, it will increase fecal potassium excretion

lasix causes

generalized weakness -> hypokalemia

What should you give with glucose to reduce the risk of vfib caused by hyperkalemia?

give insulin

Protamine sulfate is given for

heparin toxicity as evidenced by aPTT out of normal range

Furosemide (for CHF) can produce

high diuresis quickly, even in low GFR

What is the first sign of salicylate toxicity?

hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis

metoprolol (beta blocker) can mask the signs of

hypoglycemia so patients will need to monitor blood glucose daily

Magnesium sulfate has CNS and respiratory depressant effects which are...

if moderate dose it causes flushing and sweating. If high dose, it causes hypotension

DKA has what deficiency

insulin deficiency

ACE and ARBs (for CHF) lower

intraglomerular pressure by decreasing efferent arteriolar pressure‣ SE: dry cough • cause angioedema → swelling of the face or oral mucosa which can be life-threatening•

What is the first sign of magnesium toxicity?

loss of tendon reflexes

Beta-blockers can

make asthma worse

sxs of digoxin toxicity

nausea, loss of appetite, visual changes, slow pulse, or irregular heart beats

Glucocorticoid Therapy can suppress adrenal function, withdraw slowly!‣ You should

never stop abruptly because you start feeling better‣ highest priority nursing diagnosis for glucocorticoid therapy is a risk of infection related to immunotherapy

ACE, beta blockers, and renin inhibitors can cause:

orthostatic hypotension because they all act on the RAAS

What do lasix increase?

ototoxic potential of aminoglycoside antibiotics. (can be treated with oral or IV magnesium)

Potassium chloride acts quickly and is

painful without proper anesthesia

Always check supplement profile as patients should not take potassium supplements or use salt when taking a

potassium sparing diuretic

Chronic heart failure is caused by

pressure + vol overload, loss of muscle, primary muscle disease or excessive peripheral demands (high output failure)

Antidysrhythmic drugs have

pro-dysrhythmic actions + can exacerbate existing dysrhythmias to generate new/different ones‣ always assess BP and pulse when giving antiarrhythmic agents!

FDA-approved indications for alteplase include:

pulmonary embolism, myocardial infarction, stroke.

What are the increased insulin counters?

regulatory hormones: cortisol, glucagon, growth hormone, and catecholamines are peripheral insulin resistent and lead to hyperglycemia, dehydration, ketosis, and electrolyte imbalance

What do lasix lower?

serum levels of calcium and magnesium

IV insulin leads to a dose-dependent decline in

serum potassium levels

When given a rapid IV bolus, adenosine

slows cardiac conduction ‣ continuous cardiac monitoring is used during administration

Low molecular weight heparins are given

subQ but are not monitored by clotting time‣ watch for sxs of bleeding gums, bloody stool or urine when taking lovenox or Xarelto

Epinephrine inhalation is used as

temporary relief of mild symptoms of weak type asthma (intermittent asthma). can also be used with asthma and suspected allergic reaction‣ When given for anaphylaxis, epinephrine causes cool extremities + weak peripheral pulses. Epi pens are mandatory for those with peanut/bee allergies

Lidocaine = most frequently used drugs in treatments of ventricular arrhythmias and has been shown to

terminate ventricular tachycardia

Digoxin is NOT

the first line of therapy for HF. It can be used with lasix.

Norepinephrine often used during CPR. Vasopressors such as norepinephrine are

used during septic shock when fluid resuscitation is ineffective ‣ Monitor BP to determine efficacy of fluid resuscitation•

Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine

used for relief of hay fever

Beta Blockers Verapamil + Diltiazem are considered a cause of AV block. What can verapamil cause?

verapamil can cause AV block especially when used with digoxin as they both suppress impulse conduction through AV node

Vitamin K is given for

warfarin overdose and can be IV

Notify doctor for sxs of what in the case of EKG changes and diuretic use

weakness, fatigue, muscle pains/cramps, nausea, decreased ‣ appetite, visual problems, or irregular heartbeats