PN Lesson 2 Safety and Infection Control
The parents of a toddler ask, "How long will our child have to sit in a car seat when riding in a car?" What would be the best response by the nurse? A. "Whenever the child is content to sit in a booster seat." B. "When the child is 50 inches tall." C. "Until the child is about 2 years-old." D. "When the child weighs 40 pounds."
C. "Until the child is about 2 years-old." The American Academy of Pediatrics now recommends that infants and toddlers remain in rear-facing car safety seats until age 2 years (or when they physically outgrow the limits of the seat.) They can then transition to sitting in belt-positioning booster seats when they have reached about 4 feet 9 inches tall and are between 8 to 12 years-old. Children under age 13 years should ride in the back seat of the car.
A school nurse plans to reinforce information about the most effective methods to prevent the spread of head lice in school-age children when speaking at a teacher's conference. The nurse should plan to include which information? A. The classroom should be sprayed with an insecticide before winter and spring vacations B. The heads of children should be checked monthly for nits (lice eggs) C. Children should not share or wear other children's coats, hats and scarves D. Each child should wash his or her hands after recess break
C. Children should not share or wear other children's coats, hats and scarves Lice can be spread easily by sharing hats, combs, scarves, coats and other items of clothing that touch the hair on the head. Insecticide spraying will not affect head lice and checking their heads monthly is not necessary. Washing hands after recess is a good idea, but will have no impact on the spread of head lice.
The nurse is setting up a client's dinner tray. When the nurse turns her back to the client, the client grabs the nurse's buttocks and states he is hungry for much more than dinner. Which of the following responses by the nurse is indicated? A. Quickly leave the room and ask the UAP to assist the client B. Ignore the behavior C. Complete an incident report D. Call the health care provider
C. Complete an incident report To keep the therapeutic relationship intact, a nurse needs to set limits on appropriate behavior and not ignore bad behavior. Sexual harassment is a form of violence and is never part of the job. The nurse should report the incident to her supervisor and complete an incident report. The nurse has the right to ask not to be assigned to this client.
The health care team is planning discharge for a 90 year-old client diagnosed with musculoskeletal weakness. Which intervention would be the priority to help prevent falls in the home? A. Take calcium and vitamin D supplements B. Wear eyeglasses and hearing aid C. Place night lights in the bedroom and bathroom D. Begin therapy for muscle strengthening and balance
C. Place night lights in the bedroom and bathroom Family members and the client should understand the simple actions they can take to help prevent falls in the home. More falls occur in the bedroom than in any other location; a simple environmental change would be to add night lights in the bedroom and bathroom. Muscle strengthening and balance exercises, taking calcium and wearing glasses may be all indicated for this client, but using night lights is an immediate and effective action to help prevent falls.
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with hepatitis C. When reviewing the client's health history, which of the following findings does the nurse recognize as the most likely cause for developing hepatitis C? A. Recent travel to Central America B. Getting a tattoo three months ago at a licensed tattoo parlor C. Receiving blood product transfusions prior to 1992 D. Eating raw shellfish last week
C. Receiving blood product transfusions prior to 1992 The client who was transfused prior to blood screening for hepatitis C (1992) may show findings of hepatitis C many years later. Raw shellfish ingestion and travel to foreign countries with poor sewage control can increase the risk of developing hepatitis A, but not hepatitis C. Most commercial tattoo parlors are licensed and follow standard safety precautions, so the likely cause of developing hepatitis B or C after a tattoo or a piercing is very low.
The nurse is discussing safety precautions with the parents of a child. Which activity would be most hazardous to an 18 month-old child? A. Playing around electrical outlets B. Eating whole peanuts C. Riding in a car D. Jumping on a bed
C. Riding in a car Car accidents are a leading cause of death in infants and children, as well as a major cause of permanent brain damage and spinal cord injury. Although all the other options pose a danger to young children, drowning is actually the second most common cause of accidental death among children.
A 76 year-old client is admitted to the unit after reportedly falling at home. The client begins to seize and loses consciousness. What action by the nurse is appropriate to do next? A. Collect pillows and pad the side rails of the bed B. Place an oral airway in the mouth and suction the mouth C. Stay with client and observe for airway obstruction D. Announce a cardiac arrest and assist with intubation
C. Stay with client and observe for airway obstruction For the client's safety, the client should not be left unattended. The nurse must remain at the bedside, observe respirations and type of seizure activity, and prepare to clear the airway if it's obstructed. The nurse should not not place anything in the client's mouth. A code is called only if pulse or respirations are absent after the seizure.
The 4 year-old needs to have several vaccines prior to starting kindergarten. However, the nurse determines that the MMR vaccine should not be given. What is the best reason why the MMR should not be given to this child? A. Known allergy to peanuts B. The child is too old for the second dose of the MMR C. Low-grade temperature and a runny nose D. Previous life-threatening allergic reaction to the antibiotic neomycin
D. Previous life-threatening allergic reaction to the antibiotic neomycin According to the CDC, if a person has experienced a life-threatening reaction to the antibiotic neomycin or gelatin s/he should not get the MMR. Vaccines can be given to children with mild cold symptoms, but it might be better to wait until they feel better. There is no relationship between the MMR and an allergy to peanuts. The CDC recommends administering the first MMR between 12 and 15 months and the second dose between 4 to 6 years of age.
T or F - You should quickly remove contaminated clothing by pulling it over your head.
F - Contaminated clothing should be removed quickly, but it should be cut off instead of pulled over your head. Place contaminated clothing inside a plastic bag, seal the bag and then place inside another plastic bag.
T or F - Restraints can be ordered "as needed" (PRN) by health care providers.
F - Health care providers are required to specify the duration and circumstances for which restraints are required and for how they should be used. Nurses and HCP's must frequently monitor clients to reassess for the continued need for restraints.
T or F - Hands can be cleaned with an alcohol-based hand rub after caring for a client with Clostridium difficile (CDI).
F - Normally, hands can be decontaminated with an alcohol-based hand rub when they are not visibly soiled. However, alcohol does not kill C. difficile spores. Using soap and water for hand hygiene is recommended after caring for a client with CDI.
STIs
gonorrhea, chlamydia, syphilis, genital herpes, chancroid, AIDS, genital warts
The mother of an infant who is being treated for pesticide poisoning asks, "Why is activated charcoal used?" What is an appropriate response by the nurse? A. "This liquid causes vomiting, which eliminates the poison from the body." B. "Activated charcoal binds with the poison to limit absorption from the digestive tract." C. "When it is absorbed into the blood stream, activated charcoal neutralizes the poison." D. "Activated charcoal stimulates bowel evacuation."
B. "Activated charcoal binds with the poison to limit absorption from the digestive tract." Activated charcoal binds to the poison through the entire GI tract; it is estimated that it reduces absorption by almost 60%. Activated charcoal is a fine, black powder that is odorless, tasteless, and nontoxic. It is often used after gastric lavage in the emergency treatment of certain kinds of poisoning.
The nurse is attending an in-service about healthcare-associated infections (HAIs). Which factor is identified as the most common cause of HAIs in the acute care setting? A. Existence of an intravenous access device B. Presence of an indwelling urinary catheter C. Decreased mobility for a week or longer D. Inadequate fluid intake over 72 hours
B. Presence of an indwelling urinary catheter Catheter-associated urinary tract infections is the most common HAI in the acute care hospital setting. Surgical site infections, bloodstream infections and pneumonia are the other categories of infections.
The nurse observes a nursing assistant using antiseptic hand rub and rubbing the hands vigorously after leaving the room of a client diagnosed with Clostridium difficile. Which action is most appropriate by the nurse? A. Tell the client to ask caregivers if they have washed their hands B. Require the nursing assistant to wash hands again with soap and water C. Ensure that visitors wash hands thoroughly before and after visiting D. Praise the nursing assistant for proper use of antiseptic hand rub
B. Require the nursing assistant to wash hands again with soap and water Praise the nursing assistant for proper use of antiseptic hand rub Anyone who is hospitalized should be encouraged to ask caregivers if they washed their hands and to remind visitors to wash their hands. However, it is the nurse's responsibility to supervise the nurse assistant and to correct practice errors as needed. Clostridium difficile (C. diff) is one of the few pathogens that require soap and water for cleansing the hands. Since antiseptic hand rub is ineffective against the hardy spores produced by this bacterium, the nurse should require the nursing assistant to wash his/her hands with soap and water, especially after providing care for this client.
A client is admitted to an inpatient crisis unit with the diagnosis of acute mania and has been placed in seclusion. The nurse is assigned to observe the client at all times. It is now time for the client's dinner. What action should the nurse take next? A. Accompany the client to the dining area and maintain observation B. Serve the dinner in the seclusion room, maintaining observation C. Hold the meal until after the seclusion order has been discontinued D. Obtain a contract for safe behavior before accompanying the client to the dining area
B. Serve the dinner in the seclusion room, maintaining observation Seclusion is ordered by a physician and requires continuous observation, unless the order is discontinued or amended. It is incorrect to amend the seclusion or mealtime. Meals can be eaten in the seclusion room with the nurse continuing the 1:1 observation. Meals must be offered on time and should not be withheld. Contracts for safe behavior are meaningless in the presence of psychotic behavior (mania).
During a 12-hour night shift, the nurse has a "near miss" and catches an error before giving a new medication. Which statement might explain the reason for the near miss? (Select all that apply.) A. The nurse has worked on the same unit for 5 years B. The nurse works in the intensive care unit (ICU) C. The unit is short-staffed D. The nurse is interrupted when preparing the medication E. The nurse is sleep-deprived
BCDE - There are a number of reasons for near misses and making medication errors, including heavy workload and inadequate staffing, distractions, interruptions, and inexperience. Fatigue and sleep loss are also factors, especially for nurses working in units with high acuity clients.
Sarin (GB) nerve gas
human-made chemical warfare agent clear, colorless, tasteless liquid that can evaporate into a odorless gas extremely toxic, acts very quickly breaks down the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which results in excessive concentrations of acetylcholine in nerve synapses and leads to overstimulation of parasympathetic nerves in the smooth muscles impairs normal functioning of nervous system can cause seizures, loss of consciousness, and respiratory failure in minutes exposure via inhalation, ingestion, and/or absorption through eyes and skin clinical indications of exposure low to moderate doses: runny nose, watery eyes, blurred vision, drooling, cough and chest tightness, diarrhea, drowsiness, weakness, headache, changes in heart rate and blood pressure large doses: loss of consciousness, seizures, paralysis, respiratory failure post-exposure treatment antidotes: soldiers typically have a antidote kit containing these two medications atropine (Atropine): binds to one type of acetylcholine receptor on the post-synaptic nerve pralidoxime chloride (2-PAM chloride): blocks sarin from binding to any free acetylcholinesterase decontaminate before transport to treatment facility flush eyes first for 15 minutes remove clothing (without pulling over the head) and shower with soap and large amounts of water or 0.5 % solution of sodium hypochlorite (bleach), or use absorbent powders such as flour or talcum powder do not induce vomiting if swallowed; administer activated charcoal note: can contaminate rescuers by direct contact or off-gassing vapor of contaminated skin or clothing supportive measures: maintain airway, assist ventilation, and protect client; administer diazepam for seizure activity
Sulfur mustard or mustard gas
human-made chemical warfare agent powerful irritant and blistering agent that damages the skin, eyes, and respiratory tract damages DNA may smell like garlic, onions, or mustard effects of sulfur mustard usually last 1 to 2 days in environment, but can be present for weeks to months in a cold climate rarely fatal but potentially long term health effects exposure to a vapor (released into the air), an oily-textured liquid (released into the water), or to a solid form clinical indications of exposure skin: redness and itching immediately after exposure eventually resulting in yellow blistering eyes: irritation, pain, swelling, and tearing with mild to moderate exposure; severe exposure can cause light sensitivity, pain, or blindness lasting up to 10 days respiratory tract: runny nose, sneezing, hoarseness, bloody nose, sinus pain, shortness of breath, and cough digestive tract: abdominal pain, diarrhea, fever, nausea, vomiting post exposure treatment: remove sulfur mustard from the body antidote: none shower with soap or wash with soap and running water thoroughly; flush eyes with running water for 15 minutes but do not cover eyes with bandages inhalation: leave area of exposure; get fresh air, provide oxygen, and support breathing
Respiratory infections
influenza, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, pharyngitis, scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, pneumonia
CNS infections
meningitis, encephalitis, brain abscess
Strychnine
the primary natural source: the plant Strychnos nux vomica a strong poison; typically used to kill rats white, odorless, bitter crystalline powder very small amount able to cause extremely serious adverse effects impairs functioning of neurotransmitters resulting in severe, painful muscle spasms without affecting consciousness exposure injection (mixed with street drugs) ingestion (food or water contamination) inhalation (release into air, smoked or snorted in street drugs) clinical indications of strychnine poisoning initially or with low level exposure: apprehension, agitation, painful muscle spasms the client is conscious and in extreme pain later findings or high level exposure: uncontrollable arching of back and neck, hyperreflexia and muscle twitches, rigid extremities, seizures, difficulty breathing, brain death post exposure treatment: most victims die of asphyxia before reaching the hospital no specific antidote exits decontaminate in area outside of treatment area remove clothing; do not pull anything over the head to remove using large amounts of water, shower with soap or wash with soap and running water flush eyes with running water for 15 minutes do not induce vomiting or give fluids to drink supportive care IV fluid resuscitation cooling therapy for fever anticonvulsants (diazepam, phenytoin, Phenobarbital), antispasmodic agents and muscle relaxants
Viral hemorrhagic fever (VHF)
used to describe a severe multisystem syndrome caused by four different families of viruses, including arenaviruses, filoviruses, bunyaviruses, and flaviviruses the vascular system is damaged and the body's ability to regulate itself is impaired usually accompanied by hemorrhage, but this is not the life-threatening aspect of these diseases disease states include: Ebola, Marburg, yellow fever, Argentine hemorrhagic fever Ebola is still limited to parts of Africa; A hemorrhagic rash appears over entire body the viruses are zoonotic, residing in and totally dependent on their animal hosts an animal reservoir host, e.g., rodents arthropod vector, e.g., ticks, mosquitoes clinical indications of VHF initially: high fever, muscle aches, weakness severe disease: subcutaneous and internal bleeding, bleeding from body orifices; shock, delirium, seizures, and coma treatment: supportive therapy no effective treatment or cure vaccine: vaccines only for yellow fever and Argentine hemorrhagic fever
potassium iodide (KI):
used to prevent absorption of radioiodine in the thyroid gland
A practical nurse (PN) is having difficulty reading a health care provider's written order from the prior shift. What action should the nurse take? A. Ask the registered nurse (RN) to notify the health care provider for clarification B. Call the pharmacy for assistance in the interpretation C. Contact the manager to report the problem with the legibility of the order D. Leave the order for the oncoming staff to follow up or interpret
A. Ask the registered nurse (RN) to notify the health care provider for clarification The nurse should clarify the order with the person who wrote the illegible or confusing order. If the PN reports to an RN, then the RN should obtain written clarification. In some states PNs may write verbal or telephone orders and in other states this is not allowed by the state's nurse practice act.
The client, who is diagnosed with dementia, wanders throughout the long-term care facility. How can the nurse best ensure the safety of a client who wanders? A. Attach a monitoring band to the client's wrist B. Apply a restraint to keep the client in a chair when awake C. Explain the risk of walking with no purpose D. Frequently reorient the client to time, person and place
A. Attach a monitoring band to the client's wrist A wander management system is used to give people with dementia and other "at risk" clients the ability to move freely where they live. The sensor in the bracelet trips an alarm that's attached to exterior doors if the client attempts to leave the facility. It is inappropriate to use restraints or other restrictive devices to keep clients in chairs or beds (unless they are potentially harmful to themselves or others.) Reality orientation is inappropriate for someone with dementia.
A child is admitted with a diagnosis of suspected meningococcal meningitis. Which admission orders should the nurse implement first? A. Droplet precautions B. Notify of changes in neurologic status C. Monitor and record vital signs every 30 minutes D. Seizure precautions
A. Droplet precautions Meningococcal meningitis is an infection caused by the bacteria Neisseria meningitis. The first action for nurses to take is to initiate droplet precautions. The initial therapeutic management of acute bacterial meningitis includes droplet precautions, anti-infective therapy (a cephalosporin or penicillin), monitor neurological status along with vital signs, institute seizure precautions, and maintain optimum hydration.
Parents of a 7 year-old child call a clinic nurse because their child was sent home from school due to a rash. The child, seen the day before by the health care provider, was diagnosed with fifth disease (erythema infectiosum) and is otherwise in good health. What would be the appropriate action by the nurse? A. Explain that this rash is no longer contagious and does not require isolation B. Tell the parents to bring the child to the clinic for further evaluation C. Inform the school that the child is receiving antibiotics for the rash D. Refer the school officials to printed materials about this viral illness
A. Explain that this rash is no longer contagious and does not require isolation Fifth disease is a viral illness with an uncertain period of communicability (perhaps one week prior to and one week after the onset). Children are not contagious after the appearance of the rash, which gives a "slapped cheek" appearance. Isolation of the child with fifth disease is not necessary except in cases of hospitalized children who are immunosuppressed or having aplastic crises. The parents may need written confirmation of this from the health care provider to give to the school. Notice that two of the options focus on the content of this question (a rash); the other options do not. Note the word "antibiotics" in one option, but there is nothing in the question to indicate there's an "infection."
Four clients are admitted to an adult medical unit on the same shift. The nurse should expect to implement airborne precautions for the client with which of the following diagnoses? A. Positive Mantoux test with an abnormal chest x-ray B. Advanced carcinoma of the lung C. Confirmed AIDS with cytomegalovirus (CMV) D. Suspected viral pneumonia
A. Positive Mantoux test with an abnormal chest x-ray The client who must be placed in airborne precautions is the client with a positive Mantoux test (also called PPD) and an abnormal chest film because these could be suspicious tuberculin lesions. The client would be placed in a private room. Health care workers would have to use a HEPA filter respirator when in the room providing care for the client. Although the CMV virus is not highly communicable, it can be spread from person to person by direct contact; the virus is shed in the urine, saliva, semen and to other body fluids.
The nurse listens to the report about a newly admitted client who has a skin ulcer that's tested positive for MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus). What precautions must be taken for this hospitalized client? (Select all that apply.) A. Keep the door to the room closed, with a notice for visitors B. Perform hand hygiene after direct contact with the client and before leaving the room C. Place the client in a single room D. Keep all equipment in the client's room for his/her sole use E. Wear mask when providing routine care to the client
ABCD - Contact precautions are recommended in acute care settings for MRSA when there's a risk for transmission or wounds that cannot be contained by dressings. The client should be in a single room, with the door closed; the sign on the door instructs visitors to report to the nurse before entering the room. All equipment, such as stethoscopes and blood pressure devices, should be for the client's sole use and kept in the room. Health care workers must perform hand hygiene (wash hands with soap and water) after direct contact with the client and his/her environment and before leaving the isolation room. Contact precautions require health care workers to wear gloves and a gown; a face mask is not necessary for routine care.
Which situation requires handwashing or hand sanitation? (Select all that apply.) A. After cleaning a wound B. After contact with inanimate objects in the immediate vicinity of the client C. Prior to eating D. Before having direct contact with a client E. After making a chart entry
ABCD - Handwashing is still the simplest and most effective strategy to prevent the spread of infection. It is necessary to wash one's hands to protect oneself prior to eating, after removing gloves following any client procedure, and even after having contact with intact skin or objects in the client's room. However, it is not necessary to wash hands after handling every chart (although using an alcohol-based hand rub would be advisable).
Acute Bacterial or Viral Gastroenteritis
salmonella, gastroenteritis, viral hepatitis, Clostridium difficile
Anthrax
causative agent: Bacillus anthracis exposure: integumentary system (most common): direct skin contact with spores; in nature, contact with infected animals or animal products respiratory tract: inhalation gastrointestinal system: eating undercooked or raw infected dairy products oropharyngeal exposed individuals do not spread infection clinical indicators of anthrax infection: symptoms can appear within 7 days of coming in contact with the bacterium for all types of anthrax skin: localized itching followed by papular lesions that turns vesicular; becomes black eschar after 7 to 10 days inhalation: initially low-grade fever, cough, malaise, fatigue, myalgias, sweating, and chest discomfort but progressing to high fever, respiratory distress, shock and death within 24 to 36 hours Treatment - decontamination remove clothing; do not pull anything over the head decontaminate in area outside of treatment area: using large amounts of water, shower with soap or wash with soap and running water; flush eyes with running water for 15 minutes antibiotics ciprofloxacin hydrochloride (Cipro), drug of choice penicillin G procaine (Wycillin) doxycycline (Vibramycin) note: do not use extended-spectrum cephalosporins or trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole due to resistance of anthrax to these drugs vaccine available, but not to the general public
Plague
causative agent: Yersinia pestis zoonotic infection carried on rodents and their fleas Y. pestis destroyed by sunlight and dryness, although bacterium can survive for 1 hour after release exposed individuals can spread infection disease states: bubonic plague, pneumonic plague and septicemic plague clinical indicators of pneumonic plague: rapidly deteriorating pneumonia , fever, chest pain, bloody or watery sputum treatment: individuals with the plague need immediate treatment or death will occur within 24 hours after the first symptoms isolate exposed individuals treat with antibiotics streptomycin gentamycin (Garamycin) doxycycline (Vibramycin) ciprofloxacin hydrochloride (Cipro) supportive treatment: oxygen, IV fluids and respiratory support are usually needed vaccine: not available
GI infections
staphylococcal food poisoning, botulism
Smallpox
causative agent: variola virus exposed individuals can spread infection via direct contact or prolonged face to face contact clinical indicators of smallpox disease initially (sometimes contagious): high fever (101 - 104 F [38.3 - 40 C]), malaise, head and body aches rash (most contagious): start as small, red spots on the tongue and mouth; the spots become open sores and, then, spread to the rest of the body becoming pustules that crust and scab-over individuals are contagious until all scabs have fallen off treatment -no specific drug treatment or cure if the smallpox vaccine is given with 1 to 4 days after exposure to the disease, illness may be prevented or be less severe individuals diagnosed with smallpox and everyone they have had close contact with will need to be isolated vaccine: has not been given routinely in the U.S. since 1972 ; it is unknown how long immunity lasts after immunization
UTIs
cystitis, pyelonephritis
Childhood & Vaccine-preventable Infections
Varicella (chicken pox), diphtheria, tetanus, mumps (infectious parotitis), pertussis (whooping cough), poliomyelitis, rubella (German measles), rubeola (measles)
Ricin
a plant protein toxin derived from the beans of the castor plant exposure: through air, food or water in the form of a powder, a mist, a pellet may also be dissolved in water or weak acid clinical indications: effects depend on whether it was inhaled, ingested, or injected; death can occur within 36 to 72 hours of exposure inhalation: respiratory distress, fever, cough, nausea, chest tightness; pulmonary edema ingestion: vomiting and diarrhea that may become bloody; dehydration; low blood pressure; may include hallucinations, seizures and multi-system failure skin and eye exposure: redness and pain post exposure treatment treatment: get ricin off or out of the body as quickly as possible no available antidote decontamination shower with soap or wash with soap and running water thoroughly flush eyes with running water for 15 minutes inhalation: leave area of exposure to get fresh air provide oxygen and support breathing ingestion do not induce vomiting; remain NPO administer large dose of activated charcoal gastric lavage aggressive fluid resuscitation and electrolyte repletion if necessary, medicate to control seizures and treat hypotension
Prussian blue:
a type of dye that binds to particles of radioactive elements (cesium and thallium)
3 levels of disaster
Level I Disaster - requires state or federal assistance due to massive levels and breadth of damage Level II disaster - requires regional efforts and mutual aid from surrounding communities Level III disaster - involves minor to average levels of damage; local emergency response personnel and organizations are able to contain and deal effectively with the disaster and its aftermath
T or F - Sensor pads may be used on the beds of individuals who are a fall risk.
T - Bed alarms and sensor pads can be used to alert caregivers when a client is attempting to get up from a bed or chair, especially clients who are at risk for falls. This is an effective alternative to the use of restraints.
T or F - If a draining wound tests positive for Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), the client is placed on contact precautions.
T - Clients with an abscess or draining wounds who test positive for Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), group A streptococcus, are placed on contact precautions.
T or F - Disaster triage differs from routine emergency department triage.
T - Disaster triage categories range from most urgent (first priority), urgent, nonurgent (the walking wounded), and dead/catastrophic.
T or F - Assistive devices are used when a caregiver is required to lift more than 35 lbs (15.9 kg).
T - During any client-transferring task, if any caregiver is required to lift a client who weighs more than 35 lbs (15.9 kg), then the client should be considered to be fully dependent, and assistive devices should be used for the transfer.
T or F - Standard precautions also includes respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette.
T - Standard precautions are used to reduce the risk of transmission of bloodborne and other pathogens from both recognized and unrecognized sources. Respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette is now considered part of standard precautions.
T or F - The three elements of radiation protection are time, distance and shielding.
T - The farther away people are from a radiation source, the less their exposure; as a rule, if you double the distance, you reduce the exposure by a factor of four. The amount of radiation exposure typically increases with the time people spend near the source of radiation.
T or F - Newborns are fitted with tamper-proof security sensors during their stay in the hospital.
T - Wearing a tamper-proof safety device reduces the risk of abduction. The sensor shows the location of the infant and the security system can activate other devices (such as cameras, door locks, public address systems, sirens, and other alarms) in the event of an attempted abduction.
Incubation period
The time between entrance of the pathogen and the first symptoms Incubation periods vary with host and organism If host defenses are successful, an infection may disappear without progression to next stage
diethylenetriaminepentaacetic acid (DTPA):
binds to particles of the radioactive elements plutonium, americium and curium
Stages of infection
Incubation period Prodromal stage Full stage of illness Convalescent period
