Positioning 2
The intervertebral foramina of the thoracic spine are clearly demonstrated on which projection? a. AP oblique b. AP c. Lateral d. PA oblique
c. Lateral
Which body parts can be imaged on pediatric patients using the Pigg-O-Stat immobilizer? a. head and neck b. upper and lower limb c. chest and abdomen d. pelvis and lower limbs
c. chest and abdomen
The common (normal) reactions to contrast media include: (1) warmth (2) flushing (3) anaphylactic reaction a. 1 and 3 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 2
d. 1 and 2
Normal BUN (blood urea nitrogen) levels in adults should not exceed ____ mg per 100 mL. a. 10 b. 5 c. 1.5 d. 25
d. 25
Which of the following serves as the filter for the blood in the kidney? a. Afferent tubule b. The convoluted tubules c. Henle's loop d. Glomerulus
d. Glomerulus
It is inappropriate to address elderly patients as "honey" or "dear." True False
True
Mobile radiographic units can have direct digital capability with wired to the unit or wireless. True False
True
Which of the following vertebral areas have a kyphotic curve? 1. Thoracic 2. Lumbar 3. Sacrum and coccyx a. 1 and 3 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 2
a. 1 and 3
Which vertebra contains both an anterior and a posterior arch? a. Costovertebral b. Costotransverse c. Intervertebral d. Zygapophyseal
c. Intervertebral
Aging and disease are considered synonymous. True False
False
Dementia is a natural part of the aging process. True False
False
The generators for mobile units have the same kilowatt rating as stationary x-ray equipment. True False
False
An abnormally increased concavity of the lumbar spine posteriorly is termed: a. lordosis. b. scoliosis. c. kyphosis. d. scoliokyphosis.
a. lordosis.
The central-ray angulation for a PA projection of the sternoclavicular joint is: a. 0 degrees b. 10 degrees caudad c. 10 to 15 degrees caudad d. 5 degrees caudad
a. 0 degrees
The main functions of the small bowel are: (1) digestion of food (2) absorption of food (3) storage of food a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 1, 2, and 3 d. 2 and 3
a. 1 and 2
Which of the following is true regarding the lateral projection of the skull? (1) the midsagittal plane of the head is parallel to the plane of the IR (2) the interpupillary line is perpendicular to the IR (3) the mentomeatal line is parallel with the bottom edge of the IR a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 2 and 3
a. 1 and 2
Which parts of the patient's face touch the table for a PA axial projection (Caldwell method)? (1) forehead (2) nose (3) chin a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 2 and 3
a. 1 and 2
Which of the following is clearly demonstrated within the foramen magnum during a Towne projection of the skull? (1) dorsum sellae (2) sella turcica (3) posterior clinoid processes a. 1 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3
a. 1 and 3
Functions of the kidney include: 1) removing waste products from the blood (2) maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance (3) secreting substances that affect blood pressure a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 1 and 2
a. 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following are functions of the vertebral column? 1. Supports the trunk 2. Protects the spinal cord 3. Supports the skull superiorly a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 2 d. 1 and 3
a. 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following should be seen superimposed on a lateral projection of the skull? (1) orbital roofs (2) external acoustic meati (3) temporomandibular joints a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 1 and 2
a. 1, 2, and 3
How much is the body rotated for the PA oblique projection of the sternoclavicular articulation (body rotation technique)? a. 10 to 15 degrees b. 20 to 30 degrees c. 20 degrees d. 10 degrees
a. 10 to 15 degrees
Which ribs are attached to the vertebrae only? a. 11 and 12 b. 1 to 7 c. 8 to 12 d. 1 to 10
a. 11 and 12
The central ray forms an angle of how many degrees with the OML for the PA axial (Caldwell) projection of the sinuses? a. 15 degrees b. 30 degrees c. 37 degrees d. 0 degrees
a. 15 degrees
When using the angled grid technique for the PA axial (Caldwell method) projection of the sinuses, the vertical grid device must be angled: a. 15 degrees b. 10 degrees c. 7 degrees d. 20 degrees
a. 15 degrees
The central-ray angle for an AP axial projection of the sacrum is: a. 15 degrees cephalad. b. 10 degrees caudad. c. 10 degrees cephalad. d. 15 degrees caudad.
a. 15 degrees cephalad.
Which of the following preliminary steps should the radiographer perform before beginning a mobile x-ray examination? (1) invite family members to remain in the room (2) introduce oneself to the patient and family (3) determine that the correct patient is in the room a. 2 and 3 b. 1 and 3 c. 1 and 2 d. 1, 2, and 3
a. 2 and 3
The most effective way to protect the patient from unnecessary radiation during sinus radiography is to use: (1) low kVp (2) proper collimation (3) short exposure time with low MA station a. 2 only b. 1 only c. 1, 2, and 3 d. 3 only
a. 2 only
Which of the following is true regarding inflation of the retention balloon for a barium enema? *according to the book 1.. It should be inflated by the radiographer using fluoroscopy. 2. It should be inflated by the radiologist using fluoroscopy. 3. It should be inflated by the radiologist without using fluoroscopy. a. 2 only b. 3 only c. 1 only d. 1, 2, and 3
a. 2 only
To successfully demonstrate the ethmoidal and sphenoidal sinuses on the SMV projection, which of the following must occur? (1) the patient must be recumbent (2) the orbitomeatal line must be parallel with the IR (3) the central ray must be perpendicular to the infraorbitomeatal line a. 3 only b. 2 only c. 1, 2, and 3 d. 2 and 3
a. 3 only
Which of the following attire is worn by the radiographer if a patient has drainage secretion precautions? (1) mask (2) gown (3) gloves a. 3 only b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 1 only d. 2 only
a. 3 only
In preparation for a venipuncture, a tourniquet should be applied ____ above or proximal to the site of injection. a. 3 to 4 inches (7.5 to 10 cm) b. 6 to 7 inches (15 to 18 cm) c. 8 to 10 inches (20 to 25 cm) d. 1 to 2 inches (2.5 to 5 cm)
a. 3 to 4 inches (7.5 to 10 cm)
At which level should the central ray enter the base of the skull for the SMV projection of the sinuses? a. 3/4 inch anterior to the level of the EAM b. 1 inch below the mental protuberance c. 3/4 inch posterior to the level of the EAM d. 3/4 inch below the mental protuberance
a. 3/4 inch anterior to the level of the EAM
How much CR angulation is required for the AP axial projection (sigmoid) taken during a barium enema examination? a. 30° to 40° b. 10° to 15° c. 20° to 25° d. 45°
a. 30° to 40°
How many vertebrae make up the vertebral column (at birth)? a. 33 b. 27 c. 54 d. 24
a. 33
The intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine open: a. 45 degrees anteriorly and 15 degrees inferiorly. b. 45 degrees anteriorly. c. laterally. d. 70 degrees anteriorly.
a. 45 degrees anteriorly and 15 degrees inferiorly.
In a typically shaped head, the petrous pyramids project anteriorly and medially at what angle? a. 47 degrees b. 54 degrees c. 37 degrees d. 40 degrees
a. 47 degrees
What is the recommended SID for the erect lateral sternum position? a. 60 to 72 inches (152 to 183 cm) b. 40 inches (102 cm) c. 44 inches (113 cm) d. 46 inches (117 cm)
a. 60 to 72 inches (152 to 183 cm)
The approximate length of the sternum is: a. 7 inches b. 4 inches c. 5 inches d. 3 inches
a. 7 inches
Which of the following lines must be perpendicular to the IR for the AP "open mouth" atlas and axis? a. A line drawn from the lower edge of the upper incisors to the tip of the mastoid process b. Acanthiomeatal line c. Glabellomeatal line d. Orbitomeatal line
a. A line drawn from the lower edge of the upper incisors to the tip of the mastoid process
What are the functions of the Bony Thorax? a. All of the above b. Made to vary the volume of thoracic cavity during respiration c. Supports wall of pleural cavity and diaphragm d. Protects heart and lungs
a. All of the above
What is the best question you can ask the patient before starting any IV contrast study? a. Are you allergic to anything? b. Did you enjoy your drive over here? c. Have you had this test before? d. How's the weather outside?
a. Are you allergic to anything?
A fracture of the floor of the orbit is more commonly referred to as what a. Blowout fracture b. Tripod fracture c. Basal fracture d. Depressed fracture
a. Blowout fracture
Match the vertebra with the corresponding terms and/or structures. (You may use an answer more than once.) Vertebra Prominens a. C7 b. C1 c. C2 d. T1 e. C4 f. C2 g. C1
a. C7
Which method of examining the skull will demonstrate the petrous ridges in the orbits, the ethmoid and frontal sinuses, and the crista galli? a. Caldwell b. Waters c. Towne d. Schüller
a. Caldwell
For what position is the diaphgram at its lowest level in the body? a. Erect b. Fowlers c. Lateral d. Supine
a. Erect
Which reference line is positioned horizontal to ensure proper extension of the head during a lateral projection of the sinuses? a. IOML b. AML c. OML d. MML
a. IOML
The parietoacanthial projection (Waters method) of the sinuses requires the __________ line to be placed how many degrees from the plane of the IR? a. IOML, 37 degrees b. OML, 30 degrees c. MML , 30 degrees d. MML, 37 degrees
a. IOML, 37 degrees
The majority of AP, PA, and oblique images taken during a barium enema are done on 14 ´ 17 inch (35 ´ 43 cm) IRs. Where is the IR centered on sthenic patients for the majority of these projections? a. Iliac crests b. 2 inches above the iliac crests c. 2 inches below the iliac crests
a. Iliac crests
A radiograph of an RAO sternum reveals that it is partially superimposed over the spine. What must be done to eliminate this problem during the repeat exposure? a. Increase rotation of the body. b. Angle the CR 5° to 10° laterally to the sternum. c. Increase kV. d. Perform an LPO projection instead of an RAO.
a. Increase rotation of the body.
At which level is the IR centered for a PA projection of the stomach and duodenum? a. L1/L2 b. L2/L3 c. iliac crests d. T12/L1
a. L1/L2
The spleen is located in the _____ of the abdomen. a. LUQ b. RLQ c. RUQ d. LLQ
a. LUQ
Which projection is being described: Patient obliquely seated or erect before grid device, Adjust patient's head so MSP is parallel with IRAdjust patient's head so IPL is perpendicular to IR a. Lateral b. Townes c. SMV d. Waters
a. Lateral
Which projection of the stomach demonstrates its anterior and posterior surfaces? a. Lateral b. AP oblique, LPO c. PA d. PA oblique, RAO
a. Lateral
What is the recommended oblique projection and position for the best demonstration of the esophagus? a. PA, RAO b. AP, LPO c. PA, LAO d. AP, LAO
a. PA, RAO
A patient comes to radiology for an IVU. His laboratory report indicates a creatinine level of 0.7 mg/dL. What should be the technologist's next step? a. Proceed with the study. b. Notify the referring physician of an elevated creatinine level. c. Escort the patient to the emergency department (ED) right away. d. Notify the radiologist of an elevated creatinine level.
a. Proceed with the study.
You get an order for Left Ribs. The patient's pain is in the front on the left side. It hurts when the patient moves and the radiologist told you to take one shot and show it to him. What position do you put the patient in? a. RAO b. Lateral c. LPO d. RPO
a. RAO
In which position should the patient be placed to insert the enema tip for a barium enema? a. Sims b. Right lateral c. Lithotomy d. Trendelenburg's
a. Sims
Which of the following will demonstrate the cervicothoracic region in the lateral projection? a. Swimmer's technique b. Ferguson method c. Fuchs method d. Ottonello method
a. Swimmer's technique
Which sections of the large intestine will most likely be filled with air with the patient in the prone position during a double-contrast barium enema (BE)? a. Transverse and sigmoid colon b. Ascending colon, descending colon, and rectum c. Right and left colic flexure and sigmoid colon d. Rectum only
a. Transverse and sigmoid colon
The most common size needle used for bolus injection of contrast agents for adult patients is _____ gauge. a. 23 to 25 b. 18 to 22 c. 28 d. 14 to 16
b. 18 to 22
Which of the following techniques is most effective in preventing lung markings from obscuring the sternum on an oblique projection? a. Use an orthostatic (breathing) technique. b. Decrease the source image receptor distance (SID) to magnify the sternum. c. Oblique as much as needed to not superimpose the sternum over the hilum region. d. Use a high kV
a. Use an orthostatic (breathing) technique.
The parietoacanthial projection of the facial bones is commonly called the: a. Waters method b. Caldwell method c. Towne method d. PA method
a. Waters method
What type of compensating filter is suggested for the AP projection of the thoracic spine? a. Wedge b. Double wedge c. Trough d. Boomerang
a. Wedge
Where is the IR centered for the parietoacanthial (Waters method) projection of the sinuses? a. acanthion b. nasion c. inion d. glabella
a. acanthion
On each side of the sacral base is a large winglike mass called the: a. ala. b. promontory. c. base. d. superior articular process.
a. ala.
A severe reaction to a medication or contrast medium would be: a. anaphylactic reaction b. sneezing c. itching d. vomiting
a. anaphylactic reaction
At which level will the central ray be placed for the SMV projection of the zygomatic arches? a. at a level 1 inch posterior to the outer canthi b. level of the EAM c. level of the TMJ d. level of the inner canthi
a. at a level 1 inch posterior to the outer canthi
Which part of the patient's face is touching the upright bucky, or table, for a Waters method? a. chin b. zygomatic arch c. nose d. forehead
a. chin
The respiration phase for a lateral cervical spine is: a. full expiration. b. softly phonate "ah" during the exposure. c. full inspiration. d. suspended respiration.
a. full expiration.
All of the following are facial bones, except the: a. ethmoid b. zygomatic bones c. mandible d. maxillae
a. ethmoid
The two ethmoidal sinuses are located within which bone? a. ethmoid b. maxillary c. sphenoid d. frontal
a. ethmoid
The articulating surfaces of the articular processes of the vertebrae are covered with fibrocartilage. These surfaces are called: a. facets. b. tubercles. c. notches. d. foramens.
a. facets.
The patient "prep" for a morning stomach examination is: a. food and fluid are withheld after midnight b. food and fluid are withheld after the evening meal c. food and fluid are withheld for 12 hours d. food and fluid are withheld for 24 hours
a. food and fluid are withheld after midnight
The condition in which an intervertebral disk "slips" and protrudes into the vertebral canal is called: a. herniated nucleus pulposus (HNP). b. vertebrogenesis. c. spondylolysis. d. spondylolisthesis.
a. herniated nucleus pulposus (HNP).
Which line should be placed parallel to the plane of the IR for the SMV projection of the cranial base? a. infraorbitomeatal line b. mentomeatal line c. acanthiomeatal line d. orbitomeatal line
a. infraorbitomeatal line
The space between each of the ribs is called the: a. intercostal spaces b. costotransverse joints c. costal cartilage d. costovertebral joints
a. intercostal spaces
The largest sinus is the: a. maxillary b. frontal c. ethmoidal d. sphenoidal
a. maxillary
The jejunum and ileum are attached to the posterior wall of the abdomen by the: a. mesentery. b. psoas muscle. c. haustra. d. iliacus muscle.
a. mesentery.
Which plane of the head is placed parallel to the plane of the IR for a lateral projection of the skull? a. midsagittal b. transverse c. midcoronal d. sagittal
a. midsagittal
Exposure factors for the elderly: a. often require lower kVp b. call for increased kVp c. may need longer time settings d. do not require any changes
a. often require lower kVp
The thickest and densest portion of bone in the cranium is the: a. petrous portion of the temporal bone b. mastoid portion of the temporal bone c. glabella of the frontal bone d. basilar part of the occipital bone
a. petrous portion of the temporal bone
What is one of the leading causes of death among the elderly? a. pneumonia b. emphysema c. bronchitis d. pancreatitis
a. pneumonia
The two vessels that supply blood to the liver are the: a. portal vein and hepatic artery. b. portal artery and hepatic vein. c. cystic vein and portal artery. d. portal vein and cystic artery.
a. portal vein and hepatic artery.
Urine will travel from the major calyces to the: a. renal pelvis. b. ureter. c. renal pyramids.
a. renal pelvis.
Which skull suture is located between the parietal bones? a. sagittal b. hyoid c. coronal d. squamosal
a. sagittal
Which sinus is located immediately below the sella turcica? a. sphenoidal b. ethmoidal c. maxillary d. frontal
a. sphenoidal
The phase of respiration for an AP projection of the lumbar spine is: a. suspended respiration. b. shallow breathing. c. deep expiration. d. deep inspiration.
a. suspended respiration.
The 12 costovertebral joints of the ribs are: a. synovial—gliding b. cartilaginous—symphysis c. cartilaginous—synchondroses d. synovial—pivot
a. synovial—gliding
What should be done if the sterile field is compromised? a. tell OR staff immediately b. call your manager c. determine if the area is important d. don't tell anyone
a. tell OR staff immediately
A child will be less likely to be upset or agitated if: a. the room is prepared before he or she enters it b. the room is brightly lit c. immobilized immediately d. the technologist is quick
a. the room is prepared before he or she enters it
Traditional positioning for a chest radiograph may be difficult for the elderly patient. An alternative would be to: a. wrap his or her arms around the chest stand b. leave arms down at the side of the body c. have a CT scan for the chest d. position the patient for an AP
a. wrap his or her arms around the chest stand
The articulations between the articular processes of the vertebral arches are called the _____ joints. a. costovertebral b. zygapophyseal c. intervertebral d. vertebral
b. zygapophyseal
Which of the following methods will clearly demonstrate the petrous ridges, foramen magnum, dorsum sellae, and posterior clinical processes? (1) Haas (PA axial) (2) Towne (AP axial) (3) Schüller (SMV) a. 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3
b. 1 and 2
Which of the following musculoskeletal conditions increases in incidence as age increases? (1) osteoporosis (2) degenerative joint disease (3) Osgood-Schlatter's disease a. 1 and 3 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1, 2, and 3 d. 2 and 3 only
b. 1 and 2 only
Functions of the stomach include: 1. storage of food. 2. absorption of food products. 3. chemical breakdown of food. a. 2 and 3 b. 1 and 3 c. 1 and 2 d. 1, 2, and 3
b. 1 and 3
Which of the following bones contain air sinuses? (1) ethmoid (2) mandibular (3) sphenoid a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 1 and 3 c. 1 and 2 d. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3
Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the maxillary sinuses? (1) parietoacanthial (Waters) (2) PA axial (Caldwell) (3) submentovertical a. 3 only b. 1 only c. 2 only d. 1, 2, and 3
b. 1 only
During mobile radiography, shielding should be used on: (1) children (2) exams in which the gonads are near the primary beam 3) patients of reproductive age a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3
b. 1, 2, and 3
Which facial bones are clearly demonstrated on the parietoacanthial projection (Waters method)?(1) orbits(2) maxillae(3) zygomatic arches a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 2 and 3
b. 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following are clearly demonstrated on an SMV projection of the cranial base? (1) mastoid process (2) sphenoid process (3) carotid canals a. 1 and 3 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following are included as functions of the sinuses? (1) decrease the weight of the skull (2) warm and moisten inhaled air (3) provide a resonating chamber for voice a. 1 and 3 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following devices are necessary to obtain optimal image quality on a lateral projection of the thoracic spine? 1. 48-inch SID 2. Close collimation 3. Sheet of leaded rubber a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3
b. 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following devices might be used to improve image quality on a lateral projection of the lumbar spine? 1. Close collimation 2. 48-inch SID 3. Sheet of leaded rubber a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3
b. 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following form the bony thorax? (1) sternum (2) 12 pairs of ribs (3) 12 thoracic vertebrae a. 1 and 3 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 1 and 2 d. 2 and 3
b. 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following is true regarding the lateral projection of the nasal bones? (1) MSP is parallel with the tabletop (2) both sides are done for comparison (3) the interpupillary line is perpendicular to the tabletop a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3
b. 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following should be available on every mobile radiography machine? (1) Lead apron (2) Radiographic technique chart (3) Image Receptors a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3
b. 1, 2, and 3
According to federal regulations, the source-to-skin (SSD) distance during mobile radiography may not be less than: a. 15 inches b. 12 inches c. 10 inches d. 24 inches
b. 12 inches
The routinely used methods of examining the stomach include: (1) no contrast (2) single contrast (3) double contrast a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 2 d. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3
How long does it take barium to go through the alimentary canal and reach the rectum? a. 1 1/2 day b. 24 hours c. 12 hours d. 1 day
b. 24 hours
The stomach wall is composed of how many layers? a. 1 b. 4 c. 5 d. 2
b. 4
At approximately what age does the xiphoid process become totally ossified? a. 12 years old b. 40 years old c. 21 years old d. The xiphoid process never becomes ossified.
b. 40 years old
How much is the body rotated for a PA axial oblique projection of the cervical intervertebral foramina? a. 50 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 60 degrees d. 30 degrees
b. 45 degrees
How much is the body rotated for an AP or PA axillary projection of the ribs? a. 35 to 45 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 30 degrees d. 20 to 30 degrees
b. 45 degrees
What is the central-ray angulation for the lateral projection of the cervicothoracic region (swimmer's technique) when the shoulder cannot be depressed? a. 10 degrees caudad b. 5 degrees caudad c. 0 degrees d. 15 degrees caudad
b. 5 degrees caudad
What is the length of the large intestine? a. 8 feet b. 5 feet c. 7 feet d. 3 feet
b. 5 feet
How much fluid can the adult bladder hold? a. 100 mL b. 500 mL c. 400 mL d. 75 mL
b. 500 mL
During a mobile exposure, the radiographer should be how far from the object being radiographed? a. 10 feet b. 6 feet c. 4 feet d. 5 feet
b. 6 feet
Match the vertebra with the corresponding terms and/or structures. (You may use an answer more than once.) Lateral Masses a. C7 b. C1 c. C2 d. T1 e. C4 f. C2 g. C1
b. C1
Which part of the large intestine has the widest diameter? a. Ascending colon b. Cecum c. Descending colon d. Transverse colon
b. Cecum
Where is the IR centered for an AP axial cervical spine? a. Seventh cervical vertebra b. Fourth cervical vertebra c. Second cervical vertebra d. Third cervical vertebra
b. Fourth cervical vertebra
How many vertebrae are there in the sacrum? a. Three to five b. Five c. Three d. Four
b. Five
The colon is composed of how many sections? a. One b. Four c. Two d. Three
b. Four
When viewed from the side, the vertebral column should present how many curves? a. Two b. Four c. Three d. Five
b. Four
How much will the kidneys drop in the change from the supine to the upright position? a. 3 inches b. 1 inch c. 2 inches d. 3 1/2 inches
c. 2 inches
Which drug may be given to the patient before a double-contrast examination of the stomach to relax the gastrointestinal tract? a. Demerol b. Glucagon c. Oral chlorhydrate d. Heparin
b. Glucagon
The abbreviation for the excretory technique of urography is: a. IVC b. IVU c. KUB d. EXU
b. IVU
Where is the IR centered for an AP projection of the lumbar spine? a. The ASIS b. L3 c. L2 d. The iliac crests
b. L3
The zygapophyseal joints of the cervical spine are clearly demonstrated on which projection? a. AP b. Lateral c. AP oblique d. PA oblique
b. Lateral
Which of the following planes is placed perpendicular to the tabletop and centered to the midline of the grid for a lateral lumbar spine? a. Midsagittal plane b. Midcoronal plane c. Transverse plane d. Horizontal plane
b. Midcoronal plane
Which condition of the sternum is often termed "funnel chest"? a. Flail chest b. Pectus excavatum c. Pectus deforminens d. Pectus eruptus
b. Pectus excavatum
For the Waters method, what line is placed at what angle to the IR? a. IOML, 53 degrees b. OML, 37 degrees c. IOML, perpendicular d. OML, 30 degrees
b. OML, 37 degrees
A patient enters the ED with an injury to the left anterior lower ribs. Which of the following projections should be taken to demonstrate the involved area? a. AP and LAO b. PA and RAO c. AP and LPO d. PA and LAO
b. PA and RAO
Which two regions of the abdomen are almost entirely occupied by the liver? a. Umbilical and left lateral b. Right hypochondrium and epigastrium c. Epigastrium and left hypochondrium d. Right lateral and umbilical
b. Right hypochondrium and epigastrium
Which vertebral process projects posteriorly from the junction of the laminae and pedicles? a. Spinous process b. Transverse process c. Superior articular process d. Inferior articular process
b. Transverse process
The sterile field is the: a. surgical incision b. area prepared for the patient c. whole surgical room d. area around the surgeon
b. area prepared for the patient
The most common contrast medium used for radiologic examinations of the gastrointestinal tract is: a. water-soluble iodine. b. barium sulfate. c. carbon dioxide. d. air.
b. barium sulfate.
The condition flail chest is most commonly caused by: a. emphysema. b. blunt trauma. c. congenital heart defect. d. pneumothorax.
b. blunt trauma.
The vermiform appendix of the colon is attached to the: a. sigmoid. b. cecum. c. ileum. d. ascending colon.
b. cecum.
The widest portion of the small bowel is the: a. jejunum b. duodenum c. ileum d. sigmoid
b. duodenum
Epiglottitis is considered an emergency. What is at least one symptom? a. gastroesophagitis b. dysphasia c. granulocytosis
b. dysphasia
The liver is divided into ____ major and minor lobes. a. two b. four c. six d. three
b. four
For the submentovertical projection of the zygomatic arches, the central ray is directed perpendicular to the: a. mentomeatal line b. infraorbitomeatal line c. acanthiomeatal line d. orbitomeatal line
b. infraorbitomeatal line
If the patient cannot flex the neck well for an AP axial (Towne) projection, which line should be placed perpendicular? a. mentomeatal line b. infraorbitomeatal line c. glabellomeatal line d. acanthiomeatal line
b. infraorbitomeatal line
Which of the following is placed perpendicular to the front edge of the IR for a lateral projection of the facial bones? a. orbitomeatal line b. infraorbitomeatal line c. acanthiomeatal line d. mentomeatal line
b. infraorbitomeatal line
Spinal nerves and blood vessels exit the spinal column through the: a. vertebral notches. b. intervertebral foramina. c. vertebral arch. d. vertebral foramen.
b. intervertebral foramina.
A telescoping, or invagination, of one part of the intestine into another is termed: a. volvulus. b. intussusception. c. diverticulosis. d. colitis.
b. intussusception.
Which facial bone contains a foramen through which the tear duct passes? a. nasal b. lacrimal c. maxillae d. palatine
b. lacrimal
All of the following are cranial bones except the: a. occipital b. maxillae c. frontal d. sphenoid
b. maxillae
Which of the following skull types is considered average in size and shape? a. brachycephalic b. mesocephalic c. dolichocephalic
b. mesocephalic
Which of the following is centered to the IR for the PA projection of the facial bones? a. mental point b. nasion c. acanthion d. glabella
b. nasion
How far is the enema tip inserted into the rectum for a colon examination? a. no more than 3 inches b. no more than 4 inches c. no more than 2 inches d. no more than 5 inches
b. no more than 4 inches
The opening into the apex of the orbit for the transmission of the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery is called the: a. magnum foramina b. optic foramen c. foramina rotundum d. foramina ovale
b. optic foramen
Which line is placed perpendicular to the plane of the IR for the AP axial projection of the zygomatic arches? a. glabellomeatal line b. orbitomeatal line c. mentomeatal line d. acanthiomeatal line
b. orbitomeatal line
Which of the following lines is placed perpendicular to the plane of the IR for the AP axial (Towne) projection? a. acanthiomeatal line b. orbitomeatal line c. mentomeatal line d. glabellomeatal line
b. orbitomeatal line
Which of the following must be projected below the maxillary sinuses for the parietoacanthial projection (Waters method) of the sinuses? a. inferior orbital margin b. petrous pyramids c. zygomatic bones d. sphenoidal sinuses
b. petrous pyramids
An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is termed: a. scoliokyphosis. b. scoliosis. c. kyphosis. d. lordosis.
b. scoliosis.
For the open-mouth waters method when evaluating for sinuses, which sinuses is of primary interest a. maxillary b. sphenoidal c. frontal d. ethmoid
b. sphenoidal
"Many zebras like plants from sunny Egypt" is a helpful acronym to remember a. the bones of the skull b. the bones of the orbit c. the sinus groups d. the bones of the face
b. the bones of the orbit
Nonionic contrast agents are preferred because: a. less is required to perform an exam b. they produce fewer adverse reactions c. the cost of nonionics is lower d. the kidneys filter it faster, thus decreasing the time of the exam
b. they produce fewer adverse reactions
What must the male patient remove for a radiographic examiniation of the ribs? a. Nipple Rings b. none of the above c. Necklace, button down shirt, and nipple rings only d. Button down shirt e. Necklace f. tattoo
c. Necklace, button down shirt, and nipple rings only
An abnormal increase in the convexity of the thoracic spine posteriorly is termed: a. scoliosis. b. lordosis. c. kyphosis. d. spondylosis.
c. kyphosis.
What is the central-ray angulation for the SMV projection when the patient is able to hyperextend their neck? a. 30 degrees caudad b. 37 degrees cephalad c. 0 degrees d. 5 to 7 degrees cephalad
c. 0 degrees
How far is the top of the 14 ´ 17 inch (35 ´ 43 cm) IR or collimated field placed above the upper border of the shoulder for projections of the ribs? a. 1 inch b. 2 inches c. 1 1/2 inches d. 2 1/2 inches
c. 1 1/2 inches
Patients who are having an examination of the paranasal sinuses should always be examined in the upright position to: (1) demonstrate the presence or absence of fluid (2) differentiate between fluid and other pathological conditions (3) make it easier for the radiographer to position the patient a. 2 and 3 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 1 and 2 d. 1 and 3
c. 1 and 2
Which of the following bones is contained in the floor of the cranium? 1) ethmoid (2) vomer (3) temporal a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3
c. 1 and 3
Which of the following foramina lie in the sphenoid bone? (1) optic foramen (2) foramen magnem (3) foramina rotundum a. 3 only b. 2 only c. 1 and 3 d. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
Which of the following vertebral areas have a lordotic curve? 1. Cervical 2. Thoracic 3. Lumbar a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
Which two facial bones form the roof of the mouth? (1) maxillae (2) mandible (3) palatine bones a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3
c. 1 and 3
Who would be included as nonsterile team members? (1) anesthesia provider (2) physician assistant (3) radiographer a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 d. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
Which ribs are called the true ribs? a. 11 and 12 b. 1 to 10 c. 1 to 7 d. 8 to 12
c. 1 to 7
Which projection of the cervical spine will demonstrate the lower five zygapophyseal joints of the cervical spine? 1. Lateral 2. Lateral in hyperflexion 3. Lateral in hyperextension a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1, 2, and 3 d. 1 and 3
c. 1, 2, and 3
Occasionally, a patient may have to be placed in the prone position for a PA projection of the coccyx. What is the central-ray angle for this projection? a. 15 degrees cephalad b. 10 degrees caudad c. 10 degrees cephalad d. 15 degrees caudad
c. 10 degrees cephalad
What size IR and which position is used for examination of the urinary bladder (cystogram)? a. 8 ´ 10 inches (18 ´ 24 cm) crosswise b. 11 ´ 12 inches (24 ´ 30 cm) lengthwise c. 10 ´ 12 inches (24 ´ 30 cm) crosswise or lengthwise d. 14 ´ 17 inches (35 ´ 43 cm) lengthwise
c. 10 ´ 12 inches (24 ´ 30 cm) crosswise or lengthwise
Both zygomatic arches can be demonstrated on one projection for which of the following projections? (1) Caldwell (2) SMV (3) AP axial a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
The intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine are demonstrated on which of the following projections? 1. AP axial 2. AP axial oblique 3. PA axial oblique a. 1 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3
c. 2 and 3
Which of the following is the recommended position for optimal demonstration of the upper anterior ribs? 1) recumbent (2) standing (3) seated upright a. 1 and 3 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
What is the central-ray centering point for an AP oblique lumbar spine? a. 2 inches medial to the elevated ASIS at the level of the iliac crest b. 2 inches lateral to the elevated ASIS and 3 inches above the iliac crest c. 2 inches medial to the elevated ASIS and 1 to 1 inch above the iliac crest d. At MSP at the level of the ASIS
c. 2 inches medial to the elevated ASIS and 1 to 1 inch above the iliac crest
Where does the central ray enter the patient for an AP axial projection of the sacrum? a. 2 inches at the pubic symphysis b. 1 inch at the pubic symphysis c. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis d. 1 inch inferior to the symphysis
c. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis
The angle of the articulation between the sacrum and the ilia (the sacroiliac joints) is _____ degrees. a. 10 to 15 b. 15 to 20 c. 25 to 30 d. 45 to 50
c. 25 to 30
In the erect adult bony thorax, the posterior or vertebral end of a typical rib is ____ higher than or more superior to the anterior portion. a. 6 to 8 inches (15 to 20 cm) b. 1 to 2 inches (2.5 to 5 cm) c. 3 to 5 inches (8 to 13 cm) d. 10 to 12 inches (25 to 30 cm)
c. 3 to 5 inches (8 to 13 cm)
The central-ray angle for an AP sacroiliac joint is: a. 0 degrees. b. 15 degrees cephalad c. 30 degrees cephalad d. 5 degrees caudad.
c. 30 degrees cephalad
When the spine cannot be placed in a true horizontal position for the L5-S1 lateral projection, the central ray must be angled: a. 10 degrees men, 12 degrees women, caudad. b. 10 degrees men, 12 degrees women, cephalad. c. 5 degrees men, 8 degrees women, caudad. d. 5 degrees men, 8 degrees women, cephalad.
c. 5 degrees men, 8 degrees women, caudad.
How long should the patient lie in the decubitus position before making the exposure during a mobile decubitus chest examination? a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 5 minutes d. 3 minutes
c. 5 minutes
What is the recommended SID for the lateral cervical spine (Grandy method)? a. 40 inches b. 40 to 55 inches c. 60 to 72 inches d. 48 inches
c. 60 to 72 inches
How many bones comprise the bony orbit? a. 8 b. 11 c. 7 d. 14
c. 7
The zygapophyseal joints of the thoracic spine form an angle of how many degrees with the midsagittal plane? a. 15 to 20 b. 45 c. 70 to 75 d. 90
c. 70 to 75
Which ribs are called the false ribs? a. 11 and 12 b. 1 to 7 c. 8 to 12 d. 1 to 10
c. 8 to 12
During mobile radiography, the radiographer ideally should be standing at what degree of angle from the primary beam? a. 45 to 90 degrees b. 0 degrees c. 90 degrees d. 45 degrees
c. 90 degrees
Which of the following is the essential projection used to demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints of the lumbar spine? a. Lateral b. PA oblique c. AP oblique d. AP
c. AP oblique
Which projection of the stomach would best demonstrate a diaphragmatic herniation? a. AP b. PA c. AP, Trendelenburg's position d. AP, R lateral decubitus
c. AP, Trendelenburg's position
A radiograph of an RAO projection of the ribs demonstrates the left axillary ribs are foreshortened, whereas the right side is elongated. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this radiographic outcome? a. CR angulation was incorrect. b. The patient requires more rotation to the right. c. An LAO was performed rather than the RAO position. d. The technologist should have performed a PA projection to demonstrate the left axillary ribs, not an RAO.
c. An LAO was performed rather than the RAO position.
What is the respiration phase for all radiographic exposures of the stomach and intestines? a. Inspiration b. Suspended respiration c. Expiration d. Slow, shallow breathing
c. Expiration
Where should the arms be placed for a lateral projection of the thoracic spine? a. Variable, depending on body habitus b. Over the head c. At right angles to the long axis of the body d. Flexed in front of the thorax
c. At right angles to the long axis of the body
Match the vertebra with the corresponding terms and/or structures. (You may use an answer more than once.) Axis a. C7 b. C1 c. C2 d. T1 e. C4 f. C2 g. C1
c. C2
Which aspect of the rib articulates with the thoracic vertebral body? a. Neck b. Facets c. Head d. Tubercles
c. Head
Which of the following conditions may occur with trauma to the ribs? a. Pulmonary embolus b. Airway obstruction of the trachea c. Hemothorax d. Pneumonia
c. Hemothorax
For which type of body habitus is the stomach almost horizontal? a. Sthenic b. Hyposthenic c. Hypersthenic d. Asthenic
c. Hypersthenic
Where is the central ray directed for an AP lumbosacral spine? a. L2 b. The ASIS c. Iliac crests d. L3
c. Iliac crests
Where is the central ray directed for a lateral thoracic spine? a. Level of T10 b. Level of T5 c. Level of T7 d. Level of T9
c. Level of T7
When are small bowel series deemed to be complete? a. Once the contrast media reaches the rectum b. Two hours after the ingestion of barium c. Once the contrast media passes the ileocecal valve d. Once the contrast media passes the duodenojejunal flexure
c. Once the contrast media passes the ileocecal valve
Which of the following functions is NOT performed by the urinary system? a. Removing nitrogenous wastes b. Regulating the acid-base and electrolyte balance c. Producing and releasing adrenaline d. Regulating water levels in tissues
c. Producing and releasing adrenaline
The gallbladder is located in the________ of the abdomen. a. RLQ b. LUQ c. RUQ d. LLQ
c. RUQ
What happens if you are doing an esophagus swallow and the patient tells you they have a history of aspiration before you start the exam. What do you do? a. Stop, report to Radiologist. b. Give the patient barium contrast only. c. Report to Radiologist and continue the exam using Gastrograffin. d. Stop the exam entirely. Tell them to talk to their doctor.
c. Report to Radiologist and continue the exam using Gastrograffin.
Which of the following statements is true about radiography of ribs located above the diaphragm? a. Use an analog kV range of 85 to 95. b. Always include an anteroposterior (AP) projection as part of the routine. c. Suspend breathing upon inspiration. d. Perform the study with the patient recumbent.
c. Suspend breathing upon inspiration.
Which of the following is true regarding the kidneys? a. The right kidney is longer and narrower than the left. b. Both kidneys are the same length and width. c. The left kidney is longer and narrower than the right. d. The left kidney is lower than the right.
c. The left kidney is longer and narrower than the right.
Which term describes the act of voiding under voluntary control? a. Urinary release b. Anuria c. Urination d. Incontinence
c. Urination
Which of the following is centered to the IR for a parietoacanthial projection of the facial bones? a. nasion b. glabella c. acanthion d. mental point
c. acanthion
If parents are allowed in the room they should wear: a. only an apron to protect from scatter b. nothing is necessary if they aren't in the beam c. an apron and gloves if their hands are in the beam d. never allow parents in the room
c. an apron and gloves if their hands are in the beam
Where is the bottom of the IR positioned for an AP projection of the ribs (below the diaphragm)? a. at the ASIS b. 1 1/2 inches above the crest of the ilium c. at the iliac crest d. at the xiphoid
c. at the iliac crest
The first cervical vertebra is called the: a. vertebra prominens. b. axis. c. atlas. d. dens.
c. atlas.
The radiographic examination of the urethra is called: a. retrograde urography b. cystography c. cystourethrography d. cystoureterography
c. cystourethrography
What is the respiration phase for a lateral projection of the sternum? a. long, deep breathing b. deep expiration c. deep inspiration d. slow, shallow breathing
c. deep inspiration
A common fracture site for an elderly person with osteoporosis is the: a. first metatarsal b. humeral head c. distal radius d. olecranon process
c. distal radius
Which skull type is narrow from side to side? a. brachycephalic b. mesocephalic c. dolichocephalic
c. dolichocephalic
For a lateral projection of the facial bones, the central ray will enter: a. at the TMJ b. at the EAM c. halfway between the outer canthus and the EAM d. at the outer canthus
c. halfway between the outer canthus and the EAM
The large intestine is made up of a series of pouches called the: a. cecum b. rugae c. haustra d. taeniae coli
c. haustra
Which of the following surgical procedures require the C-arm to be positioned between the patient's legs? a. tibia nailing b. operative cholangiography c. hip pinning d. transphenoidal pituitary tumor resection
c. hip pinning
One of the greatest dangers facing a premature neonate is: a. exposure to barium b. thermoregulation c. hypothermia d. sudden weight gain
c. hypothermia
The most distal portion of the small intestine is the: a. jejunum b. duodenum c. ileum d. pylorus
c. ileum
For an SMV projection of the cranial base, the central ray should always be perpendicular to the: a. acanthiomeatal line b. mentomeatal line c. infraorbitomeatal line d. orbitomeatal line
c. infraorbitomeatal line
One fourth of the length of the vertebral column is made up of the: a. intervertebral foramina. b. vertebral bodies. c. intervertebral disks. d. transverse processes.
c. intervertebral disks.
The easily palpable superior border of the manubrium is called the: a. sternal angle b. body c. jugular notch d. xiphoid
c. jugular notch
Where should the patient's hands be positioned for an upright lateral sternum? a. back of the hands against the thighs b. straight down at the side c. locked behind the back d. locked above the head
c. locked behind the back
The largest and most dense bone of the face is the: a. frontal b. maxilla c. mandible d. sphenoid
c. mandible
When a radiographer suspects child abuse, what is the required response? a. notify the state child welfare office/social services b. ask a nurse to look at the child c. notify the radiologist or attending physician d. call the police
c. notify the radiologist or attending physician
Which of the following is perpendicular to the plane of the IR for a Caldwell projection of the skull?' a. infraorbitalmeatal line b. acanthiomeatal line c. orbitomeatal line d. glabellomeatal line
c. orbitomeatal line
A normal creatinine level is: a. 0.1 to 1.9 mg/100 ml b. 1.1 to 2.7 mg/100 ml c. 2.0 to 2.5 mg/100 ml d. 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 ml
d. 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 ml
The central-ray angle for a lateral sternum is: a. 5 degrees caudad b. 10 degrees caudad c. perpendicular d. 10 to 12 degrees caudad
c. perpendicular
The central-ray angle for the PA oblique projection of the sternum is: a. 5 degrees caudad b. 15 degrees caudad c. perpendicular d. 10 degrees caudad
c. perpendicular
The superior aspect of the sphenoid bone contains a deep depression that contains the: a. carotid sulcus b. pineal gland c. pituitary gland d. optic canal
c. pituitary gland
The ascending portion of the colon joins the transverse colon at the: a. sigmoid colon b. left colic flexure c. right colic flexure d. duodenojejunal flexure
c. right colic flexure
Institution-approved attire worn in the OR: a. is not necessary in the semirestricted areas b. can be worn over 2 days c. should be fresh for each shift d. can be used regardless of condition
c. should be fresh for each shift
Which ribs are demonstrated on an AP oblique projection? a. upper ribs only b. lower ribs only c. side closest to the IR d. side farthest from the IR
c. side closest to the IR
Ageism is a term that is used to describe ____ of the elderly. a. a chronic condition b. social and psychological changes c. stereotyping and discrimination d. preferential treatmen
c. stereotyping and discrimination
The bones of the cranium are joined together by fibrous joints called: a. diploë b. sulci c. sutures d. cartilage
c. sutures
The cranial bones are rigidly jointed together by articulations called: a. joints b. cartilage c. sutures d. bursae
c. sutures
The openings in the cervical vertebrae for the transmission of the vertebral artery and vein are called the: a. inferior vertebral notch. b. vertebral foramina. c. transverse foramen. d. intervertebral foramina.
c. transverse foramen.
To reduce distortion of the intervertebral joint spaces of the lumbar spine for an AP projection, an SID of _____ inches is suggested per book to offset OID. a. 72 b. 36 c. 25 d. 48
d. 48
The central ray for a PA projection of the upper ribs is: a. 5 degrees caudad b. 12 degrees cephalad c. 10 degrees cephalad d. 0 degrees
d. 0 degrees
The central-ray angulation for the reverse Waters method is: a. 15 degrees to the mentomeatal line b. 30 degrees to the acanthiomeatal line c. 37 degrees to the acanthiomeatal line d. 0 degrees
d. 0 degrees
The following can be used to protect children from unnecessary radiation exposure: (1) appropriate use of filters (2) precise collimation (3) gonad shielding always a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 1, 2, and 3 d. 1 and 2
d. 1 and 2
Which of the following are components of the alimentary canal? 1. Mouth and pharynx 2. Stomach and intestine' 3. Liver and pancreas a. 1 and 3 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 2
d. 1 and 2
Which of the following should be performed to place the back in contact with the table for an AP thoracic spine? 1. Flex the hips. 2. Flex the knees. 3. Flex the cervical spine. a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 2
d. 1 and 2
Which of the following should be performed to reduce the lordotic curvature of the lumbar spine for the AP projection?1. Flex the hips.2. Flex the knees.3. Flex the elbows. a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 2
d. 1 and 2
Which of the following are advantages of using the recumbent position for images of the esophagus? 1. Varices better filled 2. Easier to swallow barium 3. More complete contrast filling, especially proximal part a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3
d. 1 and 3
Which projections will demonstrate the right sacroiliac joint? 1. AP oblique, LPO position 2. AP oblique, RPO position 3. PA oblique, RAO position a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1, 2, and 3 d. 1 and 3
d. 1 and 3
Where does the central ray enter the patient for the AP axial projection of the zygomatic arches? a. EAM b. mandibular angles c. acanthion d. 1 inch above the nasion
d. 1 inch above the nasion
Significant reactions to contrast media include: (1) nausea (2) vomiting 3) edema of the respiratory mucous membrane a. 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3
The aging experience is individual and is affected by: (1) attitude (2) lifestyle choices (3) heredity a. 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following attire is worn by the radiographer when entering a strict isolation room for a mobile radiography examination? (1) mask (2) gown (3) gloves a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 2 d. 1, 2, and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following can be used to record the fluoroscopic image? 1. TV-Monitor 2. Cine- IR capturing 3. Video/Recording devices a. 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following should be clearly demonstrated on a lateral projection of the paranasal sinus? (1) all four sinus groups (2) superimposed orbital roofs (3) superimposed mandibular rami a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3
Which projections will demonstrate the ethmoidal sinuses? (1) lateral (2) PA axial (Caldwell) (3) SMV a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3
The central-ray angle for an AP axial projection of the coccyx is: a. 10 degrees cephalad. b. 15 degrees cephalad. c. 15 degrees caudad. d. 10 degrees caudad.
d. 10 degrees caudad.
Which of the following IR size and position is for the AP projection of the lower ribs (Hint: Mrs. B's way)? a. 14 ´ 17 inches (35 ´ 43 cm) lengthwise b. 10 ´ 12 inches (24 ´ 30 cm) lengthwise c. 8 X 10 inches (35 ´ 43 cm) crosswise d. 10 ´ 12 inches (24 ´ 35 cm) crosswise
d. 10 ´ 12 inches (24 ´ 35 cm) crosswise
How many bones make up the face? a. 6 b. 12 c. 10 d. 14
d. 14
The central-ray angle for the PA axial (Caldwell) projection of the skull is: a. 37 degrees cephalad b. 30 degrees caudad c. 30 degrees cephalad d. 15 degrees caudad
d. 15 degrees caudad
How much should the body be rotated for a PA oblique projection of the sternum? a. 20 degrees b. 10 degrees c. 5 to 10 degrees d. 15 to 20 degrees
d. 15 to 20 degrees
The central-ray angle for an AP axial of cervical vertebrae is: a. 10 degrees cephalad. b. variable, depending on the body habitus. c. 20 degrees cephalad. d. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad.
d. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad.
How far above the table is the enema bag placed during a barium enema? a. 24 to 36 inches b. 4 feet c. 12 inches d. 18 to 24 inches
d. 18 to 24 inches
Which of the following are advantages of using the double-contrast technique for examination of the stomach? 1. Fewer images are required. 2. Small lesions are not obscured. 3. The mucosal lining of the stomach can be more clearly visualized. a. 1 and 3 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 1 and 2 d. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 3
Which of the following body positions will project the left ribs clear of the heart? (1) lateral (2) LAO (3) RPO a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 1 and 3 c. 1 and 2 d. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 3
Which of the following breathing techniques can be used for a lateral projection of the thoracic vertebrae? 1. Full inspiration 2. Suspended respiration 3. Quiet breathing a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 3
Which of the following describes the function of the spleen?1. Produces glucagon2. Produces lymphocytes3. Stores and removes dead red blood cells a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 d. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 3
The central ray and center of the IR position for a lateral projection of the skull is: a. 1 inch above the EAM b. 2 inches below the EAM c. 1 inch below the EAM d. 2 inches above the EAM
d. 2 inches above the EAM
Which of the following describes the central-ray centering point for the L5-S1 lateral projection? a. 3 inches posterior to the ASIS b. 2 inches posterior to the ASIS c. 2 inches posterior to the ASIS and 2 inches below the iliac crest d. 2 inches posterior to the ASIS and 1 inches below the iliac crest
d. 2 inches posterior to the ASIS and 1 inches below the iliac crest
Where does the central ray enter the patient for an AP axial projection of the coccyx? a. 3 inches superior to the pubic symphysis b. 1 inch inferior to the pubic symphysis c. At the pubic symphysis d. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis
d. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis
Which breathing techniques is preferred when performing an oblique projection of the sternum? (1) inspiration (2) 2nd deep expiration (3) slow, shallow breathing a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 d. 3 only
d. 3 only
Which projection(s) will best demonstrate the frontal and anterior ethmoidal sinuses? (1) PA (2) parietoacanthial (Waters) (3) PA axial (Caldwell) a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 2 only c. 1 only d. 3 only
d. 3 only
How many degrees is the body rotated for the AP oblique projection of the sacroiliac joint? a. 45 b. 15 c. 20 d. 30
d. 30
How long is the entire alimentary canal? a. 5 feet b. 10 feet c. 20 feet d. 30 feet
d. 30 feet
If the infraorbitomeatal line is placed perpendicular to the IR during an AP axial projection of the skull, how much is the central ray angled? a. 30 degrees caudad b. No angle for AP axial c. 15 degrees caudad d. 37 degrees caudad
d. 37 degrees caudad
To keep exposure times to a minimum during mobile radiography, the recommended SID should be: a. 36 inches b. 48 inches c. 30 inches d. 40 inches
d. 40 inches
How many ribs attach directly to the sternum? a. 5 b. 12 c. 10 d. 7
d. 7
Food and fluid should be withheld for how many hours before a stomach examination? a. 12 b. 4 c. 2 d. 8
d. 8
The intervertebral foramina of the lumbar spine are located at an angle of _____ in relation to the midsagittal plane. a. 30 to 35 degrees b. 70 to 75 degrees c. 45 degrees d. 90 degrees
d. 90 degrees
A PA projection of the stomach and duodenum can be performed using a 10 ´ 12 inch (24 ´ 30 cm) IR. Which of the following describes the plane that is centered to the grid for this projection? a. The midsagittal plane b. A sagittal plane passing 4 inches to the left of the vertebral column c. A sagittal plane passing 4 inches to the right of the vertebral column d. A sagittal plane passing halfway between the midline and the lateral border of the abdomen
d. A sagittal plane passing halfway between the midline and the lateral border of the abdomen
For which type of body habitus is the stomach nearly vertical? a. Hyposthenic b. Hypersthenic c. Sthenic d. Asthenic
d. Asthenic
Where is the IR centered for the lateral projection of the cervicothoracic region? a. C5 b. C6 c. C6-C7 interspace d. C7-T1 interspace
d. C7-T1 interspace
A patient experiences a hot flash after the injection of an iodinated contrast media. What should be the next action taken by the technologist? a. Get medical assistance. b. Give the patient diphenhydramine (Benadryl). c. Call a code emergency. d. Comfort the patient; this is a common side effect.
d. Comfort the patient; this is a common side effect.
Which of the following conditions is an example of GERD? a. Gastric carcinoma b. Esophageal varices c. Bezoar d. Esophageal reflux
d. Esophageal reflux
Where is the central ray centered for a hyperflexion or hyperextension lateral cervical spine? a. Third cervical vertebra b. Seventh cervical vertebra c. Second cervical vertebra d. Fourth cervical vertebra
d. Fourth cervical vertebra
Which of the following methods is used to demonstrate the dens within the foramen magnum? a. Pawlow b. Twining c. Grandy d. Fuchs
d. Fuchs
Which zygapophyseal joints are demonstrated on the AP oblique projection of the lumbar spine? a. The L1 to L4 joints closest to the IR b. Both joints equally demonstrated c. Joints farthest from the IR d. Joints closest to the IR
d. Joints closest to the IR
What may the Radiologist request the tech to do prior to taking a chest image? a. Immobilize the patient b. Take a scout image c. Buy him lunch d. Mark the area with a BB or small type of radiopaque marker
d. Mark the area with a BB or small type of radiopaque marker
For the sinus evaluation in a SMV projection, what order can the sinuses be seen from anterior to posterior a. Frontal, Maxillary, Ethmoid b. Ethmoid, Maxillary, Frontal c. Sphenoid, Ethmoid, Maxillary d. Maxillary, Ethmoid, Sphenoid
d. Maxillary, Ethmoid, Sphenoid
Which reference line is perpendicular to the IR for the PA position for the mandibular rami? a. IOML b. AML c. MML d. OML
d. OML
Which of the following is the essential projection and body position for demonstration of the sternum? a. PA oblique, LAO b. PA, prone c. AP, supine d. PA oblique, RAO
d. PA oblique, RAO
Which projection and body position will demonstrate the sternum through the heart? a. AP oblique, RPO b. AP oblique, LPO c. PA oblique, LAO d. PA oblique, RAO
d. PA oblique, RAO
Radiographic demonstration of the cranial base, symmetric images of the petrosae, mastoid processes, foramina ovale and spinosum, spehnoidal and ethmoidal sinuses and mandible are best performed by which method? a. PA b. Towne c. Lateral d. Schüller
d. Schüller
Which costocartilage attaches to the sternum at the level of the sternal angle? a. Fourth and fifth b. Third c. First d. Second
d. Second
Ideally, the cathode end of an x-ray tube should be positioned to take advantage of the "heel effect" of the tube. Where should the cathode be placed for an AP thoracic spine? a. Toward the head b. Head or foot end c. Variable, depending on body habitus d. Toward the feet
d. Toward the feet
The lateral projection of the facial bones clearly demonstrates the: a. petrous ridge b. maxillae c. petromastoid portion d. all facial bones in their entirety
d. all facial bones in their entirety
A mild reaction to a medication or contrast medium would NOT include: a. itching b. nausea c. vomiting d. angioedema
d. angioedema
The expanded portion of the terminal esophagus is called the: a. cardiac notch. b. abdominal esophagus. c. esophagogastric junction. d. cardiac antrum.
d. cardiac antrum.
Which skull suture is found between the frontal and parietal bones? a. lambdoidal b. sagittal c. squamosal d. coronal
d. coronal
The single most effective means of radiation protection during mobile radiography is: a. exposure time b. use of a nongrid technique c. choice of kVp d. distance
d. distance
One of the most important technical considerations in gastrointestinal radiography is: a. production of a high-contrast image. b. production of a high-resolution image. c. speed of the examination. d. elimination of motion.
d. elimination of motion.
The respiration phase for all exposures made during an IVU is: a. inspiration b. suspended respiration c. shallow breathing d. expiration
d. expiration
The six areas of incomplete ossification in a newborn infant's skull are called the: a. sutures b. diploë c. sulci d. fontanels
d. fontanels
The small bone situated at the base of the tongue is the: a. cornu b. styloid c. alveolar d. hyoid
d. hyoid
Spina bifida is a congenital deformity of the vertebral column in which the _____ fail to unite posteriorly. a. pedicles b. bodies c. arches d. lamina
d. lamina
A moderate reaction to a medication or contrast medium would be: a. anaphylactic reaction b. sneezing c. warmth d. laryngeal swelling
d. laryngeal swelling
The maxillary sinus is located in which bone? a. ethmoid b. temporal c. sphenoid d. maxillae
d. maxillae
When imaging the upper or lower limbs on geriatric patients, keep in mind that: a. long bones shrink as age increases b. scatter radiation is greater in those with osteoporosis c. many projections can be combined to decrease time and discomfort d. mobility and flexibility is often decreased
d. mobility and flexibility is often decreased
Reaching over a sterile field is allowed by: a. only by nonsterile team members b. both sterile and nonsterile team members c. only by the surgeon d. only by sterile team members
d. only by sterile team members
The muscle controlling the opening between the stomach and the duodenum is termed the: a. ileocecal valve. b. pylorus. c. pyloric antrum. d. pyloric sphincter.
d. pyloric sphincter.
In some radiography procedures involving the urinary system, the contrast medium is introduced against the normal flow. This is termed: a. infusion. b. antegrade. c. percutaneous. d. retrograde.
d. retrograde.
The vertebral column articulates with the hip bone at the: a. acetabulum. b. lumbar-5, sacral-1 joint. c. pubic symphysis. d. sacroiliac joint.
d. sacroiliac joint.
The vertebra prominens is the name given to the _____ vertebra. a. first cervical b. first thoracic c. second cervical d. seventh cervical
d. seventh cervical
Where is the IR centered for a PA oblique sternum? a. jugular notch b. fifth thoracic vertebra c. manubrium sterni d. seventh thoracic vertebra
d. seventh thoracic vertebra
The condition of the lumbar spine in which there is anterior displacement of one vertebra over another is termed: a. scoliosis. b. scoliokyphosis. c. spondylolysis. d. spondylolisthesis.
d. spondylolisthesis.
The gallbladder functions to: a. produce and secrete bile. b. regulate digestion of fatty acids. c. break down toxins in the bloodstream. d. store and concentrates bile.
d. store and concentrates bile.
Which position is recommended for a mobile AP chest examination on a critically ill patient? a. left lateral decubitus b. seated upright at a 90-degree angle c. seated upright at a 45-degree angle d. supine
d. supine
The respiration phase for all projections of the facial bones and sinuses is: a. shallow breathing b. inspiration c. expiration d. suspended
d. suspended
The respiration phase for all projections of the large intestine is: a. inspiration. b. slow, shallow breathing. c. expiration. d. suspended respiration, exposure on expiration.
d. suspended respiration, exposure on expiration.
The petromastoid portion is a part of which bone? a. sphenoid b. occipital c. ethmoid d. temporal
d. temporal
The zygomatic arches are a part of which bone? a. sphenoid b. frontal c. parietal d. temporal
d. temporal
Which bone in the skull contains the auditory organs and the organs of hearing? a. sphenoid b. occipital c. ethmoid d. temporal
d. temporal
When performing limb radiography, what may be required to evaluate for fracture? a. use of large focal spot b. additional immobilization c. no soft tissue d. the contralateral side
d. the contralateral side
Which of the following is the recommended breathing technique that should be used when examining the ribs that lie at the level of the diaphragm? a. one deep inspiration (or expiration) and hold b. slow, shallow breathing c. suspended respiration d. two deep expirations (or inspirations) and hold
d. two deep expirations (or inspirations) and hold
Which of the following serves as the reservoir for urine? a. kidneys b. calyces c. ureters d. urinary bladder
d. urinary bladder
All of the following are methods to time the exposure on inspiration during chest radiography on a young child, except: a. wait for the end of a cry b. watch the abdomen c. watch the rise and fall of the sternum d. wait for the beginning of a cry
d. wait for the beginning of a cry
For a lateral projection of the facial bones, the IR is centered to the: a. acanthion b. glabella c. nasion d. zygomatic bone
d. zygomatic bone
Match the vertebra with the corresponding terms and/or structures. (You may use an answer more than once.) Typical Cervical Vertebrae a. C7 b. C1 c. C2 d. T1 e. C4 f. C2 g. C1
e. C4
What must the female patient remove for a radiographic examination of the ribs? a. Earring studs b. None of the above c. clothing artifacts d. Necklace e. Bra f. Necklace, clothing artifacts, and bra only
f. Necklace, clothing artifacts, and bra only
Match the vertebra with the corresponding terms and/or structures. (You may use an answer more than once.) Dens a. C7 b. C1 c. C2 d. T1 e. C4 f. C2 g. C1
f. C2
Match the vertebra with the corresponding terms and/or structures. (You may use an answer more than once.) Anterior Arch a. C7 b. C1 c. C2 d. T1 e. C4 f. C2 g. C1
g. C1