pharmacology module 1 study questions
drop
gtt
4 times a day
qid
true or false: illegible prescriber's handwriting is a major contributor to transcription errors
t
compare and contrast t.i.d. and q.8h administration times. Include sample administration times for each in your explanation
the abbreviation tid means 3 times a day with no specific interval between times. an attempt is made to give the 3 doses during waking hours. the abbreviation q.8h means every 8 hours. these doses would be given around the clock at 8 hour intervals. administration times for tid might be 0800, 1200, 1200 administration times for q8h might be 0600, 1400, 2200
what are the three steps of medication administration?
prescription, transcription, administration
cite four of the direct and/or indirect costs of medication errors
pt injury loss of life increase health care costs additional technology expenses to prevent error liability defense increased length of stay harm to the nurse involved in regard to his or her personal and professional status, confidence and practice
every 3 hours
q3h
identify one common "workaround" known to lead to drug administration errors during the use of an automated dispensing cabinet (ADC)
removing medication for more than one patient at a time from the ADC
what are the six rights of safe medication administration?
right patient right drug right amount right route right time right documentation
subcutaneous
subcut
teaspoon
t
true or false: 10% to 18% of patients injuries are attributable to preventable medication errors
t
true or false: administering a drug late is a frequently underreported medication error
t
State the Six Rights of safe and accurate medication administration
the right patient must receive the right drug in the right amount by the right route at the right time, follow by the right documentation
tid
three times a day
true or false: the nurse who administers a drug based on an incorrect or unsafe order share legal liability for patient injury that results from that drug
true
0.25 L
twenty five hundredths of a liter
0.25 mg
twenty five hundredths of a milligram
bid
twice a day
2 T
two tablespoons
s
without
to ensure the accuracy of the order, what nursing action should you implement following the receipt of a verbal or telephone order from a licensed prescribing practitioner?
write down the order on the pt's chart or enter it into the computer record, read the order back, get confirmation from the prescriber that it is correct Before administering the medication, verify the safety of the order by consulting a reputable drug reference if you are unfamiliar with the order
describe a nursing action to prevent medication errors when receiving verbal drug orders
write out the order, read it back, get confirmation from the prescriber
pr
per rectum
a pt is told to take 1/2 t of a medication. what is the equivalent dose amount in milliliters?
2.5
with
c
who determines the medication administration times?
hospital or institutional policy
350 mcg _____ mg ______ g
0.35 0.00035
one half milliliter
0.5 mL
six tenths gram
0.6 g
which of the following medical notations is (are) written in the recommended format? 0.75 mg .2 cm q.d.
0.75 mg
1.2 g _____ mg ______ mcg
1,200 1,200,000
one half fluid ounce
1/2 fl oz
38 degrees Celsius is equivalent to how many degrees Fahrenheit?
100.4
11.59 kg ________ g ________ lb
11,590 25.5 or 25 1/2
4 T _______ t _______ mL
12 60
5 fl oz ______ mL ______ L
150 0.15
a pt is being treated for an infection with two 250 mg tablets of cephalexin 4x daily for 10 days. how many grams will he receive in the total dose amount over 10 days?
20
8:03 am in military time
2003
11:35 pm in military time
2335
two hundred fifty thousand units
250,000 units
56 oz _______ lb _______ kg
3.5 or 3 1/2 1.59
101.5 degrees F is equivalent to how many degrees Celsius?
38.6
four teaspoons
4 t
qid
4 times a day
your pt drinks the following for breakfast: 3 fl oz orange juice, 8 fl oz coffee with 1 fl oz cream and 4 fl oz water. your pt's total fluid intake is _________ mL
480
56.2 mm ______ cm ______ in
5.62 2.25 or 2 1/4
1844 in traditional time
6:44 pm
198 lb ______ kg ______ g
90 90,000
37.2 degrees Celsius is equivalent to how many degrees Fahrenheit?
99
using the joint commission's official "do not use" list, correct the notations in the following medication order: NPRH insulin 20.0 U SC qd
NPH insulin 20 units SC daily
under the tongue
SL
heparin 5,000 units subcut stat
give 5000 units of heparin subcutaneously immediately
before
a
what strategy is most effective in reducing Medication errors? a. partnership between the patient and health care providers b. double checking insulin dosage c. checking medications three times d. safe use of prescribing, dispensing and recording technologies e. strict adherence to the ISMP's List of error-prone abbreviations, symbols and dose designations
a
Toadol 60 mg IV stat et q6h prn, pain
give 60 milligrams of toradol intravenously immediately and every 6 hours when necessary for pain
p
after
pc
after meals
Safe medication administration requires that you check the drug against the order three times. 1. when you first make contact with the drug 2. when you measure it 3.
after preparing the drug, just prior to administration
ad lib
as desired, freely
prn
as needed
ac
before meals
twice daily
bid
po
by mouth
describe your action if no method of administration is written
contact the physician for clarification
which of the following statements is/are true? a. statistics show that 5% of all hospital injuries are attributable to medication errors b. according to the institute of medicine, most medication errors occur during the administration step of the medication process c. a nurse with more experience and education is less likely to make medication errors d. medication delivery process involves how many individuals and departments e. c and d
d
q4h
every 4 hours
true or false: studies indicate that nurses' education and years of practice are closely correlated to the incidence of medication errors
f
when should the nurse perform drug label checks?
first contact with drug, when measuring the dosage, just prior to administration
4 gtt
four drops
gram
g
digoxin 0.25 mg po daily
give 0.25 milligram of digoxin orally every day
digoxin 0.25 mg po daily
give 0.25 milligram of digoxin orally once a day
Ativan 10 mg IM q. 4h prn, agitation
give 10 milligrams of Ativan intramuscularly every 4 hours as necessary for agitation
Mylanta 10 mL po pc et bedtime
give 10 milliliters of Mylanta orally after meals and at bedtime
morphine sulfate 15 mg IM q.3h prn, pain
give 15 milligrams of morphine sulfate intramuscularly every 3 hours as needed for pain
nitroglycerin 150 mcg SL stat
give 150 micrograms sublingually immediately
furosemide 20 mg slow IV stat
give 20 milligrams of furosemide intravenously slowly immediately
Synthroid 25 mcg po daily
give 25 micrograms of Synthoid orally once a day
librium 25 mg po q6h prn, agitation
give 25 milligrams of librium orally every 6 hours wehn necessary for agitation
naproxen 250 mg po bid
give 250 milligrams of naproxen orally 2 times a day
tetracycline 250 mg po qid
give 250 milligrams of tetracycline orally 4 times a day
Humulin N NPH insulin 30 units subcut daily 30 a breakfast
give 30 units of Humulin N NPH insulin subcutaneously every day 30 minutes before breakfast
procaine penicillin G 300,000 units IV qid
give 300,000 units of procaine penicillin G intravenously 4 times a day
decadron 4 mg IV bid
give 4 milligrams of decadron intravenously twice a day
lasix 40 mg IM stat
give 40 milligrams of lasix intramuscularly immediately
morphine sulfate 5 mg IV q4h prn, moderate to severe pain
give 5 milligrams of mophine sulfate intravenously every 4 hours when necessary for moderate to severe pain
Mylanta 5 mL po 1 h pc, bedtime, et q2h prn at noct, gastric upset
give 5 milliliters of Mylanta orally 1 hour before and 1 hour after meals, at bedtime and every 2 hours as needed at night for gastric upset
cefaclor 500 mg po stat, then 250 mg q.8h
give 500 milligrams of cefactor orally immediately, and then give 250 milligrams every 8 hours
stat
immediately
Neo-Synephrine opthalmic 10% 2 gtt left eye q.30min X2
instil 2 drops of 10% neo synephrine ophthalmic solution in the left eye every 30 minutes for 2 applications
atropine sulfate ophthalmic 1% 2 gtt right eye q. 15 min X 4
instill 2 drops of 1% atropine sulfate ophthalmic in the right eye every 15 minutes for 4 applications
Cortisporin otic suspension 2 gtt each ear tid et bedtime
instill 2 drops of Cortisporin otic suspension in both ears 3 times a day and at bedtime
name 4 drugs or drug categories that have the highest risk of causing injuries when errors are made. how are the drugs designated?
insulin, opiates, and narcotics, injectable potassium chloride, and intravenous anticoagulants; high alert medications
IM
intramuscular
IV
intravenously
kilogram
kg
milliliter
mL
a full term infant that weighs less that 2,5000 g at birth is considered small for gestational age (SGA). would a full term infant with a birth weight of 6 lb 4 oz be SGA?
no
do q.i.d. and q.4 have the same meaning? explain
no qid orders are given 4 times in 24 hours with no specific interval between times indicated in order, typically during waking hours; wheras q.4h orders are given 6 times in 24 hours at 4 hour interval
night
noct
where are the two barcodes located that are scanned during medication administration?
on the pt identification band and on the medication
125 mcg
one hundred twenty five micrograms
which parts of the written medication prescription/order are included in the original Five Rights of medication administration?
parts 1-5: patient's name, drug, dosage, route, frequency
"the right ___________ must receive the right ___________ in the right __________ by the right ___________ at the right __________ followed by the right _____________"
patient, drug, amount, route, time, documentation
name the seven parts of a written medication prescription
patient, drug, dosage, route, frequency, date and time written, signature of physician/presciber
give two examples of acceptable patient identification according to the Joint Commission, using two unique person-specific identifiers
patients name and date of birth, patient name and ID number
after meals
pc