pharmacology
A lipid profile, liver function tests, uric acid, and blood glucose levels must be assessed before a patient is started on which type of antilipemic therapy? A Niacin B Colestipol C Atorvastatin (Lipitor) D Fenofibrate (Tricor)
A
A patient admitted to the psychiatric ward is seeing snakes on the ceiling and hearing cows "mooing" in the room. What does the nurse document this patient as experiencing? a.Hallucinations b.Change in affect c.Psychosis d.Delusions
A
A patient asks the nurse why her doctor said she could take her "sleeping pill," which is a benzodiazepine, for no more than 4 weeks. Which information serves as the basis of the nurse's response? a.Long term use results in bizarre dreams and rebound insomnia when the drug is discontinued. b.Kidney failure can occur as a result of the effect of prolonged exposure to products of drug metabolism. c.Metabolites of the drug can cross the blood-brain barrier and cause seizure activity. d.No rapid eye movement (REM) sleep occurs during therapy with a benzodiazepine, resulting in the risk of psychosis.
A
A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has been receiving an antipsychotic agent intramuscularly for the past 4 days. The patient develops a fever, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and trismus. Which extrapyramidal adverse effect does the nurse suspect this patient has? a.Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) b.Tardive dyskinesia c.Akathisia d.Pseudoparkinsonian symptoms
A
A patient has a body mass index (BMI) of 23. The nurse interprets that the patient is in which BMI category? A Normal weight B Underweight C Obese D Overweight
A
A patient has been prescribed pramipexole (Mirapex) to manage symptoms of Parkinson's disease. The nurse contacts the prescriber after discovering that the patient is also taking which medication? a.Verapamil (Calan) b.Metformin (Glucophage) c.Prednisone (Orasone, Deltasone) d.Penicillin
A
A patient is newly diagnosed with Raynaud's disease. Which medication is most beneficial for the patient? A Nifedipine (Procardia) B Reserpine (Serpalan) C Prazosin (Minipress) D Methyldopa (Aldopam)
A
A patient is prescribed eplerenone (Inspra) for treatment of hypertension. The nurse instructs the patient to avoid taking this drug with which kind of juice? A Grapefruit B Tomato C Grape D Orange
A
A patient is prescribed ranolazine (Ranexa) for treatment of chronic stable angina. The nurse contacts the prescriber after discovering that the patient is also taking which medication? A Erythromycin (E mycin) B Zidovudine (Retrovir) C Butorphanol (Stadol) D Cimetidine (Tagamet)
A
A patient taking a calcium ion antagonist asks how the drug works to help his angina. The basis for the nurse's reply is that calcium ion antagonists do what? A Dilate coronary arteries and peripheral blood vessels, thereby increasing myocardial blood flow and decreasing workload B Constrict peripheral blood vessels, thereby increasing the volume of blood in the coronary arteries C Limit increases in heart rate that can occur with stress, thereby preventing myocardial oxygen demand from being greater than supply D Alter the flow of ions through the myocardial membrane such that the myocardium can tolerate lower levels of oxygen
A
A patient taking phenytoin (Dilantin) and isoniazid reports feeling lethargic. Nystagmus is noted on physical examination. What problem does this information suggest to the nurse? a.Phenytoin toxicity b.Liver damage c.Abrupt discontinuation of isoniazid d.Tubercular reactivation
A
A patient undergoing withdrawal from an opiate agonist asks the nurse how long the withdrawal symptoms will last. What is the nurse's best response? a.Symptoms peak in about 2 days and then disappear by the end of a week. b.Symptoms last 3 weeks, depending on the amount of drug used before withdrawal. c.Symptoms can last for as long as 6 weeks, depending on how long the opiate was used. d.It is impossible to say because there is so much individual variation.
A
A patient who is in hypertensive crisis is ordered nitroprusside sodium (Nitropress). By which route does the nurse administer this drug? A Intravenous B Intramuscular C Intradermal D Subcutaneous
A
A patient with hypertension for whom a diuretic is ordered asks the nurse how a "kidney pill" can help blood pressure. The basis for the nurse's response is that diuretics lower blood pressure by doing what? A Decreasing circulatory volume and dilating peripheral arterioles B Increasing the excretion of sodium and magnesium C Activating the renin angiotensin system D Diluting the blood and redirecting blood flow to the kidneys
A
A psychiatric patient is transferred to the medical surgical unit to be treated for pneumonia. While questioning the patient for assessment, the nurse notes that the patient's answers are completely unrelated, with garbled and unrecognizable words. Which condition does the nurse document the patient as experiencing? a.Disorganized thinking b.Delusions c.Disorganized behavior d.Hallucinations
A
An intravenous (IV) bolus of phenytoin (Dilantin) is administered with the patient under electrocardiographic (ECG) monitoring because of the risk of which occurrence? a.Bradycardia b.Myocardial infarction c.Bundle branch block d.Atrial fibrillation
A
How do centrally acting anticholinergics help control symptoms in Parkinson's disease? a.By blocking cholinergic receptors b.By preventing destruction of dopamine in the CNS c.By activating dopaminergic receptors d.By increasing the synthesis of dopamine
A
How does the nurse instruct a patient who is taking opioids chronically for several months to discontinue the medication? a."Taper the medication slowly over 7 to 10 days." b."Change the medication to a weaker opioid and then discontinue the new medication after 3 weeks." c."Taper the medication slowly over 3 to 4 weeks." d."Simply stop taking the medication when ready."
A
IV quinidine is ordered for a patient with a ventricular dysrhythmia. Which information is pertinent to this medication order? A Blood pressure and ECG must be monitored continuously during administration B Urine specific gravity must be monitored every 4 hours for 24 hours after administration. C Quinidine cannot be infused in a dextrose solution because it forms a precipitate. D Serum quinidine levels must be checked 4 hours after administration.
A
In order to obtain an adequate amount of sleep and maintain good health, what fraction of a person's adult life would typically be spent sleeping? a.One third b.One half c.One fourth d.One fifth
A
In what age range do anxiety disorders commonly begin? a.20 to 30 years b.31 to 40 years c.51 to 60 years d.41 to 50 years
A
Nesiritide (Natrecor) may be administered to a patient with which type of heart failure? A Severe heart failure and dyspnea at rest B Left heart failure and bundle branch block C Moderate heart failure and pitting edema D Right heart failure and a supraventricular dysrhythmia
A
Parkinsonism is an imbalance of which two central nervous system (CNS) neurotransmitters? a.Acetylcholine and dopamine b.Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) and catechol o methyltransferase (COMT) c.Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) and dopamine d.Acetylcholine and COMT
A
The nurse expects fluvoxamine (Luvox) to be prescribed for a patient with which condition? a.Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) b.Postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) c.Short term anxiety d.Pruritus related to an allergic reaction
A
The nurse is instructing a patient about the use of medications to treat insomnia. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching? a."It is OK to take a sleeping pill every night if I need one." b."There are other types of medications to help me sleep besides the usual sleeping pills." c."The best sleeping pill for me is one that helps me get to sleep fast, stay asleep, then awake without having a hangover." d."Drinking a glass of warm milk before taking a sleeping pill may help me sleep better."
A
The nurse is instructing a patient who has been prescribed ropinirole (Requip) for treatment of early symptoms of Parkinson's disease. How does the nurse instruct the patient to take this medication? a.With food b.One hour before meals c.On an empty stomach d.Between meals
A
The nurse is reviewing dietary instructions with a patient diagnosed with metabolic syndrome. Which food does the nurse encourage the patient to eat more of? A Salmon B Pork C Cheese D Potatoes
A
The nurse is reviewing the history of a patient who takes heparin. The nurse should contact the healthcare provider if the patient reports which coexisting condition? A Peptic ulcer disease B Diabetes mellitus C MI D Hypertension
A
The nurse is teaching a patient about antipsychotic medication. Which statement made by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a."I must have at least 30 minutes in the sun each day." b."I should sit or lie down if I feel faint." c."I need periodic blood tests while I take this medication." d."It is important for me to eat a high fiber diet."
A
The nurse is teaching a patient about how to improve sleep quality. Which information does the nurse include in the teaching plan? a."Avoid heavy meals late in the evening." b."Have a couple glasses of wine just before bedtime." c."Go to bed whenever you feel tired." d."Exercise just before bedtime."
A
The spouse of a patient for whom an antipsychotic medication has been prescribed asks the nurse on what basis the prescribed drug was selected. Which information forms the basis for the nurse's response? a.Drug selection is based primarily on adverse effects to be avoided. b.The drug selected depends on the expected duration of pharmacologic therapy. c.High potency drugs are used for acute problems, low potency drugs are used for chronic problems. d.Typical antipsychotic drugs are used when the cause of the problem relates to dopaminE, atypical antipsychotics are used when it relates to serotonin.
A
What does the nurse monitor in a patient taking zonisamide (Zonegran)? a.Complete blood count (CBC) b.Cardiac dysrhythmias c.Deep tendon reflexes d.Blood pressure
A
What does the nurse suggest to a patient taking diuretics to decrease the effects of dry mouth? A Suck on hard candy or ice chips B Increase fluid intake C Purchase lemon and glycerin swabs to suck on or swab the mouth D Use a commercial mouthwash at least three times a day
A
What does the nurse teach a patient about taking a beta-adrenergic blocking agent? a .If the medication is stopped abruptly, it may cause an exacerbation of anginal symptoms. b.The drug may be taken with cimetidine without any adverse reactions. c.The medication must be taken with meals. d.The drug may be stopped when the patient begins to have better blood pressure readings.
A
What is the expected action of heparin when used to treat deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? A Prevent clot formation B Dissolve existing thrombi C Inhibit platelet coagulation D Increase PT
A
What is the focus of drug treatment for dyslipidemia? A Increase the level of HDLs and lower LDLs in the body B Decrease insulin resistance to lipids, enabling them to be used by the cells C Increase production of insulin by the beta cells in the pancreas D Decrease high density lipoproteins (HDLs) and increase low density lipoproteins (LDLs)
A
What nursing assessment is done before starting a patient on a beta-adrenergic blocking agent? a.Blood pressure and heart rate b.Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels c.Liver enzymes d.Complete blood count (CBC) and sedimentation rate
A
What will a medication that stimulates the beta-2 receptors cause? a.Relaxation of the uterus b.Bronchoconstriction c.Increase in heart rate d.Vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels
A
Which class of drugs used to treat Raynaud's disease causes an increase in bradykinins? A Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors B Adrenergic antagonists C Calcium channel blockers D Direct vasodilators
A
Which instruction does the nurse give to a patient who is ordered aspirin 325 mg PO bid (twice per day) for the prevention of thrombi? A "Take the aspirin with breakfast and supper." B "Expect some ringing in the ears." C "Report the development of bruises immediately." D"Return in 4 weeks for a PT."
A
Which patient is most at risk for a paradoxical response to a barbiturate characterized by excitement, restlessness, and confusion? a.A 76-year-old with severe pain b.A 34 year old recovering alcoholic c.An 18 year old with a seizure disorder d.A 52 year old diabetic man
A
Which principle does the nurse follow when preparing to administer nitroglycerin to a patient intravenously? A Use an infusion pump to administer nitroglycerin. B It is safe to mix IV nitroglycerin with other medications. C Use a regular IV administration set to administer nitroglycerin. D Vital signs will need to be monitored every 4 hours.
A
Which statement best explains the action of milrinone (Primacor)? A Milrinone increases the force of cardiac contraction and velocity B Beta receptors in the heart are blocked, and there is a decrease in the isotropic effects of calcium C There is an increase in blood pressure, and vasodilation occurs in the blood vessels D Afterload and heart rate are increased
A
Which tricyclic antidepressant is approved for treating enuresis in children 6 years of age and older? a.Doxepin (Sinequan) b.Clomipramine (Anafranil) c.Amitriptyline (Elavil) d.Trimipramine (Surmontil)
A
Which type of extrapyramidal symptom is most likely to occur in a 68 year old patient 2 to 3 weeks after starting antipsychotic drug therapy? a.Pseudoparkinsonism b.Dystonia c.Akathisia d.Tardive dyskinesia
A
A patient reports aches, cramps, and numbness in the legs. The patient's medical history reveals chronic occlusive arterial disease of the limbs. Which medications are beneficial for the patient? (Select all that apply.) A Cilostazol (Pletal) B Pentoxifylline (Trental) C Diltiazem (Cardizem) D Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) E Verapamil (Calan)
A,B
What are appropriate behavior modifications a patient can implement to help control hypertension? (Select all that apply.) A Stress reduction B Weight reduction diet C Increased exercise D Smoking cessation E Lower high-density lipoprotein (HDL) levels
A,B,C,D
Which successful forms of treatment for metabolic syndrome are the most cost effective? (Select all that apply.) A Exercise B Smoking cessation C Antihyperglycemic agents D Dietary modification E Antihypertensive agents
A,B,D
Which drug categories are used as preferred antihypertensive treatments in patients with metabolic syndrome? (Select all that apply.) A Thiazide diuretics B ACE inhibitors C Alpha blockers D Calcium channel blockers E Beta blockers
A,B.E
Which lab studies are done in patients taking amiodarone hydrochloride (Cordarone)? (Select all that apply.) A Alanine aminotransferase B Urine sedimentation rate C Aspartate aminotransferase D Complete blood count (CBC) E Blood glucose levels
A,C
When the prescriber selects an antipsychotic drug therapy for a patient, what are the criteria for the selection? (Select all that apply.) a.Medication history b.Gender of the patient c.Ability to pay for medication d.Avoidance of certain adverse effects e.Willingness to attend a support group
A,C,D
Which medications are commonly used to treat OCD? (Select all that apply.) a.Sertraline (Zoloft) b.Propranolol (Inderal) c.Paroxetine (Paxil) d.Fluvoxamine (Luvox)
A,C,D
Which nursing orders are found in the care plan for a patient receiving furosemide (Lasix)? (Select all that apply.) A Rise slowly from a sitting or supine position B Perform weekly weights after breakfast C Monitor for signs of hypokalemia D Provide hard candy or ice to prevent dry mouth E Administer medication 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals
A,C,D
Which pseudoparkinsonian symptoms may occur 2 to 3 weeks after antipsychotic therapy is started? (Select all that apply.) a.Tremor b.Bladder spasm c.Drooling d.Abdominal pain e.Rigidity
A,C,E
What are the serious adverse effects of pentoxifylline (Trental)? (Select all that apply.) A Shortness of breath B Dyspepsia C Dizziness D Chest pain E Diarrhea
A,D
For which patients does the nurse expect an anticholinergic agent to be ordered? (Select all that apply.) a.Patient with nocturnal enuresis b.Patient with tachycardia c.Patient with hypertension d.Patient who needs an endotracheal tube e.Patient with Parkinson's disease
A,D,E
When teaching a patient with angina how to use nitroglycerin translingual spray, which instructions does the nurse give? (Select all that apply.) A "Do not shake the container." B "Keep the mouth open after each dose" C "Do not spray onto the tongue." D "Do not swallow the spray." E "Do not use near fire."
A,D,E
Which intervention(s) does the nurse perform when administering digoxin (Lanoxin) to an adult patient? (Select all that apply.) A Take an apical pulse for 1 minute before administering the drug B Hold the drug if the patient's pulse is 90 C Administer the drug with an antacid D Draw serum digoxin levels 1 hour after administering a daily dose of the drug E Give the drug on a patient's empty stomach F Administer IV digoxin over a 5 minute period
A,F
Which class of antidiabetic drugs inhibits alpha glucosidase and delays glucose absorption? A Alpha glycosidase inhibitors B Thiazolidinediones C Sulfonylureas D Biguanides
A.
A 28-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with symptoms of dyspnea, dizziness, palpitations, sweating, numbness, and chest pain. The patient indicates this has never happened before, and cardiac tests are normal. What does the nurse suspect? a.Social anxiety disorder b.Panic disorder c.Generalized anxiety disorder d.Personality disorder
B
A patient comes to the clinic reporting unexplained bruising and bloody appearing urine. It is most important for the nurse to determine if the patient is taking which type of medication? A Antibiotics B Anticoagulants C Antipruritics D Antianemics
B
A patient has been prescribed apomorphine (Apokyn) for treatment of Parkinson's disease. For which adverse effect does the nurse monitor the patient? a.Urinary retention b.Facial grimacing c.Bradycardia d.Hypertension
B
A patient has been prescribed ezetimibe (Zetia) for management of hyperlipidemia. The nurse instructs the patient to monitor for which adverse effect? A Constipation B Abdominal pain C Insomnia D Urinary retention
B
A patient has been prescribed verapamil (Calan) for treatment of automatic tachycardia. The nurse contacts the prescriber after discovering that the patient also has which condition? A Hypertension B Systolic heart failure C Glaucoma D Malaria
B
A patient has been started on an SSRI and wishes to know when to expect an initial response from the medication. What is the nurse's best response? a.1 to 2 days b.4 to 6 weeks c.1 to 2 weeks d.4 to 6 months
B
A patient has overdosed on morphine. Which medication does the nurse anticipate will be ordered by the physician to treat the patient's overdose? a.Flumazenil (Romazicon) b.Naloxone (Narcan) c.Atropine d.Propranolol (Inderal)
B
A patient is beginning cholestyramine therapy. The nurse instructs the patient to observe for and report bleeding gums, bruising, or dark tarry stools that can be caused by which potential effect of cholestyramine? A Activation of thromboplastin B Deficiency of vitamin K C Binding of the Christmas factor D Interference with platelet aggregation
B
A patient is diagnosed with metabolic syndrome. Which patient data needs to be improved? A Postprandial plasma glucose level of 168 mg/dL B LDL level of 104 mg/dL C Blood pressure of 128/72 mm Hg D HDL level of 25 mg/dL
B
A patient is prescribed doxepin (Sinequan). At what time does the nurse instruct the patient to take the medication? a.With the morning meal b.During the evening hours c.One hour before or 2 hours after a meal to increase absorption d.At breakfast and lunch to decrease insomnia
B
A patient is taking warfarin (Coumadin) and cholestyramine. How does the nurse instruct this patient to take the medications? A Take cholestyramine in the morning and warfarin at bedtime. B Take warfarin 1 hour before or 4 hours after taking cholestyramine. C Take them together with food. D Take them together between meals.
B
A patient taking albuterol (Proventil) has also started taking an over the counter (OTC) cold medication. What symptom does the nurse monitor for in this patient? a.Bradycardia b.Tachycardia c.Increased occurrence of bronchospasms d.Increased fluid retention
B
A patient taking antipsychotic therapy develops akathisia. Which medication does the nurse anticipate will be ordered by the healthcare provider? a.Lithium (Eskalith) b.Propranolol (Inderal) c.Naloxone (Narcan) d.Magnesium sulfate
B
A patient taking clopidogrel (Plavix) is instructed to report which signs and symptoms to the healthcare provider immediately? A Diarrhea, headache, decreased blood glucose B Fever, sore throat, excessive fatigue C Headache, nausea, increased blood glucose D Constipation, decreased blood pressure
B
A patient taking levodopa (Larodopa) should avoid which vitamin? a.Vitamin D b.Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) c.Vitamin C d.Vitamin B1 (thiamine)
B
A patient taking phenytoin (Dilantin) has started attending college and reports frequently drinking alcohol with friends. What does the nurse monitor for in this patient? a.Hypertension b.Increased seizure activity c.Hyperglycemia d.Clinical manifestations of phenytoin toxicity
B
A patient who has been prescribed selegiline (Eldepryl) as part of a medication regimen for Parkinson's disease asks how it will help parkinsonism. How does the nurse respond? a."It speeds up the metabolism of dopamine." b."It slows the deterioration of dopamine producing cells." c."It enhances the dopaminergic activity of nerve cells." d."It decreases the production of acetylcholine."
B
For what therapeutic effect does the nurse assess in a patient taking acetazolamide (Diamox)? A Decreased intracranial pressure B Decreased intraocular pressure C Increased urine osmolality D Decreased serum glucose levels
B
For which adverse effects does the nurse monitor in a patient taking bumetanide (Bumex) and gentamicin (Garamycin)? A Increased renal failure B Hearing loss C Increased potassium loss D Increased seizure activity
B
For which condition does the nurse assess a patient before beginning treatment with the angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor enalapril (Vasotec)? A Marked orthopnea B Persistent cough C Tinnitus D Vertigo
B
How does pentoxifylline (Pentoxil) stop intermittent claudication? A By increasing the concentration of fibrinogen in the blood B By increasing red blood cell flexibility C By increasing blood viscosity D By increasing the bradykinin level
B
How does the effect of a benzodiazepine used for sedation differ in patients who smoke cigarettes from those who do not smoke? a.Respiratory depression is a significant risk in smokers. b.Smokers may require larger doses to maintain the desired effect. c.Smokers are more likely to experience paradoxical responses to the drug. d.Cumulation of the drug is more likely to occur in smokers.
B
How does the nurse evaluate the effectiveness of lidocaine (Xylocaine) intravenous (IV) used in treating a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI)? A Asks the patient to rate chest pain on a scale of 1 to 10 B Observes electrocardiogram (ECG) for reestablishment of normal sinus rhythm C Checks arterial blood gases (ABGs) and capillary refill D Auscultates heart and breath sounds
B
How does the nurse teach a patient to take selegiline (Eldepryl)? a.One hour before or 2 hours after meals to increase absorption b.At breakfast and lunch to decrease the potential for insomnia c.Every 6 hours to ensure maintenance of therapeutic blood levels d.At bedtime to increase therapeutic effects
B
In the normal heart, where does the contraction of heart muscle begin? A AV node B Sinoatrial (SA) node C Purkinje fibers D Bundle of His
B
Monitoring for changes in hepatic function and blood dyscrasias is an essential part of the care plan for a patient on which medication? a)Buspirone b)Diazepam c)Meprobamate d)Hydroxyzine
B
The nurse is caring for a patient undergoing heparin therapy. The nurse would ensure the patient has which lab test ordered to measure the effectiveness of the heparin therapy? A aPTT B Sedimentation rate C PT D Complete blood count (CBC)
B
The nurse is instructing a patient about meprobamate (Miltown) for the treatment of anxiety. Which statement by the patient indicates a correct understanding of this drug therapy? a."It is safe to drive while taking this drug." b."I will rise slowly when getting out of bed." c."I will need to take this drug for at least 6 months." d."Taking this drug with a glass of wine will help reduce my anxiety."
B
The nurse is instructing a patient about the administration of fondaparinux (Arixtra). Which statement by the patient indicates a correct understanding about the administration of the drug? A "The air bubble should be expelled from the syringe before administration." B "I should not rub the injection site after injecting the medication." C "This drug should be injected into the muscle." D "For best effect, the drug should be injected quickly."
B
The nurse is reviewing the medication history of a patient who has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). The healthcare provider is contacted when the nurse finds that the patient is also taking which agent? A Saw palmetto B Ginkgo biloba C Folic acid D Niacin
B
The nurse is teaching a patient with a history of insomnia about sleep pattern disturbance. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further instruction? a."Common causes of insomnia are changes in lifestyle or environment, pain, illness, and excess caffeine or alcohol." b."Insomnia is an occasional normal occurrence of a healthy life." c."People with chronic insomnia may also suffer from psychiatric disorders." d."People with chronic insomnia often develop fatigue during the day."
B
The nurse teaches a patient taking selegiline (Eldepryl) to avoid which food? a.Oranges b.Cheese c.Popcorn d.Bananas
B
The use of amiodarone hydrochloride (Cordarone) is contraindicated in a patient with which condition? A Raynaud's disease B Severe sinus node dysfunction C Excessively high blood pressure D Diabetes and a history of coronary artery disease (CAD)
B
What concerns the nurse about a patient taking a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) concurrently with a diuretic? A Increased potential for ototoxicity B Higher doses of the diuretic will be required to be effective C NSAIDs increase the potential for renal failure D Increased potential for electrolyte imbalances
B
What does the nurse expect to find in assessing a patient receiving high dosages of morphine? a.Increased bowel sounds b.Constricted pupils c.Hypertension d.Urinary urgency
B
What information does the nurse include for a patient taking tramadol (Ultram)? a."Have your liver enzymes monitored until you complete the medication." b."Tramadol may cause constipation, so be sure to include sufficient roughage in your diet." c."Continue to take tramadol even if you are not experiencing pain or discomfort." d."Take tramadol as often as needed for pain relief."
B
What information is included in the teaching plan for a patient for whom a hypnotic medication is ordered for insomnia? a.At bedtime put medication on the bedside table with a glass of water in case a pill is needed. b.Keep a nightlight on for safety in case you need to get out of bed. c.Go to bed 30 minutes earlier than usual to allow the hypnotic to work. d.Avoid eating high protein foods between supper and bedtime.
B
What type of food is prohibited with zolpidem (Ambien) therapy? a.High protein meal b.High fat meal c.Glass of milk d.High carbohydrate meal
B
When applying nitroglycerin ointment, what does the nurse instruct a patient to do? A Use the same site for each application to promote better absorption of the drug. B Use an applicator to measure the correct dose of ointment. C Massage the ointment into the skin to increase the absorption. D Keep the site uncovered after applying the ointment.
B
When evaluating a patient's response to pentoxifylline (Trental), which sign/symptom does the nurse assess? A Motor coordination B Leg pain C Allergy symptoms D Urinary output
B
Which adverse effect of ACE inhibitors is more common in women than men? A Nephrotoxicity B Cough C Neutropenia D Hyperkalemia
B
Which beverage does the nurse instruct a patient taking cilostazol (Pletal) to avoid? A Milk B Grapefruit juice C Cranberry juice D Apple juice
B
Which condition is characterized by a false or irrational belief that is firmly held despite evidence to the contrary? a.Disorganized behavior b.Delusion c.Psychosis d.Hallucination
B
Which instruction does the nurse include when teaching a patient with hyperlipidemia about how to take the powdered form of cholestyramine? A Swallow the dry powder and follow with a full glass of water. B Mix the powder with 2 to 6 ounces of water or juice. C Use a straw to help swallow the drug. D Take the drug with a sip of water.
B
Which medication does the nurse hold if a patient's vital signs are blood pressure 144/90 mm Hg, pulse 60, and respirations 10? a.Furosemide (Lasix) b.Morphine c.Digoxin (Lanoxin) d.Irbesartan (Avapro)
B
Which medication has received U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval for reducing blood glucose and glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) in adult patients with type 2 diabetes? A Cholestyramine B Colesevelam C Colestipol D Cyclosporine
B
Which patient illustrates a physical dependence to an opioid agonist? a.Patient who seeks other avenues for pain relief besides the prescribed medication b.Patient who experiences abstinence syndrome when the drug is abruptly discontinued c.Patient who requires increasing doses to receive the same amount of pain relief d.Patient who maintains adequate pain relief within the prescribed range of therapy
B
Which statement about the action of fondaparinux (Arixtra) is true? A Vitamin K activity is inhibited B Fondaparinux is a selective factor Xa inhibitor C The adenosine 5' diphosphate (ADP) pathway is inhibited D Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) in platelets is increased
B
Which symptoms are most suggestive of the need to adjust warfarin (Coumadin) dosage? A Mild confusion, headache, jaundice, pallor B Nosebleeds, petechiae, menorrhagia C Elevated activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), black stools, tachycardia D Splenomegaly, abdominal pain, pallor
B
Which term describes a feeling of chest discomfort arising from the heart because of lack of oxygen to heart cells? A Ischemic heart disease B Angina pectoris C Myocardial infarction D Peripheral vascular disease
B
Which type of anxiety disorder is known as the most disabling? a.Generalized anxiety disorder b.Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) c.Phobias d.Panic disorder
B
The nurse instructs a patient prescribed meprobamate (Miltown) to avoid which beverage while taking the drug? a.Grape juice b.Beer c.Orange juice d.Milk
B .
For a patient receiving adrenergic agents, the nurse assesses for concurrent use of which medications that may inhibit therapeutic activity? (Select all that apply.) a.Aspirin b.Bretylium tosylate (Bretylate) c.Propranolol (Inderal) d.Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) e.Omeprazole (Prilosec)
B,C
Patients with which conditions are potentially more sensitive to the effects of adrenergic agents? (Select all that apply.) a.Lung disease b.Thyroid disease c.Heart disease d.Impaired hepatic function e.Hypotension
B,C,D
The nurse is teaching a patient about NMS. Which statements by the patient indicate the need for further teaching about this condition? (Select all that apply.) a."I will routinely check my temperature." b."It occurs in many patients like me taking antipsychotic pills." c."I will notify my healthcare provider if my pulse goes below 60." d."It occurs most often when the drug is given using an IV needle." e."It usually occurs in patients younger than age 40."
B,C,D
Which statements about heart rhythms are true? (Select all that apply.) •A Electrical activity and muscle activity are regulated by the AV node. B High emotional stress, ischemia, or heart failure may trigger a dysrhythmia. C A partial blockage in the conduction pathway may trigger a dysrhythmia. D A person can always tell if he or she is having rhythm problems. E All people have an occasional irregular contraction of the heart.
B,C,E
A patient is taking an anticholinergic agent. For which common adverse effects does the nurse monitor this patient? (Select all that apply.) a.Chills b.Dryness of mouth c.Diarrhea d.Urinary retention e.Blurred vision
B,D,E
A registered nurse (RN) is observing a newly employed licensed practical nurse (LPN) administer medications. Which actions by the LPN require the RN to immediately intervene? (Select all that apply.) A Giving digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient with a pulse rate of 92 B Administering milrinone and digoxin (Lanoxin) simultaneously C Injecting inamrinone (Inocor) into the tubing of a running dextrose infusion D Mixing milrinone (Primacor) and furosemide (Lasix) E Administering nesiritide (Natrecor) orally
B,D,E
A patient beginning levodopa (Larodopa) therapy for Parkinson's disease asks how long it will take for the medication to relieve symptoms. What is the nurse's best response? a."Because a loading dose is given, the maximum effects of the drug are seen in 24 to 48 hours." b."The full therapeutic effect of the drug will not be apparent for up to 6 months." c."Symptom relief is immediate but will vary with stress and fatigue level." d."Maximum symptom control occurs when top dosage is reached in 14 to 21 days."
C
A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia is to start clozapine (Clozaril) therapy. Which test does the nurse anticipate will be ordered by the healthcare provider? a.5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) b.Antinuclear antibody (ANA) c.White blood cell (WBC) count d.C reactive protein (CRP)
C
A patient is prescribed buspirone (Buspar). Which kind of juice does the nurse teach the patient to avoid? a.Cranberry b.Orange c.Grapefruit d.Apple
C
A patient is starting on an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Which assessment does the nurse include in the patient's care plan? A Blood sugar levels weekly for the first 3 months of treatment B Intake and output during the first 48 hours of therapy C Close observation after the initial dose until blood pressure stabilizes in 2 to 3 hours D Electrolyte studies every third day until stable in the normal range
C
A patient presents with new onset symptoms of Parkinson's disease. When obtaining the medication history, the nurse first determines the patient's use of which category of drugs? a.Anticholinergics b.Benzodiazepines c.Phenothiazines d.Succinimides
C
A patient states that he frequently gets a headache when he changes his nitroglycerin patch. How does the nurse respond? A "Your physician should increase the amount of medication you are taking." B "This medication should be stopped immediately." C "Nitrate induced headaches may be treated with acetaminophen." D "Ask your physician to prescribe a narcotic pain reliever."
C
A patient taking amitriptyline is experiencing blurred vision and constipation. How are these adverse reactions classified? a.Symptoms of cholinergic effects b.Tardive dyskinesia symptoms c.Anticholinergic effects d.Akathisia symptoms
C
A patient taking an MAOI reports a severe occipital headache, stiff neck, sweating, nausea, and vomiting. Which is the nurse's priority assessment? a.MAOI serum level b.White blood cell count c.Blood pressure d.Deep tendon reflexes
C
A patient who began taking levodopa (Larodopa) 2 weeks ago wants to know why he hasn't seen an improvement in his symptoms. What is the nurse's best response? a."We need to add another medication to your treatment regimen." b."If you have not seen improvement, the medication should be stopped." c."It may take up to 6 months for you to see improvement." d."We will need to increase the dosage of your levodopa."
C
A patient who is being treated for ascites resulting from liver disease is admitted. Which medication does the nurse anticipate will be ordered for this patient? A Mannitol (Osmitrol) B Furosemide (Lasix) C Spironolactone (Aldactone) D Acetazolamide (Diamox)
C
A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is prescribed aliskiren (Tekturna) for treatment of hypertension. The nurse plans to monitor the patient for which electrolyte imbalance? A Hypercalcemia B Hyperphosphatemia C Hyperkalemia D Hypernatremia
C
A patient with diabetes is started on phenytoin (Dilantin) for partial seizures. What does the nurse closely monitor in this individual? a.Blood pressure b.Hypoglycemia c.Hyperglycemia d.Weight loss
C
A patient with hypertension has suffered a heart attack. Which agent does the nurse anticipate will be ordered by the healthcare provider? A Angiotensin II receptor antagonists (ARB) B Diuretic C Beta-adrenergic blocker D Central acting alpha-2 agonists
C
Quinidine levels should be drawn how soon after quinidine is administered? A Immediately B Two hours later C Six hours later D Four hours later
C
The nurse is reviewing the medication history of a patient taking butabarbital (Butisol) for treatment of insomnia. The nurse contacts the prescriber after discovering the patient is also taking which medication? a.Nitroglycerin b.Digoxin (Lanoxin) c.Propranolol (Inderal) d.Penicillin
C
The nurse is teaching a patient about the correct use of nitroglycerin paste. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? A "I will have prescriptions filled at regular intervals so I will never have to discontinue the drug abruptly." B "I will not shave or use alcohol on the area of skin where I am going to apply the medication. C "I will choose a convenient site for application and use it consistently." D "I will follow the directions for 'daily time off the drug' carefully."
C
The nurse is teaching a patient about the use of transdermal nitroglycerin. Which statement by the patient indicates a correct understanding of the nurse's instructions? A "I will apply the disk to my waist." B "Therapeutic effects occur within 10 minutes after the attachment of the disk." C "If the disk becomes dislodged, I will replace it with a new disk." D "I will shave the area before applying the disk."
C
The patient is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) for prevention of venous thrombosis. The nurse includes which instruction in the patient's teaching plan? A "Eat plenty of green leafy vegetables." B "Use a safety razor for shaving." C "Use a soft bristled toothbrush to brush teeth." D "Limit fluid intake."
C
The patient undergoing heparin therapy has hematemesis, dark, tarry stools, tachycardia, and hypotension. Which drug would the nurse anticipate to be ordered? A Tinzaparin (Innohep) B Abciximab (ReoPro) C Protamine sulfate D Vitamin K
C
What does a patient taking colesevelam do to relieve constipation and bloating? A Takes the medication with an antacid B Increases the amount of exercise C Increases fluid and fiber intake D Takes the medication with meals
C
What is an advantage of using ethacrynic acid (Edecrin) over furosemide (Lasix) in patients with significant renal failure? A Ethacrynic acid conserves more magnesium than furosemide. B Ethacrynic acid conserves more potassium than furosemide. C Ethacrynic acid inhibits the reabsorption of sodium to a greater degree than furosemide. D Ethacrynic acid conserves more calcium than furosemide.
C
What is the advantage of beta-adrenergic blocking agents over other antihypertensive medications? A They manifest optimal and stable effects within 48 hours. B They can be safely used by people with asthma or diabetes. C They cause minimal orthostatic or exercise hypotension. D They are more effective in African American patients.
C
What is the expected effect of administering a vasodilator to a patient in acute heart failure? A Increase the excretion of sodium and water while decreasing pulmonary capillary congestion B Reduce preload through its adrenergic agonist effects C Decrease vascular resistance and the volume of blood returned to the heart D Increase the contractile force and output of the heart
C
What is the major advantage of using selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) over tricyclic antidepressants in the treatment of depression? a.SSRIs do not have interactive effects with other drugs. b.SSRIs do not have sedative or other central nervous system effects. c.SSRIs do not have anticholinergic or cardiovascular effects. d.SSRIs do not have a lag period before the full therapeutic effect occurs.
C
When evaluating the effectiveness of succinimides, for which factor does the nurse collect data? a.Presence or absence of muscle spasms b.Patient's sleep pattern c.Occurrence of petit mal seizures d.Large bowel function
C
When planning care for a patient receiving tricyclic antidepressants, which potential problem does the nurse consider? a.Hypernatremia b.Renal calculi c.Constipation d Gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding
C
When sildenafil (Viagra) and nitrates are taken together, what may a patient experience? A Significant coronary artery spasms B Decreased heart rate C A significant drop in blood pressure D Increased blood pressure
C
Which antiepileptic drug is effective for almost all forms of seizures? a.Phenytoin (Dilantin) b.Carbamazepine (Tegretol) c.Valproic acid (Depakene) d.Phenobarbital (Luminal)
C
Which assessment finding in a patient taking a sedative for insomnia concerns the nurse? a.The patient drinks two cups of coffee with breakfast. b.The patient reports a routine time at which he goes to bed. c.The patient has a decreased ability to perform activities of daily living. d.The patient has a regular exercise plan.
C
Which characteristic places a patient taking alprazolam (Xanax) at risk for excessive sedation and impaired psychomotor function? a.Marked obesity b.Exposure to sunlight c.Use of oral contraceptives d.Cigarette smoking
C
Which classification of antidysrhythmic agents represents the beta-adrenergic blocking agents? A Class Ia B Class III C Class II D Class IV
C
Which criterion meets a general treatment goal for patients with metabolic syndrome? A HDL level of 39 mg/dL B LDL level of 104 mg/dL C Blood pressure reading of 128/72 mm Hg D Fasting plasma glucose level of 138 mg/dL
C
Which disorder does the National Institute of Mental Health identify as the most commonly encountered mental disorder in clinical practice? a.Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) b.Schizophrenia c.Anxiety d.Depression
C
Which drug used in the treatment of seizures requires careful monitoring of renal function? a.Primidone (Mysoline) b.Lamotrigine (Lamictal) c.Carbamazepine (Tegretol) d.Valproic acid (Depakene)
C
Which herbal product has been used for the treatment of jet lag? a.St. John's wort b.Ginger c.Melatonin d.Ginseng
C
Which herbal supplement may decrease the therapeutic effects of digoxin (Lanoxin)? A Melatonin B Ginkgo biloba C St. John's wort D Flaxseed
C
Which information noted in a health history of a patient with atypical depression prevents the nurse from giving the prescribed monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) and requires consultation with the prescriber? a.Intolerance of dairy products b.Allergy to eggs c.Recurrent congestive heart failure d.Chronic seizures
C
Which instruction does the nurse give to a patient beginning lovastatin (Mevacor) therapy? A Take the medication at lunchtime when possible. B Use an over the counter (OTC) pain reliever as needed for muscle aches. C Do not drink grapefruit juice. D Return for weekly liver function tests.
C
Which medication given for Parkinson's disease may also have "neuroprotective" properties? a.Entacapone (Comtan) b.Apomorphine (Apokyn) c.Selegiline (Eldepryl) d.Diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl)
C
Which medication has the greatest effect on increasing high density lipoprotein (HDL) levels? A Pravastatin (Pravachol) B Gemfibrozil (Lopid) C Niacin D Ezetimibe (Zetia)
C
Which patient best illustrates the ceiling effect? a.Patient who requires a higher dose of medication to receive pain relief b.Patient who experiences lacrimation, runny nose, and perspiration c.Patient who receives an increasing dosage of medication and does not receive increased pain relief, but does experience an increased incidence of adverse effects d.Patient who cannot function properly without taking the opiate, even though he or she is not experiencing pain
C
Which serious adverse effect of cilostazol (Pletal) must be evaluated further by the healthcare provider? A Tingling of the hands and feet B Constipation C Palpitations D Increased urine output
C
Which statement best explains the action of digoxin (Lanoxin)? A Cardiac output is decreased B The heart rate is increased C Conduction through the atrioventricular (AV) node is increased D The force of contraction is increased
C
Which statement best explains the action of digoxin immune Fab (ovine) (Digibind) when being used for treatment of digoxin toxicity? A Digoxin immune Fab (ovine) increases the liver's metabolism of digoxin B Absorption of digoxin is blocked by binding digoxin immune Fab with digoxin in the stomach C Digoxin immune Fab binds with digoxin to form molecules that can be excreted in the urine D After administering digoxin immune Fab, first pass metabolism is increased
C
While monitoring a patient receiving an antidysrhythmic drug, which finding does the nurse report? A A diastolic pressure of less than 90 mm Hg B Difference of 8 mm Hg in systolic pressure between the right and left arms C Narrowing pulse pressure D Pulse deficit of 0
C
Which condition is dopamine commonly used to treat? (Select all that apply.) a.Stroke b.Asthma c.Shock d.Hypertension
C,D
Which antihypertensive agents fall into the adjunctive category? (Select all that apply.) A Beta-adrenergic blockers B Angiotensin II receptor antagonists (ARBs) C Direct vasodilators D Central acting alpha-2 agonists E Peripheral acting adrenergic antagonists
C,D,E
What are the preferred drug categories used to treat hypertension? (Select all that apply.) A Calcium channel blockers B ACE inhibitors C Beta-adrenergic blockers D Peripheral acting adrenergic agents E Diuretics
C,E
Which question must be answered before a 40 year old woman can begin statin therapy? A "Is there a family history of breast cancer?" B "Have you ever had a blood clot?" C "Are you pregnant?" D "Have you experienced any symptoms of menopause?"
C.
A patient has been prescribed amlodipine (Norvasc) for treatment of hypertension. The nurse contacts the prescriber after discovering that the patient is also taking which drug? A Tetracycline (Sumycin) B Milk of magnesia C Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) D Digoxin (Lanoxin)
D
A patient has been prescribed disopyramide (Norpace) for treatment of atrial fibrillation. Which instruction does the nurse include in the patient's teaching plan? A Obtain frequent eye exams B Wear long sleeved shirts when going outdoors C Limit fiber intake D Perform frequent mouth rinses
D
A patient is experiencing an acute anxiety reaction and has been ordered diazepam (Valium). The patient also reports nausea and vomiting. By which route does the nurse anticipate the diazepam will be ordered? a.Intradermally b.Subcutaneously c.Orally d.Intramuscularly
D
A patient is ordered IV furosemide (Lasix). The nurse administers this drug over how many minutes? A 5 to 7 B 4 to 5 C 1 to 2 D 2 to 4
D
A patient is prescribed adenosine (Adenocard) for treatment of paroxysmal supraventricluar tachycardia. For which common adverse effect does the nurse monitor the patient? A Insomnia B Constipation C Urinary retention D Facial flushing
D
A patient is prescribed amiloride (Midamor). The nurse monitors the patient for which adverse effect? A Anorexia B Hyperkalemia C Constipation D Hyperglycemia
D
A patient is prescribed hydroxyzine (Vistaril, Atarax) for anxiety. For which adverse effect does the nurse monitor the patient? A Insomnia b.Diarrhea c.Urinary retention d.Slurred speech
D
A patient taking a statin reports muscle aches and soreness. What about this symptom concerns the nurse? A The statin dose is too high if the patient is experiencing muscle pain. B Muscle aches and soreness are signs of toxicity, the patient should stop taking the medication. C Muscle aches and soreness are due to muscle breakdown, the patient should increase protein intake. D Muscle aches and soreness may be early signs of myopathy.
D
A patient taking labetalol (Normodyne) has also been prescribed procainamide (Procanbid). What symptom does the nurse monitor for in this patient? a.Seizures resulting from decreased sodium and potassium levels b.Tachycardia c.Increased blood pressure d.Bradycardia
D
A patient who has received an initial dose of an opiate partial agonist reports feeling clammy, dizzy, and nauseated. What does the nurse do next? a.Administers an antiemetic b.Gives a glass of orange juice or other glucose source c.Obtains an order for an antidote d.Has the patient rest in a supine position
D
Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is very similar to aspirin but lacks which property of aspirin? a.Analgesic b.Antinausea c.Antipyretic d.Anti-inflammatory
D
Before administering dalteparin (Fragmin), the nurse monitors which laboratory values? A C reactive protein (CRP) B Homocysteine (HCY) C Erythropoietin (EPO) D Complete blood count (CBC)
D
For which adult patient does the nurse hold an order for an opioid agonist? a.Patient who is experiencing constipation from opioid use b.Patient who continually reports pain although there are no physical symptoms c.Patient whose pulse rate is 75 d.Patient whose respiratory rate is 10
D
For which adverse effect will the nurse monitor a patient receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) because it can precipitate digitalis toxicity? A Hypernatremia B Hypercalcemia C Hypermagnesemia D Hypokalemia
D
Hydroxyzine (Vistaril) is ordered for a postoperative patient. Which outcome indicates that the drug is effective? a.Urinary output is more than 60 mL/hr. b.Blood pressure is stable at less than 140 systolic. c.The patient turns, coughs, and deep breathes as directed. d.Sips of water are tolerated without vomiting.
D
In which patient is carbamazepine (Tegretol) contraindicated? a.Patient with an ulcer b.Patient with diabetes mellitus c.Patient with new onset of seizures d.Patient with chronic hepatitis B
D
Patients with which condition are carefully monitored for exacerbation of their disease process when taking flecainide acetate (Tambocor)? A Hypertension B Hyperthyroidism C Type 2 diabetes D Preexisting heart failure
D
The nurse administering IV furosemide (Lasix) to a patient anticipates that diuresis will occur in how many minutes? A 10 to 15 B 15 to 20 C 1 to 5 D 5 to 10
D
The nurse discovers that a patient taking sertraline (Zoloft) has also started taking St. John's wort. What action does the nurse take? a.Documents it in the patient's medication record b.Has the patient take the St. John's wort between doses of sertraline c.Assesses the patient for signs of renal failure d.Explains the risk of serotonin syndrome and encourages the patient to stop taking St. John's wort
D
The nurse finds that a patient has an obstructed central venous catheter. Which drug does the nurse administer to reopen the catheter? A Aminocaproic acid (Amicar) B Warfarin (Coumadin) C Eptifibatide (Integrilin) D Alteplase (tPA)
D
The nurse is instructing a patient about management of hyperlipidemia. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching? A "It is important for me to learn as much as possible about my medications." B "It is important to increase how much exercise I get." C "Regular blood tests will indicate if my lifestyle changes and therapy are working to lower my cholesterol." D "By taking my antilipemic medication, I will not need to modify my diet."
D
The nurse teaches a patient taking a potassium-sparing diuretic to avoid ingesting which item? A Orange juice B Black pepper C Additional salt in food D Salt substitute
D
The primary healthcare provider is teaching a patient with peripheral vascular disease about the dosage and administration of pentoxifylline (Trental). Which statement made by the patient indicates a need for further education? A "I should take the medication for at least 8 weeks." B "I should take a 400-mg dose three times a day." C "I should reduce the dosage to 400 mg twice a day if gastrointestinal effects occur." D "I should reduce the dosage to 400 mg once a day if gastrointestinal effects persist."
D
What information does the nurse provide to a patient taking entacapone (Comtan)? a.Many patients experience hyperactivity, which will decrease over time. b.Constipation is a common adverse effect with entacapone and should be treated with an over the counter stool softener. c.Some patients may experience unusually high blood pressure, requiring alteration of their medication if taking antihypertensives. d.Entacapone may change the color of urine to brownish orange.
D
What is the first clinical manifestation of developing digoxin toxicity for which the nurse monitors in children? A Atrial dysrhythmias B Ventricular dysrhythmias C Increased urine output D High blood pressure
D
What laboratory value does the nurse monitor in a patient taking milrinone (Primacor)? A Electrolyte levels B Sedimentation rate C Creatinine D Platelet levels
D
What supplemental vitamins may be required for patients taking bile acid-sequestering resins? A Vitamins C, B6, and B12 B All B vitamins C Water soluble vitamins D Fat soluble vitamins
D
When planning care for a patient taking antipsychotic drug therapy, what is the nurse's priority goal? a.To prevent side effects of the medication b.To monitor for hallucinations c.To establish a consistent sleep wake cycle d.To promote adherence to the medication regimen
D
When planning the administration of ethacrynic acid (Edecrin), which factor must the nurse consider? A Oral doses must be given on an empty stomach. B For intravenous (IV) administration, the drug must be mixed with 0.9% saline only. C Maintenance doses need to be given between 7:00 AM and 7:00 PM. D During IV administration, narrowed pulse pressure must be reported.
D
Which antihypertensive medication is more effective in African Americans and older adult patients? A ACE II inhibitors B ACE inhibitors C Beta blockers D Calcium channel blockers
D
Which benzodiazepine is long acting and places a patient at greater risk for a morning hangover? a.Triazolam (Halcion) b.Midazolam (Versed) c.Temazepam (Restoril) d.Flurazepam (Dalmane)
D
Which measurement is the best indicator of how well an antiseizure medication is working? a.Urinary output b.Liver enzymes c.Serum drug levels d.Frequency and duration of seizures
D
Which statement about metabolic syndrome is true? A Treatment requires a generalized approach. B Medications are a required part of treatment. C Drinking alcohol may delay the onset of metabolic syndrome. D Weight loss and increased physical activity are usually the first steps of treatment.
D
Which statement about nitrates is true? A Nitrates work best when used alone and are not combined with other medications. B The risk of developing tolerance with the continued use of nitrates is minimal. C One of the primary therapeutic outcomes from nitrate therapy is that it prevents myocardial infarction. D Nitroglycerin is currently the drug of choice for treating angina pectoris.
D
Which statement regarding drug therapy for peripheral vascular disease is true? A Clopidogrel (Plavix) and vorapaxar (Zontivity) are used to treat Raynaud's disease. B Pentoxifylline (Trental) is a platelet aggregation inhibitor. C Pentoxifylline (Trental) has great success in the treatment of peripheral vascular disease. D Cilostazol (Pletal) is approved for the treatment of intermittent claudication.
D
there is no interaction between these two medications b.Within 10 days of discontinuing the MAOI c.Within 5 days of discontinuing the MAOI d.At least 14 days after discontinuing the MAOI
D
The nurse instructs a patient taking an MAOI to avoid which food? a.Orange juice b.Egg salad sandwiches c.Ice cream d.Grilled cheese sandwiches
D .
A patient who has been on meprobamate (Miltown) for 6 weeks reports a racing heart with skipped beats when the nurse brings the next dose of medication. What does the nurse do next? a.Calls the prescriber and requests an increase in medication dose b.Administers the medication and documents the patient's symptoms in the medical record c.Reassesses the patient in 30 to 60 minutes, and gives the drug if the symptoms have subsided d.Withholds the medication and reports the symptoms to the prescriber
D .
Which activities are important to improve cardiovascular function? (Select all that apply.) a Maintaining body weight in adults within a BMI range of 18 to 25 kg/m2 b Maintaining daily maximum caloric levels based on height, weight, and gender c Increasing physical activity d Decreasing HDL levels e Reducing job related stress
a,b,c,e
What are the key characteristics found in individuals who have been diagnosed with metabolic syndrome? (Select all that apply.) A Hypertriglyceridemia B Type 1 diabetes mellitus C Type 2 diabetes mellitus D Generalized obesity E Abdominal Obesity
a,c,e
