Practice Questions 200-301

What command copies the configuration from RAM into NVRAM?

"copy running-config startup config"

A Layer 2 switch needs to be configured to use Dynamic ARP inspection along with DHCP Snooping. Which command would make DAI monitor ARP message rates on an interface at an average rate of 4 received ARP messages per second? (choose 2)

"ip arp inspection limit rate 16 burst interval 4" "ip arp inspection limit rate 4"

Switch SW1 needs to be configured to use Dynamic ARP Inspection along with DHCP Snooping in VLAN 6 and only VLAN 6. Which commands must be included, assuming at least one switch port in VLAN 6 must be a trusted port? (choose 2)

"ip arp inspection trust" "ip arp inspection vlan 6"

Which of the following commands on a Windows OS should list both the IP address and DNS servers as learned with DHCP?

"ip config /all"

Switch SW1 needs to be configured to use DHCP Snooping in VLAN 5 and only VLAN 5. Which commands must be included, assuming at least one switch port in VLAN 5 must be an untrusted port? (Choose 2)

"ip dhcp snooping" "ip dhcp snooping vlan 5"

NAT has been configured to translate source addresses of packets for the inside part of the network, but only for some hosts as identified by an access control list. Which of the following commands indirectly identifies the hosts?

"ip nat inside source list 1 pool barney"

What command limits the messages sent to a syslog server to levels 4 through 0?

"logging trap 4"

On a multilayer switch, a switch needs to be configured to perform DHCP Snooping on some Layer 2 ports in VLAN 3. Which command may or may not be needed depending on whether the switch also acts as a DHCP relay agent?

"no ip dhcp snooping information option"

Which type value on the "spanning tree mode" type global command enables the use of RSTP?

"rapid-pvst"

Imagine that a switch connects through an Ethernet cable to a router, and the router's host name is Hannah. Which of the following commands could tell you information about the IOS version on Hannah without establishing a Telnet connection to Hannah? (Choose 2)

"show cdp entry Hannah" "show cdp neighbors detail"

Which of the following commands identify switch interfaces as being trunking interfaces; interfaces that currently operate as VLAN trunks? (choose 2)

"show interfaces switchport" "show interfaces trunk"

An engineer configures an ACL but forget to save the configuration. At that point, which of the following commands display the configuration of an IPv4 ACL, including line numbers? (Choose 2)

"show ip access-lists" "show access-lists"

Which of the following commands do not list the IP address and mask of at least one interface? (Choose 2)

"show ip interface brief" "show version"

Which of the following commands list the OSPF neighbors off interface serial 0/0? (Choose 2)

"show ip ospf neighbor" "show ip ospf neighbor serial 0/0"

A switch is cabled to a router whose host name is Hannah. Which of the following LLDP commands could identify Hannah's enabled capabilities? (Choose 2)

"show lldp neighbors" "Show lldp entry Hannah"

Which of the following commands list the MAC address table entries for MAC addresses configured by port security? (Choose 2)

"show mac address-table" "show mac address-table static"

Which of the following answers lists the prefix (CIDR) format equivalent of 255.255.254.0?

/23

Which of the following masks, when used as the only mask within a Class B network, would supply enough subnet bits to support 100 subnets? (Choose 2)

/24 255.255.255.252

Which of the following answers list the prefix (CIDR) equivalent of 255.255.255.240?

/28

Which of the following wildcard masks is most useful for matching all IP packets in subnet 10.1.128.0, mask 255.255.255.0?

0.0.0.255

A fellow engineer tells you to configure the DHCP server to lease the last 00 usable IP addresses in subnet 10.1.4.0/23. Which of the following IP addresses could be leased as a result of your new configuration?

10.1.255.200

Which of the following is the resident subnet ID for IP address 10.799.133/24?

10.799.0

Which of the following Ethernet standards defines Gigabit Ethernet over UTP cabling?

1000BASE-T

Which of the following is the most likely technology used for an access link to Metro Ethernet service?

100BASE-LX10

Which of the following are not valid Class A network IDs? (choose 2)

130.0.0.0 127.0.0.0

Which of the following are not valid Class B network Ids?

130.0.0.0 191.255.0.0 128.0.0.0. 150.255.0.0 (all are valid Class B network IDs)

Which of the following is a network broadcast address?

172.30.255.255

Which of the following are private IP networks? (Choose 2)

172.31.0.0 192.168.255.0

Which of the following is the subnet broadcast address for the subnet in which IP address 172.31.77.201/27 resides?

172.31.77.223

Which of the following are not private addresses according to RFC 1918? (Choose 2)

172.33.1.1 191.168.1.1

Which of the following is the resident subnet for IP address 192.168.44.97/30?

192.168.44.96

Which of the following answers list a valid number that can be used with standard numbered IP ACLs? (Choose 2)

1987 87

Which of the following are frequency bands commonly used for Wi-FI?

2.4 GHz 5 GHz

Which of the following summarized subnets represent routes that could have been created for CIDR's goal to reduce the size of Internet routing tables?

200.1.0.0 255.255.0.0

Which of the following is the correct abbreviated prefix for address 2000:0000:0000:0005:6000:0700:0080:0009, assuming a mask of /64?

2000:0:0:5::/64

Router R1 has an interface named Gigabit Ethernet 0/1, whose MAC address has been set to 5055.4444.3333. This interface has been configured with the ipv6 address 2000:1:1:1::/64 eui-64 subcommand. What unicast address will this interface use?

2000:1:1:1:5255:44FF:FE44:3333

Which of the following is the shortest valid abbreviation for 2000:0300:0040:0005:6000:0700:0080:0009?

2000:300:40:5:6000:700:80:9

Which of the following is the unabbreviated version of the IPv6 address 2001:DB8::200:28?

2001:0DB8:0000:0000:0000:0000:0200:0028

Which of the following answers lists the dotted-decimal notation (DDN) equivalent of /30?

255.255.255.252

Imagine a switch with three configured VLANs. How many IP subnets are required, assuming that all hosts in all VLANs want to use TCP/IP?

3

Which of the following IPv6 addresses appears to be a global unicast address, based on its first few hex digits?

3123:1:3:5::1

Which of the following bridge IDs wins election as root, assuming that the switches with these bridge IDs are in the same network?

4097:0200.1111.1111

What is the maximum number of WLANs you can configure on a Cisco wireless controller?

512

Wired Ethernet and Wi-Fi are based on which two IEEE standards, respectively?

802.3 802.11

Which of the following are public IP networks? (Choose 3)

9.0.0.0 192.1.168.0 1.0.0.0

An engineer wants to set up simple password protection with no usernames for switches in a lab, for the purpose of keeping curious coworkers form logging in to the lab switched from their desktop PCs. Whoch of the following commands would be a useful part of that configuration?

A "login" vty mode subcommand

The "show interfaces g0/1 trunk" command provides three lists of VLAN IDs. Which items would limit the VLANs that appear in the first of the three lists of VLANs?

A "switchport trunk allowed vlan" interface subcommand

An engineer had formerly configured a Cisco 2960 switch to allow Telnet access so that the switch expected a password of "mypassword" from the Telnet user. The engineer then changed the configuration to support Secure Shell. Which of the following commands could have been part of the new configuration? (Choose 2)

A "username" name secret password global configuration command

After configuring a working router interface with IP address/mask 10.1.100/26, which of the following routes would you expect to see in the output of the "show ip route" command? (Choose 2)

A connected route for subnet 10.1.1.64 255.255.255.192 A local route for host 10.1.1.100 255.255.255.255

A LAN design uses a Layer 3 EtherChannel between two switches SW1 and SW1 with port-channel interface 1 used on both switches. SW1 uses ports G0/1, G0/2, G0/3 in the channel. Which of the following are true about SW1's configuration to make the channel be able to route IPv4 packets correctly (choose 2)

A different speed (speed value) A default setting for switchport (switchport)

Switch SW1 connects via a cable to switch SW2's G0/1 port. Which of the following conditions is the most likely to cause SW1's late collision counter to continue to increment?

A duplex mismatch exists with SW1 set to half duplex

Which answers best describe options of how to implement security with scalable groups using DNA Center and SDA? (choose 2)

A human user from the DNA Center GUI An automation application using REST

A router has been configured with the ipv6 address 2000:1:2:3::1/64 command on its G0/1 interface as shown in the figure. The router creates a link-local address of FE80::FF:FE00:1 as well. The interface is working. Which of the following routes will the router add to its IPv6 routing table? (Choose 2)

A route for 2000:1:2:3::/64 A route for 2000:1:2:3::1/128

A router has been configured with the ipv6 address 3111:1:1:1::1/64 command on its G0/1 interface and ipv6 address 3222:2:2:2::1/64 on its G0/2 interface. Both interfaces are working. Which of the following routes would you expect to see in the output of the show ipv6 route connected command? (Choose 2)

A route for 3111:1:1:1::/64 A route for 3222:2:2:2::/64

Which one of the following is not needed for a lightweight AP in default local mode to be able to support three SSIDs that are bound to three VLANs?

A trunk link carrying three VLANs

Suppose you need to connect a lightweight AP to a network. Which one of the following link types would be necessary?

Access mode link

With the Cisco RPVST+, which of the following action(s) does a switch take to indetify which VLAN is described by a BPDU? (choose 3)

Adds a VLAN tag when forwarding a BPDU on trunks Adds the VLAN ID in an extra TLV in the BPDU Lists the VLAN ID in the system ID Extension field of the BPDU

The process of HTTP asking TCP to send some data and making sure that it is received correctly is an example of what?

Adjacent layer interaction

Which of the following are functions of a routing protocol? (choose 2)

Advertising known routes to neighboring routers Learning routes and putting those routes into the routing table for routes advertised to the router by its neighboring routers

To which types of nodes should an ACI leaf switch connect in a typical single-site design? (Choose 2)

All of the spine switches Some of the endpoints

RSTP adds features beyond STP that enable ports to be used for a role if another port on the same switch fails. Which of the following statements correctly describe a port role that is waiting to take over for another port role? (choose 2)

An alternate port waits to become a root port A backup port waits to become a designated port

R1 and R2 attach to the same Ethernet VLAN, with subnet 10.1.19.0/25, with addresses 10.1.19.1 and 10.1.19.2m respectively, configured with the "ip address" interface subcommand. The routers use HSRP. The network engineer prefers to have R1 be the default router when both R1 and R2 are up. Which of the following is the likely default router settting for hosts in this subnet?

Another IP address in subnet 10.1.19.0/25

Which of the following configuration management tools uses a push model to configure network devices?

Ansible

The only NTP configuration on router R1 is the "ntp server 10.1.1.1" command. Which answers describe how NTP works on the router?

As an NTP server only after the NTP client synchronizes with NTP server 10.1.1.1

Which answer describes how a LAN switch dynamically chooses the initial power level to a UTP cable with PoE?

Autonegotiation

Which one of the following terms best describes a Cisco wireless access point that operates in a standalone, independent manner?

Autonomous AP

The Cisco Meraki cloud-based APs are most accurately described by which one of the following statements?

Autonomous APs centrally managed

An access point is set up to offer wireless coverage in an office. Which one of the following is the correct 802.11 term for the resulting standalone network?

BSS

Which of the following attributes do QOS tools manage? (Choose 3)

Bandwidth Delay Loss

Which of the following port states are stable states used when STP has completed convergence? (choose 2)

Blocking Forwarding

An engineer connects routers R13 and R14 to the same Ethernet LAN and configures them to use OSPFv2. Which answers describe a combination of settings that would precent the two routers from becoming OSPF neighbors?

Both routers' OSPF process uses router ID 13.13.13.13

Which of the following terms describe Ethernet addresses that can be used to send one frame that is delivered to multiple devices on the LAN? (2 answers)

Broadcast Address Multicast Address

In a Lan, which of the following terms best equates to the term VLAN?

Broadcast Domain

Which one of the following is the data encryption and integrity method used by WPA2?

CCMP

Which answer list a matching software development CRUD action to an HTTP verb that performs that action? (Choose 2)

CRUD update and HTTP Patch CRUD read and HTTP GET

Which answer best describes the meaning of the term configuration drift?

Changes to a single device's configuration over time versus other devices that have the same role

Which of the following functions are supported by the FTP but not by TFTP? (choose 2)

Changing the current directory on the server Listing directory contents of a server's directory

An engineer configures a switch to put interfaces G0/1 and G0/2 into the same Layer 2 EtherChannel. Which of the following terms is used in the configuration commands?

Channel-group

Which of the following are considered to be nonoverlapping channels?

Channels 1,6, and 11 in the 2.4 GHz band Channels 40, 44, and 48 in the 5 GHz band

Which of the following is true about the CSMA/CD algorithm?

Collisions can happen, but the algorithm defines how the computers should notice a collision and how to recover

With Static NAT, performing translation for inside addresses only, what causes NAT table entries to be created?

Configuration using the "ip nat inside source" command

Which of the following describes a way to disable IEEE standard autonegotation on a 10/100 port on a Cisco switch?

Configure the "speed 100" and "duplex full" interface subcommands

Which answers list a task that could be helpful in making a router interface G0/0 ready to route packets? (Choose 2)

Configuring the "ip address" address mask command in G0/0 configuration mode Configuring the no shutdown command in G0/0 configuration mode

Which of the following installation steps are more likely required on a Cisco router, but not typically required on a Cisco switch? (Choose 2)

Connect serial cables Turn the on/off switch to "on"

A router uses OSPF to learn routes and adds those to the IPv4 routing table. That action occurs as part of which plane of the router?

Control Plane

Which two of the following things are bound together when a new WLAN is created?

Controller dynamic interface SSID

A company implements a TCP/IP network, with PC1 sitting on an Ethernet LAN. Which of the following protocols and features requires PC1 to learn information from some other server device?

DNS

The process of a web server adding a TCP header to the contents of a web page, followed by adding an IP header and then adding a data-link header and trailer, is an example of what?

Data Encapsulation

A Layer 2 switch examines a frame's destination MAC address and chooses to forward that frame out port G0/1 only. That action occurs as part of which plane of the switch?

Data Plane

A network uses an SDN architecture with switches and a centralized controller. Which of the following terms describes a function or functions expected to be found on the switches but not on the controller?

Data Plane Functions

What level of logging to the console is the default for a Cisco device?

Debugging

In a router running a recent IOS version (at least version 15.0), an engineer needs to delete the second line in ACL 101, which currently has four commands configured. Which of the following options could be used? (Choose 2)

Delete the entire ACL and reconfigure the three ACL statements that should remain in the ACL Delete one line from the ACL by entering ACL configuration mode for the ACL and then deleting only the second line based on its sequence number

Suppose an attacker sends a series of packets toward a destination IP address with the TCP SYN flag set but no other packet types. Which of the following attacks is likely taking place?

Denial-of-service attack

Which of the following does a router normally use when making a decision about routing TCP/IP packets?

Destination IP Address

A PC Connects to a LAN and uses DHCP to lease an IP address for the first time. Of the usual four DHCP messages that flow between the PC and the DHCP server, which ones do the client send? (Choose 2)

Discover Request

Which one of the following controller interfaces maps a WLAN to a VLAN?

Dynamic interface

Which one of the following is used as the authentication framework when 802.1x is used on a WLAN?

EAP

Which of the following routing protocols use a metric that is, by default, at least partially affected by the link bandwidth? (choose 2)

EIGRP OSPF

Eight virtual machines run on one physical server; the server has two physical Ethernet NICs. Which answer describes a method that allows all eight VMs to communicate?

Each VM uses a virtual NIC that logically connects to a virtual switch

Which of the following are true about the format of Ethernet addresses? (3 answers)

Each manufacturer puts a unique OUI code into the first 3 bytes of the address Each manufacturer puts a unique OUI code into the first half of the address The part of the address that holds this manufacturer's code is called the OUI

During a successful man-in-the-middle attack, which two of the following actions is an attacker most likely to perform?

Eavesdrop on traffic passing between hosts Modify data passing between hosts

Router R1 currently supports IPv4, routing packets in and out all its interfaces. R1's configuration needs to be migrated to support dual-stack operation, routing both IPv4 and IPv6. Which of the following tasks must be performed before the router can also support routing IPv6 packets? (Choose two answers.)

Enable Ipv6 on each interface using an ipv6 address interface subcommand Additionally enable IPv6 routing using the ipv6 unicast-routing global command

In which of the following modes of the CLI could you type the command "reload" and expect the switch to reboot?

Enable mode

Imagine that you have configured the "enable secret" command, followed by the "enable password" command, from the console. You log out of the switch and log back in at the console. Which command defines the password that you had to enter to access privileged mode?

Enable secret

Which of the following is required when configuring port security with sticky learning?

Enabling port security with the "switchport port-security" interface subcommand

Which of the following are necessary components of a secure wireless connection?

Encryption MIC Authentication

Which of the following protocols are examples of TCP/IP data-link layer protocols?

Ethernet and PPP

Which one of the following is not needed in a Cisco outdoor mesh network?

Ethernet cabling to each AP

For the IPv6 address FD00:1234:5678:9ABC:DEF1:2345:6789:ABCD, which part of the address is considered the global ID of the unique local address?

FD00

Which of the following IPv6 addresses appear to be a unique local unicast address, based on its first few hex digits?

FDAD::1

Which of the following is the shortest valid abbreviation for FE80:0000:0000:0100:0000:0000:0000:0123

FE80:0:0:100::123

Router R1 has an interface named Gigabit Ethernet 0/1, whose MAC address has been set to 0200:0001:000A. The interface is then configured with the ipv6 address 2001:1:1:1:200:FF:FE01:B/64 interface subcommand no other ipv6 address commands are configured on the interface. Which of the following answers lists the link local address used on the interface?

FE80::FF:FE01:A

Which of the following multicast addresses is defined as the address ofr sending packets to only the IPv6 routers on the local link?

FF02::2

Configuration monitoring (also called configuration enforcement) by a configuration management tool generally solves which problem?

Finding instances of configuration drift

ACL 1 has three statements, in the following order, with address and wildcard mask values as follows: 1.0.0.0 0.255.255.255, 1.1.0.0 0.0.255.255, and 1.1.1.0 0.0.0.255. If a router tried to match a packet sourced from IP address 1.1.1.1 using this ACL, which ACL statement does a router consider the packet to have matched?

First

Which of the following are typical functions of TCP? (Choose 4)

Flow Control (windowing) Error Recovery Multiplexing using port numbers Ordered Data Transfer

Which of the following RSTP port states have the same name and purpose as a port state in traditional STP? (choose 2)

Forwarding Learning

Which of the following terms is used specifically to identify the entity created when encapsulating data inside data-link layer headers and trailers?

Frame

Which of the following OSPF neighbor states is expected when the exchange of topology information is complete between two OSPF neighbors?

Full

A Cisco catalyst switch connects with its Gigabit0/1 port to an end user's PC. The end user, thinking the user us helping, manually sets the PC's OS to use a speed of 1000 Mbps and to use full duplex, and disables the use of autonegotiation. The switch's G0/1 port has default settings for speed and duplex. What speed and duplex setting will the switch decide to use? (choose 2)

Full duplex 1000 Mbps

Router R1 has a router-on-a-stick (ROAS) configuration with two subinterfaces of interface G0/1: G0/1.1 and G0/1.2. Physical interface G0/1 is currently in a down/down state. The network engineer then configures a "shutdown" command when in interface configuration mode for G0/1.1 and a "no shutdown" command when in interface configuration for G0/1.2. Which answers are correct about the interface state for the subinterfaces? (Choose 2)

G0/1.2 will be in a down/down state G0/1.1 will be in an adminstratively down state

Which actions show a behavior typically supported by a Cisco next-generation IPS (NGIPS) beyond the capabilities of a traditional IPS? (Choose 2)

Gather and use host-based information for context Filter URLs using reputation scores

Working at the help desk, you receive a call and learn a user's PC IP address and mask (10.55.66.77, mask 255.255.255.0). When Thinking about this using classful logic, you determine the number of network (N), subnet (S), and host (H)bits. Which of the following is true?

H=8

Devices using a wireless LAN must operate in which one of the following models?

Half duplex

A single-line ACL has been added to a router configuration using the command "ip access-list 1 permit 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255. The configuration also includes the "access-class 1 in" command in VTY configuration mode. Which answers accurately describes how the router uses ACL 1?

Hosts in subnet 172.16.4.0/23 alone can telnet into the router

Which of the following QoS marking fields could remain with a packet while being sent through four different routers, over different LAN and WAN links? (Choose 2)

IPP DCSP

Which one of the following is an example of AAA server?

ISE

Which of the following cloud services is most likely to be purchased and then used to later install your own software applications?

IaaS

A cisco catalyst switch connects to what should be individual user PC's. Each port has the same port security configuration, configured as follows: interface range gigabitethernet 0/1 -24 switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security mac-address sticky Which of the following answers describe the result of the port security configuration created with these commands? (Choose 2)

If a user connects a switch to the cable, prevents multiple devices form sending data through the port Will allow any one device to connect to each port but will not save that device's MAC address into the startup-config

R1 and R2 attach to the same Ethernet VLAN, with subnet 10.1.19.0/25, with addresses 10.1.19.1 and 10.1.19.2, respectively, configured with the ip "ip address" interface subcommand. The routers use an FHRP. Host A and host B attach to the same LAN and have correct default router settings per the FHRP configuration. Which of the following statements is true for this LAN?

If one router fails, both hosts will use the one remaining router as a default router

R1 and R2 attach to the same Ethernet VLAN, with subnet 10.1.19.0/25, with addresses 10.1.19.1 and 10.1.19.2, respectively, configured with the "ip address" interface subcommand. Host A refers to 10.1.19.1 as its default router, and host B refers to 10.1.19.2 as its default router. The routers do not use an FHRP. Which of the following is a problem for this LAN?

If one router fails, the host that uses that router as a default router cannot send packets off-subnet

Which answers list a criterion for choosing which router interfaces need to be configured as a DHCP relay agent? (choose 2)

If the subnet off the interface does not include a DHCP server If the subnet off the interface contains DHCP clients

Which of the following statements is true about classless IP addressing concepts?

Ignores Class A, B, and C network rules

Switch SW1 sends a frame to switch SW2 using 802.1Q trunking. Which of the answers describes how SW1 changes or adds to the Ethernet frame before forwarding the frame to SW2?

Inserts a 4-byte header and does not change the MAC addresses

When subnetting an IPv6 address block, an engineer shows a drawing that breaks the address structure into three pieces. Assuming that all subnets use the same prefix length, which of the following answers lists the name of the field on the far right side of the address?

Interface ID

A Layer 3 switch has been configured to route IP packets between VLANs 1,2, and 3 using SVI's, which connect to subnets 172.20.1.0/25, 172.20.2.0/25, and 172.20.3.0/25, respectively. The engineer issues a "show ip route connected" command on the Layer 3 switch, listing the connected routes. Which of the following answers lists a piece of information that should be in at least one of the routes?

Interface VLAN 2

IN which of the following modes of the CLI could you configure the duplex setting for interface Fast Ethernet 0/5?

Interface configuration mode

Router 1 has a Fast Ethernet interface 0/0 with IP address 10.1.1.1. The interface is connected to a switch. This connection is then migrated to use 802.1Q trunking. Which of the following commands could be part of a valid configuration for Router 1's Fa0/0 interface? (Choose 2)

Interface fastethernet 0/0.4 Encapsulation dot1q 4

A network engineer configures the ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 command on a router and then issues a "show ip route" command from enable mode. No routes for subnet 10.1.1.0/24 appear in the output. Which of the following could be true?

Interface s0/0/0 is down

A company has a small/medium sized network with 15 routes and 40 subnets and uses OSPFv2. Which of the following is considered an advantage of using a single area design as opposed to a multiarea design?

It allows for route summarization, reducing the size of IP routing tables

Which of the following statements describes part of the process of how a switch decides to forward a frame destined for a known unicast MAC address?

It compares the unicast destination address to the bridging, or MAC address table

Which of the following comparisons does a switch make when deciding whether a new MAC address should be added to its MAC address table?

It compares the unicast source address to the bridging, or MAC address, table

Which of the following statements best describes what a switch does with a frame destined for an unknown unicast address?

It forwards out all interfaces in the same VLAN except for the incoming interface

Which of the following statements describes part of the process of how a LAN switch decides to forward a frame destined for a broadcast MAC address?

It forwards the frame out all interfaces in the same VLAN except for the incoming interface

Physical access control is important for which one of the following reasons?

It prevents unauthorized access to network closets

Which of the following is true about the Ethernet FCS field?

It resides in the Ethernet trailer, not the Ethernet header

Which of the following data serialization and data modeling languages would be most likely to be used in a response from a REST-based server API used for networking application? (Choose 2)

JSON XML

Which one of the following correctly describes the single logical link formed by bundling all of a controller's distribution system ports together?

LAG

Which OSI encapsulation term can be used instead of the term frame?

Layer 2 PDU

An engineer hears about DHCP Snooping and decides to implement it/ Which of the following are the devices on which DHCP Snooping could be implemented? (Choose 2)

Layer 2 Switches Multilayer Switches

Which of the following are transitory port states used only during the process of STP convergence (choose 2)

Listening Learning

If a lightweight AP provides at least one BS for wireless clients, which one of the following modes does it use?

Local

In a spoofing attack, which of the following parameters are commonly spoofed? (choose 2)

MAC Address Source IP Address

Which one of the following is used to protect the integrity of data in a wireless frame?

MIC

Router R1 lists a route in its routing table. Which of the following answers list a fact from a route that the router uses when matching the packet's destination address? (Choose 2)

Mask Subnet ID

A next generation firewall sits at the edge of a company's connection to the Internet. It has been configured to prevent Telnet clients residing in the Internet from accessing Telnet servers inside the company. Which of the following might a next-generation firewall use that a traditional firewall would not?

Match message application data

Barney is a host with IP address 10.1.1.1 in subnet 10.1.1.0/24. Which of the following are things that a standard IP ACL could be configured to do? (Choose 2)

Match the exact source IP address Match all IP addresses in Barney's subnet with one "access list" command without matching other IP addresses

Which of the following are available methods of classifying packets in DiffServ on Cisco routers? (choose 3)

Matching the IP DSCP field Matching the 802.1 CoS field Matching fields with an extended IP ACL

Fred opens a web browser and connects to the www.certskills.com website. Which of the following are typically true about what happens between Fred's web browser and the web server? (Choose 2)

Messages flowing to the client typically use a source TCP port number of 80 Messages flowing to the server typically use TCP

Which of the following functions is performed by both TCP and UDP?

Multiplexing using port numbers

Working at the help desk, you receive a call and learn a user's PC IP address and masl (192.168.9.1/27). When thinking about this using classful logic, you determine the number of network (N), subnet (S), and host (H)bits. Which of the following is true in this case?

N=24

Which of the following was a short-term solution to the IPv4 address exhaustion problem?

NAT/PAT

PC1, PC2, and Router R1 all connect to the same VLAN and IPv6 subnet. PC1 wants to send its first IPv6 packet to PC2. What protocol or message will PC1 use to discover the MAC address to which PC1 should send the Ethernet frame that encapsulates this IPv6 packet?

NDP NS

Three virtual machines run on physical server. Which of the following server resources are commonly virtualized so each VM can use the required amount of that resource? (choose 3)

NIC RAM CPU

Before class B network 172.16.0.0 is subnetted by a network engineer, what parts of the structure of the IP addresses in this network already exist, with a specific size? (choose 2)

Network Host

Which of the following "network" commands, following the command "router ospf 1", tells this router to start using OSPF on interfaces whose IP addresses are 10.1.1.1, 10.1.100.1 and 10.1.120.1?

Network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0

A class B network needs to be subnetted such that it supports 100 subnets and 100 hosts/subnet. which of the following answers list a workable combination for the number of network, subnet, and host bits? (Choose 2)

Network = 16, subnet = 8, host = 8 Network = 16, subnet = 9, host = 7

Which of the following are network management features performed by both traditional network management software as well as by DNA Center? (Choose 2)

Network Device Discovery Device installation (day 0), configuration (day 1), and monitoring (day n) operations

When you think about an IP address using classful addressing rules, an address can have three parts: network, subnet, and host. If you examined all the addresses in one subnet, in binary, which of the following answers correctly states which of the three parts of the addresses will be equal among all addresses?

Network and subnet parts

Which of the following routing protocols is considered to use link-state logic?

OSPF (Open Shortest Path First)

Which of the following are required attributes of a REST-based API? (Choose 2)

Objects noted as to whether they can be cashed Client/server architecture

Which answer correctly describe the format of the JSON text below? (Choose 2) { "myvariable" :{1,2,3] }

One JSON object that has one key: value pair A JSON object whose value is a JSON array

In the Lan for a small office, some user devices connect to the LAN using a cable, while others connect using wireless technology (and no cable). Which of the following is true regarding the use of Ethernet in this LAN?

Only the devices that use cables are using Ethernet

Which of the following controllers (if any) uses a mostly centralized control plane model?

OpenDaylight Controller

In Cisco Software Defined Access (SDA), which term refers to the functions that deliver endpoint packets across the network using tunnels between the ingress and egress fabric nodes?

Overlay

Each answer lists two types of devices used in a 100BASE-T network. If these devices were connected with UTP Ethernet cables, which pairs of devices would require a straight-through cable (3 answers)

PC and Switch Router and Hub Wireless access point (Ethernet port) and switch

Which of the following cloud services is most likely to be used for software development?

PaaS

Which of the following topology terms most closely describe the topology created by a Metro Ethernet Tree (E-Tree) service? (Choose 2)

Partial Mesh Hub and Spoke

Which combinations of keywords on the channel-group interface subcommand on two neighboring switches will cause the switches to use LACP and attempt to add the link to the EtherChannel? (Choose 2)

Passive and Active Active and Active

Which of the following is true about Ethernet crossover cables for Fast Ethernet?

Pins 1 and 2 on one end of the cable connect to pins 3 and 6 on the other end of the cable

Which of the following behaviors are applied to a low latency queue in a Cisco router or switch? (choose 2)

Policing Priority scheduling

A Cisco Catalyst switch has 24 10/100 ports, numbered 0/1 through 0/24. Ten PCs connect to the 10 lowest numbered ports, with those PCs working and sending data over the network. The other ports are not connected to any device. Which of the following answers lists facts displayed by the show interfaces status command?

Port Fast Ethernet 0/5 is in a connected state

What STP feature causes an interface to be placed in the forwarding state as soon as the interface is physically active?

PortFast

Which of the following answers list a correct combination of configuration management tool and the term used for one of its primary configuration files? (Choose 2)

Puppet manifest Chef recipe

A queuing system has three queues serviced with round-robin scheduling and one low latency queue that holds all voice traffic. Round-robin queue 1 holds predominantly UDP traffic, while round-robin queues 2 and 3 hold predominantly TCP traffic. The packets in each queue happen to have a variety of DSCP markings per the QoS design. In which queues would it make sense to use a congestion avoidance (drop management) tool? (Choose 2)

Queue 2 Queue 3

Two routers, R1 and R2, connect using an Ethernet over MPLS service. The service provides point to point service between these two routers only, as a Layer 2 Ethernet service. Which of the following are the most likely to be true about this WAN? (2 Answers)

R1 will connect to a physical Ethernet link, with the other end of the cable connected to a device at the WAN service provider point of presence R1 will forward data-link frames to R2 using an Ethernet header/trailer

An engineer connects router R11 and R12 to the same Ethernet LAN and configures them to use OSPFv2. Which answers describe a combination of settings that would prevent the two routers from becoming OSPF neighbors? (choose 2)

R11's interface uses area 11 while R12's interface uses area 12 R11's interface uses an OSPF Hello timer value of 11 while R12's uses 12

Router R15 has been a working part of a network that uses OSPFv2. An engineer then issues the "shutdown" command in OSPF configuration mode on R15. Which of the following occurs?

R15 keeps all OSPF configuration but ceases all OSPF activities (routes, LSDB, neighbors)

What type of switch memory is used to store the configuration used by the switch when it is up and working?

RAM

Which of the following kinds of information are part of a DHCP server configuration? (Choose 2)

Ranges of IP addresses in subnets that the server should lease Ranges of IP addresses to not lease per subnet

Which of the following interior routing protocols support VLSM (Choose 3)

Ripv2 EIGRP OSPF

Which of the following pieces of infomration does a route supply in an NDP Router Advertisement (RA) message? (Choose 2)

Router IPv6 Address IPv6 prefix(es) on the link

Routers using R1 and R2, with router IDs 1.1.1.1 and 2.2.2.2, connect over an Ethernet WAN link. If using all default OSPF settings, if the WAN link initializes for both routers at the same time, which of the following answers are true? (Choose 2)

Router R1 will dynamically discover the existence of router R2 Router R1's "show ip ospf neighbor" command will list R2 with a state of "FULL/DR"

Routers R1 and R2 , with router IDs 1.1.1.1 and 2.2.2.2 , connect over an Ethernet WAN link. The configuration uses all defaults, except giving R1 an interface prority of 11 and changing both routers to use OSPF network type point-to-point. If the WAN link initializes for both routers at the same time, which of the following answers are true? (choose 2)

Router R1 will dynamically discover the existence of router R2 Router R2 will be neither the DR nor the BDR

Two routers using OSPFv2 have become neighbors and exchanged all LSAs. As a result, Router R1 now lists some OSPF-learned routes in its routing table. Which of the following best describes how R1 uses those recently learned LSAs to choose which IP routes to add to its OP routing table?

Run some SPF math against the LSAs to calculate the routes

suppose you would like to connect to a WLC to configure a new WLAN on it. Which one of the following is a valid method to use?

SSH HTTPS HTTP

Which of the following protocols or tools could be used as part of the Cisco DNA Center southbound interface? (Choose 3)

SSH NETCONF SNMP

Which of the following is a difference between Telnet and SSH as supported by a Cisco switch?

SSH encrypts all data exchange, including login passwords; Telnet encrypts nothing

Which of the following parameters are necessary when creating a new WLAN with the controller GUI?

SSID Interface

The process of TCP on one computer marking a TCP segment as segment 1, and the receiving computer then acknowledging the receipt of TCP segment 1 is an example of what?

Same-layer interaction

What do you call data that includes the Layer 4 protocol header, and data given to Layer 4 by the upper layers, not including any header and trailers from Layers 1 to 3? (choose 2)

Segment L4PDU

A Cisco Catalyst switch needs to send frames over a Layer 2 EtherChannel. Which answer best describes how the switch balances the traffic over the four active links in the channel?

Sends the entire frame over one link, choosing the link by applying some math to fields in each frame's headers

A lightweight access point is said to participate in which one of the following architectures?

Split-MAC

When subnetting an IPv6 address block, an engineer shows a drawing that breaks the address structure into three pieces. Comparing this concept to a three-part Ipv4 address structure, which part of the IPv6 address structure is most like the IPv4 network part of the address?

Subnet router anycast

Which of the following header fields identify which TCP/IP application gets data received by the computer? (Choose 2)

TCP Port Number UDP Port Number

Suppose you would like to select a method to protect the privacy and integrity of wireless data. Which one of the following methods should you avoid because it has been deprecated?

TKIP

A colleague mentions using a remote access VPN. Which of the following protocols or technologies would you expect your colleague to have used?

TLS

A layer 2 switch configuration places all its physical ports into VLAN 2. The IP addressing plan shows that address 172.16.2.250 (with mask 255.255.255.0) is reserved for use by this new LAN switch and that 172.16.2.254 is already configured on the router connected to that same VLAN. The switch needs to support SSH connections into the switch from any subnet in the network. Which of the following commands are part of the required configuration in this case? (Choose 2)

The "ip address 172.16.2.250 255.255.255.0 command in interface vlan 2 configuration mode The "ip default-gateway 172.16.2.254 command in global configuration mode

An engineer's desktop PC connects to a switch at the main site. A router at the main site connects to each branch office through a serial link, with one small router and switch at each branch. Which of the following commands must be configured on the branch office switches, in the listed configuration mode, to allow the engineer to telnet to the branch office switches and supply only a password to login? (Choose 3)

The "ip address" command in interface configuration mode The "ip default-gateway" command in global configuration mode The "password" command in vty line configuration mode

A LAN design uses a Layer 3 Etherchannel between two switches SW1 and SW2, with port-channel interface 1 used on both switches. SW1 uses ports G0/1, G0/2, and G0/3 in the channel. which of the folowing are true about SW1's configuration to make the channel be able to route IPv4 packets correctly? (Choose 2)

The "ip address" command must be on the port-channel 1 interface The port-channel 1 interface must be configured with the "no switchport" command

An engineer migrates from a more traditional OSPFv2 configuration that uses "network" commands in OSPF configuration mode to instead use OSPFv2 interface configuration. Which of the following commands configures the area number assigned to an interface in this new configuration?

The "ip ospf" command in interface configuration mode

The "show port-security interface f0/1" command lists a port status of secure-down. Which one of the following answers must be true about this interface at this time?

The "show interface status" command lists the interface status as err-disabled

Which of the following commands might you see associated with a router CLI, but not with a switch CLI?

The "show ip route" command

In a switch that disables VTP, an engineer configures the commands "vlan 30" and "shutdown vlan 30". Which answers should be true about this switch? (Choose 2)

The "show vlan brief" command should list VLAN 30 The "show running-config" command should list VLAN 30

The output of the "show ip interface brief" command on R1 lists interface status codes of "down" and "down" for interface GigabitEthernet 0/0. The interface connects to a LAN switch with a UTP straight-through cable. Which of the following could be true?

The "shutdown" command is currently configured for the switch interface on the other end of the cable

Which answers list criteria typical of a SOHO network? (Choose 2)

The AP functions using standalone mode A single networking device implements each function (router, switch, AP, and firewall functions)

An FTP client connects to an FTP server using active mode and retrieves a copy of a file from the server. Which of the answers describes a TCP connection initiated by the FTP client.

The FTP control connection

Which of the following facts determines how often a nonroot bridge or switch sends an STP Hello BPDU message?

The Hello timer as configured on the root switch

An enterprise connects 20 sites into an MPLS VPN WAN. The enterprise uses OSPF for IPv4 routes at all sites. Consider the OSPF area design options and the PE-CE links. Which of the following answers is most accurate about OSPF areas and the PE-CE link?

The PE-CE link may or may not be chosen to be in backbone area 0

Regarding lightweight AP modes, which one of the following is true?

The SE-Connect mode is used for spectrum analysis

An enterprise uses a Metro Ethernet WAN with an Ethernet LAN (E-LAN) service, with the company headquarters plus 10 remote sites connected to the service. The enterprise uses OSPF at all sites, with one router connected to the service from each site. Which of the following are true about the Layer 3 details most likely used with this service and design? (Choose 2)

The WAN uses one IP subnet

An enterprise uses an MPLS Layer 3 VPN with the company headquarters connected plus 10 remote sites connected to the service. The enterprise uses OSPF at all sites, with one router connected to the service from each site. Which of the following are true about the Layer 3 details most likely used with this service and design? (Choose 2)

The Wan uses 10 or more IP subnets A remote site router would have one OSPF neighbor

Which answers list an advantage of controller-based networks versus traditional networks? (choose 2)

The ability to configure the features for the network rather than per device More consistent device configuration

An enterprise moves away from manual configuration methods, making changes by editing centralized configuration files. Which answers list an issue solved by using a version control system with those centralized files? (Choose 2)

The ability to find which engineer changed the central configuration file on a date/time The ability to find the details of what changed in the configuration file over time

Which one answer gives the strongest match between one part of a typical three-tier design with the idea behind the listed generic topology design term?

The access layer looks like a star design

In a reflection attack, the source IP address in the attack packets is spoofed so that it contains which one of the following entitites?

The address of the vivtim

Which of the following is accurate about the NTP client function on a Cisco router?

The client synchronizes its time-of-day clock based on the NTP server

In a three tier campus LAN design, which of the following are typically true of the topology design? (Choose 2)

The design uses a partial mesh of links between access and distribution switches The design uses a partial mesh of links between the distribution and core switches

In a two-tier campus LAN design, which of the following are typically true of the topology design? (Choose 2)

The design uses a partial mesh of links between access and distribution switches The end-user and server devices connect directly to access layer switches

With dynamic NAT, performing translation for inside addresses only, what causes NAT table entries to be created?

The first packet from the inside network to the outside network

A network engineer spends time thinking about the entire Clas B network 172.16.0.0 and how to subnet that network. He then chooses how to subnet this Class B network and creates an addressing and subnetting plan, on paper, showing his choices. If you compare his thoughts about this network before subnetting the network to his thoughts about his network after mentally subnetting the network, which of the following occurred to the parts of the structure of addresses in this network?

The host part got smaller

Which of the following statements are true regarding the binary subnet ID, subnet broadcast address, and host IP address values in any single subnet? (Choose 2)

The host part of the subnet ID is all binary 0s The host part of any usable IP address must not be all binary 0's

Which of the following are true about a LAN-connected TCP/IP host and its IP routing (forwarding) choices?

The host sends packets to its default gateway if the destination IP address is in a different subnet than the host

The output of the "show interaces status" command on a 2960 switch shows interface Fa0/1 in a "disabled" state. Which of the following is true about interface Fa0/1?(choose 3)

The interface is configured with the shutdown command The "show interfaces fa0/1" command will list the interface with two status codes of administratively down and line protocol down The interface cannot currently be used to forward frames The interface cannot currently be used to forward frames

Switch SW1 uses its Gigabit 0/1 interface to connect to switch SW2's Gigabit 0/2 interface. SW2's Gi0/2 interface is configured with the "speed 1000" and "duplex full" commands. SW1 uses all defaults for interface configuration commands on its Gi0/1 interface. Which of the following are true about the link after it comes up? (Choose 2)

The link works at 1000 Mbps (1Gbps) Both switches use full duplex

Host A is a PC, connected to switch SW1 and assigned to VLAN 1. Which of the following are typically assigned an IP address in the same subnet as host A? (choose 2)

The local router's LAN interface Other hosts attached to the same switch and also in VLAN 1

Switch SW1 has been configured to use Dynamic ARP Inspection with DHCP Snooping in VLAN 5. An ARP request arrives on port G0/1. Which answer describes two items DAI always compares regardless of the configuration?

The message's ARP origin hardware address and the DHCP Snooping binding table

Which of the following are true about IP address 192.168.6.7's IP network? (Choose 2)

The network ID is 192.168.6.0 The default mask for the network is 255.255.255.0

Which of the following are true about IP address 172.16.99.45's IP network? (Choose 2)

The network is a class B network The number of host bits in the unsubnetted network is 16

An engineer configures a static IPv4 route on Router R1. Which of the following pieces of information should not be listed as a parameter in the configuration command that creates this static IPv4 route?

The next-hop router's neighboring interface

Which of the following is different on the Cisco switch CLI for a Layer 2 switch as compared with the Cisco router CLI?

The number of IP addresses configured

Think about a policing function that is currently working, and also think about a shaping function that is also currently working. That is, the current bit rate of traffic exceeds the respective policing and shaping rates. Which statements are true about these features?

The policer may or may not be discarding packets The shaper is definitely queueing packets to slow down the sending rate

Layer 2 switch SW2 connects a Layer 2 switch (SW1), a router (R1), a DHCP server (S1), and three PCs (PC1,PC2, and PC3). All PCs are DHCP clients. Which of the following are the most likely DHCP Snooping trust state configurations on SW2 for the ports connected to the listed devices? (Choose 2)

The port connected to switch SW1 is trusted The port connected to PC1 is untrusted

OSPF interface configuration uses the "ip ospf" process-id area area-number configuration command. In which modes do you configure the following settings when using this command?

The router ID is configured explicitly in router mode An interface's area number is configured in interface mode

A router connects to an Internet Service Provider (ISP) using its G0/0/0 interface, with the "ip address dhcp" command configured. What does the router do with teh DHCP learned default gateway information?

The router adds a default route based on the default gateway to its IP routing table

A router receives an Ethernet frame that holds an IPv6 packet. The router then makes a decision to route the packet out a serial link. Which of the following statements is true about how a router forwards an IPv6 packet?

The router discards the Ethernet data-link header and trailer of the received frame

An engineer types the command ipv6 route 2001:DB8:8:8::/64 2001:DB8:9:9:9::9 129 in configuration mode of router R1 and presses Enter. Later a show ipv6 route command does not list any route for subnet 2001:DB8:8:8::/64. Which of the following could have caused the route to not be in the IPv6 routing table?

The router has no routes that match 2001:DB8:9:9::9

A network engineer issues a "show running-config" command and sees only one line of output that mentions the "enable secret" command, as follows: enable secret 5 $1$ZGMA$e8cmvkz4UjiJhVp7.maLE1 Which of the following is true about users of this router?

The router will hash the clear-text password that the user types to compare to the hashed password

A switch's port Gi0/1 has been correctly enabled with port security. The configuration sets the violation mode to restrict. A frame that violated the port security policy enters the interface, followed by a frame that does not. Which of the following answers correctly describe what happens in this scenario? (choose two answers)

The switch generates syslog messages about the violating traffic for the first frame The switch increments the violation counter for Gi0/1 by 1

An actual potential to exploit a vulnerability is known as which one of the following terms?

Threat

How does a lightweight access point communicate with a wireless LAN controller?

Through a CAPWAP tunnel

Which of the following are advantages of using multimode fiber for an Ethernet link instead of UTP or single-mode fiber?

To extend the link beyond 100 meters while keeping initial costs as low as possible To make use of an existing stock of LED-Based SFP/SFP+ modules

Why does the formula for the number of hosts per subnet (2^H -2) require the subtraction of two host?

To reserve addresses for the subnet broadcast address and subnet ID

Which of the following SNMP messages are typically sent by an SNMP agent?

Trap Inform

Imagine that you are told that switch 1 is configured with the "dynamic auto" parameter for trunking on its Fa0/5 interface, which is connected to switch 2. You have to configure switch 2. Which of the following settings for trunking could allow trunking to work? (choose 2)

Trunk Dynamic desirable

An autonomous AP will be configured to support three WLANs that correspond to three VLANs. The AP will connect to the network over which one of the following?

Trunk mode link

Which one of the following is the goal of a brute-force attacks?

Try every possible combination of keyboard characters to guess a user's password

Which of the following fields in the HDLC header used by Cisco routers does Cisco add, beyond the ISO standard HDLC?

Type

Which of the following protocols are examples of TCP/IP transport layer protocols?

UDP and TCP

Which of the following refer to standards that deliver power over all four pairs in a UTP cable? (Choose 2)

UPoE UPoE+

Which of the following fields cannot be compared based on an extended IP ACL? (Choose 2)

URL Filename for FTP transfers

In Cisco Software Defined Access (SDA), which term refers to the devices and cabling, along with configuration that allows the network device nodes enough IP connectivity to send IP packets to each other?

Underlay

Which one of the following WLC deployment models would be best for a large enterprise with around 4000 lightweight APs?

Unified

In what modes can you type the command "show mac address-table" and expect to get a response with MAC table entries? (choose two)

User mode Enable mode

Which of the following answers is most accurate about access link options for an MPLS network?

Uses a wide variety of Layer and Layer 2 networking technologies

An enterprise plans to start using a public cloud service and is considering different WAN options. The answers list four options under consideration. Which one option has the most issues if the company chooses one cloud provider but then later wants to change to use a different cloud provider instead?

Using a private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider

A Network Management Station (NMS) is using SNMP to manage some Cisco routers and switches with the SNMPv2c. Which of the follwing answers most accurately describes how the SNMP agent on a router authenticates any SNMP get requests received from the NMS?

Using either the read-write or read-only community string

Some IOS commands store passwords as clear text, but you can then encrypt the passwords with the "service password-encryption" global command. By comparison, other commands store a computed hash of the password instead of storing the password. Comparing the two options, which one answer is the most accurate about why one method is better than the other?

Using hashes is preferred because encrypted IOS passwords can be easily decrypted

An enterprise plans to start using a public cloud service and is considering different WAN options. The answers list four options under consideration. Which options provide good security by keeping the data private while also providing good QoS services (choose 2)

Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider Using an intercloud exchange

A switch user is currently in console line configuration mode. Which of the following would place the user in enable mode? (choose 2)

Using the end command once Pressing the Ctrl+Z sequence once

A switch has just arrived from Cisco. The switch has never been configured with any VLANs, but VTP has been disabled. An engineer configures the "vlan 22" and "name Hannahs-VLAN" commands and then exits configuration mode. Which of the follwing are true? (choose 2)

VLAN 22 is listed in the output of the "show vlan brief" command VLAN 22 is listed in the output of the "show running-config" command

An engineer has successfully configured a Layer 3 switch with SVIs for VLANs 2 and 3. Hosts in the subnets using VLANs 2 and 3 can ping each other with the Layer 3 switch routing the packets. The next week, the network engineer receives a call that those same users can no longer ping each other. If the problem is with the Layer 3 switching function, which of the following could have caused the problem? (choose 2)

VTP on the switch removing VLAN 3 from the switch's VLAN list A "shutdown" command issued from VLAN 2 configuration mode

In Software Defined Access (SDA) , which of the answers are part of the overlay data plane?

VXLAN

Which one of the following terms means anything that can be considered to be a weakness that can compromise security?

Vulnerability

Which one of the following is a wireless encryption method that has been found to be vulnerable and is not recommended for use?

WEP

the Wi-Fi Alliance offers which of the following certifications for wireless devices that correctly implement security standards?

WPA2

A pre-shared key is used in which of the following wireless security configurations?

WPA2 personal mode WPA3 personal mode

Which one of the following can be used to provide wireless connectivity to a nonwireless device?

Workgroup bridge

Which of the following "access-list" commands matches all packets sent from hosts in subnet 172.16.4.0/23?

access-list 1 permit 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255

Which of the following access-list commands permit packets going from host 10.1.1.1 to all web servers whose IP addresses begin with 172.16.5? (Choose 2)

access-list 101 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www access-list 253 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www

Which of the following access list commands permits packets going to any web client from all web servers whose IP addresses begin with 172.16.5?

access-list 2523 permit tcp 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.2555 eq www any

In the URL http;//blog.certskills.com/config-labs , which part identifies the web server?

blog.certskills.com

Which of the following configuration settings on a router does not influence which IPv4 route a router chooses to add to its IPv4 routing table when using OSPFv2?

delay

Examine the following URL that works with a Cisco DNA Controller: https://dnac/example.com/dna/intent/api/v1/network-device?managementIPAddress=10.10.22.74 Which part of the URL, per the API documentation, is considered to identify the resource but not any parameters?

dna/intent/api/v1/network-device

Which of the following commands correctly configures a static route?

ip route 10.1.3.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.130.253

Router R1 has an interface named Gigabit Ethernet 0/1, whose MAC address has been set to 0200.0001.000A. Which of the following commands, added in R1's Gigabit Ethernet 0/1 configuration mode, gives this router's G0/1 interface a unicast IPv6 address of 2001:!:1:1:1:200:1:A, with a /64 prefix length?

ipv6 address 2001:1:1:1:1:1:200:1:A/64

An engineer needs to add a static IPv6 route for prefix 2000:1:2:3::/64 to Router R5 in the figure shown with question 1. Which of the following answers shows a valid static IPv6 route for that subnet on Router R5?

ipv6 route 2000:1:2:3::/64 2000:1:2:56::6

An engineer needs to add a static IPv6 route for prefix 2000:1:2:3::/64 to Router R5's configuration, in the figure shown with question 1. Which of the following answers shows a valid static IPv6 route for that subnet, on Router R5?

ipv6 route 2000:1:2:3::/64 S0/1/1

Which of the following line subcommands tells a switch to wait until a show command's output has completed before displaying log messages on the screen?

logging synchronous