Pharmacology

A nurse is preparing to administer heparin 8000 units SQ every 8 hours. Available is heparin 10,000 units/1mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

0.8 mL

A nurse is preparing to administer dextrose 5% in water 400 mL IV to infuse over 1 hour. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 15 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min?

100 gtt/min

A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 4 mg/kg/day PO divided into 2 equal doses daily to a toddler who weighs 22 lbs. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose?

20 mg

A nurse is preparing to administer lactated ringer's 1000 mL IV to infuse over 8 hours. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? Round to the nearest whole number

21 gtt/min

A nurse is preparing to administer ciprofloxacin 15 mg/kg PO every 12 hours to a child who weighs 44 lbs. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose?

300 mg

A nurse is preparing to administer an enteral tube feeding through an NG tube at 250 mL over 4 hours. The nurse should set the pump to deliver how many mL/hr? Round to the nearest whole number

63 mL/hr

A nurse is providing teaching to a group of new parents about medications. The nurse should include that aspiring is contraindicated for children who have a viral infection due to the risk of developing which of the following adverse effects? a. Reye's syndrome b. visual disturbances c. diabetes mellitus d. Wilms' tumor

a. Reye's syndrome

A nurse is teaching a client who is to begin taking tamoxifen for the treatment of breast cancer. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching? a. hot flashes b. urinary retention c. constipation d. bradycardia

a. hot flashes

A nurse is caring for.a client who is in labor. The client is receiving oxytocin by continuous IV infusion with maintenance IV solution. The external FHR monitor indicates late decelerations. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? a. turn the client to a side lying position b. disconnect the client's oxytocin from maintenance IV c. apply oxygen to client by face mask d. increase the client's maintenance IV infusion rate

a. turn the client to a side lying position

A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking isoniazid and rifampin for 3 weeks for the treatment of active pulmonary TB. The client reports his urine is an orange color. Which of the following statements should the nurse make? a. "Stop taking the isoniazid for 3 days and the discoloration should go away" b. "Rifampin can turn body fluids orange" c. "I'll make an appointment for you to see the provider this afternoon" d. "Isoniazid can cause bladder irritation"

b. "Rifampin can turn body fluids orange" This can affect tears, sweat, saliva, and urine to turn a reddish orange color. This does not cause the client harm though

A nurse is caring for a client who received 0.9% sodium chloride 1 L over 4 hours instead of over the 8 hours as prescribed. Which of the following information should the nurse enter as a complete documentation of the incident? a. IV fluid infused over 4 hours instead of the prescribed 8 hours. Client tolerated fluids well, provider notified b. 0.9% sodium chloride 1 L IV infused over 4 hours. Vital signs stable, provider notified c. 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride completed at 0900. Client denies shortness of breath d. IV fluid initiated at 0500. Lungs clear to auscultation

b. 0.9% sodium chloride 1 L IV infused over 4 hours. Vital signs stable, provider notified

A nurse is caring for the parent of a newborn. The parent asks the nurse when their newborn should receive the first diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis (DTap). The nurse should instruct the parent that their newborns should receive the immunization at which of the following ages? a. at birth b. 2 months c. 6 months d. 15 months

b. 2 months

A nurse is planning care for a client who has hypertension and is to start taking metoprolol. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. weight the client weekly b. determine apical pulse prior to administering c. administer the medication 30 minutes prior to breakfast d. monitor the client for jaundice

b. determine apical pulse prior to administering Life threatening bradycardia is an adverse effect that might affect this client. If the pulse rate is less than 60/min the nurse should withhold this medication and notify the provider

A nurse is providing teaching to newly licensed nurse about metoclopramide. The nurse should include in the teaching that which of the following conditions is a contraindication to this medication? a. hyperthyroidism b. intestinal obstruction c. glaucoma d. low blood pressure

b. intestinal obstruction Metoclopramide reduces nausea and vomiting by increasing gastric motility and promoting gastric emptying. It is contraindicated for a client who has an intestinal obstruction or perforation.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for ergotamine. The nurse should recognize the ergotamine is administered to treat which of the following conditions? a. Raynaud's phenomenon b. migraine headaches c. ulcerative colitis d. anemia

b. migraine headaches Ergotamine prevents or stops a migraine headache by blocking alpha adrenergic receptors in the cranial peripheral vascular smooth muscle, which causes vasoconstriction of dilated cerebral blood vessels.

A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving IV gentamicin three times daily. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this medication? a. hypoglycemia b. proteinuria c. nasal congestion d. visual disturbances

b. proteinuria This is a manifestation of nephrotoxicity. The nurse should monitor for oliguria and hematuria

A nurse is reviewing the lab values for a client who is receiving a continuous IV heparin infusion and has an aPTT of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse prepare to take? a. administer vitamin K b. reduce the infusion rate c. give the client a low dose aspirin d. request an INR

b. reduce the infusion rate An aPTT of 90 seconds is outside of the expected reference range of 60-80 seconds.

A nurse at a clinic is providing follow up a care to a client who is taking fluoxetine for depression. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication? a. tingling toes b. sexual dysfunction c. absence of dreams d. pica

b. sexual dysfunction

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of oral candidiasis after taking tetracycline for 7 days. The nurse should recognize that candidiasis is a manifestation of which of the following adverse effects? a. allergic response b. superinfection c. renal toxicity d. hepatotoxicity

b. superinfection A superinfection can develop from the overgrowth of fungus due to the antibacterial effect of tetracycline. The nurse should monitor for soreness of the mouth and a swollen tongue.

A nurse is teaching a client about cyclobenzaprine. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the teaching is effective? a. "i will have increased saliva production" b. "i will continue taking this medication until the rash disappears" c. "i will taper off the medication before discontinuing it" d. "i will report any urinary incontinence"

c. "i will taper off the medication before discontinuing it" This prevents abstinence syndrome or rebound insomnia

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a gastric ulcer and a new prescription for famotidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? a. "take the medication on an empty stomach for full effectiveness" b. "you may discontinue this medication when stomach discomfort subsides" c. "report yellowing of the skin" d. "you will be taking this medication for 2 weeks"

c. "report yellowing of the skin" Famotidine can be hepatotoxic and cause jaundice

A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has myasthenia gravis and is in a cholinergic crisis. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer? a. potassium iodide b. glucagon c. atropine d. protamine

c. atropine

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has gout and a new prescription for allopurinol. The nurse should instruct the client to stop taking the medication for which of the following adverse effects? a. nausea b. metallic taste c. fever d. dorwsiness

c. fever This can indicate a potentially fatal hypersensitivity reaction.

A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client whose family reports the client has taken large amounts of diazepam. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering? a. ondansetron b. magnesium sulfate c. flumazenil d. protamine sulfate

c. flumazenil This is an antidote used to reverse benzodiazepines

A nurse is reviewing lab values for a client who reports fatigue and cold intolerance. The client has an increased thyroid stimulating hormone level and a decreased total T3 and T4 level. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications? a. methimazole b. somatropin c. levothyroxine d. propylthiouracil

c. levothyroxine This helps replace thyroid hormone for a client who has hypothyroidism. Clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism is fatigue, cold intolerance, and a decrease body temperature and pulse.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney failure with an AV fistula for hemodialysis and a new prescription for epoetin alfa. Which of the following therapeutic effects of epoetin alfa should the nurse include in the teaching? a. reduces BP b. inhibits clotting of fistula c. promotes RBC production d. stimulates growth of neutrophils

c. promotes RBC production Stimulates erythropoiesis in the bone marrow to increase RBC production and reduce anemia. Anemia is common in clients who have chronic kidney failure since erythropoietin is produced by the kidney.

A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving mannitol via continuous IV infusion. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects? a. weight loss b. increased ocular pressure c. auditory hallucinations d. bibasilar crackles

d. bibasilar crackles This can precipitate heat failure and pulmonary edema

A nurse is administering donepezil to a client who has Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately? a. dyspepsia b. diarrhea c. dizziness d. dyspnea

d. dyspnea Bronchoconstriction, dyspepsia, diarrhea, and dizziness are caused by the increase in acetylcholine levels which is a primary effect of donepezil

A nurse is assessing a client who is taking propylthiouracil for the treatment of Graves disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication has been effective? a. decrease in WBC count b. decrease in amount of time sleeping c. increase in appetite d. increase in ability to focus

d. increase in ability to focus

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is taking brupropion as an aid to quit smoking. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication? a. cough b. joint pain c. alopecia d. insomnia

d. insomnia This can result in agitation, tremors, mania, and insomnia

A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about caring for a client who has a prescription for gemfibrozil. The nurse should instruct the newly licensed nurse to monitor which of the following lab tests? a. platelet count b. electrolyte levels c. thyroid function d. liver function

d. liver function Gemfibrozil reduces triglycerides by decreasing the liver's uptake of fatty acids. It can cause live toxicity.

A nurse is providing teaching to a parent of a child who has asthma and a new prescription for a cromolyn sodium metered dose inhaler. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates the need for further teaching? a. "I will give my child a dose as soon as the wheezing starts" b. "My child should rinse out his mouth after using the inhaler" c. "My child should exhale completely before placing the inhaler in his mouth" d. "If my child has difficulty breathing in the dose, a spacer can be used"

a. "I will give my child a dose as soon as the wheezing starts" Cromolyn is a mast cell inhibitor that has a slow onset and is given for a prophylactic treatment of asthma. It is NOT a rescue medication

A nurse at an urgent care clinic is collecting a history from a female client who has a urinary tract infection. The nurse anticipates a prescription for ciprofloxacin. The nurse should identify that which of the following client statements indicates a contraindication for administering this medication? a. "i have tendonitis, so I haven't been able to exercise" b. "i take a stool softener for chronic constipation" c. "i take medicine for my thyroid" d. "i am allergic to sulfa"

a. "i have tendonitis, so I haven't been able to exercise" There is a risk of tendon rupture with this medication

A nurse is administering SQ heparin to a client who is at risk for deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. administer the medication into the client's abdomen b. inject the medication into a muscle c. massage the site after administering the medication d. use a 22 gauge needle to administer the medication

a. administer the medication into the client's abdomen

A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for chlorpromazine to treat schizophrenia. The client has a mask like facial expression and is experiencing involuntary movements and tremors. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering? a. amantadine b. bupropion c. phenelzine d. hydroxyzine

a. amantadine The client is experiencing Parkinsonism, which is an adverse effect of the antipsychotic medication chlorpromazine.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for tamoxifen. The nurse should recognize that tamoxifen has which of the following therapeutic effects? a. antiestrogenic b. antimicrobial c. androgenic d. anti-inflammatory

a. antiestrogenic This is used to treat cancer of the breast in both pre and post menopausal women. It is also used to prevent breast cancer in women who are at an increased risk

A nurse is reviewing the medication list of a client who wants to begin taking oral contraceptives. The nurse should identify that which of the following client medications will interfere with the effectiveness or oral contraceptives? a. carbamazepine b. sumatriptan c. atenolol d. glipizide

a. carbamazepine

A nurse is caring for a client who has cancer and is taking oral morphine and docusate sodium. The nurse should instruct the client that taking the docusate sodium daily can minimize which of the following adverse effects of morphine? a. constipation b. drowsiness c. facial flushing d. itching

a. constipation This is a stool softener and promotes easier evacuation of stool by increasing water and fat in the intestine

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to begin taking oxybutynin for urinary incontinence. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching? SATA a. dry mouth b. tinnitus c. blurred vision d. bradycardia e. dry eyes

a. dry mouth c. blurred vision e. dry eyes

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving filgastrim. Which of the following findings should the nurse document to indicate the effectiveness of the therapy? a. increased neutrophil count b. increased RBC count c. decreased prothrombin time d. decreased triglycerides

a. increased neutrophil count Filgastrim stimulates bone marrow to produce neutrophils

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has ulcerative colitis and a new prescription for sulfasalazine. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication? a. jaundice b. constipation c. oral candidiasis d. sedation

a. jaundice This can cause a yellow discoloration of the skin and yellow/orange discoloration of the urine.

A nurse is planning to teach about the use of a spacer to a child who has a new prescription for fluticasone inhaler to treat chronic asthma. The nurse should include that the spacer decreases the risk for which of the following adverse effects of the medication? a. oral candidiasis b. headache c. joint pain d. adrenal suppression

a. oral candidiasis

A nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client who has a new prescription for simvastatin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan? SATA a. report muscle pain to the provider b. avoid taking this medication with grapefruit juice c. take the medication in the early morning d. expect a flushing of the skin as a reaction to the medication e. expect therapy with this medication to be lifelong

a. report muscle pain to the provider b. avoid taking this medication with grapefruit juice e. expect therapy with this medication to be lifelong

A nurse is providing teaching to newly licensed nurse about administering morphine via IV bolus to a client. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? a. respiratory depression can occur 7 minutes after the morphine is administered b. the morphine will peak in 10 min c. withheld the morphine if the client has a RR less than 16/min d. administer the morphine over 2 min

a. respiratory depression can occur 7 minutes after the morphine is administered

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has rheumatoid arthritis and a prescription for long term prednisone therapy. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects? a. stress fractures b. orthostatic hypotension c. gingival ulcerations d. weight loss

a. stress fractures Prednisone can cause demineralization of the bones and can lead to osteoporosis and stress fractures.

A nurse is assessing a client who schizophrenia and is taking haloperidol. The nurse should report which of the following findings to the provider as a manifestation of neuropletic malignant syndrome (NMS)? a. temp of 103.5 b. urinary retention c. heart rate of 56 d. muscle flaccidity

a. temp of 103.5 Other manifestations include respiratory distress, diaphoresis, and hyper or hypotension

A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following an outpatient endoscopy procedure using midazolam. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as an indication that the client is ready for discharge? a. the client's capnography has returned to baseline b. the client can respond to their name when called c. the client is passing flatus d. the client is requesting oral intake

a. the client's capnography has returned to baseline This indicates that gas exchange is adequate

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking acetazolamide for chronic open angle glaucoma. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor and report? a. tingling of fingers b. constipation c. weight gain d. oliguria

a. tingling of fingers The nurse should instruct the client to report paresthesia, tingling sensation in the extremities, when taking acetazolamide

A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin. The client asks if they can take aspirin while taking the warfarin. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? a. "it is safe to take an enteric coated aspirin" b. "aspirin will increase the risk of bleeding" c. "acetaminophen may be substituted for aspirin" d. "the INR lab work must be monitored more frequently if aspirin is taken"

b. "aspirin will increase the risk of bleeding" Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation and can potentiate the action of the anticoagulant warfarin

A nurse is instructing a client on the application of nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "i should apply a patch every 5 minutes if i develop chest pain" b. "i will take the patch off right after my evening meal" c. "i will leave the patch off at least 1 day each week" d. "i should discard the used patch by flushing it down the toilet"

b. "i will take the patch off right after my evening meal"

A nurse receives a verbal order from the provider to administer morphine five milligrams every 4 hours subcutaneously for severe pain as needed. The nurse should identify which of the following entries as the correct format for the medication administration record (MAR)? a. MSO4 5 mg subcut every 4 hr PRN severe pain b. Morphine 5 mg subcut every 4 hr PRN severe pain c. MSO4 5 mg SQ every 4 hr PRN severe pain d. Morphine 5.0 mg subcutaneously every 4 hr PRN severe pain

b. Morphine 5 mg subcut every 4 hr PRN severe pain

A nurse is planning care for a client who has a seizure disorder and a new prescription for valproic acid. Which of the following lab values should the nurse plan to monitor? SATA a. BUN b. PTT c. AST d. Urinalysis e. ALT

b. PTT c. AST e. ALT Valproic acid can alter coagulation and cause life threatening hepatoxicity

A nurse is caring for a client who has acute acetaminophen toxicity. The nurse should anticipate administering which of the following medications? a. vitamin K b. acetlycysteine c. benztropine d. physostigmine

b. acetlycysteine This is the specific antidote for acetaminophen toxicity and can prevent severe injury when given orally or by IV infusion

A nurse on a medical unit is preparing to administer alendronate 40 mg PO for an older adult who has Paget's disease of the bone. Which of the following actions should be the nurse's priority? a. administer the medication to the client before breakfast in the morning b. ambulate the client to a chair prior to administering the medication c. give the medication to the client with water rather than milk d. teach the client how to take the medication at home

b. ambulate the client to a chair prior to administering the medication The nurse should ambulate the client to a chair and ensure that the client is sitting upright before administering the alendronate to prevent esophagitis from occurring. The client must also be able to sit or stand upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy via continuous IV infusion to treat a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect on the medication and report to the provider? a. vomiting b. blood in the urine c. positive Chvostek's sign d. ringing in the ears

b. blood in the urine Bruising, hematomas, hypotension, and tachycardia can also be manifestations of heparin toxicity

A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has heroin toxicity. The client is unresponsive with pinpoint pupils and a respiratory rate of 6/min. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer? a. methadone b. naloxone c. diazepam d. bupropion

b. naloxone This is an opioid antagonist

A nurse is reviewing the lab results for a client who has a prescription for filgastrim. The nurse should recognize that an increase in which of the following values indicates a therapeutic effect of this medication? a. erythrocyte count b. neutrophil count c. lymphocyte count d. thrombocyte count

b. neutrophil count Filgastrim increases neutrophil production. It is given to treat neutropenia and reduce the risk of infection for clients who are receiving chemotherapy for cancer or who have undergone bone marrow transplant.

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer? a. oxytocin b. nifedipine c. dinoprostone d. misoprostol

b. nifedipine This is a tocolytic that is used to stop preterm labor

A nurse is caring for a 20 year old female client who has a prescription for isotretinoin for severe nodulocystic acne vulgaris. Before the client can obtain a refill, the nurse should advise the client that which of the following tests is required? a. serum calcium b. pregnancy test c. 24 hour urine collection for protein d. aspartate aminotransferase level

b. pregnancy test Isotretinoin has teratogenic effects. The client must porvide two negative pregnancy tests for the intial prescription and one negative test before monthly refills

A nurse is reviewing the ECG of a client who is receiving IV furosemide for heart failure. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as an indication of hypokalemia? a. tall, tented T waves b. presence of U waves c. widened QRS complex d. ST elevation

b. presence of U waves

A nurse on the acute care unit is caring for a client who is receiving gentamicin IV. The nurse should report which of the following findings to the provider as an adverse effect of the medication? a. constipation b. tinnitus c. hypoglycemia d. joint pain

b. tinnitus Aminoglycosides are ototoxic which can manifest tinnitus and deafness

A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "i should take the medication with food" b. "i should take naproxen if i develop joint pain" c. "i should tell my provider if i develop a sore throat" d. "i should expect the medication to cause my urine to look orange"

c. "i should tell my provider if i develop a sore throat" This could indicate neutropenia which is a serious adverse effect of captopril

A nurse is teaching a group of unit nurses about medication reconciliation. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? a. the client's provider is required to complete medication reconciliation b. medication reconciliation at discharge is limited to the medication ordered at the time of discharge c. a transition in care requires the nurse to conduct medication reconciliation d. medical reconciliation is limited to the name of the medications that the client is currently taking

c. a transition in care requires the nurse to conduct medication reconciliation

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects? a. insomnia b. hypotension c. bleeding d. constipation

c. bleeding This is an antithrombotic medication that inhibits platelet aggregation. The nurse should monitor for coffee ground emesis , black tarry stools, ecchymosis, or any indication of bleeding

A nurse administers a dose of metformin to a client instead of the prescribed dose of metoclopramide. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? a. report the incident to the charge nurse b. notify the provider c. check the client's blood glucose d. fill out an incident report

c. check the client's blood glucose The client is at risk for hypoglycemia. The client should monitor the client's blood glucose and provide the client with a snack to reduce the risk for hypoglycemia

A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record of a client who has hypocalcemia and a new prescription for IV calcium gluconate. The nurse should identify that which of the following medications can interact with calcium gluconate? a. felodipine b. guaifenesin c. digoxin d. regular insulin

c. digoxin This can cause hypercalcemia

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a new prescription for amitriptyline to treat depression. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse plan to perform prior to starting the client on this medication? a. hearing examination b. glucose tolerance test c. electrocardiogram d. pulmonary function tests

c. electrocardiogram This can cause tachycardia and ECG changes

A nurse is assessing a client after administering a second dose of cefazolin IV. The nurse notes the client has anxiety, hypotension, and dyspnea. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer first? a. diphenhydramine b. albuterol inhaler c. epinephrine d. prednisone

c. epinephrine This induces vasoconstriction and bronchodilation during anaphylaxis

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has peptic ulcer disease and is to start a new prescription for sucralfate. Which of the following actions of sucralfate should the nurse include in the teaching? a. decreases stomach acid secretion b. neutralizes acids in the stomach c. forms a protective barrier over the ulcers d. treats ulcers eradicating H. pylori

c. forms a protective barrier over the ulcers This is a mucosal protectant and forms a gel like substance that coats the ulcer and creates a barrier to protect from hydrochloric acid and pepsin

A nurse is assessing a client's vital signs prior to adminsitration of PO digoxin. The client's BP is 144/86 mmHg, HR is 55/min, and RR is 20/min. The nurse should withhold the medication and contact the provider for which of the following findings? a. diastolic BP b. systolic BP c. heart rate d. respiratory rate

c. heart rate Bradycardia could be a sign of digoxin toxicity

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for chlorothiazide to treat hypertension. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects? a. thrombophlebitis b. hyperactive reflexes c. muscle weakness d. hypoglycemia

c. muscle weakness Chlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic used to treat hypertension and CHF. It promotes excretion of water, sodium, and potassium and can cause hypokalemia.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has an UTI and new prescriptions for phenazopyridine and ciprofloxacin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the need for further teaching? a. "If the phenazopyridine upsets my stomach, I can take it with meals" b. "The phenazopyridine will relieve my discomfort, but the ciprofloxacin will get rid of the infection" c. "I need to drink 2 lites of fluid per day while I am taking the ciprofloxacin" d. "I should notify my provider immediately if my urine turns an orange color"

d. "I should notify my provider immediately if my urine turns an orange color" This is a normal side effect of the medication

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to start treatment for asthma with beclomethasone and albuterol inhalers. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? a. "take beclomethasone to avoid an acute attack" b. "use beclomethasone 5 minutes before using albuterol" c. "limit your calcium and vitamin D intake when taking beclomethasone" d. "rinse your mouth after inhaling the beclomethasone"

d. "rinse your mouth after inhaling the beclomethasone"

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg PO daily to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? a. "take hydrochlorothiazide as needed for edema" b. "check your weight once a week" c. "take the hydrochlorothiazide on an empty stomach" d. "take the hydrochlorothiazide in the morning"

d. "take the hydrochlorothiazide in the morning" This allows for diuresis during the day and prevent nocturia

A nurse is assessing a client who has myasthenia gravis and is taking neostigmine. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect? a. tachycardia b. oliguria c. xerostomia d. miosis

d. miosis This is pupillary constriction and can cause difficulty with visual accomodation

A nurse is preparing to administer PO sodium polystyrene sulfonate to a client who has hyperkalemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? a. hold the client's other oral medications for 8 hours post administration b. inform the client that this medication can turn stool a light tan color c. keep the client's solution int he refrigerator for up to 72 hours d. monitor the client for constipation

d. monitor the client for constipation

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for amphotericin B. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects? a. hyperkalemia b. hypertension c. constipation d. nephrotoxicity

d. nephrotoxicity AMPHOTERRIBLE! This is an anti fungal medication used to treat severe fungal infection and can cause nephrotoxicity.

A nurse is reviewing the lab results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion for DVT. The nurse should discontinue the medication infusion for which of the following client findings? a. potassium 5.0 mEq/L b. aPTT 2 times the control c. hemoglobin 15 g/dL d. platelets 96,000/mm3

d. platelets 96,000/mm3 This is below the expected range of 150,000 to 400,000/mm3

A nurse is reviewing the lab results of a client who is taking digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider? a. calcium 9.2 mg/dL b. magnesium 1.6 mEq/L c. digoxin 1.1 ng/mL d. potassium 2.8 mEq/L

d. potassium 2.8 mEq/L The expected reference range is 3.5-5 mEq/L

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. For which of the following client outcomes should the nurse administer chlordiazepoxide? a. minimize diaphoresis b. maintain abstinence c. lessen craving d. prevent delirium tremens

d. prevent delirium tremens This prevents delirium tremens during acute alcohol withdrawal

A nurse is providing discharge teaching handling medication to a client who is to continue taking oral transmucosal fentanyl raspberry flavored lozenges on a stick. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? a. chew on the medication stick to release the medication b. leave the medication stick in one location of the mouth until melted c. allow the medication 1 hour for analgesia effects to begin d. store unused medication sticks in a storage container

d. store unused medication sticks in a storage container

A nurse is assessing a client 1 hour after administering morphine for pain. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as the best indication that the morphine has been effective? a. the client's vital signs are within normal limits b. the client has not requested additional medication c. the client is resting comfortably with eyes closed d. the client rates pain as a 3 on a scale from 0 to 10

d. the client rates pain as a 3 on a scale from 0 to 10 Client's description of pain is the most accurate assessment of pain

A nurse is preparing to administer prochlorperazine 2.5 mg IV. Available is prochlorperazine injection 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?

0.5 mL

What is the reversal agent for heparin?

Protamine sulfate

What is the reversal agent for warfarin?

Vitamin K

A nurse is caring for a client how has a new prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following of the adverse effects of this medication? a. ecchymosis b. jaundice c. hypotension d. hypokalemia

c. hypotension This happens especially during the first 3 hours following the initial dosage

A nurse is teaching a client about the use of risedronate for the treatment of osteoporosis. The nurse should identify which of the following statements as an indication that the client understands the teaching? a. "i will drink a glass of milk when I take risedronate" b. "i will take the risedronate 15 minutes after my evening meal" c. "i should take an antacid with the risedronate to avoid nausea" d. "i should sit up for 30 minutes after taking the risedronate"

d. "i should sit up for 30 minutes after taking the risedronate" This will reduce the adverse GI effects of esophagitis and dyspepsia

A nurse is caring for a client who has peptic ulcer disease and reports a headache. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer? a. ibuprofen b. naproxen c. aspirin d. acetaminophen

d. acetaminophen This is an analgesic used for mild to moderate pain. It does not affect blood coagulation and does not increase the risk for GI bleeding

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has cirrhosis and a new prescription for lactulose. The nurse should instruct the client that lactulose has which of the following therapeutic effects? a. increases BP b. prevents esophageal bleeding c. decreases HR d. reduces ammonia levels

d. reduces ammonia levels Lactulose is a laxative that promotes the excretion of ammonia in a client who has hepatic encephalopathy from cirrhosis of the liver

A nurse is administering SQ epinephrine for a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects? a. hypotension b. hyperthermia c. hypoglycemia d. tachycardia

d. tachycardia Adverse effects can include tachycardia and dysrhythmias as a result of cardiac stimulation.

A nurse is preparing to administer amoxicillin 250 mg liquid suspension PO every 8 hours for an older adult client. The amount available is amoxicillin 50 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

5 mL

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has multiple sclerosis and a new prescription for methyprednisolone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? SATA a. blood glucose levels will be monitored during therapy b. avoid contact with people who have known infections c. take the medication 1 hour before breakfast d. decrease dietary intake of foods containing potassium e. grapefruit juice can increase the effects of the medication

a. blood glucose levels will be monitored during therapy b. avoid contact with people who have known infections e. grapefruit juice can increase the effects of the medication

A nurse is collecting a medication history from a client who has new prescription for lithium. The nurse should identify that the client should discontinue which of the following over the counter medications? a. aspirin b. ibuprofen c. famotidine d. bisacodyl

b. ibuprofen NSAIDs can increase lithium levels

A nurse is planning care for a client who is prescribed metoclopramide following bowel surgery. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor? a. muscle weakness b. sedation c. tinnitus d. peripheral edema

b. sedation

A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about contraindications to ceftriaxone. The nurse should include a severe allergy to which of the following medications as a contraindication to ceftriaxone? a. gentamicin b. clindamycin c. piperacillin d. sulfamethoxazole - trimethoprim

c. piperacillin Piperacillin is also penicillin and patients can have a cross sensitivity to ceftriaxone (third generation cephalosporin)

A nurse is teaching a client who is to start taking hydrocodone with acetaminophen tablets for pain. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? a. the medication should be taken 1 hour prior to eating b. it takes 48 hours for therapeutic effects to occur c. tablets should not be crushed or chewed d. decreased respirations might occur

d. decreased respirations might occur This might cause respiratory depression

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a prescription for zolpidem at bedtime to promote sleep. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects? a. ecchymosis b. decreased urine output c. increased BP d. dizziness

d. dizziness Zolpidem can cause dizziness and daytime drowsiness. It can cause confusion in the older adult client